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Question 1
Marks: 1
a. Ratio
b. Ordinal
c. Internal
d. Nominal
Correct
Question 2
Marks: 1
a. Judgemental
sampling
b. Convenience
sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Snowball sampling
Incorrect
Marks: 1
What is the size of the sample for estimating the true weight of the cereal container
with 95% confidence, if the variance of the weight is 4 ounces and if the estimate is
to be within 0.8 ounces of the true average weight?
a. 95
b. 100
c. 69
d. 96
Incorrect
Question 4
Marks: 1
a. 5
b. 7
c. 8
d. 6
Correct
Question 5
Marks: 1
a. Graphic rating
scale
b. Likert scale
c. Constant sum
scale
d. Stapel scale
Correct
Question 6
Marks: 1
a. Multiple choice
question
b. None of the options
d. Dichotomous
question
Correct
Question 7
Marks: 1
a. Systemic error
b. Systematic error
c. Non systematic
error
d. Random error
Correct
Question 8
Marks: 1
measurement
c. Not valid but reliable
measurement
d. Valid but not reliable
measurement
Incorrect
Question 9
Marks: 1
b. Coding
c. Data
cleaning
d. Transcribing
Incorrect
Question 10
Marks: 1
Range, mean deviation and standard deviation are permissible descriptive statistics
for
a. Nominal
scale
b. Interval
scale
c. Ordinal scale
d. Ratio scale
Correct
Question 11
Marks: 1
interview
c. Data collected through telephone
interview
Question 12
Marks: 1
a. More accurate
measurement
b. Less resources utilization
d. Low cost
Correct
Question 13
Marks: 1
a. Type Il error
occurs
b. Type Ill error
occurs
c. Type I error
occurs
d. Type IV error
occurs
Correct
Question 14
Marks: 1
does not
c. Questionnaire consists of limited questions and schedule consists of
unlimited questions
d. Questionnaire are sent through mail while the schedule is filled by the
research worker
Correct
Question 15
Marks: 1
If for the above question, the incidence rate and completion rates are 90% and 95%
what is the final sample size?
a. 81
b. 112
c. 117
d. 111
Incorrect
Question 16
Marks: 1
Under systematic sampling, the sampling interval i, if the population is 3875 and
the sample size is 100, will be
a. 39
b. 40
c. 38
d. 37
Correct
Question 17
Marks: 1
a. Highly favourable
b. Moderately
favourable
c. Favourable
d. Unfavourable
Correct
Question 18
Marks: 1
The attitude measurement does not cover one of the following aspects; which one is
the odd one?
a. Behavioural
domain
b. Affective domain
c. Cognitive domain
d. Analytical domain
Incorrect
Question 19
Marks: 1
a. Interval
b. Ratio
c. Ordinal
d. Nominal
Correct
Question 20
Marks: 1
a. Implicit alternatives
b. Double barreled question
c. Generalization and
estimates
d. Unambiguous words
Correct
Operations Research
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Periodical - II
Review of attempt 1
Top of Form
Bottom of Form
Marks: 1
The graphical method is useful for the game where payoff matrix is of size
a. 2 x n
b. 3 x 4
c. None of the
options
d. 4 x 4
Correct
Question 2
Marks: 1
game both
Question 3
Marks: 1
The symbol used to represent a decision point in a given stage from which a set of
decision alternatives will emanate
a. triangle
b. square
c. circle
d. None of the
options
Correct
Question 4
Marks: 1
row
b. a is dominating
row
c. none of the
options
d. c is dominating
row
Correct
Question 5
Marks: 1
A game is stable
saddle point
Question 6
Marks: 1
machine
b. more automation and lesser dependence on
workmen
Question 7
Marks: 1
a. present worth
factor
b. None of the
options
c. salvage value
d. discount value
Correct
Question 8
Marks: 1
d. individual
replacement
Correct
Question 9
Marks: 1
b. 10 is the saddle
point
c. – 5 is the saddle
point
d. there is no saddle
point
Correct
Question 10
Marks: 1
If all items are replaced irrespective of whether they have failed or not is known as
b. sudden replacement
c. group replacement
d. individual
replacement
Correct
Question 11
Marks: 1
Formula to find present worth factor when money value decreases by r % per year
n]
c. 1/ (1+r)
d. 1/[(1+r) to the power
2]
Incorrect
Question 12
Marks: 1
b. cost
c. None of the
options
d. time
Correct
Question 13
Marks: 1
a. None of the
options
b. (A2, B1)
c. (A1 , B1)
d. (A2, B2)
Correct
Question 14
Marks: 1
between players
Marks: 1
A game where the gain of one player equals the loss of other is called
options
c. two person game
d. saddle point
Correct
Question 16
Marks: 1
a. saddle point
b. dominance
c. None of the
options
d. pure strategy
Correct
Question 17
Marks: 1
b. zero
options
Correct
Question 18
Marks: 1
The size of payoff matrix of a game can be reduced by using the principle of
between players
Incorrect
Question 19
Marks: 1
a. picture
tube
b. tyre
c. resistor
d. micro chip
Correct
Question 20
Marks: 1
a. stable
b. payoff
c. none of the
options
d. strategy
Correct
Top of Form
Bottom of Form
OR
ibm
Marks: 1
Assume that a U.S. company used to import cheap products from Thailand.
