1.

Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at

2500 ft radio alt
2. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of
75 Mega Hz
3. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?
190- 1759 Khz
4. The HIS provides information on
VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar
5. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during as ILS approach, the aircraft must fly
Down
6. If the 90Hz tone predominates in a localizer receiver, the deviation indicator will show
Fly right
7. Which instrument shows Decision Height
ADI
8. A transponder that is compatible for use with T.C.A.S system would be/
Mode S
9. What modulation is used for beams of a localizer in an ILS
150Hz right of runway centerline, 90HZ left of runway centreline
10. Radio marker information is displayed on
ADI
11. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays
Red, blue, green
12. What devition is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system
10 degree
13. G.P.S
Uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
14. A mode C transponder gives the following info
Altitude
15. What are the shapes of traffic shown on T.C.A.S display
White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
16. The airdata computer inputs to
Altimeter, F.M.C, secondary radar
17. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning
A low range altimeter and configuration on aircraft
18. G.P.W.S mode 1 excessive
Rate of descent
19. If the reference phase differs 30 degree with the variable phase radial from the VOR station will
be
210 degree
20. Directional property is exhibited by
The loop antenna
21. In a A.D.F system, the goniometer
Combines the signals from fixed loop antenna and sense antenna
22. A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) interrogation operates on
A frequency of 1030 Mhz and pulse spacing depending on mode of interrogation
23. In an aircraft VOR receiver
30Hz modulated reference signal compared with 30Hz variable phase signal
24. When a radio altimeter reaches 2,500 ft. What happens to display?
Rad. Alt. goes out of view
25. Magnetic variatiom is the difference in angel between
True north and magnetic north
26. An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a
reading of 090 degree. The tail of the VOR pointer show 135 degree. The available information
from the VOR is
Radial unkonow, relative bearing 045 degree
27. Magnetic heading 280 degree VOR radial 090 degree. What bearing should be selected on the
omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a “TO” indication
90 degree
28. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from VOR
facility sited 340 feedt above mean sea level is approximately
163 NM
29. The two main design function of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are
Air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillan
capability
30. An aircraft on a heading of 280 degree (M) is on a bearing of 090 degree(M) from VOR. The
bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right
deviation needle with a ‘TO’ indication is
270 degree
31. T.C.A.S will issue a traffic advisory if
A collision is within 35-40 seconds of occuring
32. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104 degree radial. Which of the following
settings should be made on VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
104 degree with the TO flag showing
33. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a T.C.A.S display
White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
34. What is the min number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix
4
35. A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360
will obtain a DME range of approximately
6 NM
36. Which of the following is complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilization axes
Roll and pitch
37. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90Hz than 150Hz modulation motes
from the both the localizer and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show
Fly left and fly down
 38. A loop aerial, as used in the ADF, will
Will provide the most accurate bearing when it is algned in the direction resulting in highest
signal strength to the ADF receiver
39. In a Satellite- Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line obtained by
Timing the period that is taken for a satellite’s transmission to reach the aircraft’s receiver
40. In Airborne Weather Radar ( AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be
detected are
Size of the water drops; wavelength/ frequency used
41. When both SSR and primary radar is presented on the controller’s display
The primary radar information is more accurate in bearing and distance
42. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed
A DME station sited on the flight route
43. In an EFIS data primarily to navigation is provide by
Navigation radios, Flight Management Computer, Inertial Reference Systems
44. In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit
UHF
45. On the airbone weather radar display, different colours are used
To display different intensity of precipitation
46. An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an
approximate maximum range of
135 NM
47. A loop

1. The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the :

A. Static pressure.

B. Total pressure.

C. Total pressure plus static pressure.

2. A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the
airspeed indicator to:

A. React like an altimeter.

B. Read a little high.

C. Read a little low.

3. A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s) :

A. Altimeter only.
B. Airspeed indicator only.

C. Vertical speed indicator only.

4. In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate
emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake:

A. Breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window

B. Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin

C. Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible

5. In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is

A. Higher than the true airspeed (TAS).

B. Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).

C. Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).

6. What corrections must be applied to indicated airspeed to produce true airspeed?

A. Correction for heading and altitude.

B. Correction for wind and temperature.

C. Correction for altitude and temperature.

7. The pitot tube supplies:

A. Alternate static pressure.

B. Impact pressure.

C. Dynamic pressure alone.

8. If the alternate static source is used, the resulting reading will be:

A. Too low reading of altitude.

B. Too high reading of altitude.

C. Too low reading of airspeed.

9. Total air pressure consists of static pressure plus:

a. Differential pressure.

b. Total pressure.

c. Dynamic pressure.

10. If the pitot tube is clogged, which instrument(s) is/are affected?

A. Altimeter only.

B. Airspeed indicator only.

C. Vertical speed indicator only.

11. The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known
as:

A. Position pressure error.

B. Barometric error.

C. Instrument error.

12. If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:

A. Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occured

B. Gradually indicate zero

C. Under-read
13. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below
the aircraft are warm is:

A. Higher than the real altitude.

B. The same as the real altitude.

C. Lower than the real altitude.

14. On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:

A. Density altitude

B. Pressure altitude

C. Temperature altitude

15. The density altitude is :

A. The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point

B. The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the standard
temperature

C. The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the
atmosphere

16. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers
below the aircraft are cold is :

a. Lower than the real altitude.

b. The same as the real altitude.

c. Higher than the real altitude.

17. In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter:

A. Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations

B. Overreads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information
during symmetric flight.

C. Overreads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during
symmetric flight.

18. The QNH is by definition the value of the:

A. Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for
which it is given.

B. Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.

C. Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location for
which it is provided.

19. When flying with an indicated altitude of 3000 ft into a low pressure area, the actual altitude:

A. Will decrease.

B. Will increase.

C. Will be the same as indicated altitude.

20. When the barometric subscale of the altimeter is adjusted to 1013.2 hPa, what type of altitude is being
measured?

A. Relative height.

B. Pressure altitude.

C. Indicated altitude.

21. Without readjusting the barometric setting of the Altimeter, it will under-read when:

A. Flying from a low pressure area into a high pressure area.

B. Flying from a high pressure area into a low pressure area.

C. Flying in headwind with constant barometric pressure.

22. We are maintaining a constant flight level. That means:

A. The altitude above sea level is constant.

B. The outside air pressure is constant.

C. The altitude is constant when the sea-level pressure is constant.

23. When the altimeter indicated 0 ft when the aircraft was parked for the night, and 1.000 ft the
following morning, this shows that:

A. The barometric pressure has increased by approx. 33 hPa.

B. The barometric pressure has decreased by approx. 33 hPa.

C. The barometric pressure is constant, but the temperature has fallen during the night.

24. An aircraft is in level flight at FL100 over a mountain range, which extends up to 3300 metres AMSL.
If the regional QNH is 100 hPa (use 30 ft/hPa), what is the approximate terrain clearance?

A. 2.150 feet

B. 1.381 feet

C. Both A & B are wrong

25. If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument
will:

A. Under-read

B. Continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage

C. Over-read

26. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 90?

Given: FL90; departure aerodrome elevation 1500ft; QNH = 1023 hPa; temperature = ISA; 1hPa = 30ft

A. 7300 ft

B. 7800 ft

C. Both A & B are wrong

27. When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True
Airspeed (TAS) will:

A. remain constant

B. increase at a linear rate

C. decrease

28. A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause
it to:

A. over-read.

B. under-read.

C. over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.

29. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 90?

Given: FL 90; departure aerodrome elevation 1500ft; QNH = 1023 hPa; temperature = ISA; 1hPa = 30ft

A. 7300 ft

B. 7800 ft

C. Both A & B are wrong

30. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 80?

