Financial Management SLM-processed
Financial Management SLM-processed
FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
VISION
Imparting continuum of management education through distance mode to learners across the globe.
MISSION
Be an academic community leveraging technology as a bridge to innovation and life-long learning.
To continuously evolve management competencies for enhanced employability and entrepreneurship.
To serve society through excellence and leadership in management education, research and consultancy.
EXPERT COMMITTEE
Prof. (Dr.) S. R. Musanna Prof. (Dr.) S. S. Yadav
IMT CDL, Ghaziabad DMS, IIT Delhi
INDEX
UNIT 1
• CO1: Apply the fundamental concepts of financial management for decision making.
• CO3: Assess the impact of leverage on firm’s profitability and design the optimum capital structure.
Unit 1 *
Unit 2 *
Unit 3 *
Unit 4 * *
Unit 5 * *
Unit 6 * *
Unit 7 * * *
Unit 8 * * *
Unit 9 * *
Unit 10 * * *
Unit 11 * *
Unit 12 * *
FINC002
Financial Management
UNIT 1 NOTES
AN OVERVIEW OF
FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
STRUCTURE
1.0 Objectives
1.1 Introduction
1.2 Legal forms of the Business organizations
1.3 Finance and Other Disciplines
1.4 Objective of Financial Management
1.5 Financial Management Decisions
1.6 Role of a Finance Manager
1.7 Agency Theory
1.8 Let Us Sum Up
1.9 Key Words
1.10 References And Suggested Additional Readings
1.11 Self-Assessment Questions
1.12 Check Your Progress-Possible Answers
1.13 Answers to Self-Assessment Questions
1.0 OBJECTIVES
On completion of this unit, you should be able to:
• Understand the meaning of Financial Management
• Understand legal forms of business
• Understand relationship between Finance & other disciplines
• Understand the scope and purpose of Financial Management
• Classify major decisions taken by the Finance Manager
• Explain the agency problem
1.1 INTRODUCTION
Organizations do the majority of the world's work. Resources are brought together-
equipment, building, inventory, people, information technology, and many more, to run 1
UNIT 1
An Overview of
Financial Management
NOTES organizations. Organization ensure that they use these resources productively to recover
more than what they have paid for. Financial management incorporates all of the firm's
decisions that have financial implications. Are you aware of any decision of an organization
that does not have any financial implication? Isn't that difficult to find? There is always a
financial aspect to the majority of the decisions taken up by an organization.
As per Brealey & Myers, Success is usually judged by value: Shareholders are made better off
by any decision that increases their stake in the firm... The secret of success in Financial
Management is to increase value.”
her business has Rs 35,000 in cash and 50,000 unpaid bills. She has Rs 5,000 as personal cash NOTES
and no personal debts.
How much cash, if any, should Chandni bring in?
1.2.2 PARTNERSHIP
Do you know that you and your friend/sibling can start a firm? Usually, partnerships are
formed by people who know and trust each other. It is similar to a proprietorship with two or
more owners who have combined their funds and skills. Unless the partners have agreed
otherwise, the partners will share the profits and losses equally. In case the skill and wealth
contribution differs amongst partners, it will be better to have a partnership deed, which
indicates the profit-sharing ratio.
Each partner has unlimited liability for all the firm's debts and obligations and is also
responsible for the liabilities in the firm of fellow partner/s. The Indian partnership act
regulates partnership businesses, though the regulation is minimal. Registration with the
government is also not compulsory.
The advantage of partnership over sole proprietorship is that it allows many people to pool in
funds and talent to form a large enterprise. In specific industries, partnerships are more
dominant, such as accounting, law, consulting, medicine, and architects' practices.
Now let us consider the following situations
Situation 2: Ankur and Shradha starteda consulting firm with an initial contribution of
Rs 20,000 each. After 2 years, the firm has Rs 55,700 in cash and Rs 75,000 of outstanding
bills. Ankur and Shradha have personal savings of Rs10,000 each and have no personal debts.
What happens next?
The firm is short of Rs 19,300 for paying its bills. Both partners must bring in Rs 9,650 each in
order to pay the bills in full. By adding personal savings, they will stay solvent, and the firm
and the business will continue.
The partners from their personal assets should fund the deficit in the business. In case the
personal assets of a Partner fall short, he will be declared insolvent. The other partners must
fund the business in such a case. The main point is in the law's eyes, the partners and the
businesses are the same.
I am sure you can identify the drawbacks of a partnership firm
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UNIT 1
An Overview of
Financial Management
not have to bring any more cash. They will stay solvent. The business will be liquidated, and NOTES
the liability will be recovered by selling the assets of the company.
Note that the shareholders have no legal obligation to bring in more Money if the company's
assets fall short of its liabilities. In such a case, the shortage will go unpaid. The company will
be liquidated; the shareholders will continue to be solvent. Here the key point is that the
shareholder and the company are two different persons, and that is how the law treats them.
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An Overview of
Financial Management
Basis of processing Accrual basis Cash basis and considers time value
information of Money
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NOTES
In accounting, the accrual method is used while preparing the Statement of Profit and loss.
The revenues reported includes both cash revenue and credit sales. Also, for expenses, it will
consider all expenses of the period, whether paid or not. So the reported profit will not
necessarily be cash inflows.
Let us understand this with an example:
Situation 5 : A small scale technology company has a cash revenue of Rs 5,70,000 for March.
It also provided IT services this month worth Rs 3,00,000, and clients will make payment in
June. The expenses for March are Rs 500,000, of which the outstanding bills are Rs 50,000.
Accounting treatment does not properly reflect the cash situations of the firm. For instance,
the firm could be profitable (as per the reported profits) but might not be able to meet its
short-term obligations due to the shortage of cash (liquidity), which might be due to
uncollectable receivables etc. It is also possible that the firm is reporting profits but has
negative cash flows. From the financial point of view, the treatment of funds is based on cash
flows. Revenue is identified when cash is received; and expenses are identified on actual
payments (cash outflow).
The cash flows thus help the financial manager maintain the firm's solvency and accordingly
satisfy the obligations, acquisition and financing of assets as needed to achieve the firm's
goals. The actual inflows and outflows of cash help the financial manager to achieve desired
financial goals and avoid insolvency.
NOTES institutional structure of the Banking system, Money and capital markets, monetary, credit,
fiscal and economic policies and financial intermediaries. This is where the financial
manager will raise funds for the organization, impacting the cost of raising funds. It is one of
the most critical areas with which a finance manager deals.
Thus, financial managers should be aware of the economic environment. Particularly they
should-
a) Be cognisant of several financial intermediaries and institutions
b) Be well-informed about the fiscal policy and monetary policy of the country and
its impact on the industry and economy.
c) Be conscious of Global Business Environment and integrated financial markets.
d) Identify and understand the broad economic environment
On the other hand, Micro economics is concerned with the economic decisions of
organizations and individuals. It provides effective operations for business firms by
performing optimal operating strategies.
Here the financial manager needs to understand-
a) The problems are concerned with a combination of optimum sales levels, product
pricing strategies and productive factors.
b) Demand and Supply interrelations and profit maximization strategies.
c) Ascertaining value, risk and utility preference.
d) The rationale of depreciating Assets
The principle of incremental/marginal analysis is applied in financial management
suggesting that financial decisions need to be made on comparing incremental/marginal
revenue and incremental/marginal cost. These decisions are essential to increase the profits
of the firm.
Situation 6 : The Financial Manager of a manufacturing organization is planning to replace its
existing machinery, with a more advanced new machinery. The old machine can be sold for
Rs 4,00,000, and it has 3 years remaining life. The new machinery cost Rs 7,00,000, with 3
years' life. The operating cost per unit is Rs 30 and Rs 20 with the old machine and new
machine, respectively. The output of both machines is Rs 20,000 units per annum. Let us
understand this by marginal/incremental analysis. Rs Rs
NOTES
The old machinery needs to be replaced as the incremental benefits are more than the
incremental costs.
Financial managers should be, therefore, familiar with both the areas of Economics for a
better understanding of both, the financial environment and decision theories
NOTES d) Accounting
e) All of the above
Q.2 Financial management uses accrual basis approach for arriving at future benefits
a) True
b) False
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0 1 2 3 4 5
(5,00,000) 80,000 85,000 1,10,000 1,15,000 1,25,000
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An Overview of
Financial Management
NOTES Will it be correct to add all inflows and subtract outflows to calculate the overall benefits
from this investment decision?
If you add all the inflows, you will get Rs 5,15,000. Will you buy this machine?
If you have said, Yes, your answer is wrong.
The value of rupees across five years is not the same. The value of Rs 100 that you have today
is of more value than Rs 100 that you will receive after a year. It is called the time value of
Money. Unit two is dedicated to this concept. For now, you must understand this with a
simple example. If 10% is the current rate of interest, wouldn't your Rs 100 that you have
today will become Rs 110 (100+10%*100)? Yes! We just calculate the value of Rs 100 after a
year. The other way of saying the same thing is
Rs 100 today = Rs 110 after a year (when the rate of interest is 10%)
If we divide 110 with 1.1 (1+10%*1) we will get Rs 100. We just calculated the present value
of Rs 110.
Let's look at situation 7 again.
0 -5,00,000 1 -5,00,000.00
By applying the time value of Money, you realised that the decision you would have taken
without applying this concept would have been wrong. The 10% rate that we have used here
is also called the hurdle rate. Isn't it common sense that an organization must earn more than
the hurdle rate (cost of capital/ cost of raising Money).
The financial manager must make the decisions keeping in mind that the Net Present Value is
positive. It will increase the value of the organization. Wealth maximization recognises the
time value of Money by discounting the expected cash flows of different years at a specific
discount rate (cost of capital).
We will learn these concepts in detail in upcoming units.
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NOTES is the rate of return that an investor could earn by investing in financial assets of equivalent
risk. It is also called cut-off rate, Required rate, or minimum rate. These norms are expressed
in terms of the cost of the capital. We will understand the concept and calculations of cost of
capital in the unit dedicated to this topic.
The limited resources available to organizations must be allocated between various
competing uses. Thus, it becomes essential that the return generated by an investment or an
asset is compared with a minimum acceptable rate to take a decision regarding its
acceptance. Companies decide the minimum rate of return in advance, below which they
don’t accept any investment. This minimum rate is based on project's riskiness; the
minimum rate has direct relation with risk, i.e., higher the risk, higher will be the hurdle rate.
Generally speaking, the correct hurdle rate is the opportunity cost of capital. The
opportunity cost of capital is the rate of return that an investor could earn by investing in
financial assets of equivalent risk. It is also called cut-off rate, Required rate, or minimum
rate. We will understand the concept and calculations of cost of capital in the unit dedicated
to this topic.
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Financial Management
15
UNIT 1
An Overview of
Financial Management
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Financial Management
NOTES Agency Theory: Management must work in the interest of the stockholders.
STRUCTURE
2.0 Objectives
2.1 Introduction
2.2 Cash Flow
2.3 Future Value
2.4 Present Value
2.5 Nominal and Effective Rate of Interest
2.6 Concept of Continuous Compounding
2.7 Capital Recovery and Loan Amortization
2.8 Concept of Sinking Fund
2.9 Let Us Sum Up
2.10 Key Words
2.11 References And Suggested additional Readings
2.12 Self-Assessment Questions
2.13 Check Your Progress-Possible Answers
2.14 Answers to Self-Assessment Questions
2.0 OBJECTIVES
On completion of this unit, you should be able to:
• Draw the relationship between time & money
• Understand the concept of cash flow
• Differentiate between lumpsum and Annuity
• Differentiate between ordinary annuity and annuity due
• Calculate the future value of cash flows
• Calculate the present value of cash flows
• Understand the capital recovery and sinking fund concepts
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NOTES denotes two periods from today and so on. Period can be year, month, or quarter.
Fig. 2.1: Time Line
Fig. 1
In a yearly timeline there will be n number of annual periods and i will be the
annual interest rate. If this annual timeline is converted to semi-annual timeline,
then there will be 2n semi-annual periods and rate of interest will be halved to
i/2for each semi-annual period. We can say that frequency of each semi-annual
period is 2 in a year. This can be generalized that if the annual timeline is
converted to frequency of m periods in a year, then there will be m×n periods and
i÷m will be the rate applicable to each period. For example, if a bond with
maturity of 5 years, pays 8% interest per annum at semi-annual frequency. Here,
number of periods n=5, frequency m=2and coupon rate i=8%. For the semi-
annual timeline, number of periods will be 2x5i.e. 10 semi-annual periods, rate of
interest will be 8/2 i.e. 4% for each semi-annual period.
b. Compounding
Compounding is the process in which present value of money is converted into
future value. Let’s understand with the help of an example: If you have 1000/-
today and you decide to invest it for future. Suppose the rate of interest is 10% p.a
then after one year, you would get Rs 1,100/.Now suppose you keep that money
for two years, you would earn interest on that earlier interest which is Rs 100/-.
Now your amount would grow to Rs (1100*10/100)+1100=1,210/-. This process
of getting interest on interest is known as compounding. It has been said in
Finance world that “Compounding is the eighth wonder of the world” and the
most important tool in the world. This will make money work for you even if you
are sleeping. You may get exponential growth if you start investing at early age.
c. Discounting
Discounting on the other hand is the process in which future value of money gets
converted in to present value. We use term “rate of discount” instead of “rate of
interest” when we calculate present value from future value. Let’s take same
example as above, if you want to accumulate Rs 1100/- after one year, how much
would you have to save today if rate of discount is 10% p.a. Amount would be
1100/1.10=1000/-
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Financial Management
23
UNIT 2
Time Value of Money
i The major difference between ordinary annuity and annuity due is that payments are
made at the beginning of the period in case of annuity due and at the end of the period
in case of ordinary annuity.
ii Future value of annuity due is always higher than the future value of ordinary annuity
because each cash flow is compounded for one additional period. It is recommended
to invest in the beginning of the period in order to maximise the return.
