Professional Documents
Culture Documents
and Investment∗
Dr. Ir. Budhi Arta Surya
∗ The materials of this course are based on the references listed at the end of this slide.
An Introduction to Capital Markets and Investment
Preliminary
Before we proceed with the content materials of this course, let us first make some
definitions and conventions that will be used throughout this course.
Denote by Pt the price of an asset at date t. Assume that this asset pays no dividends.
The simple net return, Rt, on the asset between dates t − 1 and t is defined as
Pt
Rt = − 1.
Pt−1
The simple gross return on the asset is 1 + Rt.
The asset’s multiyear gross return 1 + Rt (n) over recent n periods is defined by
Pt Pt Pt−1 Pt−2 Pt−n+1
1 + Rt(n) := = × × × ··· ×
Pt−n Pt−1 Pt−2 Pt−3 Pt−n
= (1 + Rt ) × (1 + Rt−1) × · · · × (1 + Rt−n+1)
n−1
Y
= (1 + Rt−j ).
j=0
Multiyear returns are normally annualized to make investments with different horizons
comparable. The annualized multiyear return is defined by
h n−1
Y i 1/n
a
Rt (n) = (1 + Rt−j ) − 1.
j=0
Pt
rt := log(1 + Rt ) = log = pt − pt−1, where pt := log Pt .
Pt−1
To distinguish Rt from rt , we shall refer to Rt as a simple return.
One of the most common models for asset returns is the independent and identically
distributed (IID) normal model, in which returns are assumed to be independent over
time, identically distributed over time, and normally distributed. The original
formulation of the CAPM employed this assumption of normality.
Remarks The normality assumption suffers from at least two important drawbacks:
• The smallest net return achievable is −1 whereas the normal distribution’s support
is the entire real line. Hence, the lower bound of −1 is clearly violated.
• If single-period returns are assumed to be normal, then multiperiod returns cannot
also be normal since they are the products of the single-period returns.
Under the lognormal assumption, if the mean and variance of rit are µi and σi2,
respectively, then the mean and variance of simple returns are given by
µi +σi2/2
E Rit = e −1
(1)
2µi +σi2 σi2
Var Rit = e e −1 .
The lognormal model has a long history dating back to the dissertation of Bachelier
(1900) and the work of Einstein (1905), containing the math of Brownian motion and
heat conduction. The model has underpinned the financial asset pricing theory.
The stylized fact of log-returns exhibit a deviation from the normality assumption. At
short horizons, historical returns show weak evidence of skewness and strong evidence
of excess kurtosis. The normal distribution has skewness 1 equal to zero, as do all
other symmetric distributions, and kurtosisequal to 3, but fat-tailed distributions with
extra probability mass in the tail areas have higher or even ∞ kurtosis.
h 3i h i
1 Normalized third and fourth moment of a r.v. X is defined by E (X−µ) (X−µ)4
and E , respectively.
σ3 σ4
30
Asymm NIG Asymm NIG
Gaussian Gaussian
0.10
25
0.05
20
Sample Quantiles
log(Density)
0.00
Density
15
−0.05
10
−1
−0.10
5
−2
−0.15
0
−3
−0.15 −0.05 0.05 −0.15 −0.05 0.05 −0.15 −0.05 0.05 0.15
Figure 1: Histogram and density fits of Normal and NIG distributions to log-return of
CS data. Observe that the assumption on normality of the log-return is violated.
More recently, Malkiel (1992) has offered the following more explicit definition:
Malkiel’s idea on measuring the market efficiency by measuring the profits that can be
made by trading on information lays the foundation of almost all the empirical work on
market efficiency. It has been used in two main ways.
• First, many researchers have tried to measure the profits earned by market
professionals such as mutual fund managers. If these managers achieve superior
returns (after adjustment for risk) then the market is not efficient with respect to
the information possessed by the fund managers.
• This approach has the advantage that it concentrates on real trading by real
market participants.
• But is has the disadvantage that one cannot directly observe the information
used by the managers in their trading strategies3.
According to Roberts (1967), the classic taxonomy of information sets can be divided
into three forms:
• Weak-form Efficiency The information set includes only the history of prices or
returns themselves.
• Semistrong-form Efficiency The information set includes all information known
to all market participants (publicly available information).
• Strong-form Efficiency The information set includes all information known to any
market participant.
Samuelson (1965) was the first to show the relevance of the Law of Iterated
Expectations for security market analysis5 .
To state the law, let us define two information sets (sometime known as filtrations)
Ft and Gt that are available to market participants at time t, where Ft ⊂ Gt so that
all the information contained in Ft is also contained in Gt , i.e., Gt contains extra
information compared to Ft . (In this case Gt is also known as enlarged filtration.)
In other words, if one has limited information Ft, the best forecast one can make of a
random variable X is the forecast of the forecast one would make of X if one had
superior information Gt . The expression (2) can rewritten as
E X − E X Gt Ft = 0, (3)
which has an intuitive interpretation that one cannot use limited information Ft to
predict the forecast error one would make if one had superior information Gt .
Suppose that a security price at time t, Pt, can be written as the rational expectation
of some ”fundamental value” V ⋆, conditional on information Ft available at time t,
⋆
Pt = E V Ft .
The same reasoning applies to the security price Ps at time s > t, that is
⋆
Ps = E V Fs .
Thus, realized changes in prices are unforecastable given information set Ft . From this
relatively elementary exercise we deduce martingale property of security prices:
E Ps Ft = Pt.
The essential passage behind the martingale concept is the notion of a fair game, a
game which is neither in the favor of an investor nor his/her opponent’s.
The notion of martingale has become a powerful tool and important applications
modern theories of asset prices - it has revolutionized the pricing of complex financial
instruments such as fixed income, options, swaps, and other derivative securities.
Needless to say, the martingale has become an integral part of every scientific
discipline concerning with asset model of asset prices: the random walk hypothesis.
2
Pt = µ + Pt−1 + ǫt, where ǫt ∼ IID(0, σ ), (4)
where µ is the expected price change or drift, and IID(0, σ 2) denotes that ǫt is
independently and identically distributed with mean 0 and variance σ 2.
It is apparent from (5) that the RW (4) is nonstationary and conditional mean and
variance are both linear in time.
Remarks The independence of the increments of {ǫt} implies that the random
walk is also a fair game, but in a much stronger sense than the martingale:
Independence implies not only that increments are uncorrelated, but that any
nonlinear functions of the increments are also uncorrelated.
Perhaps the most common distributional assumption for the innovations or increments
ǫt is normality. If ǫt ’s are IID N (0, σ 2), then (4) is equivalent to an arithmetric
Brownian motion, sampled at regularly spaced unit intervals.
