ECOLOGY C.
Invasion—Nudation—competition and co-action---
reaction- stabilization
1. Ecology deals with the study of: D. Invasion—stabilization—competition and co-action—
A. Living things reaction—nudation
B. Living and non-living components
C. Reciprocal relationship between living and non-living 14. Organisms having the potential to interbreeding and producing
D. Environment fertile offspring is called
A. Class
2. Definition of ecosystem is B. Order
A. The community of organisms together with the C. Genus
environment in which they live D. Species
B. The abiotic component of a habitat
C. The part of the earth and it’s atmosphere which inhibits 15. The maintenance of relatively constant internal environment is
living organisms called
D. A community of organisms interacting with one A. Homeostasis
another. B. Exotherms
C. Homeobox
3. In a food chain of grassland ecosystem the top consumers are D. Endotherms
A. Herbivorous
B. Carnivorous 16. Ultraviolet radiation, which is not lethal but harm to the organism,
C. Bacteria is
D. Either carnivorous or herbivorous A. 0.2 to 0.28 um
B. 0.28- 0.32 um
4. The energy flow in ecosystem is C. 0.32-0.4um
A. Unidirectional D. 0.4-0.5um
B. Bidirectional
C. Multidirectional 17. Ecological niche of an organism represents
D. None of these A. The resource it utilizes
B. Functional role in the ecological system
5. Which one is true? C. The range of conditions that it can tolerate
A. Symbiosis when neither population affects each other D. All of these
B. Symbiosis when the interaction is useful to both the
populations 18. the gradual physiological adjustment to slowly changing new
C. Commensalism when none of the interacting environment conditions is known as
populations affect each other A. Selection
D. Commensalism when the interaction is useful is useful B. Introduction
to both the populations. C. Acclimation
D. Quarantine
6. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in
A. Mutualism 19. The upper layer of water in a single body of water in known as
B. Intraspecific competition A. Hypolimnion
C. Interspecific competition B. Epilimnion
D. Predation on one another C. Thermocline
D. Hydroline
7. Barnacles growing on the back of whale is an example for
A. Mutualism 20. The lower limit of water availability in soil is known as
B. Parasitism A. Filed capacity
C. Amensalism B. Hypolimnion
D. Commensalism C. Thermocline
D. Wilting point
8. Penicillin does not swallow the growth bacterium Staphylococcus.
This sort example of relationship called__. 21. What is the animal symbol of W.W.F (World Wilf Fund)?
A. Commensalism A. Red panda
B. Predation B. Giant panda
C. Amensalism C. Tiger
D. Mutualism D. Kangaroo
9. Symbiosis is shown by 22. The most important human activity leading to the extinction of
A. E. coli wildlife, is
B. Cuscuta A. Pollution of wildlife
C. Rafflesia B. Hunting for valuable wildlife products
D. Monotropa C. Introduction of alien species
D. Alteration and destruction of natural habitats
10. Which of the following interactions will not promote co-evolution?
A. Commensalism 23. When is the World Wild week?
B. Mutualism A. First week of September
C. Parasitism B. Last week of September
D. Interspecific competition C. First week of October
D. Last week of October
11. The final stable community in an ecological succession is called
A. Final community 24. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of
B. Ultimate community endangered species?
C. Climax community A. Mammals
D. Serial community B. Fishes
C. Birds
12. The process of successful establishment of the species in a new D. Reptiles
area is called
A. Sere 25. The unfavorable alteration of environment due to human activities
B. Climax is termed as
C. Invasion A. Ecological catastrophe
D. Ecesis B. Catastrophe
C. Ecological degradation
13. The order of basic processes involved in succession is D. Pollution
A. Nudation----invasion---- competition and co-action
---reaction ---stabilization 26. Which of the following is the best indicator of SO2 pollution?
