Unit 1

Introduction to Industrial Relation

1. The Trade Unions Act came into operation from ____.
A. 1st June, 1927
B. 1st May, 1926
C. 1st June, 1926
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a.
2. In which year's amendment of the act was the word Indiana removed?
a. 1947
b. 1960
c. 1964
d. 1962
ANSWER: c.
3. The act came into force from ______.
A. 1st June, 1927
B. 1st April, 1965
C. 1st May, 1960
D. 1st April, 1962
ANSWER: b.
4. State true or false
I. The act was enacted with the objective of providing for the registration of trade unions and verification of
the membership
Of trade unions registered so that they may acquire a legal and corporate status.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a.
5. What is the minimum number of trade union members requires in registering themselves as a union?
a. 7
b. 10
c. 5
d. 15
ANSWER: a.
6. Which act in Industrial Relations defines the term trade union?
a. Industrial Trade Resolution, 1962
b. Industrial Policy, 1991
c. The trade union and labor relations (consolidation) Act, 1992
d. The industrial Employment Act, 1946
ANSWER: c.
7. Which section of the act deals with the registration of the trade unions?
a. Section 8
b. Section 7
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
ANSWER: a.
8. State true or false.
I. The registrar has the right to cancel the registration of the union if he is satisfied that the certificate has
been obtained by
Fraud or mistake.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a.
9. Which of the following acts do not apply to the registered trade unions?
a. The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912
b. The Societies Registration Act, 1860
c. The Companies Act, 1956
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above
10. Which of the following is an object on which general funds could be spent as per section 15 of the
act?
a. Payment to buy goods required for the enterprise
b. Payment of employees in the factory establishment
c. The payment of expenses for the administration of trade union or any member thereof
d. All of the above
Answer: - d
11. State true or false
I. A person who has attained the age of 10 years can be a member of a registered trade union subject to
any rules of the
Trade union.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b.
12. On which of the following grounds an office bearer or executive of the trade union be disqualified?
A. Has been convicted by the court of any offence involving moral turpitude
B. Has not attained the age of 18 years
C. Is not working with any establishment
a. A & B
b. A & C
c. B & C
d. A, B and C
ANSWER: a.
13. How many members’ consent is required to change the name of the registered trade union?
a. 1/4th of the total members
b. 3/4th of the total members
c. Half of the total members
d. 2/3rd of the total member
ANSWER: d.
14. How many percentage of votes should be recorded when amalgamating 2 or more registered trade
unions?
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 20%
d. 75%
ANSWER: a.
15. How many members should sign the notice of dissolution?
a. 5 members and the secretary of the trade union
b. 10 members and the secretary of the trade union
c. 20 members and the secretary of the trade union
d. 7 members and the secretary of the trade union
ANSWER: d.
16. On what grounds can a union refuse to admit a person or expel a member?
a. Because of goodwill
b. Because of misconduct
c. Because of change in job
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b
17: Who developed the concept of worker participation in management?
a) Robert Owen
b) Karl Marx
c) Pared
d) Vroom
An: c
18 Which one of the following is not the main objective of trade unionism?
a) To ensure safety of workers
b) To promote militant activities in organizations
c) To educate the workers about their rights.
d) To protect the workers from retrenchment.
An: - c
19. - Which one of following is not the main activity of unionism
a) The morale of workers remains high.
b) Bargaining power of workers increases.
c) It develops the feeling of brotherhood among workers.
d) Hostility amongst the employees decreases.
An: d
20:- Which one of the following is an odd statement about trade unionism in India.
a) It encourages strained employee- employer relations.
b) it creates discipline among workers.
c) The worker always remain dissatisfied
d) Bargaining power of workers increases.
An: - b
21:- The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is
a) Labor courts
b) High Court/ Supreme court
c) Board of directors
d) All of above
An: b
22:- which of the following is not the characteristics of a mob?
a) Rationality
b) Emotionality
c) Mental Homogeneity
d) Security in anonymity
An: - a
23 Stopping or tend to stopping the employees or employees are doing their work by the workers already
an strike is called
a) Strike
b) Lockout
c) Picketing
d) Gera
An: d
24 Stopping the work in an industry by the employer are called
a) Strike
b) Lockout
c) Picketing
d) Gera
An: - b
25 The strike done to show sympathy with somebody is called
a) Stay-in strike
b) go slow strike
c) sympathy strike
d) normal strike
An: c
26:- Protest against somebody by holding banners and stopping work is called
a) Strike
b) Lockout
c) Picketing
d) Gera
An: c
27 CITU is affiliated to
a) CPI (M)
b) CPI
c) BJP
d) Congress (1)
An: a
28 The central trade union in India is/are
a. AITUC
b. INTUC
c. UTUC
d. All of the above
An: d
29 -Which of the following method had not been given a statutory form in India?
a) Conciliation
b) Mediation
c) Voluntary arbitration
d) Adjudication
An: b
30:-Which area Industrial Relations does not cover
a) Economic development
b) Role of management, union and government
c) Collective bargaining
d) Machinery for resolution of industrial dispute
An: a
31- The center of Indian Trade Union (CITU) was organized in
a) 1970
b) 1980
c) 1948
d) 1990
An: a
32-Industrial relations cover the following area(s)
a) Collective bargaining
b) Labor legislation
c) Industrial relations training
d) All of the above
ANSWER: d
33-A course on Industrial relations in its MBA programmed was firstly introduced by
a) IIM Indore
b) XLRI Jamshedpur
c) MDI Gorgon
d) IIM Bangalore
ANSWER: b
33-Which of the following is not an approach to industrial relations?
a) Unitary approach
b) Pluralistic approach
c) Marxist approach
d) Employee’s approach
ANSWER: d
34-
Under unitary approach, industrial relation is grounded in
a) Mutual co-operation
b) Individual treatment
c) Team work and shared goals
d) All of the above
ANSWER: d
35-Pluralistic approach perceives ______ as legitimate representative of employee interests
a) Trade unions
b) Management
c) Board of Directors
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a
36-In Marxist approach, concerns with wage related disputes are
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Not considered
ANSWER: b
37
-For the Marxists, all strikes are
a) Political
b) Social
c) Legislative
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a
38-Which of the following are (are) not acceptable to Marxists?
a) Enterprise bargaining
b) Employee participation
c) Co-operative work culture
d) All of the above
ANSWER: d
CONSTITUTIONS LOW-
71. Which of the following language not included in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) Bengali
(D) Punjabi72. The Indian Constitution refers to minorities based on;
(A) Religion or Language
(B) Region or Culture
(C) State or Region
(D) Culture or Cast
73. Who among the following hold(s) office during pleasure of the president of India?
1. The Governor of the State
2. The Chief Election Commissioner
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
4. The Attorney General of India
Select the correct answer form the codes given bellow:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
74. Preamble of the Constitution of Indian is ;
(A) Part of the Constitution
(B) Prelogue of the Constitution
(C) Not a part of the Constitution
(D) None of the above
75. Summary trials will apply to such offences not punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding :
(i) Two years
(ii) One year
(iii) Two months
(iv) Three months
76. Indian Law of Torts is based on:
(A) USA Law of Torts
(B) Australia Law of Torts
(C) England Law of Torts
(D) Latin Law of Torts
77. Which of the following conditions are required for the principle of res judicata to suits as applied by
courts
vide section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 —
(A) The matter directly and substantially arise in former and later suits
(B) The former suit has not been decided
(C) The said suit has not been heard and decided
(D) All the above are required for the application of res judicata.78. Under law of torts, exception to the
strict liability is —
(A) Inevitable accident
(B) Inevitable mistake
(C) Consent of the plaintiff
(D) All of the above.
79. Jus scriptum means:
(A) Written Law.
(B) Unwritten law
(C) Customary Law
(D) None of the above
80. What remedies are available to a defendant, if an ex-parte decree is passed against him?
(A) He may file an appeal against the ex-parte decree under Section 96 of the C.P.C.
(B) He may file an application for review of the judgement.
(C) He may apply for setting aside the ex-parte decree
(D) All of the above
81. Principle of Estoppel is based on:
(A) the maxim ‘allegans contratia non est audiendus’
(B) Rule of evidence
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
82. Under the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit for compensation for wrongful seizure of movable property
under
legal process required to be filed within ______________ year from the date of the seizure.