This distributional assumption simplifies many calculations, but violates the limited
liability condition: the price must be nonnegative. (If the conditional distribution of Pt
is normal, then there will always be a positive probability that Pt < 0.)
However, when natural logarithm of prices pt := log Pt follows a random walk with
normally distributed increments ǫt, i.e.,
2
pt = µ + pt−1 + ǫt , ǫt are IID N (0, σ ),
the returns pt’s follow the lognormal model of Bachelier (1900) and Einstein (1905).
This model relaxes the assumptions of RW1 to include processes with independent but
identically distributed increments. An example of this type of process, consider
The Economic model is a statistical model which gives the opportunity to calculate
more precise measures of the return of any given security using proper economic
indicators.
1. Constant-Mean-Return Model
Let µi , the ith element of µ, be the mean return for asset i. The
constant-mean-return model is defined by
Rit = µi + ξit
where E ξit = 0 and Var ξit = σξ2 .
i
where Rit , the ith element of Rt , is the period-t return on security i, ξit is the
zero-mean disturbance term, and σξ2 is the (i, i) element of Σ.
i
2. Market Model
The model is a statistical model which relates the return of any given security to the
return of the market portfolio. For any security i, the model is specified by
where
• Rit and Rmt are the period-t returns on security i and the market portfolio,
respectively,
• ξit is the zero-mean disturbance term,
• and αi , βi and σξ2 are the parameters of the market model.
i
In applications, a broad based stock index is used for the market portfolio, with the
S&P500 index, etc. (incl. CRSP value-weighted index, and the CRSP equal-weighted
index being popular choice.)
Ri = Xi θi + ξi (8)
where
• The Sharpe and Lintner derivations of the CAPM assume the existence of lending
and borrowing at a risk-free rate of interest. The Sharpe and Lintner’s CAPM model is
E Ri = Rf + βim E Rm − Rf (9)
hRi, Rmi Cov Ri , Rm
βim = := (10)
hRm, Rmi Var Rm
Define Zi := Ri − Rf . Then, for the Sharpe and Lintner’s CAPM model we have
E Zi = βimE Zm
hZi , Zm i
βim = (11)
hZm, Zmi
where Zm := Rm − Rf is the excess return on the market portfolio of assets.
In the case where the risk-free interest rate Rf is nonstochastic6 (10) = (11).
6 implying that hR , R i = 0.
i f
In the absence of riskfree asset, Black (1972) derived a more general version of CAPM,
known as the Black version. In this version, the expected return of asset i in excess of
the zero-beta return is linearly related to its beta. Specifically, the model is given by
E Ri = E Rom + βim E Rm − E Rom ,
where Rom is the return on the zero-beta portfolio 7 associated with market portfolio
m. The analysis of the Black version of CAPM treats the zero-beta portfolio return as
unobserved quantity, making the analysis more complicated than the Sharpe-Lintner.
For the Black model, returns are generally stated on an inflation-adjusted basis. The
model can be tested as a restriction on the real-return market model, i.e.,
E Ri = αim + βimE Rm
hRi , Rmi
βim =
hRm, Rmi
αim = E Rom 1 − βim
7 This portfolio is defined to be the portfolio that has the minimum variance of all portfolios uncorrelated with m. (Any
other uncorrelated portfolio would have the same expected return, but a higher variance.)
• investors behave so as to maximize the expected utility of their wealth at the end
of a single period.
• investors choose among alternative portfolios according to expected return and
variance (or standard deviation) in return
• borrowing and lending are unlimited and take place at an exogeneously determined
risk-free rate.
• all investors share identical subjective estimates of the means, variances, and
covariances of return of all assets.
• assets are completely divisible and perfectly liquid, with no transactions costs
incurred in their purchase or sale.
• all investors are priced takers8, there are no taxes, and the quantities of all assets
are fixed.
8 in a perfectly competitive market, no individual’s decisions to buy or sell will affect the market price; hence, individuals
must simply accept the market price when they trade.
• Assume that returns are IID through time and jointly multivariate normal.
• The expected returns of at least two assets differ
• The covariance matrix Σ := E RR′ is of full rank - invertible.
′
Denote µ := E R and Σ := E RR . Portfolio p has mean return and variance
hRp, Rq i = xp′Σxq .
The first order Euler condition gives us the following system of equations
1 ′ −1 1 ′ −1
1 Σ µ λ1 + 1 Σ 1 λ2 =1
2 2
(17)
1 ′ −1 1 ′ −1
µ Σ µ λ1 + µ Σ 1 λ2 =µp .
2 2
xp = g + hµp,
1 −1 −1
g = BΣ 1 − AΣ µ
D
1 −1 −1
h = CΣ µ − AΣ 1 ,
D
g is the minimum variance portfolio. op is the zero-beta portfolio w.r.t the portfolio
p, as this portfolio has a zero covariance with the portfolio p, i.e., hRop, Rpi = 0.
Let Rf be the return of risk-free asset. The portfolio optimization amounts to solving
′
min x′Σx, ′
subject to x µ + 1 − x 1 Rf = µp (18)
x
1 −1
x= Σ λ µ − Rf 1 . (22)
2
By inserting x (22) in (21), we get
(µp − Rf ) −1
λ= Σ µ − Rf 1 ,
(µ − Rf 1)
(µp − Rf )
xp = Σ−1 µ − Rf 1 .
(µ − Rf 1)Σ−1 µ − Rf 1
Note that we can express xp as a scalar which depends on the mean of p times a
portfolio weight vector which does not depend on p, i.e.,
xp = Cpb
x.
With a risk-free asset, all efficient portfolios lie along the line from the risk-free asset
to the tangency portfolio, whose slope measures the market price of risk. The
tangency portfolio can be characterized as the portfolio with the maximum Sharpe
ratio of all portfolios of risky assets.
This portfolio of risky assets is called the tangency portfolio and has weight vector
−1
Σ µ − Rf 1
xq = ′ −1 . (23)
1Σ µ − Rf 1
With a risk-free asset, all efficient portfolios lie along the line from the risk-free asset
to the tangency portfolio, whose slope measures the market price of risk.
The tangency portfolio can be characterized as the portfolio with the maximum
Sharpe ratio of all portfolios of risky assets.
In the next section below we will derive the Sharpe-Lintner CAPM model (9).
The model can be derived as follows. Replace x by the tangency portfolio xq (23) in
the equation (20) so that 1′ xq = 1 and multiply xm to both sides to get
′
2xmΣxm = λxm µ − Rf 1 = λ µm − Rf
σip
µi − Rf = 2 Rm − Rf = βi Rm − Rf .
σm
• Debt: money borrowed from the bank will grow according to the same formulas.
• Money market In reality there are many different rates9 each day applied to
different circumstances, different user classes, and different periods.