Given: FL 80; departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft; QNH = 1013 hPa; temperature = ISA; 1hPa = 30ft

A. 6500 ft

B. 6100 ft

C. Both A & B are wrong

31. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 100?

Given: FL100; departure aerodrome elevation 3000ft; QNH = 1023 hPa; temperature = ISA; 1hPa = 30ft

A. 7300 ft

B. 7500 ft

C. Both A & B are wrong

32. With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same :

A. ground speed.

B. calibrated airspeed.

C. true airspeed.

33. If indicated airspeed is corrected for a positive error, the resulting calibrated airspeed will be:

A. Lower.

B. It will not be CAS but EAS.

C. Higher.

34. Indicated airspeed corrected for position error is:

A. Equivalent air speed.

B. True air speed.

C. Calibrated airspeed.

35. As an airplane climbs higher, the true airspeed for a given indicated airspeed will:

A. Be lower than indicated.

B. The true airspeed and the indicated will be the same.

C. Increase.

36. Indicated airspeed (as read on the airspeed indicator] will:

A. Increase in headwind.

B. Increase in tailwind.

C. Remain unchanged in headwind and tailwind.

37. If, when correcting an EAS value of 150 Kt, a TAS value of 146 Kt is obtained:

A. an error must have been made in the calculation.

B. no allowance has been made for compressibility.

C. the density of the atmosphere must be greater than the ISA mean sea level air density.

38. The reason for having a square-law compensation in the airspeed-indicator mechanism is:

A. The static pressure decreases with altitude according to a square law.

B. The density of the air decreases with altitude according to a square law.

C. The differential pressure increases with the square of the airspeed.

39. TAS is:

A. ground speed

B. the reading on the ASI

C. the aircraft's true airspeed which is EAS corrected for altitude and temperature

40. The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio :

A. (Pt + Ps) to Ps

B. (Pt - Ps) to Pt

C. (Pt - Ps) to Ps

41. The Mach number is the:

a equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of sound

b corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of sound

C. true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound

42. Indication of Mach number is obtained from:

A. Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS) from the air data computer

B. An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers instead of knots

C. Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator equipped with an altimeter type aneroid

43. The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:

A. 544 kt.

B. 1000 kt.

C. 661 kt.

44. If the ambient temperature decreases, the TAS of an aircraft cruising at a constant Mach number
will:

A. remain constant

B. increase because local speed of sound decreases

C. decrease because local speed of sound decreases

45. The Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) give:

A. Immediate trend information and immediate climb or descent information.

B. Immediate trend information and stable climb or descent information after 6 to 12 seconds
(depending on type).

C. No trend information, but stable climb or descent information after 6 to 12 seconds (depending on
type).

46. The ram air temperature (RAT) is defined as:

A. the OAT (outside air temp.) plus the SAT.

B. the temperature raise caused by adiabatic compression.

C. SAT plus the ram rise.

47. An aircraft altimeter has been set for a regional QNH of 1010 hPa, but it is operating in an area
where msl pressure is 1000 hPa. The altimeter is indicating 2000 ft; actual height amsl is:

A. 2300 fts

B. 1730 fts

C. 1940 fts

48. An aircraft is flying at a TAS of 400 knots at an altitude where the LSS is 550 knots. The aircraft’s
mach number is:

A. 0.65

B. 0.82

C. 0.73

49. The vertical speed indicator indications may be in error for some seconds after starting or finishing a
climb or descent. The error is a result of:

A. a combination of time lag and manoeuvre induced errors.

B. a combination of position error and manoeuvre induced errors.

C. manoeuvre induced errors only.

50. The advantage of having the VSI dial presentation in logarithmic spacing rather than in linear spacing
is that:

A. at low rates of climb or descent the pointer movement is much larger and so is more easily read.

B. readings are instantaneous.

C. a greater range of rates of climb and descent is shown.