CHAPTER 2 - UDCPR
DEVELOPMENT PERMISSION AND COMMENCEMENT CERTIFICATE
1. What is mandatory before carrying out any development work under the UDCPR?
○ (a) Submitting an application to the municipal corporation
○ (b) Obtaining permission from the Planning Authority
○ (c) Informing the nearest Gram Panchayat
○ (d) Notifying the Police Department
Answer: (b) Obtaining permission from the Planning Authority
2. Under which sections of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act,
1966, is it mandatory to obtain development permission?
○ (a) Section 12/48
○ (b) Section 18/46
○ (c) Section 25/58
○ (d) Section 34/50
Answer: (b) Section 18/46
3. Which of the following works does not require prior development
permission?
○ (a) Construction of a new multi-storey building
○ (b) Provision of safety grills to windows
○ (c) Conversion of agricultural land into plots
○ (d) Erection of a commercial structure
Answer: (b) Provision of safety grills to windows
4. What is the maximum height allowed for solar panel installations exempted
from requiring development permission?
○ (a) 1.2 m from the terrace
○ (b) 1.5 m from the terrace
○ (c) 1.8 m from the terrace
○ (d) 2.0 m from the terrace
Answer: (c) 1.8 m from the terrace
5. Which of the following activities is permitted without development
permission for a temporary period?
○ (a) Construction of a school building
○ (b) Erection of marriage pandals on private land
○ (c) Construction of a hospital
○ (d) Expansion of a factory
Answer: (b) Erection of marriage pandals on private land
6. Which of the following documents is NOT required when a Government
Department intends to undertake development?
○ (a) Ownership document from the Land Records Department
○ (b) A Site Plan showing the proposed development
○ (c) Approval from the local municipality
○ (d) Development/building plans conforming to the Regional Plan
Answer: (c) Approval from the local municipality
7. Who certifies the details of development or construction undertaken by
Government Departments?
○ (a) A Licensed Structural Engineer
○ (b) The Chief Fire Officer
○ (c) A Government Architect or Technical Personnel
○ (d) The Planning Authority Officer
Answer: (c) A Government Architect or Technical Personnel
8. In case of operational constructions by the Government, what must the
concerned authority do?
○ (a) Obtain prior approval from the Planning Authority
○ (b) Inform the Planning Authority in writing at the earliest
○ (c) Submit a proposal for public consultation
○ (d) Pay development fees upfront
Answer: (b) Inform the Planning Authority in writing at the earliest
9. Which of the following is considered an operational construction exempt from
development permission?
○ (a) National highways
○ (b) Commercial malls
○ (c) Residential housing for government employees
○ (d) Community halls
Answer: (a) National highways
10.Which constructions related to Metro Rail Administration are categorized
as operational constructions?
○ (a) Viaducts and tunnels
○ (b) Metro stations and depots
○ (c) Maintenance workshops
○ (d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
11.Which essential public services are exempt from obtaining development
permission?
○ (a) Posts and Telegraphs
○ (b) Mobile towers
○ (c) Shopping complexes
○ (d) Amusement parks
Answer: (a) Posts and Telegraphs
12.What is the maximum period for which temporary construction permission may be
granted?
○ (a) 3 months
○ (b) 6 months
○ (c) 12 months
○ (d) 18 months
Answer: (c) 12 months
13.Which of the following temporary constructions is allowed during the
planning phase of a permanent building?
○ (a) Educational facilities
○ (b) Marriage pandals
○ (c) Commercial complexes
○ (d) Roadside eateries
Answer: (a) Educational facilities
14.Temporary construction for quarrying operations is permitted in which
zones?
○ (a) Industrial zones only
○ (b) Residential zones
○ (c) Conforming zones
○ (d) Agricultural zones
Answer: (c) Conforming zones
15.Which type of repair does NOT require prior permission from the Planning
Authority?
○ (a) Adding a new floor to a building
○ (b) Strengthening existing walls
○ (c) Constructing a new balcony
○ (d) Expanding the roof area
Answer: (b) Strengthening existing walls
16.What must be submitted to the Authority for repair works that do not
require permission?