• Examples: US Treasury bills and notes, LIBOR rate, Mortgage rate, inflation rate, etc.
9 Most rates are established by the forces of supply and demand in broad market to which they apply
Definition 3. [Future value of a stream] Given a cash flow stream (x0 , x1 , ..., xn)
and interest rate r each period, the future value of the stream is defined by
n n−1
FV = x0 (1 + y) + x1 (1 + y) + ... + xn
.Example Consider the cash flow stream (−2, 1, 1, 1) when the periods are years and
the interest rate is 10%. The future value is given by
3 2
FV = −2 × (1.1) + 1 × (1.1) + 1 × (1.1) + 1 = +0.648
.
Definition 4. [Net present value of a stream] Given a cash flow stream
(x0 , x1 , ..., xn ) and interest rate y each period, the present value of this stream is
x1 x2 xn
PV = x0 + + 2
+ ... + n
.
1+y (1 + y) (1 + y)
Example Consider the cash flow stream (−2, 1, 1, 1). Using an interest rate of 10%,
1 1 1
PV = −2 + + + = +0.487.
1.1 (1.1)2 (1.1)3
The concept pertains especially to the entire cash flow streams associated with an
investment. The streams to which the concept is applied typically have both negative
elements (payments that must be made) and positive elements (payments received).
• [Main theorem of internal rate of return] 10]. Let (x0 , x1 , ..., xn ) be cash flow
stream with x0 < 0 and xk ≥ 0 for all k, k = 1, 2, ..., n, with at least one term
being strictly positive. Suppose that there exist an internal rate of return y ⋆
satisfying 1/(1 + y ⋆) = c⋆. Then, it can be shown that c⋆ solves uniquely
2 n
0 = x0 + x1 c + x2c + ... + xnc . (24)
Pn
Furthermore, if k=0 xk > 0 (the total amount returned exceeds the initial
investment), then the internal rate of return y ⋆ = 1/c⋆ − 1 is strictly positive.
• See equation (??) for further numerical discussion on solving equation (24).
• Cycle Problems. When using interest rate theory to evaluate ongoing (repeatable)
activities, it is essential that alternatives be compared over the same time horizon.
• Net Flows. In conducting a cash flow analysis using either NPV or IRR, it is
essential that the net of income minus expenses be used as the cash flow each period.
• The net profit usually can be found in a straightforward manner, but the process can be subtle in
complex situations, e.g., certain tax-accounting costs and profits are not always equal to actual cash
outflows or inflows.
• Taxes. If a uniform tax rate were applied to all revenues and expenses as taxes and
credits, respectively, then recommendations from before-tax and after-taxes analyses
would be identical.
• Inflation is another economic factor that causes confusions, arising from the choice
between using actual dollar values to describe cash flows and using values expressed in
purchasing power, determined by reducing inflated future dollar values back to a
nominal level.
Inflation: Continued
• Another way to look at inflation is that it erodes the purchasing power of money.
A dollar today does not purchase as much bread or milk as a dollar did ten years
ago. If the inflation rate is f , then the value of a dollar next year in terms of
purchasing power of today’s dollar is 1/(1 + f ).
• In reality, inflation rates do not remain constant, but may fluctuate randomly.
• we define a new interest rate, termed the real interest rate r0, which is the rate at
which real dollars increase if left in a bank that pays the nominal interest rate r .
• We denote by P (t) the value at time zero of t−bond, i.e., P (t) := P (0, t).
[Remarks]
• Borrow one unit of S−bond at time t and sell it to get $P (t, S).
• Use the $P (t, S) cash to buy at time t P (t, S)/P (t, T ) units of T −bonds.
• At time S , the S−bond matures, so we have to pay back $1 at time S .
• At time T , the T −bonds mature and worth $P (t, S)/P (t, T ).
• Based on the financial contract written at time t, $1 investment at time S will
give me $P (t, S)/P (t, T ) at time T .
• Thus, at time t we have made a contract which guarantees a riskless rate of
interest L over the future interval [S, T ]. Such an interest is called a forward rate.
• So, the simple forward rate L satisfies the relation:
P (t, S) R(T −S) P (t, S)
1 + (T − S)L = or e = .
P (t, T ) P (t, T )
• Simple forward rate (LIBOR rate) for [S, T ] contracted at time t is defined as
P (t, T ) − P (t, S)
L(t; S, T ) = − .
(T − S)P (t, T )
• Simple spot rate (LIBOR spot rate) for the period [S, T ] is defined as
P (S, T ) − 1
L(S, T ) = − . (25)
(T − S)P (S, T )
• Continuously compounded forward rate for [S, T ] is defined as
log P (t, T ) − log P (t, S)
R(t; S, T ) = − .
(T − S)
• Continuously compounded spot rate for the period [S, T ] is defined as
log P (S, T )
R(S, T ) = − .
(T − S)
• Instantaneous forward rate with maturity T contracted at time t is defined as
∂ log P (t, T )
f (t, T ) = − . (26)
∂T
• Instantaneous short rate at time t is defined as r(t) = f (t, t).
• Problem Find a smooth curve g that fits the term structure f (t) := f (0, t), for 0 ≤ t ≤ T , of
forward rates that satisfies a maximum smoothness criterion defined by
Z T
f ′′2 (u)du. (27)
0
where Pi = P (ti), for i = 1, 2, ..., m, with P0 = 1, are given prices of discount bonds with
maturities 0 < t1 < t2 < ... < tm < T .
• Using the Lagrange multipliers method, solution to the problem (27)-(28) is that
2 3 4
f (t) = ai + bi t + ci t + di t + ei t , ti−1 < t ≤ ti , i = 1, 2, ..., m + 1
where the coefficients ai , bi , ci , di, ei are such that the functionsf, f ′ , f ′′ , f ′′′ are continuous at
Rt P
each knot points tj , j = 1, ..., m, and t i f (u)du = − log P i , i = 1, 2, ..., m
i−1 i−1
As the yield curve y(t) makes parallel shift of amount y for each t, i.e.,
ynew(t) = y(t) + y , the PV changes accordingly to
X n X n
∂P V −y(ti )ti
=− ti e X(ti ) = − ti P (ti )X(ti ).
∂y i=1 i=1
Macaulay duration13 DX (of flows X )defined as the percentage change of PV, i.e.,
Pn
1 ∂P V ti P (ti )X(ti )
DX = − = Pi=1 n . (29)
PV ∂y i=1 P (ti )X(ti )
Hence, Duration can also be seen as the PV-weighted average of time to maturity.
12 referring to the 1930 work of Macaulay.
13 Also known as the Fisher-Weil duration.
Examples of Duration
Consider a three-year 10% coupon bond with a face value of $100. Suppose that the
yield on the bond is 12% per annum with continuous compounding. This means that
y = −0.12. Coupon payments of $5 are made every six months.
