Spot Test [08.03.

2025]
01. Figure shows an iron-cored transformer 04. In LCR circuit resonant frequency is 600 Hz and
assumed to be 100% efficient. The ratio of the half power points are at 650 and 550 Hz. The
secondary turns to the primary turns is 1:20. quality factor is

1 1
(1) (2)
6 3

(3) 6 (4) 3
05. An alternating voltage E  50 2 sin (100t) V is

connected to a 1F capacitor through an ac

ammeter. What will be the reading of the
A 240 V ac supply is connected to the primary ammeter
coil and a 6 resistor is connected to the (1) 10 mA (2) 5 mA
secondary coil. What is the current in the (3) 5 2 mA (4) 10 2 mA
primary coil?
06. Which of the following has zero average value in
(1) 0.10 A (2) 0.14 A
a plane electomagentic wave?
(3) 2 A (4) 40 A
(1) Electric field (2) Magnetic potential
02. In the series LCR circuit (figure), the voltmeter
(3) Electric energy (4) Magnetic energy
and ammeter readings are :
07. The magnetic field in the plane electromagnetic
wave is given by
400V 400V
Bz = 2 × 10–7 sin (0.5 × 103x + 1.5 × 1011t) tesla.
V
The expression for electric field will be

R = 50 L C (1) Ez = 30 2 sin(0.5  103 x  1.5  1011 t)V / m

A
100V, 50 Hz (2) Ez = 60 sin (0.5 × 103x + 1.5 × 1011t) V/m
~ (3) Ey = 30 2 sin(0.5  1011 x  0.5  103 t)V / m

(4) Ey = 60 sin (0.5 × 103x + 1.5 × 1011t) V/m

(1) V = 100 V, I = 2A (2) V = 100 V, I = 5 A 08. A plane em wave of wave intensity of 10 W/m2
(3) V = 1000 V, I = 2A (4) V = 300 V, I = 1A strikes a small mirror of area 20 cm 2, held
03. A resistance of 20 is connected to a source of perpendicular to the approaching wave. The
radiation force on the mirror wil be
an alternating potential v = 220 sin (100t) . The
(1) 6.6× 10–11 N (2) 1.33 × 10–11 N
time taken by the current to change from the
(3) 1.33 × 10–10 N (4) 6.6 × 10–10 N
peak value to rms value, is
09. This question has Statement I and Statement
(1) 0.2 s (2) 0.25 s
2. Of the four choices given after the Statements,
(3) 2.5 × 10–6 s (4) 2.5 × 10–3 s
choose the one that best describes the two
Statements.

1
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
Statement I : Self inductance of a long solenoid with a constant velocity of
of length L, total number of turns N and radius r
R
a c
2 2
0N r
is less than .
L X Y

Statement 2 : The magnetic induction in the

b d
solenoid in Statement 1 carrying current I is
mgR mgR mgR mgR
0 NI (1) (2) (3) (4)
in the middle of the solenoid but becomes B B 2
B 
2 2
B2 
L
13. A concave mirror of focal length f (in air) is
less as we move towards its ends.
immersed in water (  4/3) . The focal length
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
of the mirror in water will be :
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is false 4 3 7
(1) f (2) (3) f (4) f
(4) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true 3 4 3
10. In the given circuit (figure), current through the
14. What will be the height of image when an object
5 mH inductor in steady state is of 2 mm is placed on the axis of a convex mirror
at a distance 20 cm of radius of curvature 40
5mH
cm ?
(1) 20 mm (2) 10 mm

10mH (3) 6 mm (4) 1 mm

15. Find out longitudinal magnification of rod AB
20V
5 placed as shown.
R =20 cm

2 8 1 3
(1) A (2) A (3) A (4) A 8 cm
3 3 3 2 A B
2f
11. A conductor AB of length l moves in x-y plane

with velocity v  v0 (i  j) . A magnetic field

B  B (i  j) exits in the region. The induced emf
0 (1) 2 (2) 5
is
(3) 1/2 (4) 1/4
(1) zero (2) 2B0 v 0
16. The frequency of a light ray is 6  1014 Hz . Its
(3) B0 v0 (4) 2B0 v0 frequency when it propagates in a medium of
refractive index 1.5, will be
12. A conducting wire xy of length l and mass m is
sliding without friction on vertical conduction (1) 1.67  1014 Hz (2) 9.10  1014 Hz
rails ab and cd as magentic field B exists (3) 6  1014 Hz (4) 4  1014 Hz
perpendicular to the plane of the rails, x moves
2
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
17. The Cauchy’s dispersion formula is : (1) 30° (2) 45°
(1) n  A  B  2  C  4 (2) n  A  B  2  C  4 (3) 60° (4) 75°

(3) n  A  B  2  C  4 (4) n  A  B  2  C 4 21. A prism ABC of angle 30° has its face AC
silvered. A ray of light incident at an angle of
18. A light ray moves in an optical fiber as shown. 45° at the face AB retraces its path after
Then time by ray to cross given glass slab will be refaction at face AB and reflection at face AC.
The refractive index of the material of the prism
is :
= 3/2 A