(A) One year
(B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) Four years
83. Essential characteristic of an injunction are:
1. It is a judicial process
2. It is to restrain or to prevent
3. Wrongful act
4. Final Order of the Court
Select the correct answer form the codes given bellow:
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 484. “Interpretation or construction is the process by which the Courts seek to ascertain the
meaning of the
legislature through the medium of the authoritative forms in which it is expressed” was said by:
(A) Salmond
(B) Maxwell
(C) Crawford
(D) Lone Fuller
85. Where life or liberty of a person is involved, the Public Information Officer (PIO) is bound to provide
information
under the Right to Information Act, 2005 within____________ :
(A) 30 days
(B) 35 days
(C) 24 hours
(D) 48 hours
86. As per the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation relating to suits of immovable property to
redeem or
recover the possession of property mortgaged is —
(A) 3 years
(B) 12 years
(C) 20 years
(D) 30 years.
87. A person against whom a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
is
called .........................
(A) Lender
(B) Judgement debtor
(C) Legal representative of the debtor
(D) Any of the above.
88. As per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a witness cannot be compelled to give evidence relating to —
(A) Official communications
(B) Affairs of the State
(C) Communications during marriage
(D) All the above.
89. ………………… is a written statement of the deponent on oath duly affirmed before any court or any
Magistrate or any Oath Commissioner appointed by the Court or before the Notary Public.
(A) An affidavit
(B) Summon
(C) Warrant
(D) None of the above
90. Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, recovering possession of property is a –(A) Specific relief
(B) Preventive relief
(C) Either (a) or (b)
(D) None of the above.
91. Rule of ejusdem generis shall apply when –
(A) The statute contains an enumeration by specific words
(B) The members of the enumeration constitute a class
(C) The class is not exhausted by the enumeration
(D) All the above.
92. An arbitral award –
(A) must be in writing
(B) may be an oral decision
(C) either (A) or (B) depending upon the circumstances of the case
(D) must be in writing and made on a stamp paper of prescribed value.
93. Investigation and inquiry as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 are –
(A) The same
(B) Different
(C) Depend upon the circumstances
(D) None of the above.
94. Place of arbitration is important for the determination of the rules applicable to substance of dispute,
and
recourse against the ………. .
(A) Award
(B) Arbitration
(C) Conciliation
(D) Mediation
95. The term ‘sufficient cause’ has not been defined in the Limitation Act, 1963. It depends on the
……………………… of each case.
(A) Circumstances
(B) History
(C) Time
(D) None of the above
96. In the interpretation of statutes, an important role is played as an internal aid by :
(A) Schedules
(B) Preamble
(C) Heading
(D) All the above.97. Under the law of limitation, suits can be filed within three years in cases relating to :
(A) Seamen’s wages
(B) Hire of animals
(C) Price of goods sold and delivered
(D) All the above.
98. The right of review has been conferred by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It provides that any
person
considering himself aggrieved by a decree or order may apply for a review of judgement to the —
(A) Appellate Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court concerned
(D) Court which passed the decree or order.
99. The term ‘cognizance’ means —
(A) A crime
(B) Custody without warrant
(C) Arousing judicial notice
(D) Custody with warrant.
100. Extension of time limit under the Limitation Act, 1963 on showing sufficient cause may be granted for
(A) Filing a suit
(B) Filing an application for execution of a decree
(C) An appeal in a labour court
(D) None of the above.
1. ___ refers to all types of relationship between all the parties concerned with industry.
a) Industrial relations.
b) Human relations.
c) General relations.
d) All of these.
2. The scope of IR does not include
a) Employer and employee relation.
b) Employee and trade union relation.
c)Employer, employee and trade union relation.
d)Employee and customer relation
3. Dominant aspects of industrial relations are
a) Co-operation.
b) Conflict
c) Both (A) and(B).
d)None of these.
[Link] of the following factor affecting IR?
a) Institutional Factors
b) Economic factors
c) Social factors
d) All of these.
[Link] of the following is not a part of the scope of industrial relations?
a) Labor relations
b) Employer –employee relations
c) Group Relation
d) None of these
6. Main aspects of industrial relations are
a) Promotion and development of healthy manager and labor relations
b) Maintenance of industrial peace and avoidance of industrial dispute
c) Development of industrial democracy
d) All of these
7. Which of the following factors not affecting industrial relations?
a) Psychological factors
b) Political factors
c) Global factors
d) None of these
[Link] of the following is the approaches of industrial relation?
a) Gandhian approach
b) System approach
c) Oxford approach
d) All of these
9. Which of the following National Level Federation was founded in 1920
a) INTUC
b) AITUC
c) UTUC
d)HMS
10. Collective bargaining was considered as apex of IR system is concerned with
a) Gandhian approach
b) Systems approach
c) Oxford approach
d) All of these
11. Which of the following is an objective for IR?
a) To safeguard mutual trust
b) To raise productivity
c) To avoid industrial strike
d) None of these
12. The conflicts and dispute between employers and employees on any industrial matters are
known as
a) Industrial disputes
b) Human relations
c) Conflict relations
d) All of these
13. The utility of non violence as the means of conflict resolution is the principle of
a)Gandhian approach
b) System approach
c) Both ( a) and (b)
d) All of these
14. A______ strives to protect maintain and improve economic, social and vocational interest of their
members
a) Trade union
b) Employer union
c) Both A& B
d) None of these
[Link] objectives of trade union include
a) Employee compensation
b) Working Condition
c) Recognition and participation
d) All of these
16. What criteria are used to assess whether a trade union is independent?
a) Whether its name implies independence.
b) Its background and the way it organizes and structures itself, including its finances.
c) The size of its membership.
d) Its future plans for co-operation with the employer.
17. Are collective agreements legally enforceable?
a) Yes, otherwise they would be worthless.
b) No, they are never legally enforceable.
c) They are presumed not to be legally enforceable unless the parties agree otherwise.
d) Only those made with trade unions.
18. Are employers obliged to provide information to trade union representatives for collective
bargaining purposes?
a) No, because it would be unfair on the employer in the negotiations.
b) No, because there might be a lot of sensitive information included which the employer might
not wish to be known.
c) Yes, if it is information that the employee representatives need to carry on collective
bargaining.
d) Yes, but only if the union representatives agree to keep it secret.
19. Can an employer refuse to employ a trade union member because the employer regards them
all as troublemakers?
a) Yes, an employer may take on or reject who they wish.
b) Only if they do not have any current trade union members.
c) Yes, if they have suffered from lots of industrial action from trade unions in the past.
d) No, it would be unlawful.
20) What is the 'golden formula'?
a) A formula which describes how gold is made.
b) A formula for describing the best employers.
c) A formula which says that statutory protection in tort can only happen when the action is in
contemplation or furtherance of a trade dispute.
d) A formula which says that statutory protection in tort can only happen when the action is in
contemplation or furtherance of an employer's interests.
21. Is it legal for a trade union to call together its workers in one factory and decide on a strike
based on voting by raising hands?
a) No, because all ballots have to be secret.
b) Yes, because it was open, fair, and honest.
c) No, because some people will be away and not be able to vote.
d) Yes, because this is the way that it has always been done.
22. Under which of the following situations may a union refuse to admit a person or expel a
member?
a) Because they do not feel that they are a suitable member
b) Because of their financial means
c) Because of misconduct
d) Because of their current state of health
23. Which of the following statement is true about an industrial dispute
a) The dispute may relate to employment
b) The dispute may relate to non employment
c) The dispute may be between worker and worker
d) The dispute may be between employer and government
24. Which of the following best explains the term 'union ballots'?
a) A ballot is the system by which union members vote for, e.g. industrial action.
b) A ballot is the method by which a union recruits new members
c) A ballot is the method by which a union expels members
d) A ballot is the system by which union members put forward information for listing.