Time (yrs) Payment ($) Present Value Weight Time × Weight
0.5 5 4.709 0.05 0.025
1.0 5 4.435 0.047 0.047
1.5 5 4.176 0.044 0.066
2.0 5 3.933 0.042 0.084
2.5 5 3.704 0.039 0.098
3.0 105 73.256 0.778 2.334
Total 130 94.213 1.00 2.654
The purchase of a zero-coupon bond would provide one of the solution. However,
zero-coupon bonds are not always available for the desired maturity. Alternatively, the
firm may invest in corporate bonds having the same yield of 9%
Security Maturity Price Yield Duration
Bond 1 30 69.04 9% 11.44
Bond 2 10 113.01 9% 6.54
Bond 3 20 100.00 9% 9.61
A bond with a longer duration is required. So, the firm decides to use bonds 1 and 2.
V1 + V2 = P Vobligation
(30)
D1 V1 + D2V2 = 10P Vobligation
[Remarks]
• The first equation states that the total value of the portfolio must equal the total
present value of the obligation.
• The second equation states that the duration of the portfolio must equal the
duration (10 years) of the obligation.
W = X1 + θX2.
The changes of the hedging portfolio to the parallel shift in the term structure of
interest rate can be written in terms of duration of each security as
∂W ∂X1 ∂X2
= X1 + θX2 = −X1 DX1 − θX2DX2 ,
∂y X1 ∂y X2∂y
X1 DX1
θ=− , (31)
X2 DX2
This is called the duration-based hedge ratio, or price sensitivity hedge ratio.
Suppose that the discount factors (P (ti ), i = 1, 2, ..., n are replaced by the one
that has the same interest rate (yield to maturity) at each maturity, i.e.,
1
P (ti ) = ,
[1 + (y/m)]i−1+x
However, the formula doesn’t measure the percentage change in PV for a small
change in the discrete yield to maturity, as explained further on the next page.
Modified Duration
• The two formulas are the same for continuous compounding yield.
• In terms of the hedge ratio, see eqn. (31), the modified duration may induce hedging
error if the bond to be hedged and the hedging instrument have different amounts of
accrued interest. This impact is known as the accrued interest rate effect.
• The impact is obviously most significant when the yield curve has a significant slope.
• The duration only measures the linear relationship between the percentage change
∆P/P in present value and change ∆y in yield of a bond portfolio.
• For large yield changes, the portfolio may behave differently as the relationship may
not be linear. A factor known as convexity measures this curvature and can therefore
be used to improve the relationship in (29).
Pn 2
1 ∂ 2P V ti P (ti )X(ti )
CX = 2
= Pi=1
n . (32)
PV ∂y i=1 P (ti )X(ti )
dP 1 d2 P 2
∆P = ∆y + (∆y)
dy 2 dy 2
1
= − DP ∆y + CP (∆y)2 .
2
What is Yield-to-Maturity?
The yield to maturity of a bond is a discount rate which equates the PV of the bond’s
payments to its price. Thus if Pnt is the time t price of a discount bond that makes a
single payment of $1 at time t + n, and Ynt is the bond’s YTM, we then have
1
Pn,t = , (33)
(1 + Yn,t )n
Taking the natural algorithm on both sides of the above equation, we have
1
yn,t = − pn,t . (35)
n
The term structure of interest rates is the set of YTMs, at a given time, on bonds of
different maturities. The yield curve is a plot of the term structure, that is the plot of
Yn,t or yn,t against n on some particular date t.
Yield-to-Maturity
18
16
14
Annualized percentage points ← 10−year yield
12
10
4 ← 1−month yield
0
1950 1955 1960 1965 1970 1975 1980 1985 1990 1995
Holding-Period Returns
The holding-period return on a bond is the return over some holding period less than
the bond’s maturity. Define Rn,t+1 as the one-period holding-period return on an
n−period bond purchased at time t and sold at time t + 1, i.e.,
Pn−1,t+1 (1 + Yn,t)n
(1 + Rn,t+1 ) = = . (36)
Pn,t (1 + Yn−1,t+1 )n−1
Remarks The holding period-return (36) is high if the bond has a high yield when it is
purchased at time t, and if it has a low yield when it is sold at time t + 1.
Taking the logs, the log holding-period return, rn,t+1 := log(1 + Rn,t+1 ), is given by
Following (37), we obtain a relation between log bond prices and log holding-period
P n−1
return as pn,t = i=0 rn−i,t+1+i ., or in terms of the yield:
n−1
1X
yn,t = rn−i,t+1+i,
n i=0
showing that the log YTM on a zero-coupon bond equals the average log return per
period if the bond is held to maturity.
Forward Rates
1 (1 + Yn+1,t )n+1
(1 + Fn,t) = = n
.
(Pn+1,t /Pn,t ) (1 + Yn,t )
Moving to the logs scale, the n−period ahead log forward rate is
where the stochastic process Lt , known as the stochastic discount factor for
transforming the pricing kernel from P to Q, is defined by
dQ
Lt := and has the property that E Lt = 1.
dP Ft
The equation (40) lends itself to the recursive equation for the n−period ZC bond:
Pn,t = Et Lt+1 . . . Lt+n .
1
pn,t = Et lt+1 + pn−1,t+1 + Vart lt+1 + pn−1,t+1 , (42)
2
To get a general expression for the bond price, we guess that it is of the form
for all n = 0, 1, . . . . Since the n−period bond yield yn,t = −pn,t/n, we are
guessing that the yield on a bond of any maturity is linear or affine in xt .
We already know that the bond price for n = 0 and n = 1 satisfy the equation (43),
with A0 = B0 = 0, A1 = −β 2 σ 2/2, and B1 = 1. We proceed with our guess using
the induction methodology- showing that it is consistent with the pricing relation (42).
As the stochastic discount factor Lt is defined in Ft, we assume that the variation of
the process L could be explained by some macro factors xt modeled by
with ǫt+1 being an innovation process normally distributed with constant variance.
The model is a discrete-time version of the Vasicek single-factor term structure model.
The model assumes that the macro factors xt evolves according to a univariate AR(1)
process with mean µ and persistence φ15,
The innovations ǫt+1 may be correlated with ξt+1 . To capture this, we can write
where ξt+1 and ηt+1 are normally distributed with constant variances and are
uncorrelated with each other.
15 If φ = 1 the process is a unit root process.
The presence of the uncorrelated shock ηt+1 only affects the average level of the term
structure and not its average slope or its time series behavior.
ǫt+1 = βξt+1 .