30°
l = 12 km 45° Silvered
(1) 40s (2) 60s

(3) 30s (4) none

19. The distance of image of object from observer B C

seen by observer himself will be :
3 4
(1) 1.5 (2) (3) 2 (4)
2 3

22. In displacement method, if distance between

object and screen is 90 cm, if lens is displaced
5m by 30 cm to obtain image of same object on same
screen, then focal length of lens is
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
12 m
(3) 40 cm (4) can’t say

w = 4 23. If ratio of amplitude of two interfering source

3 Object
is 1 : 4. Then ratio of intensity of maxima and
(1) 14 m (2) 12 m minima in interference pattern will be :

(3) 16 m (4) None (1) 25 : 16 (2) 5 : 3

(3) 16 : 1 (4) 25 : 9
20. What will be the value of angle of incidence 
at first surface so that emerging ray will emerge 24. Four independent waves are represented by the
at angle 90° in air ? equations :

(i) y1  a1 sin t (ii) y2  a 2 sin t

N
Air 90°
(iii) y3  a 3 cos t (iv) y 4  a 4 sin(t   /3)

Then the waves for which phenomenon of

2=3
interference is observed
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv)
2=2 
N (3) all (i),(ii),(iii) & (iv) (4) none of these
3
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
25. Intensity of central fringe in interference 30. What will be the value of i so that ray will
2
pattern is 0.01 W/m then find intensity at a be grazing emergence ? given   2 :

point having path difference on screen from
3
2
centre (in mW/m ) :  2
i
(1) 2.5 (2) 5
(3) 7.5 (4) 10 45°
60°
26. In a Young’s double slit experiment, fourth
bright fringe is formed at a distance x from
(1) 60° (2) 30°
central fringe. The distance between it and
second dark fringe on the same side of central (3) 45° (4) None
maximum is :
31. Find the refractive index  of glass sphere if
3x 11x emergent ray is horizontal
(1) (2)
8 8

13x 5x
(3) (4)
8 8
27. Fringe width in a particular YDSE is measured 60° =?
to be  . What will be the fringe width, if
wavelength of the light is doubled, separation
between the slits is halved and separation
between the screen and slits is triped ? (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) None
32. P and Q are two circular thin coils of same radius
(3) 12 (4)  /3 and subjected to the same rte of change of flux.
If coil P is made of copper and Q is made of iron,
28. In the diffraction pattern of a single slit aperture,
then the wrong statement is :
the width of the central fringe compared to
widths of the other fringes, is B
X X X X X X X
(1) equal (2) less X X X X X X X
X X P X X Q X
(3) little more (4) double X X X X X X X
29. Light of wavlength 550nm falls normally on a X X X X X X X

slit of width 21.0  10 5 cm . The angular position (1) emf induced in the two coils is the same
of the 1st secondary maxima from the central (2) the induced current in P is more than that
maximum will be (in radians, sin 22.5  0.4): in Q
  (3) the inducd current in P and Q are in the same
(1) (2)
4 8 direction
(4) the induced currents are the same in both
  the coils.
(3) (4)
12 6
33. A current of 2A is increasing at a rate of 4 A/s
through a coil of inductance 2H. The energy
stored in the inductor per unit time is :
4
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
(1) 2 J/s (2) 1 J/s 5 7
(3) 16 J/s (4) 4 J/s. (3) (4)
2 2
34. The network shown in the figure is part of a 39. In a series LCR circuit L = 1 H, C = 6.25 F and
circuit. If at a certain instant, the current I is R = 1 ohm. The quality factor is
5A and it is decreasing at a rate of 103 As–1 then (1) 400 (2) 200
VB – VA equals : (3) 125 (4) 25
40. The current I, potential difference VL across the
inductor and potential difference VC across the
capacitor in circuit as shown are best
(1) 20 V (2) 15 V represented as
(3) 10 V (4) 5 V. L C
35. A small square loop of side l is placed inside a
large square loop of side L (L >>l). The loops are VL VC
co-planar and their centres coincide. The
mutual inductance of the system is proportional ~
to :
VC
(1) l/L (2) l2/L VC
(3) L/l (4) L2/l. (1) I (2)
VL VL I
36. In a car spark-coil, when the current in the
primary is reduced from 4.0 A to zero in 10s , VL
VL
an emf of 40,000 V is induced in the secondary.
Find the mutual inductance M of the primary (3) I (4) I
and the secondary windings of the spark coil : VC VC
(1) 0.2 H (2) 0.1 H
(3) 0.3 H (4) None. 41. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity passed
37. One cycle of a periodic voltage V has been shown through a polaroid A and then through another
in the figure. The rms value of the voltage is polaroid B which oriented so that its principal
plane makes angle of 450 relative to that of A.
V
The intensity of the emergent light is
V0 I0 I0 I0
(1) I0 (2) (3) (4)
2 4 8
T/4 T t
42. Which of the following cannot be polarised ?

V0 V0 (1) Light wave (2) Transverse wave

(1) (2)
8 2 (3) Radio wave (4) Ultrasonic wave
V0 43. Consider the diffraction through single slit of
(3) V0 (4) width b and wavelength of light  . Match the
4
38. The ratio of rms value and peak value of current Column I with Column II and mark the correct
i = 3 + 4 sin (t + /3) is option from the codes given below.