However, the reduction in tariffs between the U.S. and Mexico due to the passage of
NAFTA now makes it cheaper to buy the same goods from Mexican suppliers. This is
an example of:
a. Trade diversion.
b. A customs union.
c. Economies of
scale.
d. Trade creation.
Incorrect
Question 2
Marks: 1
Disney receives fees for managing theme parks in France and Japan. What is this
mode that Disney has adapted to enter the Foreign markets
services
c. Franchise
d. Management
contracts
Incorrect
Question 3
Marks: 1
b. Portfolio investment
c. Foreign Direct
Investment
d. Joint venture
Incorrect
Question 4
Marks: 1
a. The United States charges a 5 percent tax on Mexican made shirts passing
through to Canada.
b. Mexico charges a 5 percent tax on shirts leaving Mexico, whether destined to
Question 5
Marks: 1
A regional economic group that has the same external tariff levied on goods that
are imported from non-member countries is an example of:
a. A free trade
agreement.
b. A customs union.
c. A common area.
d. A foreign trade zone.
Incorrect
Question 6
Marks: 1
the restrictions.
c. Other industries may become uncompetitive because of having to use higher
market share.
Incorrect
Question 7
Marks: 1
discrimination
Incorrect
Question 8
Marks: 1
a. Joint venture
b. Licensing and
franchising.
c. Assembly operations
d. Indirect and direct
exporting.
Correct
Question 9
Marks: 1
again
Question 10
Marks: 1
same region.
Correct
Question 11
Marks: 1
natural resources
c. High income countries have most of the world's
population.
d. High income countries subsidize their agricultural
production.
Incorrect
Question 12
Marks: 1
globally
b. Will always lead to the lowest possible
production costs
Question 13
Marks: 1
3M sells scouring pads in smaller packages (fewer pads per package) for some
markets. The most likely reason for this is that consumers in some countries _____.
a. Fear that their countries' high humidity will cause pads to rust before
large packages
Correct
Question 14
Marks: 1
Assume that country A has a population density of 400 people per square mile and
its neighbor, country B, has a density of 50 people per square mile. Which of the
following would likely happen according to the factor proportions theory?
a. A will send goods to B for which it has an acquired advantage in exchange for
Correct
Question 15
Marks: 1
markets
b. Lower prices in domestic
markets
c. Promote more domestic
production
d. Promote added foreign
production
Correct
Question 16
Marks: 1
resources.
b. A country is dependent.
d. A country is interdependent.
Correct
Question 17
Marks: 1
a. Barter agreements.
b. Excessive imports of particular
goods.
c. No trade relationships.
d. Excessive exports of particular
goods.
Incorrect
Question 18
Marks: 1
population
c. The influx of approximately the same number of people
from abroad
d. Receipt of remittances from the people working abroad
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
_____ is the direct exchange of goods and/or services between two parties without a
cash transaction.
a. Barter
b. Offset
c.
Counterpurchase
d.
Counterexchange
Incorrect
Question 20
Marks: 1
technology.
c. General agreement on transfers and
technology.
d. General agreement on tourism and
trade.
