Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MODEL TEST - 30

REASONING AND COMPUTER APTITUDE

Direction: (1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.

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Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table.
Some of them are facing towards the center and some of them are facing away
from the center and each one has different qualifications viz., BA, MA, B.Com,
M.Com, BSC, MSC, B.Tech and M.Tech but not necessarily in the same order.
Persons who are facing away from the center are not sitting each other.
ha
R sits second to the left of the one whose qualification is B.Com and both are
not facing same direction. W is an immediate neighbour of R and faces away from
the center. S sits to the immediate right of the one whose qualification is M.Com
and both are facing same direction and either of the person is an immediate

E
neighbour of the one whose qualification is B.Com. U sits opposite to the one
whose qualification is BSC and both are not facing same direction and neither of
d
them is immediate to W. T’s qualification is MA and sits second to the right of the
one whose qualification is MSC. V sits third to the left of the one whose qualifica-
tion is M.Tech and both are facing the same direction. P doesn’t have the BSC
ee

and the M.Com qualifications. Persons, whose qualifications are BA and MA are
sitting each other.
1. What is the position of U with respect to the one whose qualification is MA?
1) 3rd right 2) 3rd left 3) 2nd right 4) 2nd left 5) 4th left
C
2. How many persons are sitting between V and the one whose qualification is BA?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) Both two and four
Sr

3. Who among the following are facing away from the center?
1) PQR 2) PQW 3) PWV 4) SUT 5) RVT
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group, which
one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) SV 2) PQ 3) RP 4) PW 5) RU
5. Who is sitting fourth to the right of the one who is sitting third to the left of the
one whose qualification is MA?
C
1) P 2) One whose qualification is BSC
2) S 4) One whose qualification is M.Tech 5) R
Direction (6-8): In the question below there are four statements followed by three
conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the four given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four statements disre-
garding commonly known facts.
6. Statements: Only a few Balls are Bats All Bats are Stumps
No Stump is Wicket Some Wickets are Helmets
Conclusions: I. Some Wickets are not Stump
II. Some Helmets are Bats
III. Some Helmets are not Bats
1) Only Conclusion (I) follows 2) Only Conclusion (II) and (III) follows
3) Only Conclusion (I) and (III) follows
4) Either Conclusion (II) or (III) follows
5) Only Conclusion (I) and Either Conclusion (II) or (III) follows

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

7. Statements: All the Students are Teachers

Only a few teachers are Good
No Good is Bad All Bad is Worst
Conclusions: I. Some Students are Good
II. Some Good is not worst
III. Some Students are not Good
1) Only Conclusion (II) follows 2) Only Conclusion (II) and (III) follows
3) Either Conclusion (I) or (III) follows
4) All Conclusion (I), (II), and (III) follow
5) Only Conclusion (I) follows
8. Statements: Only a few Flights are Buses
Some Buses are Cars

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No Car is Bike
All Bikes are Bicycles
Conclusions: I. Some Cars are Bicycles
II. Some Bicycles are not Cars
III. Some Buses are Flights
1) Only Conclusion (I) and (II) follows
ha
2) Only Conclusion (II) and (III) follows
3) Only Conclusion (III) follows 4) Either Conclusion (I) or (II) follows
5) Only Conclusion (III) and either (I) or (II) follows
Direction: (9-13) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.

E
Eight persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line and
d
facing the north direction. B is sitting fourth to the right of D and neither of them
is sitting at extreme ends of the line. G is sitting immediate left of either B or D.
Only one person is sitting between G and F but F is not an immediate neighbour
ee

of D. As many persons are sitting to the left of E as to the right of C. H is sitting to

the immediate left of A but not an immediate neighbour of D.
9. Who is sitting second to the right of D?
1) A 2) C 3) G 4) E 5) Either E or C
C
10. Who are the immediate neighbours of G?
1) BC 2) EB 3) CF 4) EF 5) Either BC or EB
Sr

11. How many of them are sitting to the right of A?

1) One 2) Two 3) Four 4) Six 5) Seven
12. How many of them are sitting between F and the one who is sitting to the imme-
diate right of D?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
5) Either two or three
13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group which one
doesn’t belongs to that group?
C
1) CE 2) BD 3) BA 4) HF 5) DG
14. In the given number ‘25348671’, if ‘1’ is subtracted from all the even digits and
‘2’ is added to all the odd digits, then how many digits will appear more than once
in the new number thus formed?
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) Four 5) More than four
15. Recently it was announced by a popular brand of cold drink that it plans an
investment of over Rs 50 crore to boost mango yields within a period of 10 years by
enabling farmers with advanced technology. Which of the following can be an
assumption made by the brand of a popular cold drink? (An assumption is some-
thing supposed or taken for granted)
1) Private companies are expected to invest in agriculture as a part of corporate
social responsibility.
2) Lack of availability of advanced technology is one of the reasons for not getting
maximum crop yield.
3) Most companies that invest in mango farming are food and beverage industries.
4) Mango crops are seasonal and bear fruits for a limited period of time.
5) Such investments in agriculture are very rare and do not pay off very well.

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

Direction: (16-18) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.
Target Reach Happy Life is coded as Blue Violet Red Indigo
Better Life Enjoy Goal is coded as White Black Purple Indigo
Happy Dream Reach Enjoy is coded as Blue White Violet Orange
Goal Happy Ends Duty is coded as Green Yellow Violet Black
16. What is the code for the word “DUTY” in given below options?
1) Yellow 2) Green 3) Violet 4) Black
5) Either Yellow or Green
17. “Purple” is coded as which of the following word?
1) Better 2) Life 3) Enjoy 4) Goal
5) Either Better or Goal

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18. If “BETTER DUTY” is coded as “PURPLE YELLOW”, then how will “DREAM ENDS”
be coded in that language?
1) Orange Yellow 2) Green Purple
3) Orange Green 4) Orange Purple 5) Either 1 or 3
Direction: (19-23) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.
ha
Ten persons - A, D, F, H, L, N, P, S, T and X are living in a five floored
building and each floor has two flats viz., Flat-A and Flat-B. Flat-B is to the East
of Flat-A. H is living above the floor of X and both are living in an even numbered
floor and both are living in same flat. D is living immediately above the flat of N,

E
who is living with either H or X in the same floor. T is living to the west of L but
not in the ground floor of the building. L is living below the floor of S. F is living
immediately below the flat of P. A and F are living in odd numbered floor but may
d
or may not living in the same floor. F is not living in Flat-B.
19. Who is living immediately above “X” floor?
1) L 2) T 3) A 4) F 5) Both L and T
ee

20. How many persons live between the floor of “N” and “F”?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than Four
21. In which direction “F” lives with respect to “L”?
1) South 2) North 3) North-east 4) South-west 5) North-west
C
22. Who is living in first floor of Flat-A and Flat-B respectively?
1) AF 2) TL 3) AN 4) NA 5) FA
Sr

23. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group,
which one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) DH 2) PL 3) DS 4) PA 5) XT
24. Read the given information to answer the given question:
The collector of area X presented an estimated budget of approximately Rs.80
crore to the government for repairing the roads in area X of city Y and constructing
a new bridge in the area which is 1km in length and 80 feet wide.
Which of the following is an assumption implicit in the given statement ?
(A)Area X is facing the problem of traffic for which a new bridge is required so
C
that traffic conditions can be smoothened.
(B)The funds available with the government are sufficient to meet the demand
estimated in the budget.
(C)The roads in other areas of city Y are in good condition and don’t need repairing.
1) Only (B) & (C) 2) All (A), (B) & (C) 3) Only (A) & (B)
4) Only (A) 5) Only (C)
Direction: (25-27) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.
In a family C, D, F, G, H, L, M and S are there and no other person is there
in this family. S is the child of M and brother of C. L is the Son-in-law of F and
brother-in-law of C. S is the maternal uncle of G, who is the cousin of H. H is the
Grand-son of M.Both are of same gender and H is not the child of S. D is the aunt
of H.
25. How is G related to S?
1) Uncle 2) Nephew 3) Aunt 4) Niece 5) Either Nephew or Niece
26. If J is the mother of H, then how is C related to F?
1) Son-in-law 2) Son 3) Daughter 4) Aunt 5) Daughter-in-law

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

27. If H is the only Grand-Son of F, then how is G related to C?

1) Aunt 2) Uncle 3) Nephew 4) Niece
5) Either Nephew or Niece
Directions (Q. 28): Study the following comment and select the appropriate answer
from the given options.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II weaken the comment.
2) Statement I strengthens the comment while Statement II weakens the comment.
3) Statement I weakens the comment while Statement II strengthens the comment.
4) Both Statement I and Statement II strengthen the comment.
5) Statement I weakens the comment while Statement II is a neutral Statement.
28. Comment: In order to deal with the problem of lack of access to electricity in
State Y. the energy sector should be completely privatized.

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Statement I: In one of its neighboring States, the energy sector has been privatized
while in the other it is controlled by the government.
Statement II: On privatization of the energy sector, both power generation as
well as distribution remain under private control.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II weaken the comment.
2) Statement I weakens the comment while Statement II strengthens the comment.
ha
3) Statement I strengthens the comment while Statement II weakens the comment.
4) Both Statement I and Statement II strengthen the comment.
5) Both Statement I and Statement II are neutral Statements.
Direction: (29-33) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.

E
Certain number of persons purchased items one after another in a same day
but not at same time. Only two persons purchased items after C. Only two per-
d
sons purchased items between E and G, who purchased after E. The number of
persons purchased items after A is one more than persons purchased items be-
fore E. As many persons purchased items between C and F is same as between C
ee

and A. A purchased an item immediate to G. D purchased an item immediate to E

but not to A. As many items purchased before B as after F. Only two persons
purchased item between G and C. More than one person purchased item between
G and D.
29. How many persons purchased the items?
C
1) Ten 2) Eleven 3) Twelve 4) Thirteen
5) More than thirteen
Sr

30. How many persons purchased items between D and C?

1) Three 2) Two 3) Four 4) Five 5) More than Five
31. The number of persons purchased before G is one more than items purchased
after ___.
1) A 2) G 3) E 4) C 5) D
32. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group which one
doesn’t belong to that group?
1) DC 2) BE 3) EG 4) AF 5) DF
C
33. Each person spent twice the amount than immediately before person to him. (e.g.
If first person (from left-end) purchased the item for Rs 10/-, then second person
for 20/-, third person for 40 and so on……..). If B spent Rs 2,then how much
amount is spent by the last person?
1) 2048 2) 4096 3) 128 4) 256 5) 1024
Direction: (34-36) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.
A person walks 4m towards South direction from point K to reach the point T
and then takes left-turn to reach point A from that point he takes 8m towards
North direction to reach point Q, and then he takes 7m west direction to reach
the point D and then he takes 13m through the midpoint of AT, to reach point N
and finally he takes West direction to reach point G, which is South of point T.
34. Point ‘Q’ is in which direction with respect to point ‘T’?
1) North-east 2) North-west 3) South-east 4) South-west 5) North
35. What is the distance between point D and point G (Approx.)?
1) 14m 2) 15m 3) 16m 4) 13m 5) 17m
36. Find the odd one out.
1) DN 2) TA 3) TG 4) KA 5) DQ

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

Direction: (37-41) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.
Seven persons - A, B, C, D, E, F and G were born on different days of a week
from Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday and they
like different colors viz., White, Violet, Purple, Blue, Indigo, Orange and Pink but
not necessarily in the same order.
D likes Pink color and was born immediately after the one who likes Violet
color. Only two persons were born between B and the one who likes White color.
B was born immediately after the one who likes Blue color and born before the
one who likes Pink color. Only one person was born between F and the one who
likes White color. A was born after D but before the one who likes White color.
Only one person was born between G and the one who likes Orange color. G was
born after C but before the one who likes Purple color. C wasn’t born on Sunday.

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37. Who was born on Friday?
1) G 2) One who likes White color
3) F 4) One who likes Indigo color 5) Both 1 and 4
38. How many persons were born after the one who likes “Orange” color?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
39. Who was born immediately before the one who likes “Indigo” color?
40.
1) C 2) B
ha 3) A 4) D 5) F
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, which
one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) E-Pink 2) F-White 3) D-Blue 4) A-Purple 5) B-Orange
41. How many persons were born between B and the one who likes Indigo color?
1) One 2) Two

E 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five

Direction (42-44): In the question, relationship between some elements is shown
d
in the statement (s). These statement(s) are followed by three conclusions. The
elements in the conclusions may or may not be in given statements. Read the
statements and give answer.
ee

42. Statements: U<G  H=V  B>J; J  K>O  W=Q; Q<S  L<Z>M

Conclusions: I) G>W II) Z>O III) G  Q
1) Only Conclusion (II) follows 2) Only Conclusion (III) follows
3) Only Conclusion (I) and (II) follows 4) All Conclusion (I), (II), and (III) follow
5) Only Conclusion (II) and Either Conclusion (I) or (III) follow
C
43. Statements: A  S  W  E  C  V; V  B  Y=U<N<M; J>K=Q  R<V
Conclusions: I) A=E II) K  U III) K<M
Sr