Equations (46) and (45) imply that −lt+1 can be written as an ARMA(1,1) process as
it is a sum of an AR(1) process and white noise.
so that the term pn−1,t+1 in (42) drop out. Substituting (46) and (45) into (42),
1 2 2
p1,t = Et lt+1 + Var lt+1 = −xt + β σ /2. (47)
2
The one-period bond yield y1,t = −p1,t can be written as
2 2
y1,t = xt − β σ /2.
Remarks:
The short rate equals the state variable less a constant term, so it inherits the AR(1)
dynamics of the state variable. So, we can think of the short rate as measuring the
state of the economy in this model. Notice that there is nothing in (47) that rules out
a negative short rate.
Our guess for the price function (43) implies that the two terms in (42) are given by
Et lt+1 + pn−1,t+1 = −xt − An−1 − Bn−1(1 − φ)µ − Bn−1φxt ,
Vart lt+1 + pn−1,t+1 = (β + Bn−1)2σ 2 . (48)
The Vasicek model discussed previously is a homoskedastic model. Apart from its
appealing simplicity, the model has several unattractive features.
• Secondly, the model allows interest rates to be negative. Given these, the model is
applicable to real interest rates, but less appropriate for nominal interest rates.
• Thirdly, the model implies that the the ratio of the expected excess return on a bond
to the variance is constant over time.
In order to handle these problems, while retaining the simplicity of the basic structure
and tractability of the model, one can alter the model by allowing the state variable xt
to follow a conditionally lognormal but heteroskedastic square-root process.
Proceeding with the recursive analysis as before, we can determine the price of a
one-period bond by substituting (50) into (42) to get
1 2 2
p1,t = Et lt+1 + Vart lt+1 = −xt 1 − β σ /2 . (52)
2
As we can see, the one-period bond yield y1,t = −p1,t is proportional to the state
variable xt ; the short rate measures the state of the economy in the model.
Since the short rate is proportional to the state variable, it inherits the property that
its conditional variance is proportional to its level16. As a result, interest rate volatility
tends to be higher when interest rates are high.
This property makes it difficult for the interest rate to go negative, since the upward
drift in the state variable tends to dominate the shocks as xt declines towards zero.
The price function for n−period bond has the same linear form as before:
−pn,t = An + Bnxt
Remarks:
Comparing (53) to (49), we see that the term in σ 2 has been moved from the
equation describing An to the equation describing Bn. This is due to the fact that
the variance is now proportional to the state variable, so that it affects the slope
coefficient rather than the intercept coefficient for the bond price. The slope
coefficient Bn is positive and increasing in n.
We have considered a single-factor model for term structure of interest rate. Such
models imply that the all bond returns are perfectly correlated. The model is a
discrete-time version of the model of Longstaff and Schwartz (1992). The model takes
the following form:
√
−lt+1 = x1,t + x2,t + x1,t ǫt+1. (54)
We notice that the model nests the single-factor model by setting x2,t = 0, but does
not nests the single-factor homoskedastic model. In this model, minus the log SDF is
forecast by two state variables x1,t and x2,t , whose dynamics are
√
x1,t+1 = (1 − φ1 )µ1 + φ1 x1,t + x1,t ξ1,t+1 (55)
√
x2,t+1 = (1 − φ2 )µ2 + φ2 x2,t + x2,t ξ2,t+1 . (56)
ǫt+1 = βξ1,t+1
meaning that the variance of the innovation to the log SDF is proportional to the level
of x1,t . The log SDF is conditionally correlated with x1,t but not with x2,t .
The shocks ξ1,t+1 and ξ2,t+1 are uncorrelated with each other. We denote by σ12 for
the variance of ξ1,t+1 and σ22 for the variance of ξ2,t+1 .
Following the usual way, we find that the price of a one-period bond is given by
1
p1,t = Et lt+1 + Vart lt+1 (57)
2
2 2
= −x1,t − x2,t + x1,t β σ1 /2. (58)
We observe that the one-period bond yield y1,t = −p1,t is no longer proportional to
the state variable x1,t as it also depends on 2,t. Said differently, the short rate is no
longer sufficient to measure the state of the economy in this model.
As pointed out by Longstaff and Schwartz, the variance of the short rate is a different
linear combination of the two state variables:
2 2 2 2 2
Vart y1,t+1 = (1 − β σ1 /2) σ1 x1,t + σ2 x2,t .
The bond price is assumed to be an affine function of the two state variables, i.e.,
It is straightforward to show that An, B1,n, and B2,n satisfy the recursive equations:
2 2
B1,n = 1 + φ1 B1,n−1 − (β + B1,n−1) σ1 /2, (60)
2 2
B2,n = 1 + φ2 B2,n−1 − B2,n−1σ2 /2, (61)
An = An−1 + (1 − φ1)µ1 B1,n−1 + (1 − φ2)µ2 B2,n−1 (62)
6.6
6.4
6.2
Mean Yield
5.8
5.6
two−factor model
5.4 one−factor model
bond yields data
Figure 6: Fitting single-factor and two-factor term structure models to real data.
In contrast to this assumption, the interest rate in fact moves randomly in time.
P (T, r; T ) = 1.
[Short Rate Dynamics] We assume that the dynamics of short rate r(t) is driven by
the following stochastic differential equations (SDE):
Assume that we are given a stochastic differential equation (SDE) of the form
We are interested in simulating the solution in discrete time. The most common
scheme and easiest way to implement is the so-called Euler scheme:
√
b b b
Xkh = X(k−1)h + µ (k − 1)h, X(k−1)h h + σ (k − 1)h, X(k−1)h b hNk ,
Ito’s formula
Theorem 1. [Itô’s Formula] Assume that the process X solves the following SDE
[Heuristic proof] Applying the Taylor expansion including second order terms, we have
1 2 1 2
dP = Pt dt + PxdX + Pxx(dX) + Ptt (dt) + Ptx(dtdX).
2 2
The result in (65) is obtained after applying the multiplication rules (64).
Dynamics of T −bond
Assume that the hedging strategy θ(t) is predictable17, and the short rate r(t) follows
(63) so that by (65) the dynamics of the T −bond price P T (t, r) can be written as
dP T
= αT (t)dt + βT (t)dB(t), (67)
PT
1 2
T −1 T T T
αT (t) = (P ) Pt + µ(t, r)Pr + σ (t, r)Prr , (68)
2
T −1 T
βT (t) = σ(t, r)(P ) Pr . (69)
Likewise for S−bond. By inserting (67) and the corresponding equation for S−bond,
T S
dV (t) = αT (t)P (t) + θ(t)αS (t)P (t) dt
(70)
T S
+ βT (t)P (t) + θ(t)βS (t)P (t) dB(t).
17 that is to say θ(t) = θ(t + dt) - the hedging strategy for the period of time [t, t + dt) has been specified at time t.