17
(1) 5 (2)
7

5
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
Column I Column II (4) If both assertion and reason are false
i.   b p. Diffraction pattern is 46. Rank the following compounds in order of basic
found on screen strength.

ii.   b q. No diffraction pattern

is found on screen
(I) (II)
iii.   b r. A sharp bright image of
slit is formed on screen
iv.   b s. Central maxima will
extend over whole screen
Codes (III) (IV)
i ii iii iv (1) II > III > IV > I (2) II > III > I > IV
(1) q,r p q,s q (3) III > II > I > IV (4) III > II > IV > I
(2) r p q s 47. Caffeine is found in tea leaves. It contains four
(3) p q r s nitrogens. Correct sequence of basic strength
of these nitrogens is :
(4) None of these
44. Assertion : Endoscopy involves use of optical
fibres to study internal organs
Reason : Optical fibres are based on phenomena
of total internal reflection
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (2) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4
reason is not the correct explanation of (3) 1 > 4 > 3 > 2 (4) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2
assertion 48. Which of the following is the weakest bronsted base
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
(1) (2)
45. Assertion : No power loss associated with pure
capacitor in ac circuit.
Reason : No current is flowing in this circuit.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (3) (4)
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false

6
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
49. In the Hoffmann bromamide degradation
reaction, the number of moles of NaOH and Br2
used per mole of amine produced are :
52. 
H2
 Product,
(1) Two moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2 Pd.heat

(2) Two moles of NaOH and one mole of Br2

(3) Two mole of NaOH and one mole of Br2 Product of this reaction will be :
(4) Four moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2
50. In the following reaction sequence, [C] is :
(1) (2)

(i) NaNO  HCl, 0 5 o C

Cl2

2
(ii) Cu Cl  HCl
[A]   [B]
2 2 hv

CH3
(3) (4)
Na  dry ether
 [C]
(Major product)

53. Assertion : aniline can not be prepared by

Gabriel phthalimide reaction while phenyl
(1) Cl CH2 CH2 Cl
methyl amine can
Reason : Aniline is less basic than phenyl
methyl aniline
(2) Cl CH2 CH 2 Cl (1) Assertion is true, Reason is true: Reason
is a correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true Reason is true: Reason
is not a correct explanation for Assertion
CH2 CH2 (3) Assertion is true, Reason is false
(3)
(4) Assertion is false, Reason is true
Cl Cl
54. Assertion : acetamide is amphoteric in nature
Reason : Due to resonance NH2 group acquires
(4) CH3 CH3 positive charge and oxygen acquires negative
charge so when acid is added it attacks on
51. Weakest base among the following is : oxygen and when base attacks it removes water
from NH2
(1) Assertion is true, Reason is true: Reason
is a correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true Reason is true: Reason
(1) (2)
is not a correct explanation for Assertion
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false, Reason is true
55. The helical structure of proteins is established
by
(3) (4) (1) Dipeptide bonds (2) Hydrogen bonds
(3) Ether bonds (4) Peptide bonds
7
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]

O 58. One mole of sucrose will consume

56. (1) Six moles of AcCl
NH2 CH C NH CH 2 CO2H (2) Eight moles of AcCl
CH3 (3) Five moles of AcCl
(4) Ten moles of AcCl
Identify the amino acid obtained by hydrolysis
of the above compound :- 59. Consider the following four carbohydrate
molecules
(1) Glycine (2) Alanine
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above
57. Which is not a reducing sugar ?
(A) (B)

(1)

(C) (D)

Epimeric pair is :
(2)
(1) (A) & (B) (2) (A) & (D)
(3) (C) & (B) (4) (C) & (A)
60. If a compound shows mutarotation then :
(1) It confrms that it will exist in two anomeric
forms
(2) It will always provide  – D glucose units
(3) on hydrolysis
(3) Compound will always contain aldehyde as
well as ketone group
(4) All of these

61. Compound Property

A. Amylopectin I. Milk sugar
B. Lactose II. Dextrorotatory
(4)
C. Sucrose III. 1,4 & 1,6
glycosidic linkage
D. Alanine IV. L – Configuration

Correct matching is :
8
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
62. Which statement is correct regarding the (C)
difference between DNA and RNA ?
(1) RNA contains Adenine guanine, Thymine
and uracil while DNA contains Adenine,
uracil Thymine & guanine
(2) RNA contains deoxy ribose while DNA The carbohydrate which does not have D
contains oxyribose confguration is :
(3) RNA contains Adenine cytosine, uracil and (1) C
guanine while DNA contains Adenine (2) A & B
cytosine, guanine and Thymine (3) B
(4) RNA contains phosphate while DNA does (4) All have D confguration
not 66. Which of the following anions will give same
color of gas ?
63. Vitamin Source (1) NO2– , NO3– , I
A. H I. Butter
(2) NO2– ,NO3– , CH3 COO–
B. K II. Yeast
(3) NO2– ,Br  ,I
C. D III. Green leafy
vegetable (4) NO2– , NO3– ,Br 
D. A IV. Cod liver oil
67. The group reagent of group III cations is :-
Correct matching is : (1) NH4OH
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) NH4Cl
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (3) NH4OH in presence of NH4Cl
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) NaOH
64. When glucose reacts with bromine water, the
main product is: 68. The metal which gives brick red colour in flame
test is :
(1) Gluconic acid (2) Glyceraldehyde
(1) Ba (2) Ca
(3) Saccharic acid (4) Acetic acid
(3) Sr (4) K
65. Consider the following three carbohydrates :
69. Give the name of the reagent that can be used
to distinguish between sodium carbonate and
sodium sulphite ?
(1) Lime water
(A) (B)
(2) Baryta water
(3) Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution
(4) H2SO4 solution