In order to simplify the concept, let’s take an example of Public Provident fund.
Interest of PPF account is calculated on minimum balance between 5th of that month
and end of month. So, if you deposit an amount on or before 5th of that month then
you would get interest on previous month’s balance as well as current month’s balance
On the contrary, if you deposit after 5th of that month then interest would be
calculated on previous month’s balance. One period may look small but when
compounding takes place on a large sum then the difference would be quite
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noticeable. NOTES
FV of Annuity Due= FV of Ordinary Annuity*(1+r)
iii Similarly, present value of annuity due is higher than the present value of ordinary
annuity. It is due to the fact that annuity due payments are received earlier and
therefore discounted less for one period. The first cash flow is being received at the
beginning of 1st period i.e. t=0, therefore, it will not be discounted at all.
PV of Annuity Due= PV of Ordinary Annuity*(1+r)
In the following sections, we will learn the calculation of Future value of money if the
Present Cash Flows are known. We will also cover the analysis of Present value of
money if Future cash flows are given. The assessment of Future and Present value of
Money is extremely important in order to assess many real-life situations. For
example, calculation of EMI for a loan, worth of expected future sum of money to be
received from a life insurance policy, stream of cash flows to be invested to accumulate
a specified sum of money for future period etc., all require the understanding of the
future and present value.
PERPETUITY - perpetuity refers to series of equal cash flows at regular interval for an
infinite period
NOTES Example 2: Uday invested Rs 40000 in a scheme that gives interest 12% p.a. compounding
annually. Calculate the maturity amount after 10 years?
Accumulated amount or Future Value = 40000*(1.12)10 = Rs. 1,24,233.93
Apart from using above formulae, we can calculate future value using future value factor
tables. Factor tables are given at the end of the book. Factor value represents the value of
Re 1.
Future value interest factor (FVIF), is the value of Re 1 after time ‘n’ invested at rate ‘r’, for
example If Re 1 is invested today at the rate of 10% for 5 years, and it would turn out to be:
FVIF (r%, n) = (1+r)ⁿ
= (1.12)⁵
FVIF (12%,5) = 1.7623
Here Re 1 is principal invested and 1.7623 is the interest earned in 7 years @ 12% p.a.
Similarly, we can calculate the value of Re 1 invested for any time ‘n’, at any rate ‘r’. The value
of FVIF For any time ‘n’, at any rate ‘r’ can be directly taken from ‘Future Value of Rs 1’ Table.
Example 3: Anil invested Rs 50000 in bank FD at 10% p.a. compounding quarterly for 3 years
for arranging college fees of his son. Calculate the amount received after 3 years r = 10% p.a.
compounding quarterly = 10%/4 per quarter= 2.5% per quarter n = 3 years = 3*4 = 12
quarters
Now put the values in formulae
FV = PV (1 + r)ⁿ
Amount received = 50000* (1.025)¹²
= 67244
By using the above formulae we can calculate the PV, r, and n.
The above problem can be solved in Microsoft Excel using Finance Functions
In order to calculate Future Value, use FV function in excel
Example 3 (Contd.)
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Please Note: Present value can be taken as negative as it indicates cash outflow and when
there is lump sum cash flow then “Type” can be taken as 0 or 1, output will remain same.
((1+r)ⁿ-1) (1+0.1)³-1
Future value of ordinary annuity (Sn) = A x r = 1000 x 0.1 = 3310
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UNIT 2
Time Value of Money
(1+r)ⁿ-1
FVIFA(r%,n) =
r
(1+0.15)¹⁰-1
=
0.15
FVIFA (15%,10) = 4.0456
FVIFA can be directly taken from Table- Future Value of Annuity of Rs 1. Refer table -2
(Future Value Interest Factors for One Rupee Compounded at r Percent for n Periods),
n=10, Period= 15%, FVIFA (15%,10)=4.0456
Example 5: How much will be accumulated after 5 years if 1000/- is invested every year for
five years at the end of the period, rate of interest is 12% p.a.
[Alternatively, refer factor table- Future Value Interest Factors for One Rupee Compounded
at r Percent for n Periods]
= 1000 x 6.3528
=6352.80
Example 6: If you deposit 10,000 every quarter in a mutual fund scheme, how much would
you get after 3 years? Rate of return is 12% p.a
In this case, 10,000 is deposited every quarter which means in one year 4 deposits are made
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NOTES
((1+r)ⁿ-1)
Future value of Annuity= Annuity x
r
n = 3*4=12
((1+0.03)¹²-1)
Future value of Annuity= 10,000 x
0.03
Example 7: How much will be accumulated after 5 years if 1000/- is invested every year for
five years at the end of the period, rate of interest is 12% p.a.
NOTES
Using Formulae:
n=4 r=6%
A= 5000
((1+0.64)⁴-1)
FV=5000 × 0.64 × (1+.06)=23,185.46
FV=5000×4.3746*(1+.06)=23,185.46
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NOTES
Year Amount
1 10000
2 20000
3 40000
Now, you want to know how much is being accumulated after 3 years if rate of interest is
10% p.a.
Explanation : Money deposited at the end of year I will be compounded for next 2 years. Sum
deposited at the end of year 2 will be compounded for next 1 year and sum deposited at the
end of year 3 will remain as it is. 31
UNIT 2
Time Value of Money
NOTES At the end of 3rd year, you will accumulate 74,100 if rate of interest is 10% p.a.
We will look at the Table-Present Value Interest Factors for One Rupee Discounted at r
Percent for n Periods: PVIF r, n = 1 / (1 + r)ⁿ given at the end of the book
PV = FV x PVIF (12%,8 yrs)
PV=1000 x .4039=403.9
The above problem can be solved in Microsoft Excel using Finance Functions
In order to calculate Present Value, use PV function in excel
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NOTES
Let’s say, you want to calculate the present value of 1000/- , to be received for next
3 years , discount rate is 7% p.a.
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UNIT 2
Time Value of Money
Example 8: Manav wants to deposit “x” amount today in order to get 5,000 every year at
the end of the every year for next 10 years, rate of discount is 10% p.a. Help him to know
how much amount he should deposit now?
Solution: Present Value= Annuity x PVIFA (r%, n)
Refer to Table: Present Value Interest Factors for a One-rupee Annuity Discounted at r Percent for n Periods:
PVIFA = [1 - 1/(1 + r)n] / r
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=33,795.12
Alternatively, we can use factor table also.
Present value of annuity due (an) = A* PVIFA (r%,n)*(1+r)
= 5000*6.1446*1.10
=33,795.30
Or We can solve the same problem with the help of excel:
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UNIT 2
Time Value of Money
Negative value shows the cash outflow as the amount needs to be deposited now in order
to get annuity of 5000/- every year for 10 years. Type “1” shows that the annuity are
deposited at the beginning of each period.
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2.4.5 PERPETUITY
Perpetuity is an annuity where stream of cash flow payments is for an infinite period. One of
the examples of Perpetuity is Pension in which cash inflows are forever i.e. till the life time of
an individual.
The present value of a perpetuity commencing at the end of every period is calculated as
follows:
PV= Annuity required per period / rate of interest compounding each period
Example-10 What is the present value of perpetual annuity of Rs 2000 received at the end of
every year if interest rate is 12% p.a.
Present value = 2000/. 12 = 16666.67
Example-10a. What is the present value of perpetual annuity of Rs 1000 received at the end
of every year if interest rate is 12% p.a. compounding monthly?
Solution: Present Value = 1000/.01 = 100000
Note: if annuity required is monthly then interest rate should be converted to monthly rate
which in the above case will be 1% (12%/12).
The present value of a perpetuity commencing at the beginning of every period =
[Annuity required per period / rate of interest compounding each period PV] x (1+r)
= (A/r)* (1+r)
Example: 11
Mr. Ram is working with a government department. He is retiring next month and
would be getting a pension of Rs 8000 per month for his remaining lifetime in the
beginning of month. He has a choice of getting a lump sum value for this pension. If the
discount rate is 9%p.a. Calculate the lump sum amount that he can receive now.
PVP(∞) = A X PVIFA (0.75%, ∞) * (1+.0075)
= [8000 x (1 / 0.0075)]*(1.0075)
= 10,66,666.40*1.0075
= 10,74,666.398
Where, PVP= Present value of Perpetuity
A is the annuity
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UNIT 2
Time Value of Money
NOTES PVIFA (0.75%,∞) is the annuity factor of Re 1 invested at .75% every month for infinity
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39
UNIT 2
Time Value of Money
NOTES
Nominal Rate 12%
Frequency/Compounding 4
Effective Rate 12.551% (Solve)
where,
P = principal amount (initial investment), r = annual interest rate (as a decimal), t = number
of years, A = amount after time t, e=mathematical constant
Example-14 An amount of Rs 2,340.00 is deposited in a bank paying an annual interest rate of
8%,compounded continuously. Find the balance after 3 years
Use A= P×ert
P = 2340, r = 8/100 = 0.08, t = 3.
e stands for the Napier's number (base of the natural logarithm) which is approximately
2.7183.
A = 2340×e.⁰⁸*³
40 = 2974.72
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With an interest rate of i = 12%, and n = 10 years, the CRF = 0.1769842 = 0.177 This means
that a loan of 1,00,000 at 12% interest will be paid back with 10 annual payments of
17,698.42
Annuity = Capital Recovery Factor x PV = 0.1769842x100000 = 17698.42
NOTES We can solve the same problem in Excel using pmt function:
PV 800000
Rate 12%
NPER 5
PMT ₹ -2,21,927.79 (Solve)
Frequency 1
Type 0
Example: 15 Ashish has taken a personal loan of Rs 10,00,000 from Kotak Mahindra Bank for
5 years at 12% p.a. reducing monthly. Prepare loan amortization schedule
Step 1: To calculate monthly Instalments or EMI (Equated Monthly instalments)
PV 800000
Rate 12%
NPER 5
PMT ₹ -17,795.56(solve)
Frequency 12
Type 0
Step 2
Loan Amortization Schedule
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NOTES
NOTES In the above-mentioned situations, the future value of annuity is given and we have to
calculate the annuity. Sinking fund is the value of accumulated funds saved equally over a
period of time. In order to calculate the sinking fund lets calculate the sinking fund factor
(SFF)
Sinking fund factor is the inverse of the future value interest factor of an annuity (FVIFA)
If anyone needs Rs 1 at the end of 10 years, he would be required to save Rs 0.10 every years.
But if one have an opportunity to earn an interest of 7% on this savings then less than Rs 0.10
needs to be saved, and that is 0.0724. Thus, to get Rs 1 after 10 years one just requires to save
0.0724 every year.
Nominal rate of interest refers to the rate of interest which is the stated rate before inflation NOTES
is adjusted
Sinking fund is the value of accumulated funds saved equally over a period of time, which can
be done by calculating the sinking fund factor (SFF)
Capital recovery is the value recovered equally over a period of time. This is possible with the
calculation of capital recovery factor (CRF).
Continuous compounding is the process of calculating interest on interest for infinite times
during the life of investment. This possible by calculating the continuous compounding
factor (CCF(r%,t))
2.10 KEYWORDS
Time value of money: A unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money
obtained in future.
Interest: is the price paid for the use of another's money.
Present value: The amount of money you would need to deposit now to earn a desired
amount in the future.
Future value: the amount your original deposit will increase based on a certain interest rate
and a certain time.
Annuity: is a series of equal deposits.
Lump Sum: A lump sum means a single cash flow. For example, an investment that is
expected to pay 500 one year from now
Perpetuity: A perpetuity that has an infinite life. In other words, it is a “perpetual annuity.”
Uneven Cash Flow Stream: Any series of cash flows that are not same every period are
uneven cash flow stream. For example, a series such as: 100, 100, $100, 200, 300, 400 would
be considered an uneven cash flows.
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UNIT 3 NOTES
STRUCTURE
3.0 Objectives
3.1 Introduction
3.2 Measures of Return
3.3 Historical rate of return
3.4 Expected rate of Return
3.5 Measuring Risk
3.6 Determinants of required Rate of return
3.7 Fundamental Sources of Risk
3.8 Systematic and Unsystematic Risk
3.9 Beta as a measure of systematic Risk
3.10 Relationship between Risk and return
3.11 Let us sum up
3.12 Key words
3.13 References and Suggested Additional Readings
3.14 Self-Assessment Questions
3.15 Check Your Progress-Possible Answers
3.16 Answers to Self-assessment Questions
3.0 OBJECTIVES
On completion of this unit, you should be able to:
• Understand how to calculate the historical and expected rate of return
• Understand how to measure risk related to historical and expected rate of return
• Understand the factors that contribute to the calculation of the required rate of
return
• Understand various sources of risk
• Classify risk into systematic and unsystematic risk
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NOTES
Quintals of rice produced per acre 15
Kilograms of rice produced per acre (1 Quintal= 100 KGs) 1,500
Price of rice per KG (Rs) 70
Total revenue (Rs) 1,05,000
Watering, seed, fertiliser, planting and tillage cost (Rs) 40,000
Hired labour cost (Rs) 21,000
Harvesting costs (Rs) 17,000
Total costs (Rs) 78,000
Profit (Rs) per acre 27,000
At what price will you be ready to buy this one-acre land, assuming you have money and have
no other investment alternative?