1) Only Conclusion (I) follows 2) Only Conclusion (I) and (II) follows
3) Only Conclusion (II) follows 4) Only Conclusion (III) follows
5) All Conclusions (I), (II) and (III) follow
44. Statements: H  J  M  N=U; H  A  L=S>K; Q=W<E  R<T=K
Conclusions: I) U>Q II) N>L III) S=U
1) Only Conclusion (I) follows 2) Only conclusion (II) follows
3) Only Conclusion (III) follows 4) Either conclusion (I) or (II) follows
5) Only Conclusion (I) and either (II) or (III) follows
C
45. All software professionals who started their careers at an average age of 26 find
that their employability starts to decline at the age of 35. Employers invariably
dismiss their resume immediately on looking at their age, as they are lacking in
up-to-date technical knowledge and skills. They are often turned away for being
overqualified for the salary offered.
(A) The salary offered to a fresh software graduate is much higher than that
offered to a software professional with an experience of 10 years or more.
(B) No software professional nearing 35 years or so has updated himself with the
current developments in the field of software.
(C) The average age of workers in most of the well-established software companies
is around 45.
(D) A software professional aged 35 earns a much lower salary as compared to a
professional in other fields such as finance or banking etc.
(E) Technical knowledge in the field of software changes remarkably in a time
period of 9-10 years.
(F) Most software professionals end up taking jobs in other fields such as
management and consultation at some point in their careers.
Which of the given statements represents an assumption made by employers in
software companies?
1) Only D 2) Only A 3) Only C 4) Both D and F 5) Only B
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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

GENERAL/ECONOMY/BANKING AWARENESS
46. Recently, what is the new timeline for marking a trading account as inactive that
was set by the National Stock Exchange Limited (NSE)?
1) 18 months 2) 12 months 3) 30 months 4) 6 months 5) 24 months
47. In which among the following institutions the Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan,
Ministry of Education (MoE), announced the set up of Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Centres of Excellence (CoEs) for Healthcare?
1) IIT Madras 2) IIT Ropar 3) IIT Delhi 4) IIT Bombay 5) IIT Kanpur
48. ‘Monkeypox’ is classified as a global public health emergency by the WHO. Which
year was the first case of monkeypox in humans found in the Democratic Republic

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of the Congo (DRC)?
1) 1960 2) 1980 3) 1990 4) 2000 5) 1970
49. Which state government’s eSwasthya Dham portal is now integrated with the
Centre’s Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), allowing ‘Char Dham’ pilgrims
to seamlessly create their national digital health accounts?
1) Uttar Pradesh
4) Uttarakhand
ha 2) Madhya Pradesh
5) Tamil Nadu
3) Odisha

50. What is the expected amount of money that the Board of Directors of PNB Housing

E
Finance Limited (PNBHFL) would meet to approve the plan to raise through the
sale of non convertible debt (NCDs)?
d
1) Rs.2000 crore 2) Rs.2500 crore 3) Rs.3500 crore
4) Rs.1500 crore 5) Rs.1000 crore
51. The New India Assurance Company Ltd is what type of company?
ee

1) Pension Regulator 2) Life Insurance Company

3) General Insurance Company
4) Asset Reconstruction Company 5) None of the above
C
52. TRAI amended new regulations related to SIM porting, also known as Mobile
Number Portability (MNP), to reduce and prevent fraudulent SIM swap activities.
Sr

Under the new regulations, users have to wait for a period of how many days to be
eligible for porting from one network to another post-SIM swap or replacement of
the mobile number.
1) 21 days 2) 14 days 3) 30 days 4) 10 days 5) 7 days
53. In September 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has fined the largest private
sector bank, HDFC Bank, and the third largest private bank, Axis Bank, for non-
compliance with the RBI's regulatory norms. How much fine was imposed on
C
‘HDFC Bank’?
1) Rs 1.0 crore 2) Rs 2.11 crore 3) Rs 1.91 crore
4) Rs 2.08 crore 5) Rs 1.76 crore
54. Who has headed the formed Expert committee to discuss revising Ayushman
Bharat package rates and insurance coverage increase?
1) Dr. Bimal Jalan 2) Dr. Michael Debabrata Patra 3) Rajeev Kher
4) Santosh Kumar Mohanty 5) Dr Vinod Kumar Paul
55. The "Jeevan Utsav" whole life insurance policy is a new offering from LIC. How
long is the minimum duration for paying premiums?
1) 05 years 2) 02 years 3) 07 years 4) 04 years 5) 08 years
56. Where was the 44th session of the Codex Committee on Nutrition and Foods for
Special Dietary Uses (CCNFSDU) 2024 held?
1) Wellington, New Zealand 2) Toronto, Canada 3) Dusseldorf, Germany
4) Chicago, USA 5) Dresden, Germany

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

57. What do you mean by term “Underwriting’’ used in insurance sector?

1) Licensing to insurance firms
2) Process of assessing risks for insurance
3) Assessing annual average cost of premium
4) Assessing the total benefits post maturity of policy
5) Writing the contract between insurer and re-insurer
58. In November 2024, who has won the Masters title in the 2nd edition of the Chennai
Grandmasters 2024?
1) Levon Aronian 2) Aravindh Chithambaram 3) Abhimanyu Puranik
4) Arjun Erigaisi 5) Pranav Venkatesh

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59. According to the report released by UNESCO Institute for Statistics (UIS) on World
Educations Statistics 2024, India has spent nearly __________ of its Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) on education between 2015 and 2024.
1) 4.1 - 4.6% 2) 3.1 - 3.7% 3) 5.4 - 5.8% 4) 5.0 - 5.6% 5) 2.7 - 2.9%
60. ‘International Translation Day’ is celebrated every year on ‘_________’ to celebrate
ha
the work of translators and language professionals around the world. This day
was first established in 1991 by the International Federation of Translators (FIT).
1) August 8 2) October 11 3) December 17 4) November 26 5) September 30
61. The Ministry of Finance (MoF) raised the limit of Mudra loan amount under the

E
Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) from current Rs 10 lakh to _________ under
d
new “Tarun Plus” category.
1) Rs 20 lakh 2) Rs 15 lakh 3) Rs 30 lakh 4) Rs 25 lakh 5) Rs 10 lakh
62. ‘Kangto Mountain Peak’ situated in which of the following Indian State?
ee

1) West Bengal 2) Rajasthan 3) Arunachal Pradesh

4) Andhra Pradesh 5) Himachal Pradesh
63. The period offered by the insurer to restore the insurance policy and benefits
relating to it is called ___________.
C
1) Elapsed period 2) Deferment period 3) Grace period
Sr