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
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Periodical Test II
Review of attempt 1
Top of Form
Bottom of Form
Marks: 1
To exercise the unpaid seller’s right of stoppage in transit, the seller should have
lost his
b. Right of Lien
c. Right of re-sale
d. Right of repudiation of
contract
Correct
Question 2
Marks: 1
It is __________ to put any date in the case of promissory notes payable on demand.
a. Necessary
b. Not necessary
c. Mandatory
d. Neither necessary nor
compulsory
Correct
Question 3
Marks: 1
An agreement to sell in respect of goods is an …………contract which creates a just
in personam
a. Executory
b. Executed
c. Void
d. Voidable
Correct
Question 4
Marks: 1
In case of ____________Goods, property passes to the buyer, only when the goods are
ascertained.
a. Contingent
b.
Unascertained
c. Specific
d. Future
Incorrect
Question 5
Marks: 1
Repairs of a car and supply of spare parts required for such repairs is
Choose one answer.
a. An agreement of sell
b. A contract for work and
labour
c. A contract of sale
d. Not a valid agreement at
all
Incorrect
Question 6
Marks: 1
When no consideration is paid by the Buyer for the goods received from the Seller it
is called
a. Gift
b. Barter
c. Bailment
d. Sales
Correct
Question 7
Marks: 1
a. Firm
b. Company
c. Person
d. Bank
Correct
Question 8
Marks: 1
a. Not required
b. None of the
options
c. May be required
d. Required
Incorrect
Question 9
Marks: 1
a. Inland
b. Foreign
c. None of the
options
d. Inter State
Incorrect
Question 10
Marks: 1
The word “perishable” in respect of goods, u/s 54 of the sales of goods act, means
perishable
b. Physically perishable
c. Commercially perishable
d. Either Physically perishable or Commercially
perishable
Incorrect
Question 11
Marks: 1
contingency
Marks: 1
agreement to sell.
produced.
Incorrect
Question 13
Marks: 1
Where no price is fixed by express agreement or by implication, the Buyer shall pay
the Seller
a. Net realizable
value
b. Resale price
c. Adhoc price
d. Reasonable price
Incorrect
Question 14
Marks: 1
An agreement to sell in respect of goods is an executory contract which creates
rem
b. A just in personam
c. A just in rem
d. Neither A just in personam nor A just
in rem
Incorrect
Question 15
Marks: 1
In the case of sale by auction, the sale is complete when auctioneer announces
completion by the fall of hammer or in any other customary manner; and until such
announcement is made, the bidder may retract (withdraw) his bid.
a. False
b. True
c. Partly true
d. None of the
options
Correct
Question 16
Marks: 1
in return
Incorrect
Question 17
Marks: 1
a. Constructive
b. Symbolic
c. Actual
d. Either Symbolic or Actual or
Constructive
Incorrect
Question 18
Marks: 1
Ordinarily, if any person who does not possess a good title to the goods makes a
sale, the Buyer ______ even though he has acquired it bonafide and for value
Question 19
Marks: 1
When the property in Goods is transferred to Buyer, Goods are at the …..……..risk,
irrespective of whether delivery has been made or not.
a. Carrier’s
b. Buyer’s
c. Seller’s
d. All the
options
Correct
Question 20
Marks: 1
“X” purchased a VCR at a public auction. Neither Auctioneer nor “X” knew at that
time that the VCR was a stolen property. In such case, the true owner can
for fraud
for fraud
Incorrect
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LAB
Strategic
Management
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Review of attempt 1
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Bottom of Form
Marks: 1
a. Another Industry
b. Industry
c. None of the
options
d. Strategic group
Correct
Question 2
Marks: 1
a. Government
b. Competitors
threats.
Correct
Question 3
Marks: 1
Tangible resource
a. Patents
b. Reputation
c. Land
d. Brand
name
Correct
Question 4
Marks: 1
supplier
b. Economies of Scale
c. Supplier industry is dominated by a few
firms
Question 5
Marks: 1
directors.
b. Controllable activities within an organization.
success.
d. Not as important as external opportunities and
threats.