If the going G Sec Rate is 6.25%. The economic value of the land will be
= 27,000/6.25%= 4,32,000.
If you are getting land for lesser than 4,32,000, it is going to be a good deal. Also, it depends
on what are expectations of the land price in future. In case you think that the price my shoot
up, you will be ready to pay slightly more
NOTES You also want to calculate HPR for your investment in Motilal Oswal Financial Services Ltd
(MOFS)
=603Rs/ 590Rs = 1.022
Can you compare the HPR of KPR Mills with MOFS?
No, you cannot simply compare the two HPRs you calculated above, as they are for different
periods, one is for six months, and another is for a year. It will help if you calculate annual HPR
Annual HPR= HPR 1/n
Where n is the number of years.
For MOFS, the investment was for six months; in years, it will be 0.5
When converting shorter period returns into annual returns, the assumption we made is a
constant annualised yield for each year. We will make this assumption also when you are
holding your investments for multiple years (say five years) and calculating annualised
return.
Example 3: Warren Buffett, the great investor of our times, invested 100 $(for the sake of
simplicity at the beginning of the year 1964. At the end of 2019, his investment has grown to
27,44,062 $ (Amount taken from his letter to shareholders of Berkshire Hathaway Inc.)
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Year
NOTES
Amount ($)
1964 100
2019 27,44,062
The period of investment (n) is 55 years. We can calculate the Compounded annual growth
rate (CAGR) of his investments by using the HPY formula.
We have another measure to calculate average returns, and that is the geometric mean. It
is the nth root of the products of the HPRs for n years minus one.
GM= (πHPR)1/n-1
Π= the product of the annual holding period returns
= (HPR1) X (HPR2) ………(HPRn)
GM= [(1.2) X (1.129) X (0.959)]1/3 -1
= (1.3) 1/3 -1
=1.091393-1=9.14%
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NOTES GM is thought to be a better measure of long term performance than AM as it reveals the
compound annual rate of return based on both the ending value and beginning value of the
investment.
certainty can an investor talk about the return depends on the investment avenue. NOTES
The expected return can be calculated by ascertaining three things: situations, probability of
those situations, and possible return under each condition. The probability value ranges
from 0 to 1. To arrive at the value of probability, an investor has to look at the investment
alternative's historical performance and apply her/his judgment, analysis, and expectations
about the investment option in the future.
The expected rate of return is calculated as under
An investor might be entirely sure about earning a specific return rate; in such a situation, the
probability is equal to 1, and there is only one possible situation. These investments are
primarily Risk-free investments. The Government securities in India are Risk-free
investments
Example 6: The expected return in the case of Government Securities in India can be
calculated as follows
[E(Ri)] = (1) (.065) = 6.5%
It is also possible that an investor believes that investment could provide several different
rates of return depending on various possible economic conditions.
Example 7: For example, in a strong political and economic environment, an investor might
expect a 22% rate of return; in an economically weak scenario, s/he might expect the stock
price to go down by 25%; and with no significant changes, he expects the rate of return to be
12%. Based on his experience, judgement and analysis of the future, he estimates the
probability of each situation
The larger the value of variance or standard deviation, the greater is the dispersion and the
more significant the uncertainty and risk associated with that investment.
Let's work on the data given in exercise 6 and 7 to calculate variance and standard deviation
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Example 8: NOTES
Example 9:
This investment has 7.2% return at risk of 15.1%. Higher the value of standard deviation,
higher is the risk. It denotes the volatility in the stock price movement.
Coefficient of Variation
Comparing the risk of two or more investment alternatives can be misleading as the
alternatives' conditions might be very different. In such a case, a relative measure of risk
must be used; the coefficient of variation comes in handy. It is a widely used relative measure
of risk and is calculated as follows:
Coefficient of variation (CV)= Standard deviation of returns/Expected rate of return
= σ/E(R)
CV for the investment in exercise 9 will be =15.1/7.2= 2.09
Let’s understand this with another example
Example 10: From your analysis you have arrived at following probability distribution and
rate of returns:
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Important point that you need to consider while calculating variance and standard deviation
for historical returns is whether you should use n or n-1 as divisor.
Which divisor to use depend on how you have calculated the mean. In case you have
calculated the mean by considering the whole population of the data, then you use divisor as
n. In case you have estimated the mean by taking sample of the data then use divisor as n-1.
Exercise 11:The annual yields of Stock P for the last four years are 0.10, 0.15, -0.05, and 0.20,
respectively.
The arithmetic mean annual of HPY for Stock P will be
AM = (0.10 + 0.15 - 0.05 + 0.20)/4 = 0.10
The standard deviation for Stock Z.
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3.7.2 Financial Risk is the risk caused by the sources of finance used in the business. There
are two primary finance sources: own money (capital) and borrowed money (debt). By
borrowing money, the company's financial risk goes up, as now they are liable to return the
money and make interest payments. These interest payments are expenses for the company
and are deducted out of revenues, resulting in less funds available to the shareholders.
Investors, therefore, accord high-risk premium to companies with high debt.
3.7.3 : LIQUIDITY RISK is the risk that is caused due to the time it takes to convert an asset into
cash without giving up capital and income; this is due to a lack of enough buyers in the
market. You may have a good piece of land, but what if you cannot sell it as there are not
enough buyers in the market. If you need funds, you will have to bring down the price of that
land. The more challenging this cash-conversion, the more is the liquidity risk. An investor
must ask the following questions when assessing the liquidity risk: how much time will it take
to convert the investment into cash? How certain is the price to be received? Government
Securities have almost zero liquidity risk as they can be bought or sold quickly at a price
practically identical to the quoted price.
3.7.4 : INTEREST RATE RISK is the risk caused by a change in overall interest rates, which
impacts the value of a bond or other fixed-rate investments. As the interest rate goes up, the
market price of existing bonds/fixed-rate securities decreases and vice versa. Investors will
be interested in buying new securities with a higher interest rate and will be interested in
purchasing the current securities below par value. In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
sets the repo rate. It is the rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks. It becomes the
benchmark rate. Interest rate changes also impact equity investments. A higher interest rate
brings down the company's profitability, as interest is one of the components of cost. Also,
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higher rates bring down participation in the stock market as investors are more inclined NOTES
towards diverting their funds to fixed income securities.
3.7.5 : EXCHANGE RATE RISK is a risk to an investor whose portfolio comprises investment in
foreign currency. Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) face this risk due to changes in the foreign
exchange market. UK investor who buys Indian stocks denominated in rupees has to consider
the difference in the exchange value of the Pound Sterling to rupees, in addition to risks
mentioned above.
3.7.6 : COUNTRY RISK is the risk associated with investing in a particular country, and more
specifically, the degree to which that uncertainty could lead to losses for investors. The major
causes of this risk are the changes in the political or economic environment of a country. The
United States is believed to have the lowest country risk because it has a stable economic and
political system. The prevailing example (in the year 2021)of a country with higher country
risk is Myanmar, currently facing a military coup. The military is back in charge and has
declared a year-long state of emergency.
Exchange rate risk and country risk should be considered when an investor is investing
globally, and these would differ among countries.
The risk determinants discussed above constitute security's fundamental risk as it deals with
the intrinsic factors that should affect security's standard deviation over a period. Therefore,
a Risk premium is a function of all these risks.
Risk Premium= f (Business Risk, Financial Risk, Liquidity Risk, Interest Rate Risk,
Exchange Rate Risk, Country Risk)
NOTES assume that the rational and profit-maximising investors would like to hold a diversified
portfolio of investments which results in bringing down the risk. The total risk comprises of
Unique Risk and market risk.
Total risk = Unique risk + Market risk
Total risk = Diversifiable risk + Undiversifiable risk
Total risk = Unsystematic risk + Systematic risk
The unique risk represents firm-specific factors such as variability in inventories prices,
unavailability of skilled labour of a particular kind, governance issues with the company,
competitors, product development, etc. These events affects the specific firm and not all
firms in general. An investor can bring down this by adding stocks/shares of different
industries and firms, as certain firms' favourable factors can offset another firm's adverse
factors. Also, these factors and their impact keep changing because of the change in the
business environment. This risk is also called diversifiable Risk and unsystematic Risk.
The market risk or systematic risk is inherent to the market as a whole. It is attributable to
economy-wide factors like GDP growth rate, changes in government taxation policies,
interest rates, inflation rate, etc. These factors affect all the firms to a certain extent, and
therefore this risk cannot be diversified away by adding different stocks.
an investor from a risky investment is the investor's risk aptitude. A conservative investor NOTES
may demand more return for the same amount of risk in comparison to an investor with high
risk aptitude.
NOTES period. It measures the sensitivity of returns of stock to movement in the market.
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UNIT 4 NOTES
VALUATION OF SECURITIES
STRUCTURE
4.0 Objectives
4.1 Introduction
4.2 Fundamentals of Valuation
4.3 Valuation of Bonds/Debentures
4.4 Valuation of Preference Shares
4.5 Equity Valuation
4.6 Other approaches to equity valuation
4.7 Let Us Sum Up
4.8 Key Words
4.9 References And Suggested Additional Readings
4.10 Self-Assessment Questions
4.11 Check Your Progress-Possible Answers
4.12 Answers to Self-Assessment Questions
4.0 OBJECTIVES
On completion of this unit, you should be able to:
• Understand the concept of Valuation
• Understand and apply the basic valuation model to Bonds
• Understand and apply the basic valuation model to preference shares
• Understand the share valuation under zero growth, constant growth and variable
growth models
4.1 INTRODUCTION
Many people around us wake up every day looking into their mobiles regarding the
movement in stock indices worldwide. They derive a lot of pleasure and excitement out of
the stock markets. And when the signals are not in their favour, they get upset and unhappy.
The financial markets affect our portfolios and the Valuation of the financial assets, which
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NOTES influences our personal wealth and professional lives. The participation by individual
investors in financial markets is getting bigger, and it is expected to rise further. This is
authenticated by the increased number of Demat accounts being opened by retail investors.
The number has gone up remarkably during 2020-21. As of January 2021, India’s total Demat
accounts stood at 51.5 million, compared to 40.8 million at the end of FY 20 and 35.9 million
in FY 19.
Despite this increasing number of retail investors interest in the stock markets, a fewer
number of individual investors understand how different variables in the financial markets
impact the movements and valuation of financial assets.
Adani enterprises stock's value was around 40 Rs in 2016, and in 2021 its market value is
1200 Rs. The ITC stock which was around 233 Rs in 2016 on the contrary did not move much
and by the middle of the year2021 is 214 Rs. It clearly shows that Adani Enterprises could
accomplish the objective of value maximisation which ITC could not. Question arises
• Why do these companies trade at these prices? and
• How do these priceschange?
• Does this price reflect the true value? How we arrive at value of these tradable
securities.
You should know that though these prices are governed by the forces of demand and supply
in the securities market but the true valuation of a security is primary factor, which will have a
impact on its market price. In this unit, the emphasis is on a straightforward framework that
investors can use to value bonds, preference shares and equity shares. In general, the value
of an asset is the present value of its future benefits.
Value of an asset= Present value of all future benefits accruing to its owner
These are called discounted cash flow models. The benefits of an asset will accrue in the
future. We know that the value of money is not the same across years; therefore, by applying
the concept of time value of money, we are determining the value of future cash flows.
Another critical question to raise is
Why does the financial manager need to understand how to price bonds, preference shares
and equity shares?
1. Managers are guided by the objective of financial management, i.e., Value
maximisation. They must know, how through their decisions and actions, they can
maximise the stock price. And this is possible if they understand what impacts the
stock valuation which in turn affects the stock price movements.
2. Companies reach out to markets to raise capital. Financial managers must understand
how these securities are valued so that the financing of projects can be carried out
effectively.
3. Companies also acquire and divest companies. In both these cases, managers must be
aware of the Valuation so that the acquisition/divestiture takes place at the right price.
4. The stock price is also an independent performance indicator of the company's top
66 management and is closely watched by the board. Manager's compensation is linked
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to stock price, and therefore they do take a keen interest in the determinants of stock NOTES
price
It would be best if you were thorough with all the three previous units to understand
Valuation. In the first unit, we discussed the objective of financial management. The
Value maximisation objective will guide us throughout this course. Second unit- time
value of money will help you ascertain the Present Value (PV) of Future benefits. The
risk and return Framework was discussed in unit 3; it provides you with an
understanding of risk in term of required return.
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Solution 1:
Value of the asset A = Rs 20,000 * PVIFA (10,5) = Rs 20,000 * 3.791 = Rs 75,815.74
Value of the asset B = (Rs 10,000 * PVIF (10,1) + (Rs 18,000 * PVIF (10,2) +
(Rs12,000 * PVIF (10,3) + (Rs 25,000 * PVIF (10,4) + (Rs28,000 * PVIF (10,5)
= Rs 67,443.85
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NOTES
r is the required rate of return-the discount rate that reflects the risk of the asset is also
called Cost of debt, i.e., kd. In place of r you may use the term kd.
Example 2: Let us calculate the Price of Jipal's bond by using the basic bond equation.