4) Accumulation period 5) Revival period

64. Which organisation has released the “Renewable Energy and Jobs Annual Review
2024” in collaboration with International Labour Organisation (ILO)?
1) Suzlon Group 2) International Energy Agency
3) International Renewable Energy Agency
4) National Solar Energy Federation of India
5) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited
C
65. Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) Bank Reports Record Annual Profit of Rs 1,767 Crores
for FY24.What percentage gain above the previous record does this represent?
1) 48% 2) 44% 3) 46% 4) 40% 5) 50%
66. The Appointment Committee of Cabinet (ACC) has accepted the appointment of
Sanjaya Kumar Mishra, former Chief Justice of the which state High Court, as
President of the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) for a 4-year
term.
1) Sikkim 2) Rajasthan 3) Odisha 4) Karnataka 5) Jharkhand
67. Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has increased its stake in _______
Company to about 9.3%.
1) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
2) Indian Railway Finance Corporation
3) Rural Electrification Corporation Limited
4) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited
5) Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation

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68. In April Month 2024, Bank Certificate of Deposit (CD) Fundraising Dropped by
What Percentage amid Reduced Loan Demand and Eased Liquidity?
1) 72% 2) 74% 3) 70% 4) 76% 5) 78%
69. In October 2024, which state has introduced the 'Passenger Fault' rule, shifting
the responsibility from conductors to passengers for travelling without tickets?
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Gujarat 3) Kerala
4) Rajasthan 5) Karnataka
70. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) amended its Listing Obligations
and Disclosure Requirements (LODR) Regulations, 2015 with SEBI (LODR)
(Amendment) 2024 for revising the method for calculating _________ of listed

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companies.
1) Market Capitalization 2) Account statement
3) Settlement cycle
4) Company Ratings 5) Complaint Redressal
71. Which state has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Rajasthan
for the implementation of the Rs 72,000 crore Parbati-Kalisindh-Chambal (PKC)

1) Punjab
ha
Inter-state River linking project?
2) Gujarat 3) Haryana
4) Madhya Pradesh 5) Uttar Pradesh
72.

E
In May 2024, a notable mountaineer, Sirbaz Khan scaled Mount Everest without
supplementary oxygen. He is from which of the following country?
d
1) Bangladesh 2) India 3) Pakistan 4) Nepal 5) Afghanistan
73. Which type of banking is the activity carried out by the banks which area part
from its normal day-to-day activities like deposits, withdrawals, giving credit and
ee

so on?
1) Wholesale Banking 2) Narrow Banking
3) Shadow Banking 4) Retail Banking 5) Para Banking
74. NTPC Limited, formerly known as National Thermal Power Corporation, is an
C
Indian central Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) under the ownership of the Ministry
of Power and the Government of India, which generates electricity and other
Sr

activities. It is steering ahead to be India's largest integrated power company and

targets to become a 130 GW firm by ________.
1) 2028 2) 2030 3) 2032 4) 2045 5) 2050
75. Who has become the first woman officer to take over as the Director General
(DG), Armed Forces Medical Services (DGAFMS)?
1) Anshika Singh 2) Bhawana Kanth 3) Surbhi
4) Pushpa Kumari 5) Arti Sarin
C
76. Indian Navy has signed MoU with which insurance company to provide a diverse
range of insurance products, including term insurance, to Naval Civilians?
1) SBI Life Insurance Company
2) Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance Company
3) Aditya Birla Sun Life Insurance Company
4) Star Health and Allied Insurance Company
5) Life Insurance Corporation of India Company
77. The GST Council approved a reduction in the GST rate on three cancer drugs
from 12% to 5%, and a hike in the levy on car seat covers to 28% from _______ to
bring them on a par with motorcycle seats.
1) 05% 2) 12% 3) 18% 4) 10% 5) 09%
78. Jio Financial Services’ joint venture with BlackRock to enter the mutual fund
(MF) space in India has received the nod from the Securities and Exchange Board
of India (SEBI). Where is the headquarters of ‘BlackRock’?
1) New York 2) Berlin 3) Switzerland 4) Singapore 5) Paris

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79. In November 2024, the Government of India(GoI) and the Asian Development Bank
(ADB) signed a _________loan to provide support in upgradation of water supply,
sanitation, urban mobility, and other urban services in the state of Uttarakhand.
1) USD 100 million 2) USD 200 million
3) USD 300 million
4) USD 400 million 5) USD 600 million
80. Which country has secured the hosting rights for the 2026 Commonwealth Games,
following Australia's withdrawal due to cost concerns?
1) England 2) India 3) Scotland 4) Ireland 5) Japan
81. Which of the following tiger reserves is not located in Tamil Nadu?
1) Amrabad Tiger Reserve 2) Anamalai Tiger Reserve
3) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

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4) Kalakad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
5) Srivilliputhur Megamalai Tiger Reserve
82. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI) has scrapped _______
age limit for purchasing health insurance for individuals buying health insurance
policies.
1) 75 years 2) 60 years 3) 55 years 4) 70 years 5) 65 years
83.
ha
In August 2024, which among the following company partners with Gentari to
increase their EV delivery fleet to 10,000 by 2025, aiming to enhance last-mile
delivery services and scale up electric vehicle adoption across over 400 cities in
India?

84.
1) Meesho

E
2) Amazon India 3) Flipkart 4) TataNeu
'World Inequality Index' report is published by which organization?
5) Snapdeal
d
1) Credit Suisse Research Institute 2) Fitch Ratings
3) Oxfam 4) World Bank 5) New World Wealth
85. Engineering Exports Promotion Council (EEPC) India is the trade and investment
ee

promotion organization for the engineering sector, sponsored by the Ministry of

Commerce & Industry. When was it set up?
1) 1988 2) 1967 3) 1976 4) 1955 5) 1991
DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION
C
Direction (86-88): The following questions are accompanied by two statements
(I), (II) and (III). You have to determine which statement(s) is/are necessary to
Sr

answer the question.

86. Three friends X, Y and Z earn a profit of Rs.2100, then find the profit of Y?
Statement I: The share of Z in the profit is 40% of what X and Y got together.
1
Statement II: The share of X is 33 % more than the share of Z.
3
Statement III: The share of X and Z is 100% more than the share of Y in the total
profit.
C
1) Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
2) Only statement III or I and II together are necessary to answer the question
3) Either statement I or II are necessary to answer the question
4) Only statement II is necessary to answer the question
5) Only statement I is necessary to answer the question
87. What is the sum of the present age of X and Y?
Statement I: Four years ago, the ratio of age of X and Y is 7:5.
Statement II: The sum of the present age of Y and Z together is equal to the sum
of the present age of X and W.
Statement III: W is eight years younger than Y.
1) Statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question
2) Only statement III or I and II together are sufficient to answer the question
3) Either statement I or II are sufficient to answer the question
4) Only statement II is sufficient to answer the question
5) All statements together are not sufficient to answer the question

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

88. A person can purchase 3 articles for Rs.50. What is the price of the costliest
article?
Statement I: The cost price of the two articles each is Rs. 2 less than the cost
price of the costliest article.
Statement II: The cost price of two articles out of 3 is the same.
Statement III: The cost price of the costliest article is 12.5% more than the cost
price of the cheapest article.
1) Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question
2) Either statement I or II are necessary to answer the question
3) Only statement II is necessary to answer the question

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4) Only statement I is necessary to answer the question
5) Only statement I or II and III together are necessary to answer the question
Directions (89-90): In the following question, find the values of two quantities
given in the question and find the relation between them.
89. Quantity I: If the total time taken by car P to cover the distance between Chennai
ha
and Banglore at the speed of 60 km/h and car Q to cover the distance between
Banglore to Mumbai at the speed of 80 km/h is 10hrs and the distance between
Chennai to Mumai is 700 km, find the distance between Banglore to Mumbai?
Quantity II: A car travel 600 km in 5 hours, then find the speed of the car (in
km/h)?