25. What is meant by the term 'collective bargaining'?
a) A process by which a union negotiates with suppliers for the provision of e.g. office furniture
b) A process by which a union meets with another union to discuss recruitment
c) A process by which a union recruits new members
d) A process by which a union negotiates with an employer on behalf of its members on matters
concerning the terms and conditions of employment
26. Which of the following is not an 'industrial tort'?
a) Gross misconduct
b) Conspiracy
c) Inducement
d) Intimidation
27) Which of the following can a union do once it is 'recognized'?
a) Apply to engage in the 'closed shop'
b) Engage in collective bargaining with an employer
c) Apply to be referred to as a 'workplace union'
d) Apply for union status
28) Which of the following is not a characteristic of trade union?
a) Voluntary association
b) Common goals
c) Intermediary
d) Individual actions
29) Which union is focused on making the skills of its members valuable and not easily
replaceable in organisations?
a) Industrial union
b) Occupational union
c) General union
d) White-collar union
30) A union meant to protect the interests and rights of the non-manual employees is called a:
a) white-collar union
b) blue-collar union
c) brown-collar union
d) none of the above
 Unit 2
Industrial Disputes Act -1946, Collective Bargaining
1. No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract within ____ of
giving such
a notice.
a. 14 days
b. 6 weeks
c. 7 days
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b.
2. Choose the correct option where no workmen shall go on a strike in breach of contract and no
employer of any
such workmen shall declare a lock - out during:
a. The pendency of conciliation proceedings before a board and 7 days after the conclusion of such
proceedings
b. The pendency of proceedings before labor court, tribunal or national tribunal and 2 months, after the
conclusion of such
proceedings
c. During any period in which a settlement or award is in operation, in respect of any of the matters
covered by the
settlement or award
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d.
3. Section ____ covers the definition of continuous service.
a. 25B
b. 25
c. 25A
d. 26
ANSWER: a.
4. How many days of service will be termed as continuous service when working in a mine industry?
a. 190 days
b. 240 days
c. 365 days
d. 180 days
ANSWER: a
5. State true or false.
I. If a workmen is laid –off for more than 45 days no compensation shall be payable in respect of any
period of the lay -
off after the expiry of 45 days.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a.
6. A workmen who is employed in an industrial establishment in the place of another workman whose
name is
borne on the muster rolls of the establishment is ___
a. Temporary workmen
b. Permanent workmen
c. Badly workmen
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c.
7. Will a workman be entitled to compensation if he does not present himself for work at the establishment
at the
appointed time during normal working hours at least once a day?
a. Yes
b. No
ANSWER: b.
8. How much compensation does the workman deserve at the time of retrenchment?
a. Equivalent to 15 days average pay
b. 6 months
c. Equivalent to 30 days average pay
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a.
9. Which section deals with compensation to workmen in case of transfer of undertakings?
a. Section 25F
b. Section 25FF
c. Section 25
d. Section 25E
ANSWER: b.
10. How many days of notice period is mandatory for a workman who has been in continuous service for
more
than a year while retrenchment?
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 15 days
d. 45 days
ANSWER: a.
11. How many does notice is the employer supposed to give before closing down an establishment as per
section
25FFA?
a. 90 days
b. 60 days
c. 30 days
d. 120 days
ANSWER: b.
12. If an undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances, the compensation to be
paid to the
workman under clause b of section 25F shall not exceed his average pay of ____.
a. 1 month
b. 15 days
c. 60 days
d. 3 months
ANSWER: d.
13. Which section deals with the prohibitions of lay - offs?
a. 25M
b. 25N
c. 25F
d. 25
ANSWER: a.
14. What is the penalty faced by an employer if he lies - off or retrenches an employee without prior
permission?
a. Imprisonment for up to a month and a fine of up to 1000 rupees
b. Imprisonment for up to a month or;
c. Fine of up to 1000 rupees
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d.
15. The penalty for closing an undertaking without prior notice is _____.
a. Imprisonment for up to 6 months or;
b. Fine up to 5000 rupees
c. Both imprisonment and fine
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d.
16. Match the following sections with their penalties.
1. Penalty for committing unfair labor practices ----- A. 27
2. Penalty for other offences ------------------------- B. 25U
3. Penalty for breach of settlement or award----------- C. 31
4. Penalty for instigation ---------------------------- D. 29
5. Penalty for aiding illegal strikes /lockout -------- E. 28
a. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A, 5-E
b. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-E, 5-A
c. 1-E, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D, 5-B
d. 1-A, 2-E, 3-D, 4-B, 5-C
e. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C, 5-E
ANSWER: a.
17. State true or false
I. A proceeding under section 33 and section 33A is pending before a Tribunal or National Tribunal can be
transferred to a
Labor Court.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a.
18. State true or false
I. No employer shall during the pendency of any such proceeding in respect to an industrial dispute, take
any action against
any protected workmen concerned in such a dispute.
a. False
b. True
ANSWER: b.
19. What should be the percentage of "protected workmen" of the total number of workmen employed in
any?
establishment?
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%
ANSWER: a.

20. The ____________ can make rules for the distribution of protected workman among various trade
unions.
a. Central government
b. State authority
c. Appropriate government
d. Conciliation officer
ANSWER: c.
21. A workmen who is a member of the executive or other office bearer of a registered trade union
connected with
the establishment is _________
a. Badly workmen
b. Conciliation officer
c. Skilled labor
d. Protected workmen
ANSWER: d.
22. A workmen who is a member of the executive or other office bearer of a registered trade union
connected with
the establishment is _________
a. Badly workmen
b. Conciliation officer
c. Skilled labor
d. Protected workmen
ANSWER: d.
23. Which section in the act deals with recovery of money due from an employer?
a. 33C
b. 33
c. 33A
d. 33B
ANSWER: a.
24. State true or false
I. Section 38 deals with the delegation of powers.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b.
25. Choose the correct option that declares the industry to be public utility services under sub - clause VI
of clause
N of section 2
A. India Security Press
B. Banking Company
C. Defense establishment
D. Insurance Company
a. A, B & C
b. B & C
c. A & D
d. B & D
ANSWER: a.
26. Which of the option is a matter mentioned in the jurisdiction of labor courts?
a. Withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege
b. Application and interpretation of standing orders
c. Illegality or otherwise of a strike or lock out
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d.
27. Which of the options is a manning Is it justified? attar mentioned in the jurisdiction of labor courts?
a. The propriety or legality of an order passed by an employer under the standing orders
b. Discharge or dismissal of workmen including reinstatement of, or grant of relief to, workmen wrongfully
dismissed
c. All matters other than those specified in the Third Schedule
d. Leave with wages and holidays
ANSWER: d.
28. Condition of service for change of which notice is to be given; is mention in which section of the act?
a. Section 9A
b. Section 7A
c. Section 7
d. Section 2a
ANSWER: a.
29. Which of these is an unfair labor practice on part of the workmen?
a. To recruit workman during a strike which is not illegal?
b. To discharge or dismiss workmen
c. Indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative
d. To indulge in acts of force or violence
ANSWER: c.
30. Which of these is an unfair labor practice on part of the employer?
a. To incite or indulge in willful damage to employer property connected with the industry
b. To advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal
c. For a recognized union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer
d. None of the above
ANSWER: d.
31. __________ and __________ are regarded as equivalent terms referring to essentially the same kind
of third –
party intervention in promoting voluntary settlement of disputes.
a. Mediation and Conciliation
b. Conciliation and Arbitration
c. Mediation and Court of Enquiry
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a.
32. As per which professor the distinction between mediation and conciliation is hair - splitting?
a. Prof. Fox well
b. Prof. Pious
c. Prof. Davey
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c
33. Which of the settlement machinery implies a stronger form of intervention and a mediator may be
permitted to
offer to the parties proposals for settlement?
a. Conciliation
b. Adjudication
c. Arbitration
d. Mediation
e. Court of enquiry
ANSWER: d.
34. The mediator has been described as a confidential _________ and an industrial diplomat.
a. Peace - maker
b. Messenger
c. Adviser
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c.
35. State true or false.
I. The mediator imposes his will and judgment on both the disputing parties.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b.
36. _________ can be described as - the practice by which the services of a neutral third - party are used
in a
dispute as a means of helping the disputing parties to reduce the extent of their differences and to arrive
at an
amicable settlement.
a. Arbitration
b. Mediation
c. Adjudication
d. Conciliation
ANSWER: d.
37. Which are the three kinds of mediators according to professor Pious?
A. The eminent outsider
B. The non - governmental board
C. The board connected with some part of the governmental system of the country
D. Voluntary conciliation
E. Compulsory conciliation
a. A, B and C
b. C, D and E
c. A, C and D
d. B, C and E
ANSWER: a.