Solution 2:
Price of the bond
again use Jipal Corporation used in exercise 2. Remember that the bond value was equal to NOTES
its face value in that exercise because the coupon rate and interest rate in the market were
the same.
Now let us assume that the interest rate in the market has gone up to 7%, and now it has eight
years to maturity. Now the equation will be
Solution 3:
Price of the bond
=(Rs 60 * PVIFA (7,8) + (Rs 1,000 * PVIF (7,8)
= (Rs 60 * 5.971) + (Rs 1,000 * 0.582)
= 358.26 + 582 = Rs 940
This bond should sell at Rs 940. We say that this bond, with its 6% coupon, is priced to yield
7% at Rs 940. Note that the market interest rate/ required return or yield (7%) is more than
the coupon rate (6%), the bond value (Rs 940 in this case) would be less than the par value
(Rs 1000), that is, the bond will sell at discount equal to Face value – Current Price of the
bond. Why are Jipals bonds selling at discount? These bonds are giving less than the current
rate in the market; therefore, investors are willing to buy it at less than promised repayment
of Rs 1000. The only way to get 7% is to lower its price to less than Rs 1000. Depending on the
interest rate changes, bonds will be sold at a discount or at a premium.
A Bond’s YTM is the yield to investor if the bond is held till maturity. YTM will be based on its
coupon, prevailing price and it can be different from market interest rate. The impact of
change in bond’s YTM on prices can be accessed in the same manner as of market interest
rates.
Method of calculating YTM by the approximation formula is given below.
Example 4:
Let’s apply this formula. The par value (face value) of the bond is Rs 1,000, and the Current
market price is Rs 920. The coupon rate is 10% and 10 years is Time to maturity.
Solution 4:
=11.25%
YTM is 11.25%. 71
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In case of no stated maturity, they are similar to perpetual bonds. And the equation will be NOTES
the one followed for perpetuity.
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NOTES The numerator of the above equation expresses Profit/Loss in monetary terms. The
denominator is the amount of investment in monetary terms; the final result is the return in
percentage terms.
As can be seen from the above equation, the stock value today is the present value of cash
inflows in one year. The question arises, how do we arrive at P1? Can we change the P0 given
above to arrive at P1? Yes, we can; here's how
Similarly, P2, P3, P4...can be arrived at. By substituting P2, P3, P4 with its equation, we will get the
following equation
This is an infinite series because shares do not have any maturity. As can be observed in the
above equation, the equity valuation equation is identical to the general valuation equation,
with dividends in place of cash flows. And as discussed earlier r is the required rate of return-
the discount rate that reflects the risk of the asset, it is also referred to as ke - the Cost of
equity capital. The Discount Rate represents risk and potential returns, so a higher rate
means more risk but also higher potential returns. The discount rate associated with an
FMCG company (as it generates consistent cash flows) will be normally lower as compared
with a new entrant in technology sector (erratic cash flows). Also, in the above equation, the
computation is based on the expected growth pattern of future dividend.
Analysts/fund managers/Portfolio Managers have to estimate these two inputs, i.e.,
dividends and Required rate of return for equity valuation. These are not so easy to calculate.
The rate of return is the function of a stock's risk (Refer Unit 3). How to estimate dividends?
How will it grow over time? The current dividend is known; by judging the possible scenarios
for dividend growth, one can estimate future dividends. Let's go through various possibilities
in dividend growths.
The value of the share would equal the present value of a perpetuity of dividend discounted
at r.
Example 7: The dividend amount of Jipal Corporation is Rs 12, and is expected to remain the
same in coming years. Assuming a required rate of return of 13%, what is the Value of Jipal's
shares?
Solution 7:
NOTES of dividends.
This equity valuation equation is in two parts; in the first part present value of dividends
during the initial growth period is calculated; and the second part calculates the present
value of the stock price at the end of initial phase.
Let's apply the model
Example 9:
An electronic company has developed a mobile charger that fully charges the mobiles'
battery in 30 seconds. Due to the product's popularity, the company's initial growth rate is
20% per year for the first three years. By the fourth year, competitors also started developing
similar products, so now the growth rate is 6%. Currently, it is paying a dividend of Rs 8. The
required rate of return of this stock is 15%.
Solution 9:
=(Rs 9.6 * PVIF (15,1)) + (Rs 11.52 * PVIF (15,2)) + (Rs 13.83 * PVIF (15,3))
= Rs 26.15
Rs 26.15 is the present value of dividends for the first three years. Now we have calculated
the Price of share at the end of year 3. As there will a stable growth rate from 4th year
onwards, we can easily apply the constant growth model. So
Rs 162.88 is the Price three years from now. We need to calculate the PV of this Price as well. NOTES
Which will be
=162.88 * PVIF (15,3)
=162.88 * 0.657 = Rs 107.01
Now will add the two values to arrive at present value of stock
= Rs 26.15 + Rs 107.01= Rs 133.16
NOTES estimation of EPS for the coming period. Secondly, the investor will calculate the P/E of the
industry to which this stock belongs. Thirdly, the investor will obtain the expected Price by
multiplying estimated EPS with the industry P/E ratio. Many seasoned analysts use this
approach for stock valuation. They compare the P/E ratio of various companies in the same
sector.
P/E multiple reflects how much an investor is ready to pay for each Rupee of earnings. It is NOTES
arrived at by dividing the share's current market price with its earnings per share (EPS).
NOTES Q.2 The periodic fixed payments given on bonds are called
a) Coupons
b) Interest payments
c) Dividends
d) Instalments
Q.3 Does bond price move in the opposite direction of interest rates
a) Yes
b) No
Q.4 What will be the Value of Preference shares that pay Rs 7 as a dividend and have no
maturity value? The current rate of dividend on similar preference shares is 6%
a) Rs 85
b) Rs 100
c) Rs 117
d) Rs 90
Q.5 What is the value of stock for a company that pays Rs 14 dividend every year, and the
company's rate of return of the company is 12%?
a) Rs 85.72
b) Rs 116.67
c) Rs 100
d) Rs 140
Q.6 What is the value of stock for a company that paid Rs 16 dividend this year, and the
constant growth is 10%, the company's rate of return of the company is12%?
a) Rs 800
b) Rs 1600
c) Rs 880
d) Rs 1164
Q.7 A Rs 100 par value bond bearing a coupon rate of 12% will mature after five years.
What is the value of the bond, if the discount rate is15%?
Q.8 The current dividend amount of Pattalok ltd is Rs 44. Pattalok has been paying
dividends at a growth rate of 8% and is expected to pay at the same growth rate in the
future. What should be the Price of CCL's shares if the r is 10%.
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=(Rs 2.4 * PVIF (14,1) + (Rs 2.88 * PVIF (14,2) + (Rs 3.46 * PVIF (14,3)
Now will add the two values to arrive at present value of stock
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UNIT 5 NOTES
STRUCTURE
5.0 Objectives
5.1 Introduction
5.2 Relevance of Capital Budgeting
5.3 Types of Capital Projects
5.4. Capital Budgeting techniques to evaluate the projects
5.5 Let’s Recapitulate
5.6 Key Words
5.7 References And Suggested Additional Readings
5.8 Self-Assessment Questions
5.9 Check Your Progress-Possible Answers
5.10 Answers to Self-Assessment Questions
5.0 OBJECTIVES
On completion of this unit, you should be able to:
• Understand the meaning and relevance of Capital Budgeting decisions
• Understand different types of Capital projects
• Evaluate the Projects using the various Appraisal Criteria
• Understand the merits and demerits of all appraisal techniques
5.1 INTRODUCTION
Capital budgeting involves decision-making on how to allocate the long-term funds of the
company for long-term usage. In simple terms, it is a capital expenditure decision. Capital
expenditure decision is crucial for any company, as it involves huge capital outlay for a
relatively long period of time.
Capital expenditure decisions involve expansion and diversification of business,
replacement, and modernization of long-term assets. It involves the complex procedure of
identification, preliminary screening, feasibility study including financial appraisals of
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NOTES projects.
Why taking capital budgeting decision is a complex management task?
1. It requires a huge outflow of funds.
2. The benefits of capital expenditure are expected to occur for several years in the
highly uncertain future. The costs and benefits occur at different points in time.
Therefore, it is very important to bring all the cash flows at same time frame so
that a proper analysis can be done,
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CAPITAL BUDGETING
TECHNIQUES
NON-
DISCOUNTING
DISCOUNTING
Non-discounting Techniques -These techniques compare the nominal cash flows occurring
from the project in the future with the cash outflows occurring at the beginning of the
Project. Non-discounted techniques are simple to use but the only flaw in these techniques
is that they ignore the time value of money. Making comparisons of cash flows arising at
different periods without making any adjustments for the time value of money leads to
flawed results. Some of these techniques are ‘Pay-back period’ and ‘Accounting rate of
return’.
Fig. 5.3: No Discount Techniques
Non-Discouning
Techniques
Accounting Rate
Payback Period
of Return
Discounting
Techniques
Modified
Discounting Net Present Internal Rate Profitability
Internal Rate
Payback Value of Return Index
of Return
For Uneven cash inflows in the future, the payback period can be found out by finding
cumulative values until the total is equal to the cash outflow.
Example 2: Assume that the project has a cash outlay of Rs 1,20,000/- and the cash inflows in
7 years are:
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As we can see above, payback will be in between 3 & 4 yr. 90,000/ are recovering till 3rd year.
Assuming that the cash flow occurs evenly during the year, the time required to recover the
remaining 10000/- (100000-90000) would be from 4th year cash flow.
Pay Back Period= 3+ (10000/20000) = 3.5 years
Acceptance Criteria
Now the question is when to accept projects considering the Payback Period? A firm may set
the appropriate cut-off period or standard period which can be compared with the payback
of the project. The project would be accepted if the payback of the project is lower than the
standard period. Ranking of mutually exclusive projects can be done with a payback period
and the one with lower payback can be selected.
Projects with long lives are compared with projects having shorter life so the decision NOTES
may be misleading.
3. Cash flows after the payback period are ignored. Payback Period cannot be considered
as the measure of profitability for the simple reason that few projects may have
substantial cash inflows at the later years. It would not be appropriate to take decision
purely based on payback. Other evaluation techniques must be considered while
taking a decision. For example:
4. Apart from the demerit above, the payback period fails to consider the timing of cash
flows. It gives equal weight to all cash flows even though cash flows are taking place at
different periods of time.
Both projects below have 2 years as payback period and both are equally acceptable
as per payback method. However, when time value of money is considered, the
project yielding large cash flows at the beginning will lead to higher value, keeping
other things constant, in comparison to project in which large cash flows are received
at the later stage. Here, project A should be considered as large cash inflows are
occurring in the early years.
= Rs 1,66,666.67
Average book value of investment = (500000 + 0) / 2
= Rs 2,50,000
income has its limitations if we compare it with cash flows. Cash flows are more NOTES
reliable than accounting income as it does not include non-cash expenditures. Since
cash flows and accounting income are often different and investment appraisal
emphasizes cash flows, a profitability measure based on accounting income cannot be
used as a reliable investment appraisal criterion.
3. The firm using ARR as an evaluation criterion must decide on a benchmark for judging
a project and this decision is often random. The firm often uses their book value return
as a benchmark which tends to be either very high or very low that results into wrong
decisions.
Calculating the present value of each cash flows separately using factor table
NOTES
= 2.43 years
On the other hand, if we consider Payback period only then it is 2yrs (800000/400000)
Discounted payback period as an appraisal criterion can be considered better than the non-
discounted payback period. Firstly, it considers the time value of the money concept,
secondly, it does not give equal weight to all cash flows. But it too suffers from other
demerits of the payback period.
Merits of Discounted Payback
1. The payback period method is simple to use and easy to calculate.
2. Payback period method based on the early recovery methodology. Thus, it gives an
insight of the liquidity of project.
3. It helps in identifying risky projects by preferring only those projects which generate
significant inflows in earlier years.
4. It is the most cost-effective method.
5. It uses the time value of the money concept
Demerits of Discounted Payback
1. The main focus of discounted payback is the early recovery of investment. It fails to
consider the cash flows which are occurring after the payback period.
2. Discounted payback cannot be considered as measure of profitability for the simple
reason that project may generate higher cash flows at the later stage.
3. Cut off period selected to compare the payback is selected arbitrarily. Even the
projects with long lives are compared with shorter life projects so the decision may be
misleading.
NPV equal to zero means that the project can recover exactly the amount of principal and
cost of funds and nothing more. Such projects can be accepted only if they form an
important/basic part of the product portfolio offering of the entity. We use NPV method to
select the mutually exclusive projects, NPV with higher positive value to be selected.
Example 6:
Consider the project with the following cash flows. Calculate the net present value of the
project, assuming the cost of capital is 10 percent.
(Figures in crores)
0 1 2 3 4 5
Initial Investment -2000
Cash Inflow 1000 800 800 750 600
Solution-6
Net Present Value is calculated as follows:
= -2000 + [1000 x PVIF (10%, 1) + 800 x PVIF (10%, 2) + 800 x PVIF (10%, 3) + 750 x PVIF (10%, 4) + 600 x
PVIF (10%,5)]
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NOTES = -2000 + [1000 x 0.9091 + 800 x 0.8264 + 800 x 0.7513 + 750 x 0.6830 + 600 x 0.6209]
= 1056.10
NPV = + Rs 1056.10 Crores, Hence, project can be Accepted
We can solve NPV problem in Excel too using NPV function in Excel
Let's solve the above example in Excel
give misleading results. This may happen because of different patterns of cash flows. NOTES
The project which has heavy cash flows at the later stage of life can be selected at a
lower rate because these large cash flows occurring in the distant future are being
discounted at a low rate and hence leading to high NPV. However, when the same
Project is evaluated at a higher discount rate because the large cash flows are
discounted heavily now this project will be less favored in comparison to the project
yielding higher cash flows in the beginning.