B. Nudation--- stabilization—competition and co-action--- A. Bryophyte
invasion—reaction B. Pteridophyte
C. Lichen 41. What are you acting as when you eat a cabbage/
D. Algae A. Producer
B. Primary consumer
27. Heavy dust can cause C. Secondary consumer
A. Leaf blights D. Tertiary consumer
B. Opening of stomata
C. Closure of stomata 42. For number 42-43 please refer to the diagram below 1 2
D. Browning of leaves 3
28. Which of the following is the major cause of pollution 4
A. Plants Which species is autotrophic?
B. Man A. 1
C. Fungi B. 2
D. Hydrocarbon gases C. 3
D. 4
29. Minimata disease was caused by pollution of water by
A. Mercury 43. Which species is most likely the decomposer?
B. Lead A. 1
C. Tin B. 2
D. Methyl iso cyanate C. 3
D. 4
30. 5th of June is observed as
A. World forest day 44. Excluding the decomposer, for which species would biomass
B. World environment day would probably be smallest.
C. World wildlife day A. 1
D. World population day B. 2
C. 3
31. Cement factory laborers are prone to D. 4
A. Leukemia
B. bone marrow disease 45. Carbon dioxide traps heat and warms the atmosphere, what effect
C. asbestosis is this known as.
D. cytosilicosis A. Warming
B. Carbon
32. Noise is measured using sound meter and the unit is C. Carbon dioxide
A. Hertz D. Greenhouse
B. Decibel
C. Joule 46. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of population?
D. Sound A. Sex ratio
B. Natality
33. The carrying capacity of population is determined by its C. Mortality
A. Population growth rate D. Stratification
B. Natality
C. Mortality 47. Which decade has been designed as the Decade of Biodiversity “
D. Limiting resources by United Nations?
A. 2021-2030
B. 2011-2020
34. The major pollutant automobile exhaust is C. 2001-2010
A. NO D. 1991-2000
B. CO
C. SO2 48. Decomposers which specifically act on the fecal matter of other
D. Soot organisms are called as:
A. Heterophagic
35. The major greenhouse gases, otherwise called radioactively gases B. Allophagic
includes : C. Coprophagic
A. Carbon dioxide D. Paraphagic
B. CH4
C. N2O 49. In a pond ecosystem, the top area where the production is greater
D. All of the above than respiration ( P/R >1 ) is termed as:
A. Limnetic zone
36. Which of the following levels of organization is arrange in correct B. Profundal zone
sequence from most to least inclusive? C. Benthic Zone
A. Community, ecosystem, individual, population D. Tidal Zone
B. Ecosystem, community, population, individual
C. Population, ecosystem, individual, community 50. Which of the following bacteria is NOT involved in the
D. Individual, population, community, ecosystem nitrification process during nitrogen cycle?
A. Nitrosomonas
37. What is probably the most important factor affecting the B. Nitococcus
distribution of biomes? C. Bacillus ramosus
A. Wind and water currents D. Nitrospira
B. Species diversity
C. Climate 51. Which of the following is a ” K” selected species?
D. Day length and rainfall A. grass
B. Aspergillus
38. Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on C. Human
the metabolicrates of plants and animals? D. Taraxacum
A. Water C. temperature
B. Wind D. disturbances 52. Which of the following is NOT a denitrifying bacteria
39. Which biome is able to support many large animals despite A. Thiobacillus
receiving moderate amounts of rainfall? B. Psuedomonas aeruginosa
A. Tropical rainforest C. taiga C. Thiobacillus denitrificans
B. Chaparral D. savanna D. Bacillus ramosus
40. An owl and a hawk both eat mice. Which of these terms describes 53. The energy flow in an ecosystem is:
the relationship between, hawk, and owl? A. In any direction
A. Predation C. Competition B. Always unidirectional
B. Parasitism D. Mutualism C. Always bi-directional
D. Always down-directional
66. 66. Klinefelter syndrome is a manifestation of which chromosome
54. The term ‘allelopathy” describe : aneuploidy?
A. Inhibition of the sporulation of pathogen by the host A. XXX
B. Inhibition of growth of one species by another by B. XYY
producing toxins C. XXY
C. Inhibiting the growth of one species by another by D. None of these
preventing reproduction
D. Altering the reproductive cycle of one organism by 67. 67. DNA staining is done by:
another A. crystal violet
B. Geimsa staining
55. The ratio between energy flow at different points along the food C. Methylene blue
chain is called:12 D. Feulgen staining
A. Ecological efficiency
B. Ecological capacity 68. 68. Use of alkaline phosphate is to
C. Ecological-potential A. remove terminal phosphates from 3 end
D. Ecological assimilation B. remove terminal phosphates from 5 end
C. remove terminal phosphates from both end
56. Species with wide geographical ranges which develop locally D. All of these
adapted populations are known as:13
A. Ecological species 69. 69. Taq polymerase is used in PCR because of its:
B. ecotypes A. low thermal stability
C. Ecophenes B. high fidelity
D. Sub-species C. high speed
D. High thermal stability
57. Lincoln Index is used to measure : 14