Incorrect
Question 6
Marks: 1
The following strategies can be adopted by Industry in Maturity stage of industry life
cycle expect one
a. Build Market
share
b. Cost Leadership
c. Differentiation
d. Focused
Correct
Question 7
Marks: 1
a. Value creation
b. Capabilities
c. Resources
d. Competitive
advantage
Incorrect
Question 8
Marks: 1
a. Embryonic
stage
b. Declining
stage
c. Growth stage
d. Shake out
stage
Correct
Question 9
Marks: 1
The marketing strategy emphasizes price as the key to good value; operations runs
with tight cost control; development focuses on cost reduction. Which of Porter's
competitive strategies is illustrated here?
a. Differentiation
b. Differentiation
focus
c. Cost leadership
d. Divisionalisation
Correct
Question 10
Marks: 1
a. Shake out
b. Growth
c. Embryonic
d. Maturity
Incorrect
Question 11
Marks: 1
In the growth stages of the industry life cycle, the conditions present are
footing
Correct
Question 12
Marks: 1
a. Price
b. Product
portfolio
c. all the options
d. R & D capacity
Correct
Marks: 1
competition
d. Making new product
introductions
Correct
Question 14
Marks: 1
a. Substitute product
b. Complementors
c. Bargaining power of
suppliers
d. Bargaining power of
buyers
Correct
Question 15
Marks: 1
A nation’s position in factors of production such as skilled labour on the
infrastructure necessary to compete in a given industry is referred as
a. Factor endowments
b. Relating and supporting
industries
c. Demand conditions
d. Intensity of rivalry
Correct
Question 16
Marks: 1
Intangible resource
a. Land
b. Plant
c. Buildings
d. Brand name
Correct
Question 17
Marks: 1
The following aspects are limitations of models for industry analysis except one
differences
b. Economic forces
c. Innovation &
change
d. Lifecycle issues
Correct
Question 18
Marks: 1
a. remain constant
b. dramatically
change
c. none of the
options
d. frequently
changes
Incorrect
Question 19
Marks: 1
b. Shake out
stage
c. Maturity stage
d. Embryonic
stage
Correct
Question 20
Marks: 1
a. Inflation
b. Interest rates
c. Economic growth
rate
d. Age
Correct
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Production
Management
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Periodical test II
Review of attempt 1
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Started on Thursday, 13 May 2010,
04:15 PM
Completed Thursday, 13 May 2010,
on 04:31 PM
Time taken 16 mins 4 secs
Grade 5 out of a maximum of 20
(25%)
Question 1
Marks: 1
a. Decline period
b. Incubation
period
c. Growth period
d. Maturity period
Incorrect
Question 2
Marks: 1
Which of the following characteristics are more important in the equipment selected
for mass production shops?
1 Fast output
4 Versatility
a. 1 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3 and
d. 3 and 4
Incorrect
Question 3
Marks: 1
shops
b. Economy in space
c. Overall simplification, safety of
integration
Question 4
Marks: 1
Consider the following situations that would warrant study of the layout:
The situation that would lead to a change in the layout would include
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 3 alone
c. 2 alone
d. 1, 2, 3 and
4
Correct
Question 5
Marks: 1
application
Question 6
Marks: 1
The variable cost per unit associated with automated assembly line (VA), cellular
manufacturing (VB), and job shop production (VC), will be such that
VC
b. VC >VB >
VA
c. VC >VA>
VB
d. VB > VA >
VC
Correct
Question 7
Marks: 1
inputs
inputs
Incorrect
Question 8
Marks: 1
a. Intermittent
production
b. Automatic
production
c. Continuous
production
d. Job production
Incorrect
Question 9
Marks: 1
a. Group layout
b. Product
layout
c. Process
layout
d. Static layout
Incorrect
Question 10
Marks: 1
a. Mass production
industry
b. Assembly industry
c. Process industry
Question 11
Marks: 1
cost
b. Variable cost < fixed
cost
c. Sales revenue > total
cost
d. Sales revenue = total
cost
Incorrect
Question 12
Marks: 1
a. Board of directors
b. Labor cost
c. High court/Supreme
court
d. Management
Correct
Question 13
Marks: 1
a. Process layout
b. Plant layout
c. Product layout
d. Fixed position
layout
Incorrect
Question 14
Marks: 1
a. Medium
b. Mean
c. Mode
d. Cumulative
frequency
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
a. Better process
planning
b. Standardization
c. Better product
planning
d. Simplification
Incorrect
Question 16
Marks: 1
a. Product layout
b. Specialization of operation
c. Automatic material handling
equipment
d. Functional layout
Incorrect
Question 17
Marks: 1
Consider the following features/characteristics:
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and
3
d. 1 and 3
Incorrect
Question 18
Marks: 1
a. Repetitiveness production
b. Non-repetitiveness
production
c. Continuous type of product
d. Effective utilization of
machines
Incorrect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
analysis
Question 20
Marks: 1
restrictions
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