For example, We have evaluated two Projects A and B by applying two different discount
rates 10% and 5%. At higher rate of 10%, Project A has a higher NPV and at a lower rate of 5%,
Project B has a higher NPV. This is because larger cash flows come in later in the timeline for
Project B.
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NOTES
Profitability Index/ Benefit Cost Ratio =
PI / BCR= 1.52
Interpretation: BCR of 1.52 means that for every Rs 1 of costs the benefits are Rs 1.52 in
present value terms.
Acceptance Rule
PI >0 Accept
PI <0 Reject
PI=0 Accept (if there is the only project available)
Profitability Index measure is quite useful for the comparison between projects requiring
different initial cash outlay. This gives the cash inflows per unit of cash outlay. The higher the
ratio, the better it is.
Merits of Profitability Index
1. It takes into account the time value concept
2. Profitability index is consistent with the overall goal of shareholder’s wealth
maximization and considers as relative measure.
Demerits of Profitability Index
Like NPV, Profitability Index is based on the estimation of cash flows and discount rates.
which is difficult to estimate accurately.
Where,
I = Initial Investment
CFt = Cash inflows
r = Internal rate of return (IRR)
n = life of the project
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Example 7 NOTES
0 = -10000 + [4000 x PVIF (r%, 1) + 4000 x PVIF (r%, 2) + 3000 x PVIF (r%, 3) + 2000 x PVIF (r%, 4) +
2000 x PVIF (r%,5)]
NPVa
IRR = ra + (Rb – Ra)
NPVa - NPVb
NOTES
Interpretation: IRR of 18.07% means that the project would generate a return of 18.07% on
the investment made in the project. If the cost of funds is less than or equal to 18.07%, the
project can be accepted.
We can solve the above problem with the help of Excel also
IRR > k Accept
IRR < k Reject
IRR= k Accept (if there is the only project available) k is the cost of funds
Here , Values: Cash outflow and cash inflows Guess: any rate or leave blank
= IRR (Values, Guess rate)
=IRR (-10,000, 4000, 4000, 3000, 2000, 2000, 15%)
=18.0%
Merits of Internal Rate of return
1. It considers time value of money.
2. It considers all the cash flow occurring over the entire investment horizon.
3. Business men usually understand in terms of rate of return on capital employed,.
4. It is in congruence with the objective of maximization of shareholders’ wealth.
Whenever IRR is greater than cost of capital, the shareholders’ wealth will be increased.
Demerits of Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
IRR is a sound investment evaluation technique but sometimes it gives misleading results.
1. The principle of value additivity does not hold good in the case of IRR. For Project A IRR
and Project B's IRR, IRR (project A)+ IRR (Project B) ≠ IRR(A+B).
2. The underlying assumption in the case of IRR is that the cash flows are reinvested at
the same rate as that of IRR. This assumption is not practical as it may not be possible
that cash flows are always reinvested at IRR. We will discuss this concept in detail in the
topic "MIRR".
3. IRR may give more than one rate at which NPV would be equal to zero i.e case of
98 multiple rates. This scenario may happen in the case of non-conventional cash flows
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i.e. when cash outflows are intermingled with cash inflows, there can be possibility of NOTES
more than one internal rates of return. This point is clarified with an example in further
discussions.
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It is evident from above that project gives dual rate of return i.e. 50% and 150%. At these
rates of return, net present value of project is zero. Which of the two rates are correct? NPV is
positive when IRR is between 50% and 150%. This is one of the drawbacks of IRR. When we
have non-conventional projects where cash outflows are intermingled with cash inflows
then this situation of multiple IRR occurs. In such situation of dilemma, one should see NPV
rather than IRR.
Situation 2
Timings of Cash Flow in case of Mutually Exclusive projects; NPV profile & Crossover Rate
In this situation, cash flow pattern of projects may differ. Cash inflows of one project may
increase with time while cash inflows of other project may decrease with time. In such a
scenario, NPV and IRR may give contradictory results.
Let us understand with the help of an example:
Project R
Project S
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In above situation, NPV of Project S is higher than NPV of Project R whereas IRR of Project R is NOTES
greater than IRR of Project S. In such a situation of dilemma, which of the two projects should
be accepted?
Let us understand the NPV profiles at different cost of capital.
We can see above, 10.307% is the rate at which NPV of both the projects are equal. We have
calculated above rate using trial and error method by equating NPV of Project S and Project
R.
Now the question is How to select the project? In such cases of contradictions, we should see
the cross over rate where NPV of both the projects are equal. If cost of capital is less than
10.307% then NPV of Project R is lower than Project S. Hence Project S is more viable to
select. In case cost of capital is greater than 10.307%, Project R have higher NPV than Project
S.
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Situation 3
Projects which have unequal life
Another situation when NPV and IRR gives contradictory results is when two projects have
different life span. Let’s understand with the help of an example:
Project R
Project S
From the example above, we can see that Project R’s IRR is greater than Project S’s Whereas
NPV of Project S is greater than Project R. Thus, the two methods rank the projects
differently. In such a scenario, we are in a dilemma about which project should be accepted?
We will follow the following approach
Equated Annuity approach
EAA approach is used to compare the projects with unequal lives. It calculates the equal cash
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flow of net present value assuming it be an annuity. One with higher EAA is chosen. NOTES
In the above example, the NPV of Project R at 10% is 9504.13, and the NPV of Project S is
9600.06. Let's calculate equated annuity using NPV as present value rate as 10% in both
projects by using following formulae:
PV = EAA x PVIFA
Project R EAA= 5476.18
Project S EAA=2532.47
Project R’s EAA is higher than Project S hence, Project R is selected
After calculating IRR through trial & error method, we get IRR as 12%.
If we reinvest the cash flows at 12% p.a (Which is IRR) then the terminal cash flows would be
as follows:
Total Terminal Value of invested cash flows after 5th year would be 22,913/-
Initial investment 13000/
Rate of return -12%
However, in real life it may not be possible to reinvest all the cash flows at IRR.
To overcome the drawback of the IRR method and to make it consistent with the NPV rule, a
modified method is developed which is known as modified IRR. The method works as
follows: 103
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NOTES • Find out the terminal values of all the cash flows assuming the reinvestment rate
at cost of capital.
• The total of the terminal value is treated as a single cash inflow
• With only two cash flows (initial investment and terminal value at the end of the
project) recompute the IRR. This new IRR is the modified IRR (MIRR).
Example: 8
Consider a project with cash flow of Rs 13,000. Cost of capital is 10%. Reinvestment rate is
10%
exists by taking a single inflow at the beginning and a single cash outflow at the end of NOTES
the project.
3. It assumes a more realistic reinvestment rate consistent with the conservative policy
followed by most finance professionals.
Demerits of Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR)
1. It is complex to calculate if we compare it with other evaluation methods
2. MIRR does not lead to the same decision as NPV particularly in the case of mutually
exclusive projects.
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Q.5 What is the NPV of following cash flows if rate of interest is 12% p.a NOTES
a) Year 0 Initial Investment 3,00,000
b) Year 1 Cash inflows: 150000
c) Year 2 Cash inflows: 150000
d) Year 3 Cash inflow: 115000
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UNIT 6
STRUCTURE
6.0 Objectives
6.1 Introduction
6.2 Cashflows versus Accounting Profits
6.3 Pattern of Cashflows
6.4 Factors for determination of cashflows
6.5 Estimating Cash Flows: Type of Investment Projects
6.6 Cashflow Estimation: Type of Cashflows
6.7 Forecasting Cash Flows as Part of Capital Budgeting
6.8 Let Us Sum Up
6.9 Key Words
6.10 References And Suggested Additional Readings
6.11 Self-Assessment Questions
6.12 Check Your Progress-possible Answers
6.13 Answers to Self-Assessment Questions
6.0 OBJECTIVES
On completion of this unit, you should be able to:
• Understand the meaning and importance of cashflows for capital budgeting
decisions
• Deduce the factors affecting the cashflows
• Estimate the cashflows for capital budgeting purpose
6.1 INTRODUCTION
Investment decisions are crucial for long term profitability and growth of an organization.
The correct investment decision may lead to tremendous success for an entity. On the other
hand, a wrong decision may impact survival of the entity. It is utmost important to carefully
evaluate the alternative investment choices and select the most beneficial investment
project.
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Forecasting the cash flows correctly is a challenging task and varies with each project. For a NOTES
well-established industry the demand and supply conditions may be reasonably forecasted
and therefore cashflow estimation may be done easily. On the other hand, for a new industry
like gaming or electric vehicles it may be difficult to forecast the cashflows.
It is very important to forecast the cashflows carefully to evaluate available alternatives and
make correct investment decision. Wrong forecasting may lead to acceptance of poor
projects or rejection of good investment opportunity.
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NOTES
For example, A Ltd. has to buy a machinery for Rs 10 lacs in the year 2020. It expects that the
investment will generate the cash inflows of Rs. 200000 for next six years. In this case cash
outflows at the beginning are followed by cash inflows in the subsequent years. Such pattern
is known as conventional cashflows or cashflows from a conventional project.
Non-Conventional Cashflows
if the cash outflows in some project occurs more than once it gives rise to non-conventional
cashflows. The initial cash outflow is followed by cash inflows and then after some years
again some cash outflows take place to buy additional machinery or upgrade the technology
etc. to be followed by next series of cash inflows. When such alternate sequence of cash
outflows and inflows takes place, they are known as non-conventional cashflows. In non-
conventional pattern, cashflows with negative sign occurs more than once. We can
understand it as there will be initial cash outflow, followed by inflows and intermittent
outflows. The pattern can be depicted as follows.
For example, B Ltd. has to buy a machinery for Rs 5 lacs in the year 2020. It expects that the
investment will generate the cash inflows of Rs. 100000 for next 4 years. In 4th year the
machinery will require an overhaul of Rs 2 lacs which will be followed by cash inflows of Rs
1.5 lacs for next four years. In this case, cash outflow at the beginning are followed by
sequence of cash inflows and intermittent cash outflows in the subsequent years. Such
pattern is known as non-conventional cashflows.
the project under evaluation must be considered. These are the net cashflows due to new NOTES
project and not the cashflows of entire firm.
Sunk Cost
If the firm has already incurred a cost in past that might be related to new investment
opportunity like, marketing research cost for the project, this will not change whether the
project is undertaken or not. It is known as sunk cost. Therefore, in the analysis of new
project this sunk cost should not be considered as part of initial cash outflows.
Opportunity Cost
If the firm is using an existing resource in the business which would have otherwise
generated some cash flows for the firm. This is known as opportunity cost. For evaluation of
project the opportunity cost should be considered. For example, if a firm owns a premise
which would have fetched a rental income of 12 lacs per annum in future and if the firm
decided to use this premise for business instead of giving it on rent, then present value of
future rentals should be considered as opportunity cost. It should be added to initial cash
outflows of the project for analysis purpose.
Loss/Diversion of Existing Revenue
In the evaluation of a project, we should consider whether the new investment is leading to
some diversion of revenue from existing projects to new one. Then these diversion of cash
flows should not be part of incremental cash flows calculated from the new project. For
example, if an automobile company launches a new variant of passenger car, then it is quite
probable that some of its customers who would have bought existing models of same firm,
may shift their buying decision to this new model. This shift of cash flows from previous
models should be netted out from the sales of new model to calculate the incremental cash
flows caused by the new project.
Transportation and Installation Cost
If a firm is forecasting the cash flows for an asset purchase decision like building or machinery
purchase, then they should also consider the transportation and installation charges paid at
the time of purchase. Such costs should be added to purchase price of asset to calculate the
initial cash outflow.
Inflation
When calculating the cash flows, effect of inflation should be built into the calculations of
future revenue and costs otherwise calculation of cash flows may be flawed leading to wrong
evaluation and incorrect decision.
NOTES pre-tax income. Due to depreciation expense taxable income goes down. This results into
lesser tax expense. The saving in taxes caused by depreciation expense is known as
Depreciation tax shield. Therefore, in estimation of cash flows first, depreciation is
subtracted along with other operating expenses from revenue of project to calculate
operating profit. Depreciation tax shield will result into less taxes when tax rate is applied on
the lower taxable income. To calculate the operating cash flows after tax, now the
depreciation is added back to operating profits after taxes. This can be understood with the
help of following example:
Example 1: Xenon Ltd. is into the business of dairy products. The firm makes the sales of Rs 12
lacs in a year. Operating cost of the firm is 55%. Farm owns the assets worth Rs 10 lacs and
rate of depreciation is 10%. IF the firm’s corporate income tax rate is 30%, calculate the
savings in taxes due to depreciation cost that is benefit of interest tax shield?
Solution:
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purchase of new machinery or any other asset. These cash outflows are usually one time and NOTES
need to be incurred at the beginning of the project. Sometimes, additional capital
expenditure may be required after commencement of the project which will be considered
as cash outflows of the year in which they occur.