9
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
70. A gas is obtained by addition of dil. H2SO4 to a temperature
mixture which turns lead acetate paper black. 78. Using the data given below find out the
It is : strongest reducing agent.
(1) SO2 (2) CO2
(3) H2S (4) NO2 E Cr O2  /Cr3   1.33V 
ECl   1.36V
2 7 2 /Cl

71. Which of the following anions are identified by 

E MnO  1.51V E Cr3  /Cr  0.74V

/Mn2 
dil. HCl ? 4

(1) Cl– (2) Cr

(1) NO2 , NO3 , CO23 (2) NO2 , NO3 , SO32 (3) Cr 3+ (4) Mn2+
79. The number of Faradays (F) required to produce
(3) S2  , SO32  , NO2 (4) CH3 COO , I , CO23 
20 g of calcium fr om molten CaCl 2 (Atomic
72. Which one is not a radical of group IV ? mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is :
(1) Ni2+ (2) Co2+ (1) 4 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
(3) Ba2+ (4) Zn2+
80. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using
73. Element not present in Nessler’s reagent is Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained
(1) Hg (2) I at anode will be :
(3) K (4) N (1) SO2gas (2) Hydrogen gas
74. Ferric ion forms a prussian blue colored ppt. due (3) Oxygen gas (4) H2S gas
to the formation of : 81. The weight of silver (atomic mass = 108)
(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 displaced by a quantity of electricity which
(3) KMnO4 (4) Fe(OH)3
displaces 5600 mL of O2 at STP will be :
75. Which gives blood red color with ammonium (1) 5.4 g (2) 10.8 g
thiocyanate ?
(3) 54.0 g (4) 108.0 g
(1) Fe3+ (2) Fe2+
(3) Cu 2+ (4) Cd2+ 82.. A device that converts energy of combustion of
76. While charging the lead storage battery : fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly into
(1) PbSO4 at anode is reduced to Pb electrical energy is known as :
(2) PbSO4 at cathode is reduced to Pb (1) Electrolytic cell (2) Dynamo
(3) PbSO4 at cathode is oxidised to Pb
(3) Ni – Cd cell (4) Fuel cell
(4) PbSO4 at anode is oxidised to PbO2
77. Which of the statement about solutions of 83. If the E cell for a given reaction has a negative
electrolytes is not correct ? value, which of the following gives the correct
(1) Conductivity of solution depends upon size relationships for the value of G and Keq ?
of ions
(2) Conductivity of solution depends upon (1) G  0; K eq  1 (2) G  0; K eq  1
viscosity of solution (3) G  0;K eq  1 (4) G  0;K eq  1
(3) Conductivity does not depend upon solvation
of ions present in solution
(4) Conductivity of solution increases with

10
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
84. The reduction potential of hydrogen half – cell 91. For logistic growth curve, the influence of
will be negative if : environmental resistance over biotic potential
+ is denoted by
(1) P(H2) = 1 atm and [H ] = 2.0 M
(2) P(H2) = 1 atm and [H+] = 1.0 M dN
 rN
(1) (2) r = (b – d)
+
(3) P(H ) = 2 atm and [H ] = 1.0 M dt
2
(4) P(H2) = 2 atm and [H+] = 2.0 M
KN dN (K  N)
85. The standard reduction potentials for Zn2+/Zn, (3) (4) 
K dt K
Ni2+/Ni and Fe2+ /Fe are – 0.76, – 0.23 and –
0.44Vrespectively. The reaction 92. Asymptote is a stage during logistic growth
when population density reaches
X  Y2  X2 Y will be spontaneous when :
(1) Lag phase (2) Log phase
(1) X = Ni, Y = Zn (2) X = Fe, Y = Zn
(3) Exponetial phase (4) Carrying capacity
(3) X = Zn, Y = Ni (4) X = Ni, Y = Fe
93. Exponential population growth is represented by
86. Assertion : Conductivity of all electrolytes
decreases on dilution (1) dN/dt = rN (2) dt/dN = rN
Reason : On dilution number of ions per unit dN
volume decreases (3) dN/rN = dt (4)  dN
dt
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of assertion 94. Which parameter is used for finding population
density of banyan tree ?
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and
reason is not the correct explanation of (1) Relative density
assertion (2) Population count in number
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false (3) Biomass method
(4) Both assertion and reason are false (4) Number of prop roots
87. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘salt 95. What type of interaction is shown by orchids in
– bridge’ to eliminate liquid junction potential their biotic communities ?
because :
(1) Mutualism (2) Amensalism
(1) velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO3 (3) Protocooperation (4) Commensalism
(2) velocity of NO is greater than that of K+
 96. Logistic growth is represented by which equation
3