Remark Notice that the two quotients are equal regardless of the choice of the bond18.
18 It is the fixed income equivalent of the Sharpe ratio.
Proposition 1. If the bond market is free of arbitrage, then there exist a process λ
such that it holds true for all t ≥ 0 and every choice of maturity time T that
αT (t) − r(t)
= λ(t). (73)
βT (t)
Furthermore, by inserting the expressions (68) and (69) for αT and βT , respectively,
we obtain a so-called the term structure equation (TSE) given in the eqn. (74) below.
Proposition 2. Assume that the short rate evolves according to (63). If the bond
market is free of arbitrage, then the price of the T −bond P T solves the TSE:
1
PtT + µ − λσ PrT + σ 2Prr
T
− rP T = 0
2 (74)
P T (T, r) = 1.
In order to solve the term structure equation, we must specify the market price of risk
λ as well as the drift and µ and the volatility σ of the short rate (63).
The term structure equation (74) for which the T −bond price solves was derived
based on the construction of risk-neutral self-financing bonds portfolio and on the
assumption that the market is free of arbitrage. The equation is solvable once the
parameters of the short rate are specified and the market price of risk λ is given.
Question Taking account the TSE (74) as a free-of-arbitrage market specified, what
would be the risk-neutral dynamics of the short rate r induced by that market?
where Q is a risk-neutral pricing measure under which the dynamics of short rate is
We are interested in finding a closed form solution to the TSE (74). We assume that
under the risk-neutral pricing measure Q the dynamics of the short rate r is given by
Question Under which forms of µ and σ such that the T −bond price is of the form
F (t,T )−G(t,T )r(t)
P (t, r; T ) = e . (76)
Proposition 4. Assume that the drift µ and the volatility σ of r are of the form
Then, the T −bond price has the form (76) where the functions F and G solve
1 2
Gt (t, T ) + α(t)G(t, T ) − γ(t)G (t, T ) = − 1, G(T, T ) = 0,
2
(78)
1
Ft(t, T ) − β(t)G(t, T ) + δ(t)G2 (t, T ), = 0, F (T, T ) = 0.
2
In his famous 1970 paper, Merton proposed a simple model of short rate:
Following the TSE (74), the T −bond price solves the following equation:
1
Pt − λσPr + σ 2Prr − rP = 0, P (T, r; T ) = 1
2
After some tedious calculations, it turns out that the solution to this PDE is
Hedge ratio
Yield curve
Remarks
The function θ(t) is chosen such that the theoretical zero-coupon bond prices at
t = 0 (P (0, T ); T ≥ 0) fits the observed initial term structure (P ⋆(0, T ); T ≥ 0).
We thus want to find θ(t) such that P (0, T ) = P ⋆(0, T ) for all T ≥ 0.
Short Rate
0.08
0.07
0.06
r(t)
0.05
0.04
0.03
0.02
0 2 4 6 8 10
Time
In his 1977 work, Vasicek proposed a model that avoids the certainty of having
negative yields in the Merton model of term structure, which is of the form
• When rates are high, the economy tends to slow down as there is low demand for
fund from borrowers, which results in declining rates.
• When rates are low, there is a high demand for funds from borrowers, resulting
increasing in rates.
• When rates rise above the expected long-term rate γ , the rates is pulled back below
γ at the speed α, vice versa.
Exercise Show using Itô’s formula that solution to the Vasicek model (83) is
Z t
−αt −αt αu
r(t) = γ + e r0 − γ + σe e dB(u) . (84)
0
P (τ, r) = eF (τ )−G(τ )r ,
Hedge ratio
1 λσ σ2
y(τ ) = − f (τ ) + g(τ )r −→ y(∞) = γ +
|{z} − 2
.
τ as τ → ∞
α 2α
Remark
• The duration and hedge ratio under the Merton model can be seen as the limit of
the Vasicek model’s as the speed of mean reversion α tends to zero.
• The yield is positive at perpetual time, correcting one of major concern of the
Merton term structure model (79).
• Since the short rate r(t) is normally distributed, see equation (85), there is a
positive probability that the short rate r(t) can become negative.
Hull and White (1990) proposed a model which improves the Vasicek model Under the
risk-neutral measure, the Hull and White model of short rate is defined as follows
dr(t) = θ(t) − ar(t) dt + σdB(t),
The parameters a and σ are typically chosen to obtain a nice volatility structure,
whereas the function θ(t) is chosen such that the theoretical zero-coupon bond prices
at t = 0 (P (0, T ); T ≥ 0) fits the observed initial term structure (P ⋆(0, T );
T ≥ 0). We thus want to find θ(t) such that P (0, T ) = P ⋆(0, T ) for all T ≥ 0.
R
−G(t,T )r(t)+ tT 1 σ 2G2 (s,T )−θ(s)G(s,T ) ds
P (t, T ) = e 2 , (87)
The aim is to review other alternative term structure models that exclude the
possibility of having negative short rate found in the Merton and Vasicek models.
This model also exhibits mean reverting behavior as Vasicek model does, causing
interset rate cycles. The distinct feature is that the model induces positive short rate.
The model results in a complex function for the ZC bond price of the form
√
F (τ )+G(τ )r+H(τ ) r
P (τ, r) = e .
• Longstaff argues that the non-linearity of the yield curve implied by the model does
bring extra explanatory power to the model.
• However, the pricing of even intermediate term discount bond can be more
complex than can be accommodated within the context of one factor model.
This model also avoids the problem of negative interest rates and allows for time
dependent parameters. The model is of mean reverting type in the natural algorithm
of interest rate:
d ln r(t) = γ(t) − φ(t) ln r(t) dt + σ(t)dB(t).
The model has desirable features of positive interest rates, ability to model the
volatility curve observable in the market, and thus has the ability to fit the observable
yield curve. However, the model’s liability is the lack of tractable analytical solutions.
In the natural algorithm of interest rate, this model is a time-varying version of the
Vasicek model in which the speed of mean reversion, the expected long term interest
and the volatility are all time varying. The model is of the form:
d ln r(t) = α(t) ln γ(t) − ln r(t) dt + σ(t)dB(t).
As the model is quite complicated to get a closed form expression for the price of ZC
bond, Black and Karasinski used lattice approach.
Brennan and Schwartz (1979) introduces a two-factor model where both a long-term
rate and a short-term rate follow a diffusion process. The long-term rate is defined as
the yield on a consol (perpetual) bond. The log of the short-rate evolves as follows
d ln r(t) = α ln γ(t) − ln p − ln r(t) dt + σ1dB1(t),
where p the target value of ln r relative to the level of ln γ , and γ is the consol rate,
2
dγ(t) = γ(t) γ(t) − r(t) + σ2 + λ2σ2 dt + σ2γ(t)dB2(t).