Initial cash flows may also be positive and includes any form of subsidy, investment
allowances etc. If an existing plant or machinery is being sold for replacement with new
machinery, then the sales proceeds of old machine are also to be considered part of initial
cash inflows. Many a times existing working capital may be released due to reduced
requirement of inventory when an old machinery is replaced with technologically improved
version. This will lead to release of some existing working capital. This should also be
included as a benefit in the initial cash flows of the new investments.
NOTES to depreciation expense needs to be taken into account. To calculate Operating cash flows,
depreciation is added to the operating profits after taxes.
Operating cash flows are to be forecasted for a definite period. It is assumed that due to
technological obsolescence, demand-supply changes and for other reasons every
investment will have a limited life. Operating cash flows are to be estimated over the limited
life of the project.
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Case II: When the machine is part of block with other assets then depreciation will be
charged in terminal year. Calculation of capital gain/loss will be as follows:
Where EBIT*(1-T) is also known as Net Operating Profits after Taxes (NOPAT). Here we are
deducting the tax from the EBIT, which is the combined profit for equity and debt providers
and represents the operating profits, received after deduction of all the cash operating
expenses and depreciation from the revenue. We have to add back depreciation to NOPAT in
order to calculate Operating Cashflows after Tax.
Another way to calculate Operating Cash flows after tax is to add back adjusted interest cost.
118
Q.1 Working capital is to be treated as part of Cashflows (Operating/Initial)
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Q.2 In Case of Replacement Project, Initial Cashflow will include (Cost of New NOTES
Machine Less Capital Gain/Cost of New Machine Less Sales Proceeds of Old Machine)
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Present
value
NOTES
0.9259 0.8573 0.7938 0.7350 0.6806 0.6302 0.5835 0.5403
Factor
@8%
PV of
-1000000 106481 106310 106294 106425 103381 100544 97822 311303
Cashflows
Net
Present
38560
value of
Cashflows
NOTES Calculation of Capital Loss & Tax Saving on Sale of Old Machine:
Calculation of Incremental Depreciation, Capital Loss & Tax Saving on Sale of Old Machine:
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As the Net Present Value is positive for Incremental Cashflows from the Replacement of Old
Machinery with new one, it is advisable to the firm to go ahead with replacement proposal.
NOTES The wrong estimation of cashflows may lead to acceptance of unviable project and vice-
versa. In forecasting of cash flows only the relevant cashflows, which are affected by decision
should be considered. The impact of depreciation tax shield, additional working capital and
fixed overheads has to be taken into account for analysis of cash flows. The cashflows are of
three types namely,
I) Initial Cashflows
ii) Operating Cashflows
iii) Terminal Cashflows.
Initial cashflows include the onetime cashflows at the time of commencement of investment
project. This includes cost of purchase of Plant & Machinery, Initial Working Capital and any
investment allowance/subsidy from the government. Operating cashflows include recurring
cashflows from the operations of firm. It is calculated by adding back depreciation to the
operating profits after tax as depreciation is the non-cash expense and does not results in any
outflows of cash. Terminal Cashflows include the onetime cashflows occurring at the time of
completion of investment project. It includes salvage value of assets to be disposed, release
of working capital and any tax expenses/savings due to profit/loss on disposal of assets. The
cashflows are to be forecasted for expansion projects or replacement projects. To analyse a
project only the incremental cashflows are to be taken into account. If there is any loss of
existing cashflows due to new project, then it is to be adjusted in the cashflows of new
project. The forecasted cashflows are to be adjusted for time value of money. The sum of
present value of forecasted cashflows is to be compared to the cash outflows to decide on
the acceptance of investment project.
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NOTES each year. The new version, due to its popularity will lead to sales cost reduction by
10% which is currently Rs 50000 per year. Calculate the incremental cashflows for
each year from new product.
Q.4 Discuss the impact of Depreciation Tax Shield on forecasting of cashflows. Why
depreciation is to be deducted as expense to calculate cashflows in spite of being a
non-cash expense, explain with the help of a suitable example.
Q.5 Discuss the importance of cashflows for assessment of a project and factors which are
to be considered for forecasting cashflows.
Q.6 Compare and contrast the cashflow forecasting for expansion projects vis-à-vis
replacement project.
Q.7 Give examples of Initial cash flows, operating cashflows and terminal cashflows with
their explanations.
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127
NOTES
UNIT 7
COST OF CAPITAL
STRUCTURE
7.0 Objectives
7.1 Introduction
7.2 Relevance of Capital structure
7.3 Concept of Opportunity Cost of capital
7.4 Factors Affecting Cost of Capital
7.5 Cost associated with Different Long-Term Sources of Finance
7.6 Weighted Average Cost of Capital
7.7 Let’s Recapitulate
7.8 Key Words
7.9 References And Suggested Additional Readings
7.10 Self-Assessment Questions
7.11 Check Your Progress- Possible Answers
7.12 Answers to Self-Assessment Questions
7.0 OBJECTIVES
On completion of this unit, you should be able to:
• Understand the concept of Cost of Capital
• Know the significance of cost of capital
• Understand the costs associated with the Long-term sources of Finance; Cost of
Equity, Cost of Debt, Cost of Preference Capital and Cost of Retained Earnings
• know the concept of Weighted Average Cost of Capital and its calculation
• Understand the factors affecting the Cost of Capital.
7.1 INTRODUCTION
We know to run a business we need funds or capital. Finance is the bloodline of very business
activity. But the question is How a business gets money? Is it free of cost? No, money is
always available at a cost. There are various ways by which business can raise funds
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Cost of Capital
Investors due to different risk characteristics in different investment avenues will expect
different rates of return. Higher the risk of a security, higher would be the expectation of
return. Government Bonds are less risky than corporate bonds as they are backed up by
government. Creditors / Bond holders have priority claim over assets hence they are less
risky than preference share capital. But preference shareholders have priority over equity
shareholders in terms of getting dividend so they are less risky than equity shareholders. The
payment of dividend to equity shareholders is not mandatory and price of shares fluctuates
more. Hence it is the most risky than any other capital. Risk characteristic of each security is
shown above in Fig-7.1.
When a company makes profits, it can either distribute it in the form of dividends or NOTES
retain them. In both the cases, shareholders would benefit. Cost of Equity would have
direct impact of firm’s dividend policy. Choice of dividend policy would change the
cost associated with raising funds through equity.
3. Risk- Both Financial risk and Business risk affects the cost of capital of a firm. Financial
risk means use of high debt in the capital structure i.e due to financing decision
whereas business risk is due to the investment decisions. Higher the risk, higher would
the cost of capital. Any investor would expect higher return in case of higher risk in the
company. Hence, cost of capital would be high.
4. Level of Interest rates- Interest rate depends upon the demand and supply of funds in
the economy. Cost of Debt is greatly influenced by general interest rates in the
economy prevailing at the time of raising the funds. Hence, it would affect the cost of
capital.
Capital structure, Investment policy, market conditions in the economy are some
other factors that will influence cost of capital. Most of the factors are systematic
(Uncontrollable) and keep on changing with time. Management must regularly review
the cost of capital and take appropriate decisions from time to time.
Cost of Debt
Cost of Equity
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Cost of Capital
Loans from
Banks
Issue of
Bill
Debentures/
Discounting
Bonds
Borrowings
Inter from Non
Corporate Banking
Loans Financial
Institutioins
FEATURES OF BONDS
• Credit instrument- A debt security is a type of loan. Debenture holder is a creditor
of the company.
• Par value – Face Value and Issue Price: Each bond carries a face value which may
be for example, Rs 1000. This is the nominal value of bond. It is used for
accounting purpose and coupon is calculated on face value. Corporate bond may
be issued at a discount, at par or at a premium with reference to its face value. The
price at which a bond is issued to investor is known as its issue price.
• Maturity date – Fixed maturity date, when the bonds must be re paid or
redeemed.
• Issue date – when the bond was issued
• Coupon Rate: Bonds carry a coupon rate which may be fixed rate (for example
12%) or a floating rate linked to some base rate. For example, a floater bond may
have coupon such as “5 year G-Sec rate + 2%”. Where 5 year G-sec rate is base rate
and keeps on changing as the rates of central government securities change while
2% is the spread which remains fixed for the entire tenure of the bond. Coupon
payments are made to investors periodically for example coupon may be paid
quarterly, semi-annually or annually.
• Redemption value is the amount which is paid to investor at the time of maturity
of bond. Face value and redemption value-are mostly same but different in some
cases.
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Suppose the Income tax is charged at the rate of 30%, then the tax amount would be ₹ 30
crore (100 x 0.30).
Now to see the tax shield effect, let us take the same example, assuming the company has
raised a loan of ₹ 200 crores from SBI @ of 10% p.a. The interest paid on the loan is genuine
expenditure incurred for earning the business income and is allowed as a tax-deductible
expenditure.
Profit & loss account of ‘X’ Ltd for the year ending 31st Mar 2019
(₹ crore)
Expenditures Amount Income Amount
Interest 20 Total Income 100
Net taxable income 80
Total 100 Total 100
The tax amount would be ₹ 24 crore (80 x 0.30). Thus, generating a tax saving of ₹ 6 crore
(30 – 24). The tax saving resulted due to tax deductible expenditure of ₹ 20 cr.
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Debt is raised through many sources. It is raised at a fixed rate of interest which the borrower
has to pay to the lender. Debentures or Bonds may be issued at par i.e. at the face value or
below or above the face value
Let’s understand with the help of an example:
Suppose a company issues 7% Debentures with a face value ₹ 100/- for 5 years. If a company
issues it at par, a premium of 5% or discount of 5% then the value would be as follows:
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NOTES Example 1:
ABC Ltd issues 7%, ₹ 100 Face value Bond at par and redemption is also at par. What is the
cost of debt if tax rate is 30%?
Coupon amount= 7%*100= ₹ 7, P0= 100, t= .30
P = C (1 – t) x PVIFA(kd%, n) + R x PVIF(kd%, n)
where,
C = Coupon (interest)
kd = post-tax cost of debenture capital
t = Corporate tax rate
R = Redemption value
P = Net amount realized per debenture
n = maturity period.
Example 2:
ABC Ltd has issued debentures for ₹ 100 crores. carries a rate of interest of 12 percent with a
face value of ₹ 100. The debenture is redeemable at a premium of 5 percent after 10 years
and interest is payable annually.
If corporate tax rate is 30%, calculate the cost of the debenture to the company?
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Solution NOTES
Given Coupon = ₹.12 (12% of 100), tax = 0.3, Price= ₹.100, and n = 10 year ₹, Redemption =
₹.105
the cost per debenture (kd) will be:
kd= 8.68%
7.5.1.7 COST OF DEBT USING PRESENT VALUE METHOD (YIELD TO MATURITY APPROACH)
We can use Present value method also to calculate the cost of redeemable debt by
discounting the future cash flows by using Internal rate of return. IRR have been discussed in
the unit “Basics of Capital Budgeting”. In case of Debt instrument, yield to maturity is the
Internal rate of return. YTM is the rate which equates the present value of cash inflows and
present value of cash outflows.
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NOTES Example 4:
10% Bond, Face Value ₹100 redeeming after 5 years, Tax rate is 35%, issued at ₹85. What is
the Cost of Debt?
Step 1: Identify the cash inflows and cash outflows from the Bond
Step:2 Take two discount rates and calculate Net present Value
Step3 : Calculate IRR using trial and error method
Below example, we are taking two discount rates 10% & 15%
= 10.60%
Here, Values: Cash outflow and cash inflows Guess: any rate or leave blank NOTES
Here, for the firm, cost is 10.6% which is more than the coupon rate of 10%. This is so because
company will receive only Rs 85 for bond with face value of Rs 100 and will pay coupon of
10% on the face value. The cost of firm will be higher than coupon rate which is 10.6%
The effective cost of debt will be Kd*(1-T) = 10.6%*(1-.035) = 6.89%
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Example 6
Vedanta Ltd issues redeemable preference shares. Face value of each preference share is
Rs.100 and carries a dividend rate of 13 percent payable annually. The share is redeemable
after 10 years at par. is Amount realized per share would be ₹.98, what is the cost of the
preference capital?
Solution
Given that D = 13, R = 100, Price= 98 and n = 12
NOTES Example 7:
NHAI issues irredeemable preference shares at ₹ 100/-face value with a 12% dividend at par.
What is the cost of a preference share?
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𝑛 𝐷𝑡
𝑃𝑒 = ∑ 𝑡
𝑡=1 (1 + 𝑘𝑒 )
where,
Pe = price per equity share
Dt = Expected Dividend after year “t”
ke = Cost of Equity or Required rate of return by investors
It is challenging to forecast the dividend accurately perpetually so above model cannot be
used as it is. Therefore, the growth in dividends can be categorized as nil or constant growth
or supernormal growth and the above equation can be modified accordingly.
Dividend Pattern can be following ways:
Fig. 7.7: Dividend Pattern
NOTES 3. The market price of a share is the discounted value of expected dividends.
Example 8:
The current market price per share of Cample Ltd is Rs.500. The dividend expected per share
after a year is Rs.10 and the dividend per share is expected to grow at a constant rate of 10%
per annum. Calculate the cost of the equity capital to the company?
Solution
𝐷1
𝑘𝑒 = +𝑔
𝑃𝑒
10
= + 0.10
500
𝑘𝑒 = 12%
The growth rate (g) will be equal to 0 if dividend payout would be 100%. Under this situation,
dividends would be equal to their earnings.
