FIITJEE COMMON TEST

for

Batch : CFY(2327)
PHASE TEST-V
QP CODE:
Time : 2 hours Maximum Marks : 100

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Instructions

➢ The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
➢ Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.
➢ Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
➢ Section – III contains 13 questions of Physics.
➢ Section – IV contains 13 questions of Chemistry.
➢ Section – V contains 14 questions of Biology.
➢ Each question carries +1 marks.
➢ There is No negative marking.
➢ Attempt All questions.
➢ Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
➢ All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
➢ The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
➢ This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate :

Enrolment Number :

Date of Examination : Centre :

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SECTION – I (SST)

1. Which one was not included in the Balkan region?

(A) Croatia (B) Bosnia Harzegovina (C) Serbia (D) Spain

2. Which of the following is the term used for Bismark's policy?

(A) Steel and Iron policy (B) Hand Shake policy
(C)Blood and Iron policy (D) Golden Goose policy

3. Which of the following soils is rich in humus content?

(A) Black soil (B) Laterite soil (C) Red soil (D) Alluvial soil

4. India has got the right to mine manganese nodules in the Indian ocean which belongs to
(A) National resource (B) Potential resource (C) International resource (D) Stock

5. A nation-state is a state where:

(A) People of all groups enjoy equal rights
(B) Where the nation has its own emblem and flag
(C) A state which has a contiguous territory
(D) A state where people live in a common territory, develop a sense of identity and share a common history

6. Resource planning is a process which involves:

(i) Identification and inventory of the resources
(ii) Surveying mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of resources.
(iii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology and skill.
(A) (i) and (ii) are true (B) All are incorrect (C) (i) and (ii) are true (D) All are true

7. What is area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area known as ?
(A) Permanent pastures (B) Fallow lands (C) Net sown area (D) Gross cropped area

8. Who among the following was described as 'the most dangerous enemy of social order' by Duke Metternich?
(A) Louis Philippe (B) Karol Kurpinski (C) Giuseppe Mazzini (D) Johann Gottfried

9. What does the term Le 'Citoyen' imply?

(A) The fatherland (B) Napoleonic Code (C) The Citizen (D) Aristocratic class.

10. Under the Treaty of Vienna 1815, who was given Control of Northern. Italy?
(A) Russia (B) Poland (C) Austria (D) France

11. Which of the following advocated 'Resource Conservation' in 1968

(A) Brundtland Commission Report (B) Earth Summit
(C) Club of Rome (D) Montreal Protocol.

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12. The another name for 'Earth Summit' (1992) is -

(A) United Nations Convention on climate change
(B) United Nations Conference on Human environment
(C) United Nations Conference on Environment & Development
(D) None of these

13. Which of the following land is left uncultivated for more than 5 years so that it can regain its fertility.
(A) Current fallow land (B) Cultivable waste land (C) Barren & Waste land (D) Cross Cropped Area

14. When was Ireland incorportated in the U.K. ?

(A) 1803 AD (B) 1801 AD (C) 1815 AD (D) 1814 AD

15. Which of the following factors affect land use pattern?

(A) Topography (B) Soil Type (C) Culture & Traditions (D) All are correct

16. Which soil is rich in potash & lime but poor in phosphoric Content ?
(A) Alluvial Soil (B) Laterite Soil (C) Black Soil (D) Red Soil

17. The Demerits of Napoleonic Code (1804) were

(A) Increased Taxation (B) Censorship (C) Detention without trial (D) Only (A) & (B)

18. The Treaty of Constantinople Signed in 1832 identified ________ as an independent Country.
(A) Italy (B) Bosnia (C) Greece (D) Serbia

19. Karol Kurpinski was a ________ nationalist hero who cultivated nationalist feelings through his operas &
music.
(A) Polish (B) Greek (C) French (D) Russian

20. The Customs Union 'Zollverein' was the initiative of -

(A) Austria (B) Prussia (C) Russia (D) France

21. The Dutch speaking people are in majority in Belgium but they agreed to share equal number of ministers in
the central government because
(A) They thought that French speaking people also had equal rights as they had
(B) They have got equal share in the government of Brussels
(C) They did not want to break Belgium
(D) French speaking people pressurized them to accept that proposal

22. The Belgian model provides a special arrangement called the community government. It signifies
(A) The powers of the government regarding community development
(B) The powers of the government regarding law making for the community
(C) The powers of the government regarding cultural educational and language related issue
(D) The government enjoys privileges to safe-guard the interest of a particular community