E
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
d
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
90. Quantity I: If the ratio of the length of two trains P to Q is 2 : 3 and the speed of
ee

the trains P and Q is 50 km/h and 40 km/h respectively. They cross eachother in
20 sec. If train P crosses a platform in 36 sec, then find the length of platform?
Quantity II: Q invests Rs 4800 in scheme S which offers simple interest at 50%
C
per annum for 8 years, then find the interest.
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
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3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II

5) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Direction (91-95): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions.
The given table chart shows the tax paid by five different companies (in Rs.)
namely A and B in five different years i.e. 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018 and 2019

The tax paid by The tax paid by

C
Years
company A (in Rs.) company B (in Rs.)
In 2015 550 600
Till 2016 950 1050
Till 2017 1700 1400
Till 2018 2380 2200
Till 2019 2900 3150

91. If the tax paid by companies A and B in 2018 is n% and 2n% of their income and
the sum of the income of both companies A and B together in 2018 is Rs.54,000
then find the income of A in 2018.
1)Rs.40, 800 2) Rs. 27, 200 3) Rs. 34, 000 4) Rs. 47, 600 5) Rs. 52, 500
92. Find the ratio of the tax paid by company B in 2016 and 2017 together to the tax
paid by company A in 2019.
1) 13: 20 2) 9: 7 3) 5: 1 4) 12: 7 5) 20:13

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

93. If the total tax paid by both companies in 2020 is 20% more than that of 2017 and
the tax paid by company A in 2020 is 2/13 times more than that in the previous
year, then find the sum of the tax paid by company B in 2017 and 2020.
1) 820 2) 1300 3) 1250 4)1070 5) 1640
94. The ratio of the tax paid by company A to C is 8: y in 2016 and the total tax paid by
companies B and C in 2016 is Rs.(x-250). Find the value of y if the value of x is
equal to the tax paid by company B in 2019.
1) 11 2) 5 3) 9 4) 7 5) 15
95. The tax paid by company B in 2016 is what percent of tax paid by company A in
2017?
1) 50% 2) 60% 3) 45% 4) 36% 5) 30%

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Direction (96-100): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions.
A boat covers certain distance in three parts i.e. Upstream, Downstream
and in still water from point A to B . Ratio of distance covered downstream and
upstream is 7: 3 and total distance covered is 375 km. When boat goes downstream
it consume 25% less fuel per km and while moving in upstream it consumes
ha
12.5% more fuel per km than that of in still water and it cover 175 km in still
water. Now, after reaching point B, boat returns to initial point (A) covering the
same path and it takes 10/3 lit more fuel in return journey.
96. If in return journey boat takes 5 hr 30 min more to cover upstream than

E
downstream and speed of a boat in downstream in 40kmph, then find speed of
boat in upstream?
d
1) 10 kmph 2) 15 kmph 3) 20 kmph 4) 25 kmph 5) 30 kmph
97. If fuel cost 81 rupees per liter, then find money spent on fuel to cover distance
still water in return journey?
ee

1) 1550 2) 1575 3) 1350 4) 1275 5) 1250

98. How much fuel is consumed in covering downstream distance in whole journey?
(approximately)
1) 16 lit 2) 17 lit 3) 15 lit 4) 18 lit 5) 19 lit
C
99. What is the rate of consumption of fuel of boat in total upstream distance?
1) 12 km/lit 2) 9 km/lit 3) 8 km/lit
Sr

4) 7 km/lit 5) Can’t be determined

100. What is total distance travelled in upstream.
1) 125 km 2) 100 km 3) 75 km 4) 200 km 5) 150 km
101. Sheryas purchased two articles P and Q at Rs.5, 000 and Rs.2, 000 respectively
and he marked article P at Y% above the cost price and he marked article Q at
Y
( )% above the cost price and gave 12.5% and 10% respectively, then find the
C
3
value of Y and given that the total profit amount obtained by Sheryas is 2160?
1) 63 2) 25 3) 60 4) 65 5) 50
102. The present average of X and Y is (6P-20). The present average of X,Y and Z is
(4P+5) years. If the present age of Y is 40% less than the present age of Z and 20
% more than the present age of X, then find the X’s age six years hence?
1) 29.5 2) 33.5 3) 28.5 4) 32.5 5) 27.5
103. Hari invested Rs. 12000 for 2 years in a scheme X offering compound interest
(compounded annually) of 15% p.a. and gives an interest that is Rs. 20 less than
the interest received on investing Rs. Y for a year at simple interest of 20% p.a..
Find the value of ‘Y’?
1) 18350 2) 17500 3) 16550 4) 15100 5) 19450
104. The respective ratio between the speed of the stream and speed of the boat in
downstream is 1:5 and time taken by boat to cover 75km in upstream is 5 hours.
If speed of the train A is 200% more than that of the boat in still water and train
crosses a man in 54sec, and then find the length of the train?
1) 450 2) 500 3) 850 4) 900 5) 950
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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

105. The difference between the total surface area of cylinder to the curved surface
area of the cylinder is 1232.The radius of the cylinder is equal to the radius of
the cone. The height of the cone is 18, and then finds the volume of the cone?
1) 3756 2) 3696 3) 3856 4) 3993 5) 3223
Directions (106-110): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
The given below bar graph shows that the number of six different types of
Cricket bats manufactured in three different stores.