38. Which are the two methods on which a conciliator relies on to resolve the disputes between two
parties?
a. Cognition and Influence
b. Reasoning and Persuasion
c. Rationale and Coaxing
d. Motivation and Leadership
ANSWER: b.
39. Which are the unique and essential characteristics of the conciliation process?
a. Flexibility, informality and simplicity
b. Blasé, clumsy and decisive
c. Candid, conceited and dismayed
d. Fierce, intrepid and meticulous
ANSWER: a.
40. State true or false
I. Under section 4 of the Industrial Disputes Act, it is the government in India who appoints a conciliation
officer for a
specific area or even for a specific industry.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a.
Unit 3
Industrial Disputes Act 1946 & Factory act 1948
1. __________ and ____________ are the two attributes which every conciliator should possess.
a. Independence and impartiality
b. Technicality and suspicion
c. Persuasion and perceiving
d. Conviction and arduous
ANSWER: a.
1. Choose the odd man out.
a. Safety valve
b. Adviser
c. Face saver
d. Friendly personality
ANSWER: d.
3. Which of these is one of the phases in the sequence of the conciliation process?
A. Emergency of appropriate mood for settlement of compromise
B. The hard posture phase
C. Outlet for feelings
a. Only A & C
b. Only B
c. Only A & B
d. Only B & C
ANSWER: c.
4. Which amongst these is a technique used by the conciliator?
a. Searching for accommodation
b. Being adamant
c. Listening attentively
d. Unbiased
ANSWER: c.
5. What kind of pressures do the disputing parties face from the conciliator?
a. Personal
b. Social
c. Political
d. Economic
e. All of the above
ANSWER: e.
6. ____________ is a process in which a dispute is submitted to an impartial outsider who makes a
decision which
is usually binding on both the parties.
a. Arbitration
b. Adjudication
c. Court of enquiry
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a.
7. What is the main objective of arbitration as per the Industrial Disputes Act?
a. Securing an award
b. Dominance
c. Adjudication
d. Binding of the award on the parties
ANSWER: c.
8. Arbitration is a _____ process, while mediation has a ____ tinge.
a. Legal and statutory
b. Lawful and constitutional
c. Legitimate and compromising
d. Judicial and legislative
ANSWER: d.
9. Which are the two traits on which the award of an arbitrator rests on?
a. Compromise and liberty
b. Fair play and impartiality
c. Equity and Justice
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c.
10. The decision of the arbitrator should be based on which approach?
a. Quasi - judicial
b. Split the difference
c. Judicial
d. Non judicial
ANSWER: b.
11. In which of these countries has arbitration been a popular way to resolve conflicts?
A. USA
B. New Zealand
C. India
D. UK
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a.
12. The procedure is relatively _____ when compared to that in ordinary courts or labor tribunals.
a. Expeditious
b. Compromising
c. Binding
d. Delayed
ANSWER: a.
13. State true or false.
I. Arbitration is formal in character and is an expensive form of settlement.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b.
14. Choose the odd man out.
a. Judgment is often arbitrary and ill - advised as the arbitrators are not well - versed in the economic and
technical
aspects of industry.
b. Arbitration deprives labor of its right to go on strike because of the provision in the agreement
c. Delay often occurs in arriving at the award and settlement of disputes leading to a morale breakdown of
the employees
d. Arbitration is based on the consent of both parties
ANSWER: d.
15. When the two contending parties are unable to compose their differences by themselves or with the
help of the
mediator or conciliator, agree to submit the dispute to impartial authority whose decision they are ready to
accept
is called _________
a. Voluntary arbitration
b. Voluntary Mediation
c. Compulsory arbitration
d. Compulsory Mediation
ANSWER: a.
.16 Which of the following is an essential element in voluntary arbitration?
a. Subsequent attendance of witnesses and investigations
b. Industries of strategic importance are involved
c. Country is passing through grave economic crisis
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a.
17 What is the main drawback of compulsory arbitration?
a. Compulsory implication of award
b. Non - compromising
c. It deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c.
18. Which of these is a condition for which compulsory arbitration is imposed on the disputing parties?
a. When an industrial dispute is apprehended
b. Disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method
c. The issue of the dispute should be mentioned in the arbitration agreement
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b.
19. Which of the following is a quality which should be present in a successful arbitrator?
a. High integrity
b. Knowledge of collective bargaining
c. Understanding of complexities of labor –management relationship
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above
20. Which are the departments from where a qualified arbitrator is hired?
a. Legal profession
b. Government servants
c. Psychologists
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d.
21. With the advocacy of __________ voluntary arbitration came into prominence for resolving industrial
disputes.
a. Bombay Industrial Disputes Act
b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. V. V. Geri
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b.
22. __________ reiterated the faith of the parties in voluntary arbitration.
a. The code of discipline (1958)
b. Indian Labor Conference (1962)
c. ILO
d. Industrial Disputes Act
ANSWER: a.
23. The need for a wide acceptance of voluntary arbitration was reiterated by _____.
a. National Tribunal
b. Court of Enquiry
c. Indian Labor Conference (1962)
d. ILO
ANSWER: c.
24. The importance of adjudication has been emphasized by the ________.
a. Government
b. Civil Court
c. Supreme Court
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c.
25 The adjudication machinery has to consider not only the demands of _______ justice but also the
claims of
national economy.
a. Economic
b. Social
c. Freedom of contract
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b.
26. __________ involves intervention in the dispute by a third party appointed by the government for the
purpose
of deciding the nature of final settlement.
a. Adjudication
b. National Tribunal
c. Arbitration
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a.
27. Who is the deciding authority to put the resolving matter into adjudication?
a. Disputing parties
b. Conciliator
c. Trade Union
d. Government
ANSWER: d.
28. Which is the ultimate legal remedy for the settlement of an unresolved dispute?
a. Court of enquiry
b. Adjudication
c. Arbitration
d. National Tribunal
ANSWER: b. DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE-45
PROF. YOGESH [Link] [Link]
29. State true or false.
I. Royal Commission on Labor was against voluntary arbitration.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b.
30 __________ has criticized compulsory arbitration on four main grounds.
a. Alexander Frey
b. V.V. Geri
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. American Labor Movement
ANSWER: a.
31. A labor court shall consist of one person who has been a District Judge for a period of not less than
___
years.
a. 3 years
b. 7 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
ANSWER: a.
32. State true or false.
I. Submitting the award to the appropriate government as soon as practicable on the conclusion of the
proceedings is a duty
of the labor court.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a.
33. Which of these matters are specified in the third schedule of the industrial disputes act?
A. Classification of grades
B. Rationalization
C. Application and interpretation of standing orders
D. Withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege
a. A & B
b. A, B & D
c. B, C & D
d. A, B, C & D
ANSWER: a.
34. How many central government industrial tribunals cum labor courts in India?
a. 10
b. 9
c. 15
d. 12
ANSWER: d.
Unit 3
Factories Act- 1948
1. In which year did factories act come into force?
a. 23rd September, 1948
b. 1st April, 1949
c. 4th April, 1949
d. 12th September, 1948
ANSWER: b.
2. How many days in advance do the occupier of a factory premises gives notice of occupancy to the
chief
inspector?
a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 10 days
d. 25 days
ANSWER: a.
3. What are the general duties of an Occupier?
A. Maintenance of a plant and system of work in factory are safe, without risks to health.
B. Ensure safety and absence of risks to health in, use, handling, storage and transport of articles and
substances.
C. Specifying the area
D. Defining the local mean time ordinarily deserved therein.
a. D
b. C
c. Only A & B
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c.
4. Which provisions regarding health are mentioned in the sections 11 to 20 in factories act?
A. Cleanliness
B. Dust and fumes
C. Ventilation and temperature
D. Disposal of wastes
a. Only B & C
b. Only A & D
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d.
5. As per the factories act, after how many years should the factory premises be painted and refurbished?
a. 5 years
b. 2 years
c. 10 years
d. Annually
ANSWER: a
6. As per section 2 in factories act, who will be called as an adult?
a. A person who has completed 21 years of age
b. A person who is less than 19 years of age
c. A person who has completed 24 years of age
d. A person who has completed 18 years of age
ANSWER: d.
7. Section 2(g) under the act defines _______
a. Factory
b. Manufacturing process
c. Worker
d. Occupants
ANSWER: b.