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23. Vertical division of power is
(A) A system is which each organs of government checks the others
(B) A types of distribution in which power is shared among different organs of government
(C) A type of distribution of power which involves the higher and lower levels of government elected by people
(D) A type of government elected by people

24. What was / were demand(s) of the Sri Lankan Tamils, denying of which led to the civil war?
(A) Recognition of Tamil as an official language (B) Regional autonomy for Tamil inhabited areas
(C) equal opportunity in education and jobs (D) All the above

25. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human development than
India?
(A) Bangladesh (B) Sri Lanka (C) Nepal (D) Pakistan

26. The diversion channels of the Western Himalayas are called

(A) Canals (B) Inundation Channels (C) Kuls (D) Khadins

27. If getting more wages is developmental goal for a labourer, then which of the following is not the same for an
industrialist
(A) liberal export policy (B) More profit (C) Labour union (D) Cheap labourers

28. Read the statement

"We have not inherited the world from our forefathers - we have borrowed it from our children"
This statement refers to
(A) Economic development (B) Sustainable development
(C) Social development (D) Human development

29. Horizontal distribution of power implies

(A) Sharing of power amongst various Tiers of government.
(B) Sharing of power with weaker Social groups.
(C) Sharing of power amongst different organs of government at any given level.
(D) Nome of there.

30. The likely outcomes if power Sharing is not done properly in a Country and majoritarianism is practised -
(A) Political Instability (B) Human Rights violations
(C) civil Wars (D) All are correct.

31. By which Act, Sinhala recognised as only official language in Sri Lanka
(A) Act of 1948 (B) Act of 1956 (C) Act of 1952 (D) Act of 1961

32. Which of the following Community was not present in Belgium? ?

(A) Dutch (B) German (C) Spanish (D) French

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33. Which of the following influence the government in a power-Sharing model. ?

(A) Political Parties (B) Pressure groups (C) Movements. (D) All are Correct.

34. Belgian Constitution was amended 4 times between -

(A) 1969 & 1995 (B) 1970 & 1993 (C) 1970 & 1995 (D) 1965 & 1990

35. As per the world Development Report, 2019, Rich or High Income Countries are those with per Capita income
of -
(A) 49,300$ per annum and above (B) 6700$ per annum and above
(C) 45000$ per annum abs and above (D) None of these

36. What are the limitations of Income Approach of Development?

(A) It hides inequalities.
(B) It does not give any information regarding non-materialistic goods and Services like peace, Good
environment etc.
(C) Both are Correct
(D) None is correct

37. The proportion of literate population in the ______ age group is called literacy rate
(A) 7 & above (B) 11 & above (C) 12 & above (D) 14 years of age.

38. The 1st Human Development Report, published by UNDP in the year -
(A) 1990 (B) 1986 (C) 1992 (D) 1991

39. Which is not the component of Human development Index (HDI)

(A) Health measured in terms of Infant Mortality Rate (B) Education
(C) Standard of living (D) All are components of HDI

40. The process of economic development which aims at maintaining the quality of life of both present and future
generations
(A) Flexible Development (B) Sustainable Development
(C) Community Development (D) Agenda 21

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SECTION – II (MATHEMATICS)

1. The least positive number which when divided by 3, 4, 5, 6 gives remainder 1 in each case but when divided
by 11 gives no remainder is N . Then sum of digit of N is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6.

2. The unit digit of 223 + 225 + 227 + 229 + + 2223

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 6

3. If  and  are the roots of x 2 + 3ax + 2b then the quadratic equation whose roots are 2 + 1 and 2 + 1.

(A) x2 − (9a2 − 4b + 4)x + 4b2 + 9a2 − 4b + 1 (B) x2 − (9a2 − 4b + 2)x + 4b2 + 9a2 − 4b + 1

(C) x2 − (9a2 − 4b + 2)x + 4b2 + 9a2 − 4b + 2 (D) x2 − (9a2 − 4b + 4)x + 4b2 + 9a2 − 4b + 2

4. HCF of P(x) = x3 + 2x2 − 5x − 6 and Q(x) = x2 + 4x + 3 is

(A) x + 1 (B) (x + 3) (C) 1 (D) ( x + 1)(x + 3) .