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700
600
500
Store A
400
300
ha Store B
Store C
200
100

E
d
0
SS SCG BDM KG MRF HERO
ee

106. What is the respective ratio between the total number of SS Bats manufactured
in store B and store C together to that of MRF bats manufactured in the same
C
stores together?
1) 11:13 2) 22:29 3) 13:17 4) 14:19 5) 18:19
Sr

107. The total number of SCG bats manufactured in stores A and C together is
approximately what percent of the total number of Hero bats manufactured in all
the stores together?
1) 45 2) 74 3) 55 4) 64 5) 69
108. What is the difference between the total number of Hero bats manufactured in
all the stores together to that of SS bats manufactured in the same stores?
1) 310 2) 370 3) 380 4) 250 5) 420
C
109. The total number of SCG bats manufactured in store A and store C together is
approximately what percent more or less than the total number of Hero bats
manufactured in the same store?
1) 6 2) 17 3) 15 4) 27 5) 20
110. If the number of BAS bats manufactured in store D is 60 % more than the number
of MRF bats manufactured in store A, then find the number of BAS bats
manufactured in store D?
1) 1050 2) 1024 3) 1080 4) 1090 5) 1060
Direction (111-115): In the given question two equations numbered I and II are
given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
111. I. (m+2)! =6  m! II. (n+3)! = 2  (n+1)!
1) m> n 2) m < n 3) m  n 4) m  n 5)m=n or no relation
112. I. 56  (a+2)!=(a+4)! II. b  (b+2)! = 99  (b+1)!
1) a> b 2) a < b 3) a  b 4) a  b 5)a=b or no relation

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

113. I. x2+19x +84=0 II. y2 +7y+12= 0

1) x> y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x=y or no relation
2 2
114. I. 8x +16x -10 = 0 II. 4y + 14y +10=0
1) x> y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5)x=y or no relation
2 2
115. I.12x -17x +5= 0 II. 3y +y-10=0
1) x> y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y 5)x=y or no relation
Direction (116-120): Study the chart carefully and answer the questions.
The pie chat given below shows the percentage distribution of the number of T
shirts(Boat-neck + Henley –neck) sold by five different companies(P, Q, R, S and
T) in the year 2023.

r’s
Percentage Distribution of T-shirts Sold
ha P
12%
T P
35% Q

E 25%
Q
R
d
S R S
T
ee

10% 18%
C
Note:- The ratio of the number of boat- neck to Henley neck T- shirts sold by R is
5:4 respectively.
Sr

The number of henley neck T-shirts sold by S is 50% more than the number of
boat neck t-shirts sold by the same company.
The total number of boat-neck T- shirts sold by companies R and S together is
equal to the total number of henley neck t-shirts sold by the same companies
together, i.e., 700.
116. What was the total number of t-shirts sold by all companies together?
1) 5000 2)4000 3)3000 4)2000 5)5500
C
117. The respective ratio between Boat neck t-shirts to Henley neck t-shirts in company
Q is 12:13, then find the total number of Henley neck t-shirts sold in that company?
1) 500 2)600 3)650 4)550 5)750
118. The total number of t-shirts sold in company U is 30% more than company T. The
respective ratio between Boat neck t-shirts and Henley neck t-shirts is 11:14,
both types of t-shirts are sold at Rs.50 each, then find the total amount earned by
the company to sell boat neck t-shirts?
1) 50050 2)56050 3)57650 4)58050 5)57850
119. What is the respective ratio between the total number of t-shirts sold by company
P to that of R?
1) 3:2 2)4:5 3)6:5 4)7:5 5)2:3
120. The total number of T-shirts sold by company S is what percent more\less than
the total number of t-shirts sold by company Q?
1) 60 2)20 3)30 4)50 5)40

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction (121): A paragraph has been given below followed by five questions.
Decide which amongst the followings can definitely be answered based on the
paragraph and mark that as your answer.
A decade ago, it seemed as though the global nuclear industry was in an
irreversible decline.
Concerns over safety, cost, and what to do with radioactive waste had
sapped enthusiasm for a technology once seen as a revolutionary source of
abundant cheap energy. Yet now there is widespread talk of a revival, fuelled
by tech giants Microsoft, Google and Amazon all announcing investments in
the sector, as well as the growing pressures on wealthy nations to curb their

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carbon emissions. But how real is the comeback? When commercial nuclear
power was first developed in the 1950s and 1960s, governments were seduced
by its seemingly unlimited potential. Nuclear reactors could harness and control
the same awesome forces released by atomic bombs - to provide electricity for
millions of homes. With a single kilogram of uranium yielding some 20,000
ha
times as much energy as a kilogram of coal, it seemed like the future.
1) What specific advancements in nuclear technology have occurred since the
decline of the global nuclear industry a decade ago?
2) How have safety concerns in the nuclear industry been addressed in the
past decade?

E
3) What role does the pressure on wealthy nations to curb carbon emissions
d
play in the renewed interest in nuclear energy?
4) What are the exact financial investments made by tech giants like Microsoft,
Google, and Amazon in the nuclear sector?
ee

5) What steps are wealthy countries taking to reduce carbon emissions using
nuclear power?
Direction (122-123): Each of the following questions has three sentences
with one blank each. Choose the option that best fits in all the blanks.
C
122. I. On the other hand, what other contemporary _________ offers such high-
quality, immediate enchantment?
Sr

II. In addition to being a gifted _______, he had an acclaimed vocal style.

III. The great _________ was initially flattered but his correspondence shows
that he became enraged as years passed.
1) impairs 2) egregious 3) composure 4) pervasiveness 5) vengeful
123. I. But the cruelty came down from above, loud and clear, and try as she might
she couldn’t keep the anger from ________ in her.
II. From there it was a short step to becoming an investment bank, financing
C
the Mid-West’s __________ industries.
III. Concerned about the _______ urban population, the government has
implemented new policies to control migration to metropolitan areas.
1) endearing 2) burgeoning 3) engrossing 4) beguiling 5) exasperating
Direction (124): In the following question, information about a person is given
which indicates a behavioural trait of the character. Read the given information
and answer the question.
Ms. Anika has always been a dreamer, often lost in her thoughts. From a
young age, she would spend hours gazing at the stars, imagining distant worlds
and adventures. Her friends often describe her as whimsical and creative, as
she loves to write stories and draw fantastical creatures. Despite her tendency
to be in her own world, she is kind-hearted and always willing to help others
with their problems. She believes in the power of imagination and often
encourages her friends to think outside the box.
What kind of person is Ms. Anika?
1) Practical 2) Creative 3) Cynical 4) Indifferent 5) Aggressive

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

Direction(125): From the following options, select the correct option which
summarises the theme of the given sentences without adding any additional
information.
Peru’s President Dina Boluarte was similarly enthusiastic, describing
the megaport as a “nerve centre” that would provide “a point of connection to
access the gigantic Asian market”. But the implications go far beyond the
fortunes of one small Andean nation. Once Chancay is fully up and running,
goods from Chile, Ecuador, Colombia and even Brazil are expected to pass
through it on their way to Shanghai and other Asian ports.
1) President Dina Boluarte called the Chancay megaport a vital hub, enabling