8. Match the following
1. Approval, licensing and registration of factories ----a.) Section 18
2. Arrangements for drinking water ------------ b.) Section 35
3. Maintenance of buildings ------------------- c.) Section 6
4. Protection of eyes ------------------------- d.) Section 40A
a.) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b
b.) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c
c.) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b
d.) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b
ANSWER: a.
9. If there are ____ numbers of employees, then the employer has to provide a canteen.
a. 250
b. 510
c. 320
d. 100
ANSWER: a.
10. Which of the following diseases is not mentioned in the section 89 of factories act?
a. Anthrax
b. Asbestosis
c. Phosphorus
d. Pneumonia
ANSWER: d.
11. As per section 94, a person who repeats an offence, he shall be punishable with an imprisonment for
a term
which may extend up to ______ years and fine which shall not be less than 10,000 Rs but which may
extend up to?
_______ or both.
a. 3 years/ 2, 00,000 Rs
b. 5 years/ 1, 20,000 Rs
c. 2 years/ 2, 50,000 Rs
d. 4 years/ 3, 00,000 Rs
ANSWER: a
12. If a company has _____ number of employees, then the appointment of a safety officer is mandatory
under the
factories act.
a. 500
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 10000
ANSWER: c.
13. Which of the following is an obligation of the employer is as mentioned in the factories act?
A. Provide all benefits and facilities to the workers regarding annual leave, weekly holidays, and extra
wages for overtime,
washing, first aid, canteens, crèches, rest and lunch rooms.
B. Applicable to all workers
C. To prevent haphazard growth of factories through the provisions related to the approval of plans before
the creation of a
factory.
D. To ensure adequate safety measures and to promote the health and welfare of the workers employed
in factories.
a. Only C
b. Only A
c. B, C and D
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b.
14. Fitness certificate granted under "sub section 2" of the act is valid for how many months?
a. 10 months
b. 24 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months
ANSWER: d.
15. From the below mentioned options, which of the following is not mentioned under the welfare
provision in the
factories act?
a. Canteen
b. Crèches
c. Drinking water
d. First aid
ANSWER: c.
16. Which section of the act covers the topic annual leave with wages?
a. Section 27
b. Section 5
c. Section 86
d. Section 79
ANSWER: d.
17. How many hours in a week can an adult work as per factories act?
a. 9 hours
b. 56 hours
c. 34 hours
d. 48 hours
ANSWER: d.
18. State true or false for the below given statement.
I. Under sub section 2A, the state government by notification in the gazette can appoint only one of each,
i.e. chief
inspector, joint chief inspectors, inspectors and deputy chief inspectors.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b.

19. If there are 100 workers in a factory, then one seat is allotted to how many workers
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 75
ANSWER: a
20. Section 99 of factories act deals with which of the following options?
a. Appeal
b. Penalty for permitting double employment of a child
c. Display of notice
d. Penalty for obstructing inspectors
ANSWER: b.
21. Choose the correct option that states the type of leave facilities for a worker mentioned in the factories
act?
a. Maternity leave
b. Casual leave
c. Annual leave with wages as per factories act
d. National & Festival Holidays
ANSWER: c.
22. State true or false for the below mentioned statement.
I. A young person between 15 to 18 years of age is not allowed to work on any dangerous machine.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b
23. What is the maximum amount of fees to be paid for licensing process?
a. 5 years
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
d. 7 years
ANSWER: a.
24. Which section of the factories act covers the list of diseases given in the schedule?
a. Section 3
b. Section 25
c. Section 87
d. Section 89
ANSWER: d.
25. Under section 106, a complaint must be filed within ____ months of the date when the commission of
the
offence came to the knowledge of an inspector.
a. 6 months
b. 3 months
c. 1 months
d. 12 months
ANSWER: b.
26. Section 76 empowers the state government to make rules for _____
a. The period of work for all children employed
b. Fitness certificate to work in a factory
c. Canteen facilities
d. Prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young person’s for working in factories
ANSWER: d.
27. Which of the below mentioned provisions come under safety provisions?
a. Lighting
b. Crèche
c. Self –acting machinery
d. Ventilation and Temperature
ANSWER: c.
28. Choose the correct option that states the duties of a certifying surgeon as per section 10(4) of the
factories act.
A. Examination and certification of young persons
B. Examination of persons working in factories engaged in dangerous occupations as may be specified in
the act.
C. Exercising of medical supervision as may be prescribed for any factory or class where young persons
are or are about to
be employed in any work which is likely to cause injury to their health.
a. Only A
b. Only B & C
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d
29. Fill in the blanks to complete the following statement.
I. Where work of the same kind is carried out by two or more sets of workers working during different
periods of the day,
each of such set is called ______.
a. Relay
b. Shift
c. Group
d. Co- worker
ANSWER: a
30. In cubic meters how much space is allotted to each worker after the commencement of factories act?
a. 9.5
b. 10
c. 14.2
d. 12.4
ANSWER: c.
36. The first Factories Act was enacted in
(A) 1881
(B) 1895
(C) 1897
(D) 1885
ANSWER; A
37. Who is an adult as per Factories Act, 1948?
(A) Who has completed 18 years of age
(B) Who is less than 18 years
(C) Who is more than 14 years
(D) Who is more than 15 years
ANSWER; A
38. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories Act, 1948 is called
as_________
(A) Occupier
(B) Manager
(C) Chairman
(D) Managing Director.
ANSWER ; A
39. The space for every worker employed in the Factory after the commencement of Factories Act, 1948
should be________ Cubic Meters.
(A) 9.9
(B) 10.2
(C) 14.2
(D) 13.2
ANS; C
40. The provision for cooling water during hot weather should be made by the organization if it
employees_______ or more employees.
(A) 200
(B) 250
(C) 300
(D) 150
ANS ; B
41. Who is an Adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948?
(A) Who has completed 17 years of age?
(B) who is less than 18 years
(C) who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years.
(D) None of these
ANS; C
42. Which one of the following is not Welfare provision under Factories Act, 1948
(A) Canteen
(B) Crèches
(C) Alcoholic Beverage
(D) Drinking Water.
ANS; C
43. First Aid Boxes is to be provided for ______ of persons
(A) 125
(B) 135
(C) 150
(D) 160
ANS; C
44. Safety Officers are to be appointed if Organization is engaging______ or more employees.
(A) 1000
(B) 2000
(C) 500
(D) 750
ANS; A
45. Canteen is to be provided if engaging Employees more than______ persons.
(A) 250
(B) 230
(C) 300
(D) 275
ANS; A
46. Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for_______ days in a month.
(A) 15
(B) 25 (C) 20
(D) 28
ANS ; C
47. Welfare Officers are to be appointed if Organization is engaging______ or more employees.
(A) 500
(B) 250
(C) 600
(D) 750
ANS A
48. The Ambulance Room is to be provided If engaging employees more than______
(A) 400
(B) 350
(C) 500
(D) 450
ANS C
49. Crèche is to be provided if______ or More lady employees are engaged.
(A) 25
(B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 40
ANS; C
50. The term Sabbatical is connected with
(A) Paid leave for study
(B) Paternity leave
(C) Maternity leave
(D) Quarantine leave
ANS; A
51. Section 2 (K) of the Factories Act 1947 Says about
(A) Manufacturing Process
(B) Factory
(C) Worker
(D) None of these
ANS; A
52. If the factory employs more than 1000 Workers, they should appoint qualified —————— to carry
out
the prescribed duties
(A) Safety Officer
(B) Welfare officer
(C) Security officer
(D) None of these
ANS; A
53. For contravention of provisions of Factories Act or Rules, the occupier shall Liable for punishment up
to
(A) 2 years or fine up to Rs.1,00,000 or both
(B) 6 months or fine unto 10, 000 or both
(C) 3 three years or fine 10, 000 or both
(D) None of these
ANS; A
54. If any employee found violating the section 20 of Factories Act 1947 shall be fine up to
(A) Rs. 10
(B) Rs. 5
(C) Rs. 15
(D) Rs.20
ANS; B
55. Section 41- G of the Factories Act 1948 says about
(A) Fencing of machineries
(B) Facing of machineries
(C) Work on near machinery in motion
(D) Workers participation in safety mgt.