5. The value of k for which the given system of equations 5x + 2y = K , 10x + 4y = 3 has infinitely many
solutions.
3
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) (D) None
2

6. The sum of the two numbers is 30 and the larger number exceeds the smaller number by 6 . Find the
numbers
(A) 18, 12 (B) 21, 15 (C) 16,14 (D) 20,10

7. The unit digit. 71435 is -

(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 3 (D) 1

x +1 3 10
8. + = , the values of x which satisfy the given conditions are  and  , then 2 + 2 is -
3 x +1 3
(A) 10 (B) 100 (C) 109 (D) None

9. If f(x) = 2x3 + 3x2 − 7x + 5 , then find f( −1) + f(1) + f( −2) + f(2) .

(A) 13 (B) 20 (C) 22 (D) 25

10. If the plynomials ax3 + 3x 2 − 13 and 2x3 − 5x + a are divided by (x − 2) , the remainder are the same, then
the value of a is-
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

11. If the roots are in the 3:5 for the equation 3ax2 + 5bx + 2c = 0 , then

(A) 64ac = 25b2 (B) 36ac = 25b2 (C) 128 ac = 125b2 (D) None

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1
12. If x = ; then find the value of x5 − 11x 4 − 43x3 + 31x2 − 2x + 4 .
7−4 3
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

13. Sum of two number is 42 and LCM of these numbers are 72, if HCF is 6, then sum digits of larger number is-
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

14. The largest number which when divided by 267, 553, 358 will gives remainder 7 in each case -
(A) 26 (B) 13 (C) 39 (D) 65

15. The unit digit of 795 − 358 .

(A) 0 (B 4 (C) 6 (D) 7

16. If P(x) = x3 − 3x2 + 2x + 5 and P(a) = P(b) = P(c) = 0 then the value of (2 − a)(2 − b)(2 − c) is:
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9

17. Find the square root of (4a + 5b + 5c)2 − (5a + 4b + 4c)2 + 9a2

(A) 3(b + c) (B) 3(b+c-a) (C) 3(b+c) (D) (2(b+c-a)

18. Meena can row downstream 20km in 2 hours, and upstream 4 km in 2 hours. The speed of the current is.
10 25 15 36
(A) m / sec (B) m / sec (C) m / sec (D) m / sec .
9 18 18 17

9
19. The lines 2x + y + 3 = 0 and 3x + ky + = 0 coincide for k .
2
(A) 1/ 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 / 2 (D) 2

20. The value of k for which the equation x 2 − 16x + k has equal roots.
(A) 256 (B) 64 (C) 16 (D) 24

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SECTION – III (PHYSICS)

1. A lens is made up of three different materials, having refractive indices µ1, µ2 and µ3. as shown in the figure.
Three rays parallel to the principal axis get refracted as shown in the figure below.
.... 
...... 1
.........
........
..........
2

..........
.......
.......
.... 
3

(A) µ1>µ3> µ2 (B) µ1< µ2< µ3 (C) µ1> µ2> µ3 (D) µ1> µ2< µ3

2. An object of length 2.5 cm is placed perpendicular to principal axis at a distance of 1.5 f from a concave mirror
where f is the focal length of concave mirror. Then the length of the image is..
(A) 5cm (B) 10cm (C) 2cm (D) 6cm

3. A thin lens of power 2D is kept in contact with a plane mirror. A ray of light parallel to the principal axis after
refraction and reflection as shown in figure passes through point P at principal axis. Find the distance OP.

P O

(A) 50 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 30cm (D) 100 cm

4. If an object is placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors, inclined at an angle of 72° then the total
number of images formed is:
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) infinite

5. Two lenses of power − 15 D and + 5 D are in contact with each other. The focal length of the combination?
(A) − 20 cm (B) − 10 cm (C) + 20 cm (D) + 10 cm

6. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and refractive index . If c is speed of the light in vacuum
then the time taken by light to travel through the glass plate is
tc t t
(A) tc (B) (C) (D)
 c c

7. The bottom of a container filled with liquid appear slightly raised because of
(A) Refraction (B) Interference (C) Diffraction (D) Reflection

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8. Total internal reflection occurs when light passes

(A) from denser to rarer medium
(B) from rarer to denser medium
(C) from one medium to another of equal refractive index
(D) from one medium to another of equal absorption coefficient.

9. To an eye placed at a depth h below the calm surface of refractive index  in a lake, the surface appears like
a reflecting plane mirror with a circular hole of radius R through which objects situated outside water can be
seen. Then R is equal to
h h
(A) h (B) (C) h (D)
  −1
2

10. A convex lens is made up of three different materials as shown ‘i’ the figure. For a point object places
on its axis, the number of images formed are:
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 4

11. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at an angle 60°. If a ray of light incident on the first mirror is
parallel to the second mirror, it is reflected from the second mirror:
(A) Perpendicular to the first mirror (B) Parallel to the first mirror
(C) Parallel to the second mirror (D) Perpendicular to the second mirror.