○ (a) Scrutiny fees
○ (b) Intimation letter along with a certificate from licensed personnel
○ (c) Development plans and site maps
○ (d) Approval from the Chief Fire Officer
Answer: (b) Intimation letter along with a certificate from licensed
personnel
1. What is the prescribed form to submit a notice/application for obtaining development
permission according to Regulation 2.2.1?
A) Appendix B
B) Appendix A1 or A2
C) Appendix C
D) Appendix D
Answer: B) Appendix A1 or A2
2. How many copies of plans and statements are required to be submitted along with the
application as per Regulation 2.2.2?
A) Two copies
B) Three copies
C) Four copies
D) As decided by the Authority
Answer: C) Four copies
3. Which of the following documents is not mandatory to verify ownership for a
development proposal?
A) Latest 7/12 extract or property register card
B) Original measurement plan or city survey sheet
C) Statement of area verified by triangulation method or CADD
D) Voter ID card of the applicant
Answer: D) Voter ID card of the applicant
4. In the case of government-leased land, which document is required for deviations from
lease conditions?
A) Title deed
B) Power of attorney
C) No Objection Certificate (NOC) from the leasing authority
D) Certificate of supervision
Answer: C) No Objection Certificate (NOC) from the leasing authority
5. What is the minimum scale for drawing a key plan (location plan) accompanying the
application?
A) 1:1000
B) 1:2000
C) 1:4000
D) 1:500
Answer: C) 1:4000
6. For a subdivision layout plan of 4 hectares or more, what is the minimum required
drawing scale?
A) 1:100
B) 1:500
C) 1:1000
D) 1:2000
Answer: C) 1:1000
7. What is the minimum site plan scale required for submitting building permission
applications?
A) 1:100
B) 1:200
C) 1:500
D) 1:1000
Answer: C) 1:500
8. Which of the following details is not required on a building plan under Regulation
2.2.7?
A) FSI calculations
B) Statement of carpet area of apartments
C) Dimensions and details of doors and windows
D) Election booth locations
Answer: D) Election booth locations
9. In the case of special buildings, which additional clearance is mandatory under
Regulation 2.2.8?
A) Structural safety clearance
B) Clearance from Chief Fire Officer or Director of Fire Services
C) Clearance from Town Planner
D) Clearance from Civil Aviation Authority
Answer: B) Clearance from Chief Fire Officer or Director of Fire Services
10. What should accompany an application for development requiring clearance from the
Civil Aviation Authority or other specialized departments?
A) An affidavit from the applicant
B) NOCs from the concerned authorities
C) Only ownership title
D) Digital building models
Answer: B) NOCs from the concerned authorities
11. Which of the following is a required detail in the layout plan for parking?
A) Dimensions of ramps
B) Distance to nearby public transport
C) Number of parking slots with detailed spaces
D) Estimated car emissions
Answer: C) Number of parking slots with detailed spaces
12. As per Regulation 2.2.9, what is the minimum scale for service plans showing water
supply and drainage details?
A) 1:50 for buildings and 1:500 for layouts
B) 1:100 for buildings and 1:1000 for layouts
C) 1:150 for buildings and 1:750 for layouts
D) 1:200 for buildings and 1:2000 for layouts
Answer: B) 1:100 for buildings and 1:1000 for layouts
13. In case a licensed technical personnel supervising a development ceases
employment, what happens to the ongoing development work?
A) The work continues with temporary approval
B) The work is suspended until a new licensed person is appointed
C) The work is handed over to a government official
D) The project is automatically canceled
Answer: B) The work is suspended until a new licensed person is appointed
14. According to Regulation 2.2.11, which of the following buildings require clearance
from the Fire Services Department?
A) All buildings above G+1
B) All buildings identified under Regulation No. 1.3 (93) (xiv)
C) All buildings with basements
D) All buildings in coastal areas
Answer: B) All buildings identified under Regulation No. 1.3 (93) (xiv)
15. What is the primary purpose of obtaining a commencement certificate (CC) before
starting development work?