(3) velocities of both K+ and NO3 are nearly the dN K N dN

(1)  rN   (2)  rN
dt  K  dt
same
(4) KNO3 is highly soluble in water dN K  N dN  K 
88. How many faraday are needed to reduce a mole (3)  rN   (4)  rN  
dt  K  dt K  N
of MnO4 to Mn2 
97. An orchid resembling female insect with ability
(1) 4 (2) 5 of get pollinated is due to phenomenon of
(3) 3 (4) 2 (1) Mimicry (2) Pseudocopulation
89. A current of 2.6 ampere was passed through
(3) Pseudopollination (4) Parthenogenesis
CuSO4 solution for 380 sec. The amount of Cu
98. Natural selection operates at
deposited is (atmoic mass of Cu = 63.5) :
(1) 0.325 g (2) 0.635 g (1) Organismal level
(3) 6.35 g (4) 3.175 g (2) Population level
90. 13.5 g aluminium changes to Al3+ in solution (3) Community level
by loosing : (4) Ecosystem level
(1) 18 × 1023 electrons 99. In a pond, there are 60 lotus plants last year
(2) 6.023×1023 electrons and through reproduction, 10 new plants are
(3) 3.01 × 1023 electrons added. Taking the current population to 70, the
(4) 9 × 1023 electrons birth rate of lotus will be...... offsprings per lotus
per year.

11
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
(1) 16 (2) 1 104. Carrying capacity is the capacity of
(3) 0.16 (4) 1.6 (1) Habitat that has resources to sustain
certain number of individuals
100. Study the age pyramids shown below and choose
the correct option (2) Population to reproduce and complete the
life cycle
(3) Population to reproduce
(4) Individuals to fit among the natural environment
105. Which of the following equation correctly
represents species – area relationship ?
A B C (1) logC = logS + Z logA
(1) Triangular pyramid Urn - shaped pyramid Bell - shaped pyramid (2) logA = logC + Z logS
Pyramid showing
(2) Expanding population
negative growth
Growth rate almost zero (3) logA = logS + Z logC
(3) Expanding population Stable population De clining population (4) logS = logC + Z logA
(4) Bell - shaped pyramid Triangular pyramid Urn shaped pyramid 106. Epiphytes growing on a tree is a type of _____
interaction
101. Mutualism and protocooperation can be (1) + /0 (2) + / +
represented as ______ whereas, predation and
parasitism can be represented as ______ (3) 0 / – (4) – / –

(1) + / –; –/ – (2) + /0; – /0

(3) + / + ; + /– (4) + / + ; – /–
102. In a pond 20 species of angiosperms were
reduced to 10 after one species was removed.
The species removed is likely to be a 107.

(1) Mutualistic organism

(2) Pathogen
(3) Keystone species Study the graph carefully and find the suitable
terms for a, b and c with respect to growth curve
(4) Herbivore
(1) a – exponential growth
103. Population growth curve is given. Find A, B & C
b –decelerated
c – carrying capacity
(2) a – unlimited resources
b – limited resources
c – carrying capacity
(3) a – exponential growth
b – logistic growth
c – asymptote
(4) a – logistic growth
dN dN K  N b – exponential growth
(1) A   rN,B  K, C   rN  
dt dt  K  c – asymptote
108. Which is not the key functional aspect of ecosystem
dN dN K N
(2) A  K,B   rN, C   rN   (1) Productivity (2) Trophic level
dt dt  K 
(3) Energy flow (4) Nutrient cycling
dN K  N dN 109. Read the statements carefully and choose the
(3) A  K, B   rN  ,C   rN
dt  K  dt incorrect option with respect to productivity

dN dN K  N dN (1) Primary productivity mainly depends upon

(4) A  dt  rN,B  dt  rN  K  ,C  dt  rNK photosynthesis
 

12
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
(2) NPP may contribute to the secondary productivity (2) It provides stability to ecosystem
(3) GPP always depends upon NPP (3) It helps in the survival of top carnivores
(4) Energy flow is same to the organism sharing
(4) GPP always depends upon temperature, soil two trophic levels
moisture and nutrients in soil
115. What will be the nature of pyramid of biomass
110. Match the columns and choose the correct in an aquatic ecosystem ?
option with respect to decomposition process
(1) Always upright
Column – I Column – II
(2) May be upright or inverted
a. Fragmentation (i) Release of inorganic
(3) Inverted
of detritus substances
(4) Always spindle shaped
b. Leaching (ii) Saprophytic
bacteria 116. Which one is the major conduit of energy flow
in aquatic ecosystem ?
c. Catabolism (iii) Earthworm
(1) GFC (2) DFC
d. Mineralisation (iv) Movement of salts
(3) PFC (4) AFC
with percolating water
117. GPP represents
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(1) 2 – 10 % of PAR
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(2) NPP + respiratory loss
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) 1 – 5% of incident solar radiation
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) All are correct
111. Read the statements carefully and choose the
correct option with respect to source of energy. 118. Resource partitioning promotes