ANS; D
56. Who is responsible for payment to a person employed by him in a Factory under the Payment of
wages Act
1936
(A) Accounts Manager
(B) HR manager
(C) Manager
(D) Owner
ANS; C
57. The occupier of a Factory has to submit the document on or before——— of every year to renewal of
a
license for a factory.
(A) 31st October of every year.
(B) 30th June of every year
(C) 31st March of every year
(D) 31st December of every year
ANS; A
58. The renewal application for a license submitted by a factory after December 31st of the every year
shall
pay the fine amount.
(A) 10 % of the license fee
(B) 20% of the license fee
(C) 30 % of the license fee
(D) none of these.
ANS; B
59. Where——————or more workers are employed in a factory, then there shall be a Safety
Committee in
the factory.
(A) 100 or more workers(B) 150 or more workers
(C) 200 or more workers
(D) 250 or more workers
ANS; D
60. A general manager of a factory can be appointed as an Inspector of factory under the Factories Act,
1948.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Depend on the Organizational Structure of the company
(D) None of the above
ANS; B
61. The Factories employing more than 1000 workers are required to submit their plan for approval to
(A) Deputy Chief Inspector of Factories
(B) Joint Chief Inspector of Factories
(C) Chief Inspector of Factories
(D) Additional Chief Inspector of Factories.
ANS; C
62. A weekly holiday was introduced in the Factories for the first time in the year———.
(A) 1948
(B) 1931
(C) 1926
(D) 1923
ANS ; D
63. Under the Section 41A of the Factories Act, the Site Appraisal Committee shall be constituted once in
——
——— year under the chairmanship of Chief Inspector of Factories.
(A) Once in 5 Year
(B) Once in 2 Year
(C) Once in 3 Year
(D) Once in a Year.
ANS; A
64. To close down a factory, the occupier has to give——— days notice to the authorities.
(A) 30 Days
(B) 60 Days
(C) 90 Days
(D) 14 Days
ANS; B
65. The annual return under the Factories Act shall be submitted to Inspector of Factories on or before
........................................................
(A) 31st January
(B) 31st December
(C) 30th April
(D) 31st March
ANS; A
66. The number of elected workers in the canteen managing committee shall not be more than——— or
less
than—————
(A) more than 5 or less than 2
(B) more than 20 or less than 10
(C) more than 15 or less than 10
(D) more than 10 or less than 5
ANS; A
67. Designated trade defined under
(A) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(B) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
(C) Apprentices Act, 1961
(D) Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959
ANS; C
68. Loss of a hand and foot of an employee due to accident Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 treated
as
(A) Permanent Total Disablement
(B) Permanent Partial Disablement
(C) Neither Permanent Total Disablement nor Partial Disablement
(D) None of the above
ANS ; A
69. The body, by whatever name called, to which the management of the affairs of a trade union is
entrusted
under Trade Union Act, 1926 means:
(A) Executive
(B) Office Bearer
(C) Registered Office
(D) Trade Union
ANS; A
70. Every woman entitled to maternity benefit under the the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 shall also be
entitled to
receive from her employer
(A) Medical bonus
(B) Leave for miscarriage
(C) Leave with wages for tubectomy operation
(D) All of the above
ANS; D

Unit 4
Minimum Wages Act 1948
1. Statutory Minimum wage is fixed under
(a) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(b) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(c) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(d) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
a d:
2. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 the appropriate government shall fix the minimum rates of wages
payable to the
employees employed in an employment specified in
(a) Schedule I part I
(b) Schedule I part II
(c) Schedule I, Part I, II and the employments and added under section 27
(d) Schedule I and II
An: c
3. Which of the following is not a method for fixing Minimum Wages under the Minimum Wages Act,
1948?
(a) Notification Method
(b) Committee Method
(c) Bargaining Method
(d) None of the above
An: c
4. The minimum wages as fixed under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 must be revised at least once in
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 5 years
(d) No mention under the Act
An: c
5. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 has
(a) One schedule covering different types of industries.
(b) One schedule covering different types of industries, shops and establishments.
(c) One schedule covering shops and establishments.
(d) Two schedules covering industrial establishments and agriculture.
An: d
6. Which one of the following is not based on the principle of welfare?
(a) Mica Mines Labor Welfare Funds Act
(b) Iron Ore Mines Labor Welfare Funds Act
(c) Minimum Wages Act
(d) Dock Workers (Safety, Health, Welfare) Act
An: c
7. Which of the following legislations apply to unorganized sector workers in India?
(a) Minimum Wages Act
(b) Child Labor (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
(c) Contract Labor (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970
(d) All of the above
An: d
8. Under the Minimum Wages Act, which of the following cannot be appointed by the appropriate
government by notification?
under the official gazette for deciding claims arising out of payment of less than the minimum rates of
wages?
(a) Any commissioner for Workmen’s compensation
(b) Any officers of the Central Government exercising functions as a Labor Commissioner for any region
(c) Any officer of the State Government not below the rank of Labor Commissioner
(d) Any officer not less than the rank of District Magistrate
An: d
9. What are the methods mentioned in Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 for fixation/revision of
minimum wages.
(a) Committee method
(b) Notification method.
(c) Voting method
(d) Both (a) & (b)
An: d
10. In order to protect the minimum wages against inflation, the Central Government has made the
provision of Variable
Dearness Allowance (VDA) linked to ---------.
(a) Wholesale Price Index Number for Industrial Workers (WPI – IW)
(b) Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers (CPI – IW)
(c) Consumer Price Index Number for all Urban Consumers (CPI-UC)
(d) Wholesale Price Index Number for all Urban Consumers (WPI-UC)
An: d
11. Which of the following are the responsibilities of Central Advisory Board?
(a) Advising the Central and State Governments in the matters of the fixation of minimum rates of wages
(b) Advising the Central and State Governments in the matters of the revision of minimum rates of wages
(c) Co-ordinate the work of State Advisory Boards
(d) All the above
An: d
12. The Central Advisory Board shall consist of the following members nominated by the Central
Government
(a) The employers
(b) The employees
(c) Independent persons
(d) All the above
An: d
13. If an employee works on any day on which he was employed for a period less than the requisite
number of hours
constituting a normal working day, he shall be entitled to receive wages
(a) for a full normal working day
(b) for the hours he had worked
(c) for a half working day
(d) None of the above
An: a
14. To provide guidelines for wage structures in the country, a tripartite Committee Viz., "The Committee
on Fair Wage" was
constituted on --------.
(a) 1946
(b) 1948
(c) 1964
(d) 1950
An: b
15. Under this act, the appropriate Governments have the power to notify any employment where -------
number of
employees are working in 'schedule of employment' to fix the rates of minimum wages
(a) 500 or more
(b) 100 or more
(c) 1000 or more
(d) 250 or more
An: c
PART-2
1. The factors which caused variation of minimum wages in India are –
I. Prices of essential commodities
II. Paying capacity
III. Productivity
IV. Differences in exchange rates.
Select the correct answer form the codes given bellow:
(A) I only
(B) IV only
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
Ans d
2. In order to have a uniform wage structure and to reduce the disparity in minimum wages across the
country, the concept of National Floor Level Minimum Wage (NFLMW) was mooted. On the basis of
increase
in the Consumer Price Index (Industrial Worker), the Central Government has revised the NFLMW from
time to time. The present NFLMW –
(A) Rs.80/-
(B) Rs.100/-
(C) Rs.115/-
(D) Rs 225/-.
Ans c
3. Which of the following area, where central government is exclusively competent to enact legislations—
(A) Trade unions; industrial and labour disputes.
(B) Social security and social insurance; employment and unemployment.
(C) Welfare of labour including conditions of work, provident funds, employers’ liability, workmen’s
compensation, invalidity and old age pensions and maternity benefits.
(D) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
Ans d
4. A premises including precincts thereof is a ‘factory’ within the meaning of the Factories Act, 1948
wherein a manufacturing process is being carried on without the aid of power and where the number of
workers working is –
(A) 10 or more workers(B) 20 or more workers
(C) 15 or more workers
(D) 50 or more workers.
Ans d
5. The present wage ceiling per month for the purpose of the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 is –
(A) Rs. 10. 000/-
(B) Rs. 15, 000/-
(C) Rs. 18, 000/-
(D) Rs. 20,000/-
Ans b
6. Which Schedule of the Factories Act, 1948 specifies Beriyllium poisoning, Anthrax and Arsenic
poisoning
or its sequelae etc, as notifiable diseases?