A) To ensure land use compliance
B) To get tax exemptions
C) To gain ownership rights
D) To avail government subsidies
Answer: A) To ensure land use compliance
1. Which of the following areas has the highest scrutiny fee for building
constructions under UDCPR?
a) A and B Class Municipal Councils
b) Pune, Pimpri-Chinchwad, and Nagpur Municipal Corporations
c) B and C Class Municipal Councils
d) Non-Municipal Council DP and Regional Plan Areas
Answer: b) Pune, Pimpri-Chinchwad, and Nagpur Municipal Corporations
2. What is the scrutiny fee for a plotted layout in areas under B and C Class
Municipal Councils?
a) ₹2,000 per 0.4 hectare
b) ₹1,500 per 0.4 hectare
c) ₹500 per 0.4 hectare
d) ₹4 per sq.m of built-up area
Answer: c) ₹500 per 0.4 hectare
3. Under UDCPR, when is no scrutiny fee levied?
a) For revised permissions
b) If objections raised by the authority are complied with
c) For additional development work only
d) For proposals by private developers
Answer: b) If objections raised by the authority are complied with
4. Development charges are required to be deposited under which section of the
Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966?
a) Section 124 L
b) Section 124 A (1) to 124 L
c) Section 124 A (2)
d) Section 122
Answer: b) Section 124 A (1) to 124 L
5. No development charges are levied for:
a) Reconstruction of buildings
b) Maintenance and internal repairs of buildings
c) Plotted layouts approved post-1992
d) New construction exceeding permissible FSI
Answer: b) Maintenance and internal repairs of buildings
6. Development charges for cooperative housing societies reconstructing old
buildings under MHADA are waived if:
a) The permissible FSI exceeds the existing FSI
b) Additional members other than tenants are accommodated
c) Only existing tenants are accommodated, with FSI within limits
d) The proposal includes luxury facilities
Answer: c) Only existing tenants are accommodated, with FSI within limits
7. What is the interest rate for premium charge instalments under UDCPR?
a) 7.5%
b) 8.0%
c) 8.5%
d) 9.0%
Answer: c) 8.5%
8. Under Option 2 of premium charge payments, what percentage of the total
premium is paid at the time of granting development permission?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 80%
Answer: a) 20%
9. Which of the following is true about fire infrastructure charges under UDCPR?
a) They are decided by local municipal authorities.
b) They are fixed annually by the Authority.
c) They are decided by the Government.
d) They are waived for high-rise buildings.
Answer: c) They are decided by the Government.
10.The structural stability certificate must be signed by:
a) The owner of the building
b) A licensed structural engineer
c) The local authority
d) A registered architect
Answer: b) A licensed structural engineer
11.What is the maximum permissible size for drawing sheets under UDCPR?
a) A0
b) A1
c) A2
d) Custom size, as required
Answer: a) A0
12.Who is exempt from registering with the Authority for planning and construction
works?
a) Structural engineers
b) Licensed supervisors
c) Architects registered with the Council of Architecture
d) Town planners licensed by the Authority
Answer: c) Architects registered with the Council of Architecture
13.For coloured plans, the UDCPR specifies that:
a) Colouring is optional for plans.
b) Only two colours are mandatory.
c) Colouring notations must follow indexed specifications.
d) Plans must be printed double-sided.
Answer: c) Colouring notations must follow indexed specifications.
14.Post-dated cheques for premium instalments must be drawn on:
a) Nationalized banks only
b) Any cooperative bank
c) Scheduled banks
d) Private banks
Answer: c) Scheduled banks
15.In case of permission lapsing without any development work being carried out,
development charges:
a) Are forfeited
b) Are refunded in full
c) Are adjusted in future permissions
d) Are refunded partially
Answer: c) Are adjusted in future permissions
1. Under what condition can the Authority relax prescribed dimensions/provisions in
UDCPR?