Other extensions of mean-reverting type short-rate model have been proposed by many
authors, see among others, Chen and Scott (1992), Hull and White (1993), Longstaff
and Schwartz (1992). Hull and White’s model assumes the nominal short rate r as the
sum of two factors x1 and x2 each of which is modeled after the Vasicek model:
dxi (t) = αi γi − xi (t) dt + σidBi(t),
i.e., r = αx1 + βx2 , where B1 and B2 are two independent Brownian Motions.
Due to the independence structure of the factors, the price of ZC bond is of the form:
where Pi (t, xi ; T ) has the same functional form with that of Vasicek one-factor
model.
Chen (1994) extends the CIR model where the speed of mean reversion α, long-run
interest rate level γ and volatility σ are all stochastic,
q q
dr(t) = α(γ(t) − r(t))dt + σ(t) r(t)dB1(t)
q
dγ(t) = γ − γ(t))dt + ψ γ(t)dB2(t)
ν(b
q
dσ(t) = σ − σ(t))dt + η σ(t)dB3(t).
µ(b
Heat-Jarrow-Morton Framework
We have previously discussed interest rate models in which the short-rate r is the only
state variable. The main advantages of such models:
• allowing us to use partial differential equations (PDE) to get the price of ZC bond.
• allowing us to get analytical formulas for the bond prices, etc.
• from the view point of economics, it seems unreasonable to assume that the entire
money market is governed by only one state variable.
• it is hard to get a realistic volatility structure for the forward rates without
introducing a very complicated short rate model.
• the inversion of yield curve (through the concept of parallel shift of the yield) as
discussed before becomes increasingly more difficult to get a realistic one.
In the section where we discuss the calibration of Ho and Lee model to the terms
structure data, we find it more convenient to work with forward rate.
[Assumption] Assume that for every fixed T > 0, the forward rate f (t, T ) follows
Z t Z t
⋆
f (t, T ) = f (0, T ) + α(s, T )ds + σ(s, T )dB(s) (91)
0 0
The Proposition 5 below provides condition on the drift α of the forward rate model
(91) so that the price of ZC bond under the forward rate model
R
− tT f (t,u)du
P (t, T ) = e , (92)
Exercise Consider HJM forward rate model with constant volatility, i.e.,
σ(t, T ) = σ , with σ > 0. On account of the fact that r(t) = f (t, t), show that
the corresponding short rate dynamics is given by the Ho and Lee model
∂ 2
θ(t) = f (0, t) + σ t.
∂T
As discussed earlier, this model perfectly fits the initial term structure. See eqn (90).
There are many approaches in doing so. Below are some of them.
a
b
α = −bb and γ = − .
bb
This approach explores the relationship between the yield and short rate:
(1−e−ατ )
where g(τ ) = ατ , and r is normally distributed, see equation (94).
Find the best fitting values of α and σ that best fit the yield volatilities.
Remark It is similar to the estimation of stock price volatility from the observable
prices on options on common stock by minimizing the SSE in the pricing formula.
Forward Contract
There are two prices or values associated with a forward contract. The first is the
forward price F . This is the delivery price of a unit of the underlying asset to be
delivered at a specific future date. It is the delivery price that would be specified in a
forward contract written today.
The second price or value of a forward contract is its current value, denoted by f .
The forward price F is determined such that f = 0 initially, so that no money need
be exchanged when completing the contract agreement. After the initial time, the
value of f may vary, depending on variations of the spot price of the underlying asset,
the prevailing interest rates, and other factors.
• there are no transaction costs, and that assets can be divided arbitrarily.
• Also, we assume initially that it is possible to store the underlying asset without
cost and it is possible to sell short.
• Later we will allow for storage cost, but still require that it be possible to store the
underlying asset for the duration of the contract20.
Illustration Suppose we buy one unit of the commodity at price S on the spot market
and simultaneously enter a forward contract to deliver at time T one unit at price F .
We store the commodity until T and deliver it to meet our obligation and obtain F .
This must be consistent with the interest rate between t = 0 and t = T . Hence,
S = B(0, T )F
In other words, because storage is costless, buying the commodity at price S is exactly
the same as lending an amount S of cash for which we will receive an amount F at T .
20 This is a good assumption for many assets, such as gold or sugar, or T −bills, but perhaps not good for perishable
commodities such as oranges.
Theorem 2. Suppose that an asset can be stored at zero cost. Suppose that the
current spot price (at t = 0) of the asset is S . The theoretical forward price F (for
delivery at T ) is
F = B −1(0, T )S,
where B(0, T ) is the discount factor between t = 0 and T .
Proof. Suppose contrary that F > B −1(0, T )S . Then construct a hedging portfolio
as follows. At the present time borrow S amount of cash, buy one unit of the
underlying asset on the spot market at price S , and take a one-unit short position in
the forward market. The total cost of this portfolio is zero. At time T we deliver the
asset, receiving a cash amount F , and we repay our loan in the amount B −1(0, T )S .
As a result, we obtain a positive profit of F − B −1(0, T )S for zero net investment.
This is an arbitrage, which we assume is impossible.
At t = 0 Initial Cost Final Receipt
Borrow $S -S -B −1 (0, T )S
Buy one unit and store S 0
Short one forward 0 F
Total 0 F − B −1 (0, T )S
If F < B −1(0, T )S . Then construct a reverse portfolio. Borrow the asset from
someone who plans to store it during this period, and then sell the borrowed asset at
the spot market, and replacing the borrowed asset at time T .
At t = 0 Initial Cost Final Receipt
Lending $S S B −1(0, T )S
Short one unit -S 0
Go long one forward 0 -F
Total 0 B −1(0, T )S − F
Our profit is B −1(0, T )S − F (which we might share with the asset lender for
making the short possible).
Suppose a forward contract was written in the past with a delivery price of F0. At the
present time t the forward price for the same delivery date is Ft. The following
determines the value ft of the initial contract.
Theorem 3. Suppose that a forward contract for delivery at time T in the future
has a delivery price F0 and a current forward price Ft. The value of the contract is
ft = (Ft − F0)B(t, T ),
where B(t, T ) is the risk-free discount factor over the period from t to T .
Proof. Construct the following portfolio at time t. One unit long of a forward
contract with delivery price Ft maturing at time T , and one unit short of the contract
with delivery price F0. The initial cash flow of this portfolio is ft . The final cash flow
at time T is F0 − Ft. The present value of this portfolio is ft + (F0 − Ft)B(t, T ),
and this must be zero, otherwise arbitrage opportunity exists. 2
Futures Contract
Like the forward contract, a futures contract is an agreement between two parties to
buy or sell an asset at a certain time in the future for a certain price.