(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Third Schedule
(D) Fifth Schedule
Ans c
7. The present wage ceiling per month for the purpose of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is —
(A) Rs. 10. 000/-
(B) Rs. 15, 000/-
(C) Rs. 18, 000/-
(D) Rs. 20,000/-
Ans c
8. As per Payment of Wages Act, 1936, in railway factory or industrial or other establishment upon or in
which less than one thousand persons are employed, wages shall be paid before the expiry of the —
(A) Seventh day of the month.
(B) Tenth Day of the months
(C) Third Day of the months
(D) None of the above
Ans a
9. The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 protects the interest of workers in contingencies such as —
I. Sickness
II. Maternity,
III. Temporary or permanent physical disablement,
IV. Death due to employment injury resulting in loss of wages or earning capacity.
Select the correct answer form the codes given bellow:
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
Ans d
10. The verification of membership of unions operating in establishment in central sphere is conducted by
Chief Labour Commissioner office under Code of Discipline for the purpose of granting recognition as and
when directed by the –
(A) Ministry of Labour and Employment.
(B) ESI Corporation
(C) Labour Tribunal
(D) Office Bearer of Trade Union
Ans a
11. As per the provisions contained in Chapter VB of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 establishment
employing
_____________ persons or more are required to seek prior permission of Appropriate Government before
effecting lay-off, retrenchment and closure.
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 250
(D) 500
Ans b
12. ___________________ have been set up under the provisions of Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 for
adjudication
of industrial disputes in an organisation.
(A) Lok-Adalat
(B) Industrial Tribunal
(C) Labour Court
(D) All of the above
13. Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 shall apply to every factory; and every other establishment in which
______________ are employed on any day during an accounting year:
(A) 20 or more persons
(B) 25 or more persons
(C) 30 or more persons
(D) 50 or more persons
14. As per Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, employees drawing salary or wages not exceeding ________
per
month in any industry are eligible for bonus.
(A) Rs. 10, 000/-
(B) Rs. 15, 000/-
(C) Rs. 18, 000/-
(D) Rs. 20,000/-
15. As per the Employees Pension Scheme, 1995, members on attaining the age of fifty-eight years and
having rendered minimum of _____ years of contributory service qualify for superannuation fund.
(A) 5
(B) 10(C) 15
(D) 20
16. The term ‘same work or work of a similar nature” mentioned in the?
(A) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(B) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(C) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(D) The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
(E) None of the above
17. Which of the following enactment stipulates for nursing break to a women employee?
(A) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(B) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(C) Apprentices Act, 1961
(D) The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
18. Award means an interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute are determined by:
(A) Labour Court
(B) Arbitrator
(C) Both (A) & (b)
(D) None of the above
19. Which of the following statement is true about the Constitutional Validity of section 10 of the Industrial
Dispute Act, 1947?
(A) It is ultra-vires the Constitution
(B) It is intra-vires the Constitution
(C) Both (A) & (b)
(D) None of the above
20. The maximum amount of gratuity payable under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 is –
(A) Rs. 5,00,000
(B) Rs. 7,50,000
(C) Rs. 10,50,000
(D) Rs. 10,00,000
21. Bonus must be paid to employees within a period of …………………….. months from the close of the
accounting year.;
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) None of the above. 22. The minimum number of members required for registration of a trade
union is- .
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 10
23. The employer is required to send a report to the Commissioner for workmen’s compensation within
……………………… days of the death or serious injury of the workman.
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
24. As per Schedule to the Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, paper making is a.
(A) Occupation
(B) Process
(C) Both (A) & (b)
(D) None of the above
25. As per the Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining Registers by Certain
Establishments) Act, 1988, an employer of any small establishment or very small establishment required
to furnishes a Core Return in:
(A) Form A
(B) Form B
(C) Form C
(D) Form D.
26. Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 applies to every establishment/ contractor in
which
____________ workmen are employed or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months as
contract labour.
(A) Ten or more
(B) Fifteen
(C) Twenty or more
(D) Twenty-five or more
27. The text of the Certified Standing Orders shall be prominently posted by the employer
in_____________
and in the language understood by the majority of his workmen.
(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) Devanagiri Script
(D) Language specified in 8th Schedule of the Constitution28. _________________ means any trade or
occupation or any subject field in engineering or technology or
any vocational course which the Central Government, after consultation with the Central Apprenticeship
Council, may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify as a designated trade for the purposes of
Apprentices Act, 1961.
(A) Designated trade
(B) Apprenticeship training
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above.
29. As per Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923, in case of permanent total disablement, the minimum
amount
of compensation payable to an employee is ____________________.
(A) Rs. 90,000/-
(B) Rs. 1, 00,000/-
(C) Rs. 1, 20,000/-
(D) Rs. 1, 40,000/-
30. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 shall not apply to establishments in which
work
is of _____
(A) An intermittent or casual nature
(B) Permanent work
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above. 31. Violation of the Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986 shall be
punishable with imprisonment

for a term not be less than ___________________.

(A) one month
(B) three months
(C) six months
(D) one year.
32. Under the Apprentices Act, 1961, Apprentice entitled for casual leave for the maximum period of
_____________ days in a year.
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 45
33. The appropriate government shall revise the minimum rates of wages under the Minimum Wages Act,
1948 at least once in every __________
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years.
34. Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959 does not apply in relation
to
vacancies in any employment –
(A) in domestic service;
(B) to do unskilled office work;
(C) connected with the staff of Parliament
(D) All of the above.
35. The rate of employers’ contributions in the ESI Scheme is ___________% .
(A) 4.75,
(B) 1.65
(C) 1.75
(D) 5.75
31) The industrial peace is secured through voluntary_____and compulsory _____.
a) Compromise and Arbitration
b) Adjudication and Arbitration
c) Work Committee and Industrial Tribunal
d) Negotiation and Adjudication
32) As per the Factories Act "Adult" means a person who has completed year of age.
[Sec 2(a)]
a) Fifteenth
b) Sixteenth
c) Seventeenth
d) Eighteenth
33) As per Factories Act, "Child" means a person who has not completed his ..........Year of age.
[Sec 2(c)]
a) Fourteenth
b) Fifteenth
c) Sixteenth
d) Eighteenth
34) As per factories act which among the following are true in respect of the_______ definition
of a worker'? [Sec 2(1)] "Worker" means a person employed
1 Directly or by or through any agency (including a contractor
2 With or without the knowledge of the principal employer
3 Whether for remuneration or not
4 In any manufacturing process
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1,3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and4
35) As per Factories Act, 'Factory" means any premises in during the precincts thereof where on
or more workers are working or were working on any day of the preceding 12 months, and in
any part of which a manufacturing process is being carried out with the aid of power, or is
ordinarily so carried on. [Sec 2(m)(i))
a) 10
b) 20
c) 50
d) 100
36) Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act. 1952 is ____applied to
establishments employing not less than
a) 10 employees
b) 20 employees
c) 50employees
d) 100 employees
37) An employee whose salary at the time of joining does not exceed shall become member of
the provident fund under the Act.
a) Rs. 10,000
b) Rs. 7500
c) Rs. 15000
d) Rs. 6500
38) Employee share of provident fund contribution is
a) 12%
b) 8.33%
c) 1.75%
d) 4.75%
39) An employee whose salary does not exceed is eligible or Bonus under the Payment of
Bonus
Act.
a) Rs. 3500
b) Rs. 6500
c) Rs. 15000
d) Rs. 21000
40) Layoff compensation is to be paid @ of average wages.
a) 15 days
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 75%
41) Which of the following is not included under the definition of wages given under the
Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
a) Basic Wage
b) Dearness Allowance
c) Incentive
d) Gratuity
42) Under which labour legislation in India, the provision of check-off has been accepted?
a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
b) Trade Unions Act, 1926
c) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
d) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act
43) According to this Act, the maximum wage period or payment of wages to employees by
employer should not exceed.
a) 45 days
b) 15 days
c) 30 days
d) 60 days
44) The total amount of deductions from wages of employees should not exceed.
a) 50%
b) 70%
c) 25%
d) 40%
45) Fine should be recovered within days from the date on which fine were imposed.
a) 30 days
b) 45 days
c) 60 days
d) 75 days
46) If there is willful removal or disregard by the workman of any safety guard or other device
which he knew to have been provided for the purpose of securing safety of workman,
a) Employer is liable to pay compensation
b) Employer is not liable to pay compensation
c) Appropriate government is liable to pay compensation
d) The Trade Union is liable to pay compensation
47) In case of fatal accident if the commissioner serves notice to the employer based on his
source
(a) The employer can neglect the notice.