○ A) When setbacks from the road boundary are reduced
○ B) When it does not violate health, fire, structural, or public safety
○ C) When parking requirements are ignored
○ D) When FSI exceeds the permissible limit
Answer: B) When it does not violate health, fire, structural, or public
safety
2. Who must be consulted when granting relaxation in Municipal Councils and
Regional Plan areas?
○ A) Chief Fire Officer
○ B) Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning
○ C) District Collector
○ D) Municipal Commissioner
Answer: B) Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning
3. How should drafting errors in Development/Regional Plans be corrected?
○ A) By public consultation only
○ B) By the Authority after verification
○ C) Automatically by software tools
○ D) By filing a court case
Answer: B) By the Authority after verification
4. In Regional Plan areas, who must the Authority consult to correct drafting errors?
○ A) Town Planner
○ B) Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning
○ C) Municipal Engineer
○ D) Zilla Parishad
Answer: B) Divisional Joint Director of Town Planning
5. What is the time limit for granting or refusing a building permit after plan
resubmission?
○ A) 30 days
○ B) 60 days
○ C) 90 days
○ D) 45 days
Answer: B) 60 days
6. Which department's scrutiny is required for special buildings during building
scheme approval?
○ A) Forest Department
○ B) Chief Fire Officer or Director of Fire Services
○ C) Public Works Department
○ D) Urban Development Authority
Answer: B) Chief Fire Officer or Director of Fire Services
7. What must be displayed on the Authority's website after granting development
permission?
○ A) Development permissions and plans
○ B) Names of developers
○ C) Cost of projects
○ D) Contract details
Answer: A) Development permissions and plans
8. How many days must the Authority respond to a development proposal to avoid
deemed permission?
○ A) 30 days
○ B) 45 days
○ C) 60 days
○ D) 90 days
Answer: C) 60 days
9. What is the consequence if a deemed permission violates draft or final
Development Plans?
○ A) The permission stands valid
○ B) The development is deemed unauthorized
○ C) A penalty fee is levied
○ D) The developer is blacklisted
Answer: B) The development is deemed unauthorized
10.For how long is a commencement certificate valid without renewal?
○ A) 1 year
○ B) 2 years
○ C) 4 years
○ D) 5 years
Answer: C) 4 years
11.What defines "commencement" for building work under UDCPR?
○ A) Completion of the superstructure
○ B) Upto plinth level or upper basement
○ C) Issuance of occupation certificate
○ D) Submission of site plan
Answer: B) Upto plinth level or upper basement
12.Who is responsible for completing infrastructure in group housing schemes?
○ A) Municipal Corporation
○ B) Society of residents
○ C) Owner/Developer
○ D) Zilla Parishad
Answer: C) Owner/Developer
13.What must be completed in subdivisions before releasing plots for construction?
○ A) Construction of buildings
○ B) Demarcation and infrastructure development
○ C) Planting of trees
○ D) Approval by local residents
Answer: B) Demarcation and infrastructure development
14.How long can infrastructure work in land subdivisions take to complete?
○ A) 1 year
○ B) 2 years
○ C) 3 years
○ D) 4 years
Answer: B) 2 years
15.Who maintains internal roads in group housing schemes?
○ A) Authority
○ B) Society
○ C) Developer
○ D) District Collector
Answer: B) Society
16.What happens if the commencement certificate expires without application for
renewal?
○ A) The certificate is automatically renewed
○ B) Delay is condoned with a fee
○ C) No development can proceed
○ D) A new certificate must be applied for
Answer: B) Delay is condoned with a fee
17.What are the criteria for considering a deemed permission valid?
○ A) Conformity with UDCPR regulations
○ B) Approval from Municipal Commissioner
○ C) Developer’s financial capability
○ D) Submission of a revised site plan
Answer: A) Conformity with UDCPR regulations
1. Which of the following responsibilities is NOT required of the
Owner/Developer under Regulation 2.8.1?
a) Allowing the Authority to enter the premises for inspection.
b) Submitting test results of construction materials to the Authority.
c) Submitting a certificate for structural safety execution.
d) Giving written notice for termination of technical personnel.