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trade from Peru and neighboring countries to Asian markets.
2) The Chancay megaport, praised by Peru’s President, will connect goods
from Peru and neighboring nations to Asia, particularly Shanghai.
3) Dina Boluarte emphasized the Chancay port’s importance as a gateway for
goods from Peru and nearby countries to reach Asia.
ha
4) Peru’s President Dina Boluarte highlighted the Chancay megaport as a
crucial link to the Asian market, with goods from neighboring countries
expected to pass through it to reach Asia.
5) None of these

E
Directions (126-131): In the question below, the passage consists of SIX
d
sentences. These are labelled as A, B, C, D, E & F. Rearrange them in proper
order to make it meaningful in order to form a meaningful paragraph. Thereby,
find the proper order for the SIX sentences and answer the questions based
ee

on that. (Consider A as the SECOND sentence of the combined paragraph)

A. It’s prohibitively expensive to regulate GM crops (more than $40 million for
a single GM trait to be regulated and eventually commercialised), leaving
most government institutions and smaller companies behind.
C
B. People are also more accepting of GM when the plant doesn’t have foreign
Sr

genes.
C. The few companies that make and sell HT crops have monopolised their
production.
D. Modern tools like CRISPR help scientists make targeted changes to a plant’s
genome, cutting the cost of development.
E. “I think the problem is that a lot of the regulations, including in India, are
based on ‘is it a GM or is it not a GM’.
C
F. But the costs of regulation and ensuring nothing harmful enters the market
is still too high for institutions that don’t only work for profit.
126. Which of the following is FIFTH sentence of the given paragraph?
1) F 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
127. Which of the following is Last sentence of the given paragraph?
1) F 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
128. Which of the following is THIRD sentence of the given paragraph?
1) F 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
129. Which of the following is FOURTH sentence of the given paragraph?
1) F 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
130. Which of the following is FIRST sentence of the given paragraph?
1) F 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
131. Which is the correct rearrangement after arranging in order.
1) ECDABF 2) ACEDFB 3) CABFED 4) BADEFC 5) CADBFE

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

Directions (132-140): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
PARAGRAPH I
The Reserve Bank of India this week launched the digital rupee on a
pilot basis. The digital currency will be offered by a select group of public and
private banks in a few major cities initially, which can be used for both person-
to-person and person-to-merchant transactions. The digital rupee, or the e-
rupee, is a central bank digital currency issued by the RBI. It is similar to the
physical cash that you hold in your wallet except that the e-rupee is held
electronically in a digital wallet overseen by the RBI. The digital rupee is
recognised as legal tender by the RBI, and thus has to be accepted by everyone

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in the country as a medium of exchange. It is, however, different from deposits
that you hold in a bank. Unlike deposits which are paid interest, the digital
rupees in your wallet are not paid any interest by the central bank. Deposits
held in banks can be converted into digital rupees and vice-versa.
PARAGRAPH II
The RBI believes that the digital rupee will make the rupee more
ha
attractive as a currency to users when compared to cryptocurrencies.
Cryptocurrencies have been viewed by many investors as alternatives to fiat
currencies which progressively lose value over time due to debasement by
central banks. Since such a trend could threaten their sovereignty, central

E
banks have been trying to come up with their own digital currencies. The RBI
also believes that the digital rupee will be easier and more economical to
produce when compared to physical cash notes. More importantly, transactions
d
carried out using digital rupees, in contrast to physical transactions, are more
easily _________ by authorities. The introduction of central bank digital
currencies internationally has worried many who believe that it could disrupt
ee

the banking system. When interest rates offered by banks are low, people may
be more prone to converting their bank deposits into digital currencies since
they would not lose out much in the way of interest income by making the
shift. Such an event could cause the cash holdings of banks to drop and hinder
C
banks’ capacity to create loans. It should be noted that the ability of banks to
create loans is influenced by the amount of cash they hold in their vaults.
Sr

This is because the cash position of a bank determines its ability to expand its
loan book while keeping the risk of a bank run under control. The digital rupee
could also play a crucial role in India’s transition towards/A/ a cashless society. A
rise in the use of the digital rupee/B/ could eventual free banks from having to/C/
maintain sufficient cash deposits before they expand their loan books./D/ This could
happen if digital rupee deposits turn out to be considered equivalent to other
forms of virtual money such as deposits created initially as loans by banks. In
such case, banks will be freed from the risk of bank runs which have
traditionally served as a check on the unrestrained expansion of loan books.
C
PARAGRAPH III
Critics are not so enthused by the idea of a digital rupee. They point to
the power that digital currencies give central banks to supervise economic
activity, and believe that this could act as a deterrent to economic growth if
legitimate economic activities are deemed illegal by governments. The future
of central bank digital currencies as an alternative to private cryptocurrencies
may also be overblown. Private cryptocurrencies have found demand among
certain investors not simply because they are digital. Rather, they are thought
to be better stores of value, exhibiting more stable purchasing power than fiat
currencies.
132. What is the main purpose of the Reserve Bank of India’s digital rupee according
to Paragraph I?
1) To replace physical cash
2) To offer an alternative to private cryptocurrencies
3) To facilitate easier cross-border payments
4) To provide a currency that is more traceable than physical cash
5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

133. According to Paragraph II, what potential impact could the introduction of the
digital rupee have on the banking system?
1) It would increase the interest rates offered by banks
2) It could reduce the cash holdings of banks and affect their ability to create
loans
3) It would make physical cash obsolete
4) Both 1 and 2
5) Both 2 and 3
134. What concern is raised by critics regarding the digital rupee in Paragraph III?
1) It could lead to a rise in interest rates

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2) It could decrease economic activity by limiting access to virtual currencies
3) Central banks would gain excessive power over economic activities,
potentially stifling growth
4) It would lead to more stable purchasing power than fiat currencies
5) All the above
ha
135. What is the concern regarding central bank digital currencies’ influence on
banks’ ability to create loans?
1) Banks may be unable to regulate interest rates
2) Cash deposits in banks could decrease, affecting their ability to create
loans

E
d
3) Central banks would interfere with bank operations
4) Interest rates would increase dramatically
5) None of these
ee

136. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the digital rupee as described in
Paragraph I?
1) It is recognized as legal tender by the RBI
2) It is issued by the RBI
C
3) It can be converted into physical currency
Sr

4) It earns interest for the holder

5) None of these
137. Choose the synonym for the word “enthused” as used in passage:
1) Elated 2) Indifferent 3) Melancholy 4) Apathetic 5) Unmoved
138. Choose the antonym for the word “sovereignty” as used in the passage:
1) Control 2) Subjugation3) Autonomy 4) Authority 5) Independence
139. Choose the correct word that contextually fits in the blank given in the passage.
1) ubiquitous 2) pernicious 3) recalcitrant4) prevaricate 5) traceable
C
140. In the above passage, a sentence is given in Italic and underline. There may
or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has
an error in it as your answer. If there is no error, then choose option (e) as
your answer.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Direction (141-143): Choose the Incorrect sentence from the given sentences.
141. 1) Indeed, their incompetence sometimes surpasses all human understanding.
2) The move was helped by the manufacturing and services sectors, which
gained momentum towards the end of last year.
3) A new advisory group will work with schools that are running peer-to-peer
support networks, so this approach can be extended.
4) The lack of a forensic examination of records document mobile phone activity
in the area.
5) All are incorrect

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Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

142. 1) This must be one of the most innovative theory yet devised to explain the
mystery of a poor disciplinary record.
2) Officials insisted yesterday the decision to erect the screen was taken by
planners as part of ongoing works.
3) Ting’s bag was darkening and getting heavier with every raindrop but I refused
to think about the symbolism.
4) If the cultivation of these attitudes fails to make you like your job, think
seriously about changing it.