A. Population size 70. 70. Introduction of recombinant DNA into bacterial cell by using
B. Population mortality rate current is called:
C. Population natality rate A. transformation
D. Population density B. Electroporation
C. transportation
58. The ability of a population of living species to increase under ideal D. transduction
environmental conditions is called:
A. Biotic potential 71. 71. Plant biotecnology involves
B. Carrying capacity A. Production of valuable products in plants
C. Natality B. Repid clonal multiplication of desired genotypes
D. Absolute natality C. Production of virus free plants
D. All of these
59. The population of a widely distributed species gets into two
subpopulation due to the appearance of a mountain barrier. 72. 72. The most common solidifying agent in micropropagation is
eventually these subpopulation evolve two separate species, this is A. Agar
a case of : B. dextran
A. Allopatric speciation C. mannan
B. Parapatric speciation D. All of these
C. Peripatric speciation
D. Sympatric speciation 73. 73. The culturing of cells in liquid agitated medium is called
A. Liquid culture
60. At the mid-latitude, which of the following is associated with hot B. micropropagation
dry summer and cool rainy winter? C. agar culture
A. Boreal Forests D. Suspension culture
B. Chapparal Forests
C. Temperate Broadleaf Deciduous Forests 74. 74. Which of the following is best suited method for production of
D. Temperate Grassland virus free plants
A. embryo culture
61. If serum is removed from the growth medium of human B. meristem culture
embryonic kidney cell line (HEK) then the cells will C. ovule cullture
A. proliferate faster D. anther culture
B. proliferate normally
C. undergo cell cycle arrest 75. 75. All are plant derived except:
D. undergo immediate apoptosis A. menthol
B. nicotine
62. 62. Which one of the following techniques is use to monitor RNA C. quinine
transcripts, both temporally and spatially? D. codeine
A. Northern blotting
B. In situ hybridization 76. 76. The variation in invitro culture is called as
C. Southern blotting A. invitro variation
D. Western blotting B. mutation
C. somacional variation
63. 63. Which of the following microorganisms leach metals out of D. all of these
rock ores and can accumulate silver?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 77. 77. Haploid plants are produced in large numbers by:
B. Thiobacillus A. anther culture
C. Pseudomonas putida B. ovary culture
D. Zoogloea ramigera C. both A and B
D. embryo culture
64. 64. Which of the protein is involved in Alzheimer's disease?
A. A4 78. 78. Animal biotechnology involves
B. Amylin A. production of valuable products in animal using rDNA
C. Fibrin technology
D. Alzhemin B. rapid multiplication of animals of desired genotypes
C. alteration of genes to make it more desirable
65. 65. Which of the modification in hemoglobin is the cause of sickle D. all of these
cell anemia?
A. A mutation in the beta chain 79. 79. Animal cell are used widely for the production of
B. A deletion in the beta chain A. insulin
C. Replacement of the B chain by D chain B. somatostatin
D. None of the above C. mabs
D. thyroxine
80. 80. The first vaccine developed from animal cell culture was
A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. Influenza vaccine
C. Small pox vaccine
D. Polio Vaccine
81. 81. Which of the following are commonly produced in animal cell
cultures
A. interferon
B. mab
C. vaccines
D. all of these
82. 82. The cell line used for the production of polio vaccine was
A. Primate Kidney cell line
B. CHO cell line
C. Dog kidney cell line
D. Mouse fibroblast cell line
83. 83. Recombinant proteins are
A. Proteins synthesized in animals
B. Proteins synthesized by transgene in host cell by DNA
technology
C. Proteins synthesized in cells that are produced by
protoplast fusion
D. Proteins synthesized in mutated cell lines
84. 84. Interferons are
A. anti-bacterial proteins
B. Anti-viral proteins
C. Bacteriostatic proteins
D. All of these
85. 85. The virus commonly used to infect cell cultures for the
production of interferon is
A. Corona virus
B. sendai virus
C. poliovirus
D. Small poxvirus
86. 86. The technique used in animal biotechnology for the rapid
multiplication and production of animals with a desirable genotype
is
A. protoplast fusion and embryo transfer
B. hybrid selection and embryo transfer
C. in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
D. all of these
87. 87. The production of complete animals from somatic cells of an
animal is called
A. gene cloning
B. Animal cloning
C. cell cloning
D. All of these
88. 88. the first successfully animal was
A. Monkey
B. gibbon
C. sheep
D. rabbit
89. 89. In humans, the babies produced by in vitro fertilization and
embryo transfer was popularly called as
A. In vitro babies
B. test tube babies
C. in vitro- in vivo babies
D. all of these
90. 90. Two bacteria most useful in genetic engineering are
A. Rhizobium and Azobacter
B. Nitrosomonas and Klebsilla
C. Escherichia and Agrobacterium
D. Rhizobium and Diplococcus