Answer: b) Submitting test results of construction materials to the Authority.
2. What is the primary purpose of the "Display Board" mandated by
Regulation 2.8.3?
a) To advertise the project.
b) To indicate project completion status.
c) To provide essential details about the project, including RERA registration and
permission details.
d) To display the floor plan of the project.
Answer: c) To provide essential details about the project, including RERA
registration and permission details.
3. Under Regulation 2.8.4, the completion of which construction phase must
be certified and intimated to the Authority?
a) Foundation level.
b) Plinth level.
c) Roof level.
d) Occupancy stage.
Answer: b) Plinth level.
4. Which of the following changes during construction is NOT considered
unauthorized under Regulation 2.8.5?
a) Substantial deviation from sanctioned plans without approval.
b) Changes in the internal layout of a residential unit without affecting FSI.
c) Addition of floors without revised sanction.
d) External structural changes without prior approval.
Answer: b) Changes in the internal layout of a residential unit without affecting
FSI.
5. According to Regulation 2.9, a building completion certificate must be
accompanied by all the following EXCEPT:
a) Three sets of completed development plans.
b) Certificate of structural stability.
c) A surveyor’s certificate.
d) NOC from the Chief Fire Officer for special buildings.
Answer: c) A surveyor’s certificate.
6. How long does the Authority have to issue or refuse an Occupancy
Certificate after receiving the completion certificate under Regulation 2.10?
a) 7 days.
b) 15 days.
c) 21 days.
d) 30 days.
Answer: c) 21 days.
7. What is the validity period of the commencement certificate under
Regulation 2.7.1, provided it is renewed annually?
a) 2 years.
b) 3 years.
c) 4 years.
d) 5 years.
Answer: c) 4 years.
8. Under Regulation 2.13, unsafe buildings are dealt with in accordance with:
a) The discretion of the owner.
b) The Authority's directions based on relevant regulations.
c) Independent consultants’ recommendations.
d) A survey conducted by the local fire department.
Answer: b) The Authority's directions based on relevant regulations.
9. Under Regulation 2.15, a development permission may be revoked if:
a) The project completion is delayed by over 4 years.
b) The developer fails to submit a plinth-level certificate.
c) The application contains false statements or material misrepresentation.
d) The developer refuses inspection by the Authority.
Answer: c) The application contains false statements or material
misrepresentation.
10.Which provision under Regulation 2.8 ensures that minor internal layout
changes do not constitute unauthorized development?
a) Regulation 2.8.1.
b) Regulation 2.8.2.
c) Regulation 2.8.5.
d) Regulation 2.9.
Answer: c) Regulation 2.8.5.
11.What action is specified in Regulation 2.14 for a licensed engineer found
guilty of contravention?
a) Permanent revocation of the license.
b) Cancellation of license and district-level debarment.
c) Legal prosecution under the Architects Act, 1972.
d) Transfer to another district for re-evaluation.
Answer: b) Cancellation of license and district-level debarment.
12.Under Regulation 2.11, what is required for obtaining a Part Occupancy
Certificate?
a) The project must be fully completed and certified.
b) Public safety and health measures must be ensured in the incomplete portion.
c) The Authority must issue a Deemed Completion Certificate.
d) No additional conditions are required.
Answer: b) Public safety and health measures must be ensured in the
incomplete portion.
13.Which Regulation deals specifically with inspection powers of the
Authority during construction?
a) Regulation 2.7.
b) Regulation 2.8.
c) Regulation 2.12.
d) Regulation 2.14.
Answer: c) Regulation 2.12.
14.What is the maximum penalty for contravention under Section 52 of the
MRTP Act as referred to in Regulation 2.14?
a) A monetary fine.
b) Demolition of unauthorized works.
c) Legal prosecution and cancellation of professional licenses.
d) All of the above.
Answer: d) All of the above.
15.In the case of deemed occupancy, the Authority must issue the certificate
within how many days of application?
a) 7 days.
b) 15 days.
c) 21 days.
d) 30 days.
Answer: b) 15 days.