12. A water drop in air refracts the light ray as

(A) (B)

No light

(C) (D)

13. When monochromatic light passes from vacuum to a material medium and vice versa, which of the following
characteristic of light beam does not change?
(A) Velocity (B) Intensity (C) Wavelength (D) Frequency

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SECTION – IV (CHEMISTRY)

1. The pH of the solution formed when 0.02 mol of HCl is added to enough water to make the final volume 2.0 L
is
(A) 1.67 (B) 2.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 10.0

2. Which of the following equation is balanced correctly?

(A) Cu+8HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 6NO + 4H2O (B) 3Cu+4HNO3 → 3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O
(C) 3Cu + 6HNO3 → 3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O (D) 3Cu + 8HNO3 → 3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O

3. Given the following four observations of the reactions of four metals:

(i) Metals F and G slowly react with water
(ii) Metal H will displace metal G form its chloride salt solution
(iii) Metal E will not react with dilute acids
(iv) Metal H will NOT displace metal F from its sulphate salt solution
What is their reactivity order, from the most to the least reactive?
(A) H > G > F > E (B) F > H > G > E (C) H > E > F > G (D) E > G > H > F

4. For the following reaction:

Fe2O3 + 3CO ⎯⎯⎯

→ 2Fe + 3CO2
Which acts an ‘reducing agent’?
(A) CO2 (B) Fe (C) CO (D) Fe2O3

5. Which of the following is not a base according to any of the theories?

−
(A) Mg(OH)2 (B) NH3 (C) H2PO 4 (D) None of these

6. Sodium oxide + water → sodium hydroxide [Na2O + H2O → 2NaOH] is an example of

(A) Decomposition reaction (B) Simple displacement reaction
(C) Double decomposition reaction (D) Synthesis or direct combination reaction

7. The dead burnt plaster is

1
(A) CaSO4  2H2O (B) CaSO4  H2O (C) CaSO4 (D) 2CaSO4  H2O
2

8. On electrolysis of brine solution, the products formed are

(A) Sodium and chlorine (B) Hydrogen, chlorine and oxygen
(C) Hydrogen, chlorine and sodium hydroxide (D) Sodium hydroxide, chlorine and oxygen

9. Which of the following substances will not give carbon dioxide on treatment with dilute acid?
(A) Marble (B) Limestone (C) Baking soda (D) Lime

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10. When scrap iron is added to blue sulphate solution, a pinky-brown deposit is formed and a pale green solution
is left above it. The pale green solution is of
(A) Iron sulphate (B) Copper chloride (C) Iron oxide (D) Sulphuric acid

11. Basic copper carbonate contains

(A) CuCl2 (B) CuCO3 . Cu(OH)2 (C) Cu(OH)2 (D) CuSO4

12. When aqueous solution of sodium chloride is electrolyzed

(A) Hydrogen is discharged at cathode (B) Hydrogen is discharged at anode
(C) Sodium is liberated at anode (D) No hydrogen is liberated.

13. Which of the following is(are) Lewis acid?

(i) AlCl3 (ii) BF3 (iii) NH3 (iv) PH3
(A) Only (i) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (ii) (D)(ii) and (iv)

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SECTION – V (BIOLOGY)

1. Which is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal

(A) Mouth → stomach → small intestine → oesophagus → large intestine
(B) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → large intestine → small intestine
(C) Mouth → stomach → oesophagus → small intestine → large intestine
(D) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine

2. In which part of the alimentary canal food is finally digested ?

(A) Stomach (B) Mouth cavity (C) Large intestine (D) Small intestine

3. Which of the following is most appropriate for aerobic respiration?

(A) Glucose ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

mitochondria
→ Pyruvate ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
cytoplasm
→
CO2 +H2O + Energy

(B) Glucose ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Pyruvate ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →

cytoplasm mitochondria
CO2 +H2O +Energy

(C) Glucose ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Pyruvate + Energy ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

cytoplasm mitochondria
→ CO2 + H2O

(D) Glucose ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Pyruvate + Energy ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

cytoplasm mitochondria
→ CO2 + H2O + Energy

4. Which is the correct sequence of air passage during inhalation?

(A) Nostrils → larynx → pharynx → trachea → lungs
(B) Nasal passage → trachea → pharynx → larynx → alveoli
(C) larynx → nostrils → pharynx → lungs
(D) Nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea → alveoli