(A) NPP is  1  5% incident radiation (1) Competition

(2) Coexistence
(B) NPP is also equal to  2  10% of PAR
(3) Competitive exclusion
(1) Only B is correct
(4) Competitive release
(2) Both are correct
119. According to May’s global estimates, what per
(3) Only A is correct cent of total species in the world have been
(4) Both are incorrect recorded so far ?
112. Study the ecological pyramids given below and (1) 12 % (2) 8 %
find in which case both b and c are possible (3) 22 % (4) 54 %
120. In tropical rain forests most of energy in
ecosystem flows through
(1) Grazing food chain
(2) Parasitic food chain
(1) Pyramid of energy in terrestrial ecosystem (3) Detritus food chain
(2) Pyramid of number in a tree ecosystem (4) All
(3) Pyramid of number in aquatic ecosystem 121. The graphical representation of age groups of
(4) Pyramid of biomass in tree ecosystem a population given here shows
113. Which factor will not affect decomposition favourably
(1) Temperature 25° – 37°C
(2) Temperature less than 10°C
(3) Aeration
(4) Moisture at optimum (1) Stable (2) Declining
114. Which statement is incorrect for a food web ? (3) Increasing (4) Fluctuating
(1) Network of food chains which interlink different
trophic levels in an ecosystem is food web

13
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
122. Each trophic level has certain mass of living (1) 0.1 (2) 0.4
material at a particular time called
(3) 1.15 (4) 0.2
(1) Standing crop (2) Biomass
127. According to David Tilman, which of the
(3) Standing state (4) Standing consumer following statements is/are correct about
123. According to Paul Ehrlich’s Rivet popper species richness in a community ?
hypothesis, the rivets on the wings of airplane (1) Plots with more species showed less year
are considered as : to year variation in total biomes
(1) Any species in ecosystem (2) Increased diversity contributes to higher
(2) Species in ecotone producitivity
(3) Key species in ecosystem (3) Higher species divesity contributes to lower
resilience to environmental disturbances
(4) Species which is harmful to human population (4) Both (1) and (2)
124. From the pie chart for propationats number of 128. Rivet popper hypothesis of Paul Ehrlich explains
species of plants and fungi
(1) The structure of ecosystem
Choose the correct option for the labels a, b, c
and d (2) Ecosystem health
(3) Ecosystem services
(4) Ecosytem productivity
129. Which one is not related to evil quartet w.r.t.
biodiversity loss ?
(1) Fragmentation of habitat
(2) High trophic level in food chain
(3) Over exploitation
(1) a – Angiosperms (4) Alien species invasions
b – Algae 130. Which area is included in biodiversity hot spot
c – Fungi and sacred groves in India ?
d – Bryophytes (1) Himalayas (2) Silent valley
(2) a –Angiosperms (3) Western ghats (4) Aravalli hills
b – Pteridophytes 131. Biodiversity increases from
c – Algae (1) Equator to pole
d – Fungi (2) Pole to equator
(3) a – Angiosperms (3) Low latitude to high latitude
b – Fungi (4) Low altitude to high altitude
c – Mosses 132. If we analyse species – area relationship for very
large areas like entire continents, the slope of
d – Algae
line becomes much steeper in the range of
(4) a – Fungi
(1) 0.1 to 0.6 (2) 0.1 to 0.2
b – Algae
(3) 0.6 to 1.2 (4) 0.01 to 0.1
c – Pteridophytes
133. Repiratory loss at T1 level is about
d – Angiosperms
(1) 30 % (2) 20 %
125. As per latitudinal patterns, the biodiversity is
(3) 60 % (4) 10 %
minimum at/in
(1) 23.5° N to 23.5°S (2) 41° N 134. Which of the following have highest number of
species in nature ?
(3) 71° N (4) Arctic region
(1) Angiosperms (2) Arthropods
126. What can be the value of slope of regression ‘Z’
in species –area relationship for fruit eating (3) Birds (4) Fungi
birds and mammals of tropical rain forest ?

14
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
Plasmid.
(2) The gene ‘X’ is for protein involved in
replication of Plasmid and ‘Y’ for resistance
to antibiotics.
(3) Gene ‘X’ is responsible for recognition sites
and ‘Y’ is responsible for antibiotic
resistance.
135. (4) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for resistance
to antibiotics and ‘Y’ for protein involved in
the replication of Plasmid.

Identify the equations for (i) and (ii) in the graph 139. Which of the following are correct about EcoR1?
showing species – Area relationship given by A. Cut the DNA with blunt end
Alexander Von – Humboldt. B. Cut the DNA with sticky end
C. Recognises a specific palindromic sequence
(1) (i)  S  CA Z (ii)  log S  log C  Z log A
(2) (i)  S = C × A; (ii)  log S = log C+A logZ D. Cut the DNA between the base G and A
(3) (i)  S = C + Az; (ii)  log S = log C+Z logA where encounters the DNA sequence
‘GAATTC’
CZ log S
(4) (i)  S = ; (ii)   log C E. Exonuclease
A log Z
Choose the correct answer from the options
136. When isolating the pure DNA from a bacterial given below :
cell, the cell should not be treated with : (1) B, C, E only (2) A, D, E only
(1) lysozyme (2) proteases (3) A, C, D only (4) B, C, D only
(3) ribonuclease (4) deoxyribonuclease
140. Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the following
137. The first type II restriction endonuclease site will result in loss of tetracycline resistance
discovered that could cut dsDNA specific site of pBR322 ?
was : (1) PsT I (2) PVu I
(1) EcoRI (2) Smal (3) EcoR I (4) BamH I
(3) Hind II (4) Hind III
141. The construction of the first recombinant DNA
138. The following diagram showing restriction sites emerged from the possibility of linking a gene
in E.coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role encoding antibiotic resistance with a native
of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ genes : plasmid of which of the following organism ?
(1) Escherichia coli
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Salmonella typhimurium
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

142. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Proteins encoded by genes crylAc
and cryllAb control corn borer, that of cryl Ab
control the cotton bollworms
Statement II : Bt toxin protein exist as inactive
(1) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for controlling protoxins but once an insect ingests the inactive
the copy number of the linked DNA and ‘Y’ toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin
for protein involved in the replication of due to the alkaline pH of the gut

15
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
In light of the above statements, choose the 146. Match List-I with List-II :
most appropriate answer from the options given
below: List I List II
a. Gene gun i. Replacement of a
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true faulty gene by a
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false normal healthy gene
(3) Statement I is true and Statement II is false b. Gene therapy ii. Used for transfer of
gene
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true c. Gene cloning iii. Total DNA in the
cells of an organism
143. Match column I with column II and select the d. Genome iv. To obtain identical
correct option. copies of a particular
DNA molecule
Column I Column II

a. Patent on Basmati i. 1983 Choose the correct answer from the options
rice by an American given below :
company a b c d
b. First clinical gene ii. 1997
therapy (1) i i i iv iii
c. Humulin by Eli Lilly iii. 1972
(2) i iii ii iv
Co.
d. Construction of iv. 1990 (3) iv i iii ii
first recombinant (4) i i iii iv i
DNA
147. Three critical research areas of biotechnology
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii are :
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv I. Providing the best catalyst in the form of
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i improved organism usually a microbe or
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i pure enzyme
II. Multiple Ovulation Transfer Technology
144. Assertion (A) : Insulin used for diabetes was
earlier extracted from the pancreas of (MOET)
slaughtered cattle and pigs but now it is not III. Creating optimal conditions through
used. engineering for a catalyst to act.
Reason (R) : Aarti along with some other IV. Downstream processing technologies
patients took insulin injections in which (1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, III, IV
insulin was from an animal source and they (3) I, II (4) II and IV
manifested an allergic response to that.
148. Which one of the following statement about
In light of the above statements, select the
genetically engineered insulin is incorrect :
correct option :
(1) E.coli is used for producing humulin
(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the (2) Chain A, B were produced separately
correct explanation of (A). (3) Eli lily company prepared it for first time
(2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the (4) Genetically engineered insulin has C peptide
correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is True but (R) is False. 149. Which of the following methods is not used,
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True. commonly, for introducing foreign DNA into the
plant cell ?
145. Genetic modifications cannot cause (1) Agrobacterium mediated transformation
(1) Made crops more tolerant to Abiotic stresses (2) Gene gun
(2) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (3) ‘Disarmed pathogen’ vectors
(3) Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (4) Bacteriophages
(4) Early exhaustion of fertility of soil

16
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
150. The activated Bt toxin binds to 156. RNAi is a mechanism to silence genes with the
(1) Surface of midgut epithelial cells help of
(1) ssRNA (2) dsRNA
(2) Surface of hindgut eithelial cells
(3) ssDNA (4) dsDNA
(3) Surface of foregut epithelial cells
(4) Surface of gut endothelial cells 157. For effective treatment of a disease :
151. Which of the following lepidoptera is killed by (1) Early diagnosis is needed but understanding
proteins produced by a particular strain of of its pathophysiology is not needed
Bacillus thuringienesis ? (2) Early diagnosis i s not needed but
(1) Mosquitoes (2) Flies understanding of its pathophysiology is
(3) Beetles (4) Tobacco budworm needed
(3) Early diagnosis and understanding of its
152. RNAi is a method of gene silencing, which when
pathophysiology are needed
done in tobacco plant to prevent infestation by
Meloidogyne incognita may involve all except (4) Neither early diagnosis nor understanding
(1) Agrobacterium as vector of its pathophysiology is needed
(2) Introduction of single stranded RNA into
158. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
host cells
(1) addition of preservatives of the product
(3) Trnasposons that replicat e via RNA
(2) purification of the product
intermediate
(3) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture
(4) Silencing of mRNA to stop translation
vessel
153. Refer to the following statements for agarose-
gel electrophoresis : (4) availability of oxygen throughout the process
A. Agarose is a natural polymer obtained from 159. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA
sea-weed. polymerase used in PCR ?
B. The separation of DNA molecules in (1) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in
agarose-gel electrophoresis depends on the recipient cells
size of DNA. (2) It serves as a selectable marker
C. The DNA migrates from negatively-charged (3) It is isolated from a virus
electrode to the positively-charged electrode (4) It remains active at high temperature
D. The DNA migrates from positively-charged 160. The synthesis of DNA in PCR will be in
electrode to the negatively-charged electrode (1) 5’ – 3’
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (2) 3’ – 5’
options given below : (3) It won’t be depending on direction
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and C only (4) For one strand 5’ – 3’ in another opposite
(3) A, B and D only (4) B, C and D only to it
154. An enzyme catal ysing the r emoval of
161. Which of the following is correct ?
nucleotides from ends of DNA is :
(1) The procedure for chemical safety testing/
(1) DNA ligase (2) Endonuclease
toxicity is the same as that used for testing
(3) Exonuclease (4) Protease
toxicity of drugs
155. Which of the following is not a feature of the (2) Transgenic animals are more sensitive to
plasmids ? the toxic substances than non-transgenic
(1) Circular structure animals
(2) Transferable (3) Golden rice, a genetically engineered rice
(3) Single-stranded has high vitamin A (   carotene) content
(4) Independent replication (4) All are correct