𝐸𝑃𝑆1
𝑘𝑒 =
𝑃𝑒
Example 9:
The market price per share of Synergy Ltd is ₹.100. The dividend per share is expected to be
constant at ₹ 10/ forever. Calculate the cost of the equity capital to the company?
10
𝑘𝑒 = = 10%
100
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The cost of equity (ke) can be calculated by solving above equation through trial-and-error NOTES
method
Example 10:
Assume that a company’s share is currently selling for 100/- Current dividend (D0) is ₹ 5/- and
are expected to grow at 15% p.a over next 3 yea₹ and then stabilize at 5% p.a forever. What is
company’s cost of equity?
Solution: Using super normal growth model, we can put all the information given in the
question in the equation
According to this approach, the cost of equity is reflected by the following equation:
CAPM Model represents the relationship between required rate of return and risk. It equates
the required return with two components risk free rate (reward for waiting/time) and risk
premium(reward for taking the risk). In CAPM, only systematic risk is taken in to
consideration which is measured by Beta. Systematic risk is the external risk or market
specific risk that cannot be eliminated by diversification.
Let us understand Beta (measure of systematic risk) Beta measures the sensitivity of
company’s stock with that of the market. It measures the response as to how much
company’s shares fluctuate with respect to the market fluctuations. Beta of the market is
always 1. Higher beta stocks mean more fluctuation hence more risk.
Under this approach, Cost of Equity depends upon two factors risk free rate of return + risk
premium
It is the compensation for taking risk which depends upon beta. Higher beta means higher
risk so higher risk premium. Lower beta means lower risk
How to calculate Beta?
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NOTES
Variance denotes the risk and covariance denotes co-movement between stock and market
index
Fig. 7.7: Cost of equity as per Capital Asset Pricing Model
Example10:
Let’ assume SBI has beta of 1.2, Return from market is 12.5% and risk free return is 6.5%.
Calculate cost of equity
Solution:
ke= 6.5+(12.5-6.5)*1.2= 13.7%
Floatation cost is the cost incurred by company while raising money through public issue. NOTES
Costs like underwriting fees, legal costs, registration fees and any other expenses incurred in
bringing initial public offer.
where,
K´e = cost of external equity
D1 = dividend expected at the end of year 1
P0 = current market price per share
g = constant growth rate applicable to dividends
f = floatation costs as a percentage of the current market price.
where,
ke = rate of return required by the equity investors
K´e = cost of external equity
f = floatation costs as a percentage of the current market price.
Example 11:
Indraprastha Gas Ltd has got ₹.400 lakh of retained earnings and ₹.400 lakh of external
equity through a public issue. Required return of equity investo ₹ is 15% The cost of raising
funds is 5%. The cost of retained earnings and the cost of external equity can be determined
as follows:
Cost of retained earnings:
kr = ke i.e., 15%
K´e = ke / (1- f)
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K´e = 15.7%
Now the question arises whether a firm should consider the market value in calculating the
weights or Book Value
Let us first understand Book Value and Market Value
Book value: Values which are reflecting in the books of accounts are Book value. For ex. If the
firm raises capital using Equity shares worth 10,00,000 (1,00,000 shares @₹ 10/ each) then
₹ 10/- is the Book value per share and 10,00,000 is the total Book value. If Debentures are
also issued worth 5,00,000 (50,000 Debentures @ ₹ 100 each) then WACC as per Book Value
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We= 10,00,000/60,00,000=.1667
Wd=50,00,000/60,00,000= .8333
WACC= We*ke+Wd*kd
We= 50,00,000/99,00,000=.5051
Wd=49,00,000/99,00,000= .4949
WACC= .5051*12+.4949*9=10.51%
So, we can see that market value of cost of capital depicts the current situation whereas Book
value are based on accounting policies and reflect the historical values. Market Value is more
realistic as the value of equity and Debt are continuously adjusted with the changes in the
current value. It is very difficult to get market value of each component particularly Debt as
these are quite illiquid in the market. Market value weights also keeps on fluctuating due to
continuous fluctuations in equity prices.
Example 12
Equity Capital (1 lakh shares at par value) Rs.10/
12%Preference Capital (10,000 shares at par value) Rs.100/-
15% Debentures, Non-Convertible (70,000 debenture) Face Value Rs. 100/-
The current market price of equity share is ₹.30. Expected dividend per share is Rs.5.00
which is growing at a constant rate of 10 percent. The 12% redeemable preference shares
after 8 years issued at par (face value-100) and are currently priced at ₹.90 per share.
15% debentures are redeemable after 5year at par and their current market price is Rs.90
per share. The tax rate applicable to the firm is 50 percent. Calculate the weighted average 149
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Cost of Capital
Cost of Debt
Note: Market price can be as net amount realizable per share or debenture.
Step 2: Calculate the weights associated with the various sources of finance
Step 3: Multiply the costs of the various sources of finance with the corresponding weights
and add these weighted costs to determine the weighted average cost of capital
(WACC). Therefore,
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NOTES
with
with
We can see from above that there is difference in the WACC as per market values and WACC
as per Book Value. Market value gives more realistic value.
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NOTES
UNIT 8
CAPITAL STRUCTURE
STRUCTURE
8.0 Objectives
8.1 Introduction
8.2 Equity vs. Debt
8.3 Factors affecting Capital Structure
8.4 Designing Optimal Capital Structure
8.5 Capital Structure Theories
8.6 Let Us Sum Up
8.7 Key Words
8.8 References And Suggested Additional Readings
8.9 Self-Assessment Questions
8.10 Check Your Progress-Possible Answers
8.11 Answers to Self-Assessment Questions
8.0 OBJECTIVES
On completion of this unit, you should be able to:
• Understand meaning & characteristics of different sources of capital
• Deduce the factors which impact the capital structure
• Appreciate the critical considerations for designing of optimal capital structure
• Understand the implications of various theories of capital structure
8.1 INTRODUCTION
Capital Structure reflects the composition of sources of funds used by an entity. A firm can
raise the funds through equity capital, debt capital, preference share capital or it can utilize
the retained earnings for financing a project of the firm. The firm has to decide the judicious
mix of sources of funds with reference to its unique business and financial risk. The decision
on composition of various sources of funds in the capital structure of a firm demands the
trade-off between the risk, cost & dilution of control. Each source of fund has its own pros
and cons. Let us discuss the benefits, cost and risk associated with each source of fund and
designing the capital structure of a firm.
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NOTES form of bank loans or by issuing bond/debentures to the general public. A bond/debenture is
a debt instrument floated by a firm in market to raise the funds in the form of borrowings.
The debt security offers a periodic coupon to its subscribers and repayment of principal on
maturity of debt paper. These bonds/debentures can be subscribed by the large institutional
as well as retail investors.
Priority Claim of Debtholders and High risk for firm
The payment of interest and principal is mandatory on the debt capital. Irrespective of
profits earned or losses incurred by a firm, interest and principal repayment has to be
honored whenever falls due. The debtholders have very strong claims on the firm’s earnings
and their claims are to be honored on priority. The delay in payment or default in the
payment of interest and principal results into legal consequences and may force the firm
into liquidation. Debtholders have priority claims on assets of firm in case of liquidation.
Their claims are to be paid before making any payment to providers of other sources of funds
namely, Preference Shareholders and Equity Shareholders. This makes the debt capital a
risky source of funds for a firm and their usage demands caution on the part of management.
Ease of Raising Funds through Debt
Now you must be thinking that if the debt capital is so risky then why the management raise
the money through debt. Why can’t they raise entire capital in the form of equity which
almost doesn’t pose any risk to the existence of a firm. The answer lies in the fact that once
the promoter’s savings are exhausted and firm needs the money for expansion, it is not easy
to raise the money from investors in the form of equity. Shareholders will commit their hard-
earned money only to a firm which has the potential to grow and offers them high expected
return in future. It is relatively easy for a firm to raise the money through bank loan or by
issuing bonds/debentures in the market because debt is relatively safer for the lenders. The
statutory requirement to mandatorily pay interest and principal repayment gives the bond
holders or bankers enough confidence to provide funds to the firm as they are offered fixed
periodic returns and compulsory repayment of principal on maturity.
Low Cost of Debt and Tax Deductibility of Interest
Interest rate on bonds or bank loans is always lower than cost of equity because of its
certainty of payment. Secondly, the interest payment on debt is tax-deductible in nature.
Tax-deductibility of interest payment arises from the fact that as per law, in the hierarchy of
payments to be made by a firm, interest is deducted from income prior to the payment of
taxes. This results into lower taxable income and firm ends up paying less taxes on its income.
This benefit is not available in case of other forms of financing namely preference share and
equity capital. The Preference dividend and dividend of equity shares is to be paid after
making the payment of taxes by the firm. Therefore, though dividends are causing the
financing cash outflow from the firm, they do not entail any tax benefit to the firm on their
payment. In case of debt because the payment of interest is made before tax payment, the
outflow of interest causes, profit before tax to decrease to the extent of interest expense
amount. This results into significant reduction in the tax amount to be paid by the firm. This
tax saving which is caused by presence of fixed interest cost in the cost-structure of firm is
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known as interest tax shield. Such benefit does not accrue to the firm if it raises the funds NOTES
through preference shares or ordinary equity shares. The benefit of interest tax shield makes
the debt a cost-effective source of funds. Effective cost of debt will eventually be lower than
the quoted or nominal cost of debt by the percentage of tax saved on interest expense.
Low Dilution of Control
Debt holders have no voting rights and generally do not interfere in the decision making and
day-to-day affairs of the firm. The controlling shareholders enjoy the full control and
decision-making power in the organization. There is no dilution of control at low to medium
level of debt in the capital structure of firm. However, debtholders protect their interest
through restrictive covenants. When the debt continues to increase and debt levels go up
then debt holders impose strict restrictive covenants like restrictions on further borrowing,
restrictions on further expansion etc. This helps them to ensure that their interest will
remain protected.
The relatively easy availability of debt and cost-effectiveness makes debt a preferred choice
for the firm though its excessive use is unwarranted due to its riskiness. The management
has to weigh the benefits against the risk posed by debt funding and should decide the
optimum proportion of debt in its capital structure. Let us elaborate on the factors affecting
the choice of capital structure in a firm.
NOTES benefit is available in case of preference shares too but it is more pronounced in usage
of debt as preference dividends are not tax deductible and their cost is higher than
debt. Use of debt increase the return for shareholders when cost of debt is less than
the return on Investment (ROI). When the Return on Investment (ROI) of firm is more
than cost of debt(kd) that is ROI>kd, it increases the Earnings for Shareholders as the
returns earned on the capital invested, over and above the cost of debt belongs to
equity holders. This results into magnified Earnings per Share (EPS) and Return on
Equity (RoE). However, use of debt is risky due to mandatory payment of interest.
Therefore, in designing the capital structure the optimum level of leverage is
preferred, which keeps the risk in manageable limits and brings the benefits of trading
on equity.
EBIT-EPS analysis is an important consideration in designing the capital structure. At
different levels of EBIT, the effect on EPS is assessed for different combinations of debt,
equity & preference shares. Considering most probable level of EBIT, the financing
plan which results in maximum EPS is opted. We will discuss the EBIT-EPS analysis in
detail in next unit on ‘Leverage’.
ii Stability of Cashflows
A firm which has stable revenue and thereby stable stream of cash flows is more
capable of managing the risk of debt. As stable cashflows will allow to meet the
compulsory payment of interest and principal on debt. Firms with relatively stable
cashflows in different business cycles can therefore use more leverage to get the
benefit of more returns to equity holders.
iii. Growth in Sales
The firms in the growth phase of their life cycle will see increasing revenue and
cashflows over a period. Such firms are more capable to service the debt. Therefore,
high growth firms can use high level of debt to get the benefit of increased returns on
equity through debt usage.
iv. Cost of Capital
The cost of capital is the combined cost of capital of all the sources of funds, and it is
measured as Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WAACC). The adequate combination
of different sources of funds which will help to minimize the WACC should be preferred
as it will result in maximization of value of firm. The financing plan which helps to keep
the debt in manageable limits so that risk remains in control and cost of debt as well as
equity does not start rising should be preferred capital structure.
v. Control
Another important consideration in designing the capital structure is owner-
management control in the firm. The decision making and management of firm
remains in the hands of promoters and controlling shareholders. Raising the funds in
the form of equity results into widely held shareholding among large number of
shareholders. This may dilute the control of promoter/controlling shareholder group.
The equity comes with the benefit of no compulsory returns to equity holders and
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therefore no risk for the firm. However, the raising of large funds through equity will NOTES
result in dilution of control. On the other hand, use of debt funds and preference
shares does not result in any dilution of control because of no voting rights. The cost of
these fixed cost funds is also less in comparison to equity. However, fixed commitment
leads to risk. A proper balance must be maintained so that there is less dilution of
control as well as manageable risk.
vi. Risk
In designing the capital structure, riskiness of different sources of funds should be
considered. The preference shares and debt financing come with fixed commitment of
preference dividend and interest cost, respectively. The interest and principal
repayment on debt is mandatory as per law and therefore high usage of debt financing
makes the firm risky. The non-payment of these financing charges may force the firm
into bankruptcy. Though cost of these fixed cost funds is less than equity and that do
not result into dilution of control, the high usage of leverage will increase the risk.