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5) All are incorrect
143. 1) We received a considerable number of strong applications from poetry
organisations for national portfolio funding.
2) It was expected that creative geniuses would derive inspiration from each
other.
ha
3) He searched for a place to stop, and when he saw a drive-in at West Columbia,
he pulled the car under the awned.
4) This is not for the first time, the revenue officials have gone to that campus

E
for taking back government lands.
d
5) All are incorrect
Direction (144-148): Two sentences are given below in which a word has
ee

been removed. Choose the word from the given options that makes both
sentences meaningful and grammatically correct.
144. (P) There was a ______ agreement that he would pay off the loan.
C
(Q) She felt that she had her parents’ ______ approval to borrow the car.
Sr

1) understood 2) withheld 3) tacit 4) ethos 5) sheer

145. (P) The government has __________ an investigation into the cause of the
accident.
(Q) There has been an increase in the amount of violence _______ by gangs.
1) authenticated 2) instigated 3) discouraged
4) propelled 5) evaded
C
146. (P) I was certain that he would see something really remarkable if he would
have ________ himself of that permission.
(Q) He had not _______ himself of the right of applying to a local tribunal.
1) Obtained 2) given 3) terminated 4) availed 5) asserted
147. (P) She had a _________ expression on her face.
(Q) The dog’s ________ behaviour worried them and afraid of it.
1) usual 2) familiar 3) peculiar 4) transitive 5) ordinal
148. (P) The small plants are the _____ of an oak tree.
(Q) His numerous ______ are scattered all over the country.
1) young 2) progeny 3) stock 4) seed 5) juvenile

18
Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

Directions (149-150): In each question, there is a statement(s) followed by

three starters. Each starter is a group of first few words of the sentence
which on proper completion, is supposed to convey the same meaning of the
original statement. Find out which one or more starters can form grammatically
correct sentence(s) to convey the same meaning of the original statement.
149. I. The school board has implemented a new policy requiring students to wear
uniforms starting from the next academic year.
II. This policy aims to promote equality and reduce peer pressure related to
clothing.
A. Tough the school board has...

r’s
B. Although the school board has...
C. As the policy has been implemented...
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and B 5) Both A and C
150. The company’s profits have surged in the last quarter. This is attributed to
increased sales and cost-cutting measures.
ha
A) The company’s profits have surged,
B) Increased sales and cost-cutting measures,
C) Attributed to
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) B and C 5) A and B

E
Direction (151-152): Choose the correct replacement of the underlined phrasal
verb from the given options to make the sentence meaningful and grammatically
d
correct. If the given sentence is correct then choose ‘No replacement required’
as your answer.
151. One or both of them might try to wheedle out of it if she left them a loophole.
ee

1) wriggle out of 2) bail out of 3) lash out at

4) hand over 5) No replacement required
152. Fi said I was being self-indulgent and that I should knuckle down to my career.
C
1) bawl out 2) in the dock 3) dwelling upon
4) slacking off 5) No replacement required
Sr

Directions (153-155): In the following questions two columns are given

containing three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases
are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/Phrases are D, E,
and F A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with
another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically
and contextually correct sentence Each question has five options which display
the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a
C
grammatically and contextually correct sentence

A. He rough-hewed a statue out D. and an excellent negotiator.

of a block of jade rapidly
B. He is polished, charming, E. on the polished floor in my
articulate socks.
153.
C. When I was little I used to F. but then polished it slowly
like sliding over a long period.

1) AE 2) BD 3) CF 4) AD 5) BF

19
Sreedhar’s CCE U N ION B AN K OF I N DI A (LB O) - M T - 3 0

A. Few would bet a gainst D. quadruple its annual intake of

him completing a golden imm igrants.
B. There was a proposal in E. quadruple after hi s French
154.
the United States to Open and W imbledon triumphs.
C. The n ew tea cher has a F. firmness and is unlikely to
reputation for tolerate misbehaviour.

r’s
1) AD and BF 2) AE 3) BC 4) AF and BD 5) None

ha
A. Sorry, Personal checking D. unavailable at this time.
account is

E
B. But how long would it E. their monthly checking
take you to retype months account and credit card
d
statements.
155.
ee

C. individuals can verify F. of checking account

the validity of transactions statements?
C
using
Sr

1) AE and CD 2) BD and CF 3) AD and CE

4) BF and CD 5) None

KEY
C
1.2 2.5 3.2 4.3 5.2 6.3 7.3 8.2 9.5 10.5
11.4 12.3 13.2 14.1 15.2 16.5 17.1 18.3 19.5 20.4
21.4 22.5 23.3 24.4 25.5 26.2 27.4 28.5 29.3 30.5
31.2 32.4 33.2 34.1 35.2 36.4 37.5 38.3 39.1 40.4
SCAN QR FOR
41.3 42.5 43.4 44.5 45.5 46.5 47.3 48.5 49.4 50.2
OUR RESULTS
51.3 52.5 53.1 54.5 55.1 56.5 57.2 58.2 59.1 60.5
61.1 62.3 63.5 64.3 65.1 66.5 67.5 68.2 69.4 70.1
71.4 72.3 73.5 74.3 75.5 76.2 77.3 78.1 79.2 80.3
81.1 82.5 83.2 84.3 85.4 86.2 87.5 88.5 89.1 90.2
91.3 92.5 93.4 94.2 95.2 96.3 97.2 98.2 99.3 100.4
101.3 102.2 103.5 104.4 105.2 106.1 107.4 108.3 109.1 110.2
111.5 112.5 113.2 114.5 115.5 116.1 117.3 118.1 119.5 120.1
121.3 122.3 123.2 124.2 125.4 126.1 127.5 128.4 129.2 130.3
131.5 132.4 133.2 134.3 135.2 136.4 137.1 138.2 139.5 140.3
141.4 142.1 143.3 144.3 145.2 146.4 147.3 148.2 149.3 150.5
151.1 152.5 153.2 154.2 155.3

20