17
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
162. The primers designed according to (Answer (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
according to very basic PCR) correct explanation of (A).
(1) Terminal ends of vector (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(2) Terminal ends of gene of interest
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Random primers
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) According to direction of PCR
169. From the list of human diseases given below,
163. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic
which ones have transgenic models existing for
engineering are them ?
(1) Diplococcus and Streptomyces A. Alzheimer’s
(2) Rhizobium and Xanthomonas B. Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Vibrio and Escherischia C. Cystic fibrosis
(4) Escherischia and Agrobacterium D. Cancer
Select the correct option from the following
164. Which one of the following palindromic base
(1) B and C only (2) A only
sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about (3) D and A only (4) A, B, C and D
slig htly away fr om the middl e by s ome
restriction enzyme? 170. Assertion (A) : The choice of genes depends upon
the crop and targeted pest, as most Bt-toxins
(1) 5’–CGTTCG–3’ are insect-group specific.
3’–ATGGTA– -5’ Reason (R) : The Bt-toxin is coded by gene called
(2) 5’–GATATG–3’ ‘cry’
3’–CTACTA–5’ (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(3) 5’–GAATTC–3’ correct explanation of (A).
3’–CTTAAG–5’ (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(4) 5’–CACGTA–3’ correct explanation of (A).
3’–CTCAGT–5’ (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
165. Which one of the following is used as vector for
171. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene)
cloning genes into higher organisms ?
of interest is transferred to the host cell through
(1) Baculovirus
a vector. Consider the following four agents (A-
(2) Salmonella typhimurium
D) in this regard and select the correct option
(3) Rhizopus nigricans
about which one or more of these can be used
(4) Retrovirus
as a vector/vectors :
166. All the following are transformation procedures A. a bacterium B. plasmid
except C. plasmodium D. bacteriophage
(1) Microinjection (2) Biolistics (1) A only (2) A and C only
(3) Spooling (4) Electroporation (3) B and D only (4) A, B and D only

167. The vector used to transfer gene to produce pest 172. When recombinant DNA is inserted within the
resistant tobacco plant is coding sequence of an enzyme  -galactosidase.
(1) pBR 322 (2) pUC 18 This results in the following except
(3) Ti Plasmid (4)  phage (1) Insertional inactivation
(2) Recombinant colonies do not produce any
168. Assertion (A): There are 27 documented
color
varieties of Basmati rice grown in India.
(3) Inactivation of enzyme
Reason (R): In 1997, an American company got
(4) Chromogenic substrate is converted into
patent rights on Basmati rice through the US
product by recombinant colonies
patent and Trademark office.

18
 Spot Test [08.03.2025]
173. Which of the following can act as selectable 177. The underlying basis of the Polymerase Chain
markers in a cloning vector ? Reaction is :
A. ampR B. tetR (1) DNA synthesis and hence amplification can
C. ori D. rop occur in a template independent manner.
Select the correct option. (2) DNA, being thermostable, can be amplified
(1) A and B (2) C and D
during the thermal cycle in PCR.
(3) A, C and D (4) A, B, C and D
(3) DNA polymerase I can synthesize large
174. With regard to insulin, choose the correct options amounts of DNA.
(4) PCR allows the direct amplification of DNA
A. C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
even if it is present in minute quantities.
B. The insulin produced by rDNA technology
has C-peptide. 178. Elution is :
C. The pro-insulin has C-peptide. (1) separating the restricted DNA fragments on
D. A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are agarose gel
interconnected by disulphide bridges.
(2) staining the separated DNA fragments with
Choose the correct answer from the options
ethidium bromide
given below :
(3) cutting out of the separated bands of DNA
(1) A, C and D only (2) A and D only
from the agarose gel and extracting them
(3) B and D only (4) B and C only
from the gel piece
175. Assertion (A) : Transgenic animals can be (4) constructing rDNA by joining the purified
specifically designed to allow the study of how DNA fragments to the cloning vector
genes are regulated.
179. Assertion (A) : Clone of cells having the mutated
Reason (R) : Gene regulation can be studied
gene doesn’t appear on photographic film in
only in the transgenic animals.
autoradiography.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Reason (R) : The used probes do not have
correct explanation of (A).
complementarity with the mutated gene.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
correct explanation of (A).
176. Assertion (A) : For toxicity testing, transgenic (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
animals are exposed to the toxic substances and (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
the effect is studied.
180. Gene cloning occurs :
Reason (R) : Transgenic animals are made to
(1) When a phage transfers bacterial DNA from
carry genes which make them more sensitive
one bacterium to another.
to toxic substances than non transgenic
(2) When a bacterium takes up DNA from the
animals.
surrounding fluid.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (3) When a bacterium carrying a recombinant
correct explanation of (A). plasmid reproduces, thus allowing for the
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the production of multipl e copi es of the
correct explanation of (A). recombinant plasmid.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. (4) When DNA is produced from an RNA
template.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

19