5. In which of the following vertebrate group/groups, heart does not pump oxygenated blood to different parts of
the body ?
(A) Pisces and amphibians (B) Amphibians and reptiles
(C) Amphibians only (D) Pisces only

6. The filtration units of kidneys are called

(A) ureter (B) urethra (C) neurons (D) nephrons

7. The internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs is

(A) glycogen (B) protein (C) starch (D) fatty acid

8. During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings, pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid in the
(A) cytoplasm (B) chloroplast (C) mitochondria (D) golgi body

9. Which vitamin is responsible for the formation of prothrombin during blood clotting ?
(A) Vitamin K (B) Vitamin A (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin B complex

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10. The instrument used to measure blood pressure is called

(A) Spirometer (B) Sphygmomanometer (C) ECG (D) EEG

11. The function of the lining of mucus in the nasal passage of human beings is to
(A) Increase the temperature of inhaled air (B) Move the air in and out
(C) Filter the air that we breathe in (D) Absorb oxygen from the air

12. Opening and closing of stomatal pore depends on

(A) atmospheric temperature (B) oxygen concentration around stomata
(C) carbon dioxide concentration around stomata (D) water content in the guard cells

13. What is common between extensive network of blood vessels around walls of alveoli and in glomerulus of
nephron ?
(A) Thick walled arteries richly supplied with blood (B) Thin walled veins poorly supplied with blood
(C) Thick walled capillaries poorly supplied with blood (D) Thin walled capillaries richly supplied with blood

14. In which of the following groups of organisms, food material is broken down outside the body and then
absorbed in ?
(A) Mushroom, green plants, amoeba (B) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(C) Paramecium, amoeba, cuscuta (D) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm

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FIITJEE PHASE TEST-V

for

QP CODE: XXXX.0
SAT
SECTION-A SST
1. D 11. C 21. B 31. B
2. C 12. C 22. C 32. C
3. D 13. B 23. C 33. D
4. C 14. B 24. D 34. B
5. D 15. D 25. B 35. A
6. D 16. C 26. C 36. C
7. D 17. D 27. C 37. A
8. C 18. C 28. B 38. A
9. C 19. A 29. C 39. A
10. C 20. B 30. D 40. B

SECTION-B MATHEMATICS
1. B 6. A 11. C 16. B
2. C 7. C 12. D 17. C
3. B 8. B 13. B 18. A
4. D 9. C 14. B 19. C
5. C 10. A 15. B 20. B

SECTION-C PHYSICS
1. A 5. B 9. D 13. D
2. A 6. D 10. C
3. B 7. A 11. B
4. B 8. A 12. B

SECTION-D CHEMISTRY
1. B 5. D 9. D 13. C
2. D 6. D 10. A
3. B 7. C 11. B
4. C 8. C 12. A

SECTION-D BIOLOGY
1. D 5. D 9. A 13. D
2. D 6. D 10. B 14. B
3. D 7. C 11. C
4. D 8. A 12. D

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MATHEMATICS (Solutions)

1. N = LCM(3,4,5,6)q + 1 = 60q + 1.

For q = 2,N = 121

2. 223 + 225 → unit digit = 0 .

similarly 227 + 229 → 0

 by pairing only 2223 left which gives. unit digit -8 .

3. x 2 + 3ax + 2b
 +  = −3a

 = 2b

2 + 2 = ( + )2 − 2 = 9a2 − 4b.

Quadratic equation whose roots are 2 + 1 and 2 + 1

sum (  + 1) + ( + 1) =  +  + 2 = 9a − 4b + 2
2 2 2 2 2

product ( + 1)( + 1) =   +  +  + 1 = 4b
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
+ 9a2 − 4b + 1

Now verify the option.

4. Q(x) = x2 + 4x + 3 = (x + 1)(x + 3)
Now check which one is a factor of P(x)

For (x + 1) P( −1) = −1 + 2 + 5 − 6 = 0

For (x + 3) P( −3) = −27 + 18 + 15 − 6 = 0 ,

 (x + 1) and (x + 3) both are factor.

5. For infinitely many solutions

a1 b1 c1 5 2 K 1 k
= =  = =  =
a2 b2 c 2 10 4 3 2 3
3
k =
2

6. x + y = 30
x–y=6
 x = 18; y = 12

7. Cyclicity of 7 is 4. Therefore by dividing power by cyclicity, remainder is 3.

For 3 remainder corresponding unit digit is 3.