Therefore, in designing capital structure the aspect of risk is to be taken into account
and fixed cost funds should be kept at adequate level.
vii. Flexibility
The capital structure is to be designed in a manner that it can be changed in future, if
required. If the firm has raised the funds through debt, it can repay it in case of high
availability of internal funds in the future. The high fixed cost funds can be replaced
with low-costdebt if cheaper debt is available in future. The use of preference shares
and debt allows the flexibility in capital structure as they can be redeemed when
needed or can be refinanced by a substitute source of funds. This flexibility is not
available in equity financing. Only option to buy back equity that too after complying
with all the legal conditions for buyback.
viii. Market Conditions
The prevailing market conditions at the time of raising the funds will also affect the
capital structure of a firm. If the equity market is conducive to raise the funds through
IPO then firm may prefer to raise the funds through equity as it can get higher
premium on shares issued in good times. On the other hand, if market interest rates
are low then it prefers debt financing to get the benefit of low cost funds.
ix. Internal Conditions of a Firm
A firm with low existing debt may find it easy to raise the debt capital. A firm with high
existing level of debt may not be able to raise the debt funding and therefore has to
resort to equity financing. On the other hand, equity funding may be difficult for a firm
which is small and has slow growth. The prospective equity investors may not be
willing to part their funds for a firm which does not offer promising returns. In such
conditions, debt financing is the only feasible option available for the firm.
x. Other Factors
There are other factors which also affect the financing of firm like purpose of
financing, floatation cost, legal requirements etc. if the project for which funds are 159
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Capital Structure
NOTES being raised entails less business risk, then debt may be a preferred source of financing
to take the benefit of low cost. On the other hand, if business risk of investment is
already high due to volatile revenue or fixed operating cost then additional financing
risk due to debt financing is not advisable and equity financing should be preferred.
Floatation Cost is the cost of floating the new issue in the market. Floatation cost is
measured as a percentage of size of public issue. In case of large issues, there may be
saving on floatation cost. It is generally less in case of debt issue in comparison to
equity issue. Internal financing does not entail any floatation cost.
The legal aspects also affect the decision of capital structure. Post issue, legal
requirements are more stringent in case of debt financing and sometimes may put a
restriction on operational and strategic flexibility of firm in the form of restrictive
covenants put by lenders. The mandatory payment of debt charges may force the firm
into bankruptcy in bad times. On the other hands, there are more regulatory
requirements in raising the funds through equity. As the firm is raising risk capital it has
to ensure full compliance with the capital market regulations as well as company law
requirements.
Thus, designing the optimal capital structure requires balancing of many opposite
forces. Financing plan should be such that there is a trade-off between risk& cost and
at the same time benefits of leverage through trading on equity and dilution of
control, flexibility aspects should be considered to reach an optimal capital structure
for the firm. It will be different for different firms depending upon the business risk,
growth prospects, asset base and existing capital structure of the firm.
firm as the firm has become risky due to high debt levels. NOTES
(iv) Conservatism: Firm’s capital structure should be designed conservatively, and the
level of debt should be such that company’s cashflows are sufficient to service the
interest and principal repayments even during the sluggish business environment.
(v) Control: The capital structure should be such that there is no excessive dilution of
control, and the controlling shareholders are able to exercise control and take value
enhancing decisions. If the firm opts the large equity funding, shareholding will be
scattered among large number of shareholders and promoter group will face dilution
of control.
NOTES its investment decisions and simply by changing the capital structure the firm’s value and
cost of capital cannot be changed. Therefore, Capital Structure decision is irrelevant with
regard to its impact on value of firm.
However, in their subsequent research work, they deduced that in the presence of corporate
taxes, capital structure decisions make a difference and affects the value of firm. The MM
Hypothesis on capital structure is divided into without taxes and with taxes. Let us
understand the impact of capital structure on firm’s value and overall cost of capital as
presented by Modigliani & Miller
firm can increase if an organization is growing and making investment in the profitable NOTES
projects. The value will be destroyed if the company makes the investments which are
unprofitable or compromises future profits for the sake of present profits. Value if firm
is a function of Operating Income or EBIT and Overall cost of capital. Operating Income
or EBIT will change when the firm’s investments or Operations becomes more
efficient.
ii. The decision to make a change in capital structure from all equity firm to include the
debt in its capital structure does not result in the reduction of overall cost of capital.
When a firm begins to use the low-cost debt as a source of funds it becomes riskier. The
firm’s shareholders will start demanding higher returns to compensate for the
increased risk. This will result into off-setting of benefit of low-cost debt by the
increased cost of equity. The overall cost of capital will remain same and value of firm
being the function of EBIT & Cost of Capital will remain unchanged simply because of a
change made in capital structure.
iii. MM said if the two firms are exactly the same except their capital structure, they
cannot command different prices in the markets. If there is a temporary difference in
the value of levered and unlevered firms then it will present an arbitrage opportunity
to investors. Investors will indulge in selling the stocks of firms with higher prices and
invest in the firm with lower price and will be able to earn the same returns with lesser
investments or will be able to earn higher return on same investment. Because of
investors sale & purchase actions, the prices of high-priced will start coming down and
vice-versa till the time equilibrium is restored.
Let us understand the MM Hypothesis without taxes in detail with the help of
arbitrage process and impact of change in capital structure on cost of capital.
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NOTES
Market value of levered firm, Brit Ltd. is Rs 2016666.67 which include around 58% equity and
balance debt. Present market value of unlevered firm, Parl Ltd. is Rs 2000000. An investor
Riddhi holds 10% in the levered firm. Under the perfect market assumptions this difference
in market value of two firms which are exactly same except their capital structure will offer an
arbitrage opportunity to investors to sell the shares of overvalued firm and buy the shares of
operationally similar firm at lower price and make profits. Investor will be able to do this by
replacing the corporate leverage by personal lever age called as home-made leverage by
ModiGilliani & MIller. In MM perfect world the corporate and individuals can borrow and
lend at same rate. Let us see how this arbitrage process will work.
Step I: Riddhi is holding 10% stake in the Levered Firm. By virtue of being 10% owner it also
owes 10% of the firm’s liability. When the Brit Ltd. shares are overpriced, she will sell
her 10% stake.
Step II: Investor will borrow from market & thereby create home made leverage to replace
the corporate leverage of Brit Ltd. She borrows equivalent to 10% of debt of Brit Ltd
at the similar borrowing rate.
Step III: This money will be invested in unlevered firm Perl Ltd. 10% stake and it will result
into better financial rewards to investor. The process is explained in following table:
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NOTES
Income is same and surplus cash of 1666.67 with investor makes an attractive case for
arbitrage.
When the value of Unlevered firm is more than levered firm
In this case, arbitrage will work in opposite direction. Investors will sell the stake of unlevered
firm and buy the shares of levered firm to make more profits. This is explained as follows:
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60000
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Income is same and surplus cash of 9230.77 with investor makes an attractive case for NOTES
arbitrage.
Due to the arbitrage process, the shares of the overpriced firm will start coming down as
investors are selling them to buy the underpriced firm’s stock. This will result in increase in
price of underpriced stock. This process will continue till the time equilibrium is restored in
the stock price of levered and unlevered firm, which otherwise have similar operations.
Preposition-II
Impact of Change in Capital Structure on Cost of Capital
MM argued that when a firm uses the higher level of debt to take the benefit of its low cost, it
will not be able to reduce overall cost of capital (Ko). They explained that when an all-equity
firm begins to increase the level of debt then due to increasing proportion of low cost source
of fund in total capital, the overall cost of capital (Ko) should come down. But this does not
happen because when the level of debt goes up, the firm becomes riskier and equity
shareholders will require higher returns resulting into increased cost of equity (Ke). The
increase in cost of equity (Ke) will exactly offset the benefit of low-cost debt and therefore
overall cost of capital (Ko) will remain constant at all the levels of debt. This is demonstrated
by MM by derivation of equation explained below.
Overall Cost of capital is calculated with the help of following equation:
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NOTES
As per equation, Cost of Equity (Ke) for levered firm is more than cost of capital of an all-
equity firm by a factor which is directly proportional to Debt/Equity ratio in the firm, implying
that as the level of debt goes up, cost of equity goes up in the same proportion. This keeps the
overall cost of capital (Ko) or WACC constant. This is also depicted in the figure8.1. At very
high levels of debt, cost of debt will start rising due to increased risk. At such high debt level,
the firm almost belongs to debt holders, and they will share the risk. At such high levels of
debt equity holders required return will either increase at a decreasing rate or may even
slightly come down, this will result in keeping the overall cost of capital constant at all levels
of debt.
Fig. 8.1: MM Preposition II - Cost of Capital
Cost of Value of
Capital (%) Ke company (s)
WAAC
Kd
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ii. Homemade Leverage is not an exact substitute of corporate leverage: When an NOTES
investor invests in a levered firm then his exposure to the debt is limited to his
proportionate shareholding in the firm. In case of homemade leverage, the individual
has to bear the entire risk. The investors liability will be unlimited towards the
repayment of personal debt. This is not the case for corporate leverage as investors
liability is limited to only equivalent to his investment in levered firm. Therefore,
homemade leverage is not the perfect substitute of corporate leverage.
iii. For a realistic arbitrage process, transaction cost should be absent. However, in reallife
this assumption is not true. The investors have to pay brokerage and taxes everytime
they buy or sell the shares. This reduces the net gains to investors. The investors will
indulge in arbitrage only if the gain from price difference is more than the transaction
costs. The existence of transaction cost leads to arbitrage process not working fully
and possibility of some price difference between the prices of levered and unlevered
firm which are otherwise similar.
iv. Restrictions on Institutional Borrowings: The investors in stocks include the individual
as well as institutional investors. Institutional investors are bound by the rules &
regulations and may not be free to borrow as per their wish. They hold large stakes in
the firms. The restrictions on institutional borrowings does not allow for homemade
leverage to these large institutional investors and makes the complete arbitrage
process unrealistic.
v. Existence of Corporate Taxes: The assumption of absence of corporate taxes is very
important in proving the irrelevance of debt in value maximisation of firm. However, In
real life, corporate taxes exist. The interest paid on debt is tax deductible which makes
debt financing a cheaper source of fund and therefore makes the capital structure a
relevant decision for value maximization of a firm.
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NOTES
Therefore, a firm with leverage is able to make the tax savings throughout its life. The present
value of this infinite series of tax saving, as derived above, is equal to TD. Therefore keeping
other things constant, a levered firm will be able to command more value in comparison to
an exactly similar unlevered firm. The difference in the value will be equal to Present value of
infinite Tax Savings in the form of Interest Tax Shield which is equal to TD. This can be
depicted in the form of following equation:
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NOTES
From the above example it is clear that the two firms have exactly the same operations and
earnings. They can be considered as Siamese twins in terms of their operations. The only
difference is financing of capital. You can see that firm using the debt financing option is able
to save taxes of Rs 14400 due to existence of interest cost. This saving occurs because the
interest cost is a tax-deductible expense. Tax deductibility of interest cost implies that
interest cost is deducted from operating income before the payment of taxes. Therefore, the
taxable income (PBT) of firm comes down by the amount equal to interest cost. This results in
reduced taxes as the taxable income has come down. This benefit is not available to an all-
equity firm because the dividend to be paid to equity holders is not a mandatory expense
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UNIT 8
Capital Structure
NOTES and it is paid out of profits after taxes. Therefore, taxable income (PBT) of all equity firm is
higher than debt-equity firm. This results into higher taxes to be paid by all equity firm. The
tax savings accruing to the levered firm due to interest cost is known as ‘Interest Tax Shield’. It
can be seen from above example that the total earnings available to levered firm capital
providers are in excess to the earnings available to capital providers of unlevered firm. The
difference between the earnings available for all the providers of capital of a levered and
unlevered firm is exactly equal to interest tax shield.
benefit of interest tax shield is optimum and cost of financial distress is in control. This is NOTES
depicted in figure 8.2.
As depicted in the figure, value of levered firm is more than the unlevered firm. Value of
unlevered firm is depicted by a horizontal line. The benefits of debt in the form of PV of
Interest Tax Shield increases as the debt increases. This pulls-up the value of levered firm as
depicted by the highest increasing line in the diagram. On the other hand cost of financial
distress set-off the benefits caused by Interest tax Shield and pulls down the value of firm
shown as middle line in the figure. The optimum level of debt is one where the difference of
difference of PV of interest tax shield and cost of financial distress is optimum as represented
in the figure. Up to this point marginal benefit of debt is positive and use of debt will result in
value addition. Beyond this point, marginal benefit of debt will be negative and will result in
value destruction.
Fig. 8.2: Optimal Capital Structure – Trade Off Theory
Maximum
value of firm
Costs of
PV of interest financial distress
tax shields
Value of
unlevered
firm
Debt
level
Optimal debt level
The optimum level of debt is one at which there is a trade-off between cost of financial
distress and benefit of interest tax shield. This optimum level will vary from firm to firm or
industry to industry. A firm with stable cash flows and strong tangible assets have large debt
capacity and therefore, can enjoy the benefits of interest tax shield. The firm with volatile
cash flows and less strong asset base will find that cost of financial distress outweighs the
benefits of tax shield and therefore, should have lower levels of debt.
The theory is capable of explaining why capital structures differ between industries, whereas
it cannot explain why profitable companies within the industry have lower debt ratios (trade-
off theory predicts the opposite as profitable firms have a larger scope for tax shields and
therefore subsequently should have higher debt levels).
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UNIT 8
Capital Structure
Q.3 As per packing order theory the preferred financing is in the sequence of NOTES
(Internal Equity, Debt, External Equity/ Internal Equity, External Equity, Debt)