Because forward trading is so useful, it became desirable long ago to standardized the
contracts and trade them on an organized exchange.
This problem is solved by the invention of futures market. Multiple delivery prices are
eliminated by revising contracts as the price environment changes.
Consider again the situation where contracts are initially written at F0 and then the
next day the price for new contracts is F1. At the second day, the clearinghouse
associated with the exchange revises all the earlier contracts to the new delivery price
F1. To do this, the contract holders either pay or receive the differences. Suppose
that F1 > F0 and hold a one unit long position with price F0. My contract price is
then changed to F1 and receive F1 − F0 from the clearing house because we will later
have to pay F1 rather than F0 when we receive delivery of the commodity.
There are two type of Options: American and European. European option allows
exercise only on the expiration date, whilst the American option allows exercise at any
time before the experation date.
It can be argued that the call and put options have the upper bounds:
c ≤ S0 and C ≤ S0
p≤K and P ≤ K.
c ≥ max(S0 − Ke−rT , 0)
p ≥ max(Ke−rT − S0 , 0)
To prove this inequality for call option, consider the following two portfolios:
−rT
Portfolio A: one European call option + an amount of cash equal to Ke .
Portfolio B: one share.
For the European call option, there is an important relationship between p and c.
Consider the following two portfolios:
−rT
Portfolio A: one European call option + an amount of cash equal to Ke .
Portfolio B: one European put option + one share.
At the expiration date, both portfolios are worth at max(ST , K). This means that
−rT
c + Ke = p + S0.
If the inequality does not hold, then there would be an arbitrage opportunity.
The basic theory of binomial options pricing goes as follows. Suppose that the initial
price of a stock is S . At the end of the period the price will either be uS with
probability p or dS with probability 1 − p. Assume that u > d > 0. Also at every
period it is possible to borrow or lend at a common risk-free interest rate r . We define
R := 1 + r . To avoid the arbitrage opportunity, we assume that u > R > d.
can be replicated by a portfolio consisting of stock and bond each of which is worth x
and y dollars according to
ux + Ry = cu and dx + Ry = cd.
cu − cd ucd − dcu
x= and y = . (95)
u−d R(u − d)
Using the no-arbitrage argument, the value of the European call option c is therefore
equal to the value of the portfolio x + y , i.e.,
1 R−d
c=x+y = qcu + (1 − q)cd , where q = . (96)
R u−d
• The equation (97) states that the call option value c is found by taking the
expected value of the option under the risk-neutral probability q .
• This procedure of valuation works for all securities, including the underlying stock
1
S= quS + (1 − q)dS (98)
R
from which one can recover the risk-neutral probability q .
where the value of the option is known at the final nodes of the lattice. In particular,
2 2
Cuu = max(u S − K, 0); Cud = max(udS − K, 0); Cdd = max(d S − K, 0).
R−d
q= .
u−d
The values of cu and cd are found using the single-period calculation given earlier:
1
cu = qcuu + (1 − q)cud
R
1
cd = qcud + (1 − q)cdd
R
By another application of the risk-neutral discounting formula, we find
1
c= qcu + (1 − q)cd (99)
R
where the value of the option is known at the final nodes of the lattice. In particular,
2 2
puu = max(K − u S, 0); pud = max(K − udS, 0); pdd = max(K − d S, 0).
To specify the European call option valuation model, we need to specify the values of
u, d and the objective probability p.
where S0 is the initial stock price and ST is the price at the end of year 1. Likewise,
we define σ as the yearly standard deviation, i.e.
σ 2 = Var ln(ST /S0 ) .
If the period time length ∆t small enough compared to 1, the parameters of the
binomial lattice can be selected as
1 1 ν √
p = + ∆t (100)
2 2 σ
√
σ ∆t
u = e (101)
√
−σ ∆t
d = e . (102)
Storage costs and dividends may complicate an evaluation procedure. But, there is an
important special case, of proportional costs or dividends, that can be handled easily.
At the end of the period, the commodity is received minus the storage cost; hence the
amount received is either (u − c)S or (d − c)S . The factors u − c and d − c are
the legitimate factors that define the result of holding the commodity.
R−d+c u−c−R
q= , and 1 − q = .
u−d u−d
To begin with, assume that the stock price dynamics is of the form
where W is the standard Brownian motion. Suppose also that there is a risk-free
zero-coupon bond carrying an interest rate of r over the period [0, T ] with
dB = rBdt. (104)
Let C(S, t) denote the price of the option at time t when the stock price is S . This
function solves the famous Black-Scholes formula.
Theorem 5. Suppose that the price of an asset is governed by (103) and the
risk-free interest rate is r . A derivative of this security has a price C(S, t) satisfying
the PDE:
∂C ∂C 1 ∂ 2C 2 2
+ rS + 2
σ S − rC = 0. (105)
∂t ∂s 2 ∂s
Solution to this equations is given by the renowned Black-Scholes-Merton model:
The instantaneous gain in the value of the portfolio due to changes in security prices
(the investment gain) is therefore
The method for calculating the values of European put options is analogous to that
for call options. The main difference is the terminal values for the option are different.
But once these are specified, the recursive procedure works in a similar way.
Exercise[One-year call option] Consider a European call option on stock maturing one
year from now. Assume that a volatility of the algorithm of the stock is σ = 0.2. The
current price of the stock is S = $62 and the strike price is K = $60. The risk-free
interest rate is at r = 10%, compounded monthly. Compute the theoretical price of
the option using the binomial option pricing approach. compare the result with
Black-Scholes formula
Exercise[One-year put option] Consider a put option on stock maturing one year from
now. Assume that a volatility of the algorithm of the stock is σ = 0.2. The current
price of the stock is S = $62 and the strike price is K = $60. The risk-free interest
rate is at r = 10%, compounded monthly. Compute the theoretical price of the
option using the binomial option pricing approach. compare the result with
Black-Scholes formula
Main References
References
[1] Bjork, T. Arbitrage Theory in Continuous Time, Oxford University Press, 2004.
[2] Campbell, J, Y., Lo, A. W and MacKinlay, A. C. The Econometrics of Financial
Markets, Princeton University Press, 1997.
[3] Hull, J. Options, Futures, And Other Derivatives, Sixth Edition, Pearson
Prentice Hall, 2006.
[4] Luenberger, D. Investment Science, Oxford University Press, 1998.
[5] Van Deventer, D. R., Imai, K., and Mesler, M. Advanced Financial Risk
Management: Tools and Techniques for Integrated Credit Risk and Interest
Rate Risk Management, Willey, 2005.
[6] Martin, J. D., Cox, Jr. S. C., and MacMinn, R. D. The Theory of Finance:
Evidence and Application, The Dryden Press, 1988.