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Four Year CRP (2327)-CF_X Lot_PT-5- 2

x +1 3 10 1
8. + = =3+ .
3 x +1 3 3
x +1 x +1 1
 =3 or =
3 3 3
k + 1 = 9  x = 10 x + 1 = 1  x = 0.

  = 10; = 0. 2 + 2 = 100

9. f( −2) = 2(−8) + 3(4) − 7( −2) + 5 = −16 + 12 − 14 + 5 = −13

f( −1) = −2 + 3 + 7 + 5 = 13

f(1) = 2 + 3 − 7 + 5 = 3

f(2) = 2(8) + 3(4) − 7(2) + 5 = 16 + 12 − 14 + 5 = 19

 f( −2) + f( −1) + f(1) + f(2) = −13 + 13 + 3 + 19 = 22

10. P(x) = ax3 + 3x2 − 13 Q(x) = 2x3 − 5x + a .

Given that P(2) = Q(2)

 8a + 12 − 13 = 2(8) − 5(2) + a
 8a − 1 = 16 − 10 + a.
 7a = 7  a =1

5b 2c
11.  +  = − ;  =
3a 3a

25b2
( + )2 = 2 + 2 + 2 =
9a2
Divide by  both sides,

  25b2 3a
+ + = 
  9a2 2c
 3 3 5 25b2
=  + +2=
 5 5 3 6ac
64 25 2
 = b
15 6ac
 128ac = 125b2 .

1
12. x =  7 + 4 3  (x − 7) = 4 3
7−4 3

squaring both sides, (x − 7)2 = (4 3)2

 x2 + 49 − 14x = 48  x 2 − 14x + 1 = 0

 x5 − 11x 4 − 43x3 + 31x2 − 2x + 4

( ) ( )( ) (
 x3 x2 − 14x + 1 + 3 x2 x2 − 14x + 1 − 2x x 2 − 14x + 1 + 4 )
4

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 Four Year CRP (2327)-CF_X Lot_PT-5- 3

13. a,b → numbers

Let a = dm and b = dn .
where d = HCF and m, n are co-prime.
Then, Given that Sum = a + b = dm + dn = d(m + n) = 42
42 42
 m+n = = =7
d 6
LCM = dmn = 6 mn = 72
 mn = 12
If m + n = 7 & mn = 12 then m = 4 and n = 3. Hence larger numbers is a = dm = 6 × 4 = 24.

14. 267 = dq + 7
553 = dm + 7
358 = dn + 7
Where d is the largest number or divisor
 dq = 260
dm = 546
dn = 351
For largest d, find HCF (260, 546, 351) i.e., 13.

15. Cyclicity of 7 and 3 are same and. i.e. 4 .

 Remainder when 95 divided by 4 is 3, corresponding unit digit is 3.
Remainder when 58 is divided by 4 is 2
Corresponding unit digit is 9
Now, verify, the option. (3 − 9)  13 − 9 = 4 .

16. If P(a) = P(b) = P(c) = 0 , then a, b, c are roots of P(x) .

 P(x) = x3 − 3x 2 + 2x + 5 = (x − a)(x − b)(x − c)

( )
P(2) = 23 − 3 22 + 2(2) + 5 = (2 − a)(2 − b)(2 − c)
= 8 − 12 + 4 + 5 = 5

17.  (4a + 5b + 5c)2 − (5a + 4b + 4c)2 + 9a2

(4a + 5b + 5c − (5a + 4b + 4c))(4a + 5b + 5c + (5a + 4b + 4c)) + 9a2

 (−a + b + c)(9a + 9b + 9c) + 9a2

 9(b + c − a)(b + c + a) + 9a2

 9 (b + c)2 − a2  + 9a2

 

 9(b + c)2 − 9a2 + 9a2

 9(b + c)2

 9(b + c)2 = 3(b + c)

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Four Year CRP (2327)-CF_X Lot_PT-5- 4

18. Speed of boat & current are x and y.

20
then x+y = = 10 .
2
4
and x − y = =2
2
 x = 6 km / hr & y = 4 km / h .

1000 5 10
y = 4 m / sec. = 4  = m / sec .
3600 18 9

a1 b1 c1
19. For coincide. = = .
a2 b2 c 2

2 1 3
 = =
3 k 9/2
3
 k= .
2

20. For equal roots D = 0

b2 − 4ac = 0

(16)2 − 4(k) = 0
k = 64

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