(b) If the employer thinks liable, he shall make the deposit within sixty days of the service of
notice.
(c) If the employer thinks liable, he shall make the deposit within thirty days of the service of
notice.
(d) If the employer is not liable, he shall in his statement indicate the grounds on which he
disclaims liability.
a) All statements are correct.
b) All statements are incorrect.
c) Only (a) and (d) are correct.
d) Only (c) and (d) are correct.
48) Under Employees Compensation Act, 1923, which of the following are considered as
dependent of deceased workman for the purpose of paying compensation?
(i) a minor brother or an unmarried sister or a widowed sister
(ii) a widowed daughter-in-law
(iii) a minor child of a pre-deceased son
(iv) a minor child of a pre-deceased daughter where no parent of the child is alive
(v) a paternal grandparent if no parent of the workman is alive;
a) i, ii & v
b) i, ii. iii & iv
c) i, ii, iii & v
d) i, ii, iii, iv & v
49) Under Employees Compensation Act, employer shall not be liable to pay compensation in
respect of any injury which does not result in the total or partial disablement of the workman for
a period exceeding ------- days;
a) 7
b) 3
c) 5
d) 2
50) Under Employees Compensation Act, employer shall not be liable to pay compensation in
respect of any injury not resulting in death or permanent total disablement caused by an accident
a) Under the influence of drink or drugs
b) Due to the willful disobedience of the workman to an order expressly given or to a rule
expressly framed for the purpose of securing the safety of workmen
c) Due to the willful removal or disregard by the workman of any safety guard or other device
he knew to have been provided for the purpose of securing the safety of workman
d) All the above
51) International Labor Organisation is an agency of _________.
a) IBRD
b) UN Security Council
c) International fund for agricultural development
d) United Nations
52) Headquarters of International Labour Organisation is located in ________
a) Geneva
b) Rome
c) Paris
d) Tokyo
53) The ongoing globalisation in the country needs reforms in our labour laws. The forces
oppose changes in the existing labour legislations is _______________.
a) Government
b) Labour and Trade Unions
c) Employers’ Associations
d)Human Rights’ Commission
54) Agency of United Nations which deals with international labour standards and providing
social protection and working opportunities is ______________.
a) International Corporation of Law
b) International Law Organisation
c) International Workforce Recruiters
d) International Labour Organisation
55) Labour Policy highlights ________
a) Creative measures to attract public and private investment
b) Creating new jobs
c) Employee-Employer relationship
d) All of the above
57) Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act is the result of the ratification by India of which of
the following Conventions of ILO?
a) Unemployment Convention, 1919
b) Forced Labour Convention, 1930
c) Weekly Rest (Industry Convention), 1921
d) Right of Association (Agriculture) Convention, 1921
58) Which of the following has not been implemented through any legislation at the national
level?
a) Joint Management Council
b) Workers’ Participation in Management
c) recognition of Trade Unions
d) None of the above
59) The composition of which of the following is similar to the structure of ILO?
a) Canteen Managing Committee
b) Standing Labour Committee
c) Safety Committee
d) Works Committee
60) Which of the following is not an objective of Workers’ Education Scheme in India?
a) To make workers’ responsible citizens
b) To make them efficient at work
c) To enable them to earn more
d) To make them responsible Union members and Officers

Unit 4
Payment of Wages Act 1936
1. In which year was the first suggestion for the legislation in the act made?
a. 1934
b. 1925
c. 1936
d. 1937
ANSWER: b.
2. The first suggestion for legislation in the act was made by a private member's bill called __________.
a. Legislative Bill
b. Wages Bill
c. Weekly Payment Bill
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c
3. Choose the correct date and year on which payment of wages act was passed?
a. 23rd April, 1936
b. 28th March, 1937
c. 25th April, 1937
d. 27th April, 1936
ANSWER: a.
4. In which year did the payment of wages act come into force?
a. 23rd April, 1925
b. 28th March, 1940
c. 23rd April, 1936
d. 28th March, 1937
ANSWER: d
5. The power is vested in the ____________ to make the act applicable to payment of wages to any class
of
persons employed in any establishment or class of establishments specified in section 2(h) by giving 3
month's
notice to that effect.
a. Central Government
b. Acting Government
c. State Government
d. Judicial Court
ANSWER: c.
6. State true or false.
I. In a factory if a person has been named as manager of the factory under the clause (f) of sub section 1
of section 7 of the
factories act, he is responsible to make the payments of the employees.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a.
7. What is the maximum wage period for the payment of wages?
a. 1 month
b. 40 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
ANSWER: a.
8. In any factory or industrial establishment where less than 1000 employees are employed the wages
shall be paid
before the expiry of the ____ day.
a. 10th day
b. 2nd day
c. 7th day
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c
9. Which of these deductions under section 7 of payment of wages act is not authorized?
a. Deduction for Fines
b. Deduction for payment of Income tax
c. Deduction for Payment of insurance
d. Deduction for payment of uniform and property
ANSWER: d.
10. What is the maximum limit of fine to be imposed on an employee?
a. Should not exceed an amount equal to 5% of the wages payable
b. Should not exceed an amount equal to 1% of the wages payable
c. Should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable
d. Should not exceed an amount equal to 10% of the wages payable
ANSWER: c.
11. Which section of the act covers deduction for damage or loss?
a. Section 10
b. Section 9
c. Section 12
d. Section 7
ANSWER: a.
12. Match the following deductions with their respective sections
1. Deduction for recovery of loans --------- A. Section 12 A
2. Deduction from wages ----------------- B. Section 9
3. Deduction for services rendered --------- C. Section 7
4. Deductions from absence of duty --------- D. Section 11
a. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
b. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
c. 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a
d. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
ANSWER: a.
13. A single application may be presented under section ___ on behalf or in respect of any number of
employed
persons.
a. Sub section 3 of section 15
b. Section 15
c. Section 14
d. Section 10
ANSWER: b.
4. What is the penalty for those who contravene the provision of section 4 sub section (4) of section 5 or
10 or 25?
a. 500 Rupees
b. 5000 Rupees
c. Upton 500 Rupees
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c.
15. Which section takes care of payment of undisbursed wages in case of death of employed person?
a. Section 25A
b. Section 25
c. Section 26
d. Section 22A
ANSWER: a.
 Unit 5
The Trade Unions Act-1926
1. The Trade Unions Act came into operation from ____.
a. 1st June, 1927
b. 1st May, 1926
c. 1st June, 1926
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a.
2. In which year's amendment of the act was the word ‘Indiana€• removed?
a. 1947
b. 1960
c. 1964
d. 1962
ANSWER: c.
3. The act came into force from ______.
a. 1st June, 1927
b. 1st April, 1965
c. 1st May, 1960
d. 1st April, 1962
ANSWER: b.
4. State true or false
I. The act was enacted with the objective of providing for the registration of trade unions and verification of
the membership
of trade unions registered so that they may acquire a legal and corporate status.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a.
5. What is the minimum number of trade union members requires in registering themselves as a union?
a. 7
b. 10
c. 5
d. 15
ANSWER: a
6. Which act in Industrial Relations defines the term trade union?
a. Industrial Trade Resolution, 1962
b. Industrial Policy, 1991
c. The trade union and labor relations (consolidation) Act, 1992
d. The industrial Employment Act, 1946
ANSWER: c.
7. Which section of the act deals with the registration of the trade unions?
a. Section 8
b. Section 7
c. Section 9
d. Section 10
ANSWER: a.
8. State true or false.
I. The registrar has the right to cancel the registration of the union if he is satisfied that the certificate has
been obtained by
fraud or mistake.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a.
9. Which of the following acts do not apply to the registered trade unions?
a. The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912
b. The Societies Registration Act, 1860
c. The Companies Act, 1956
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d.
10. Which of the following is an object on which general funds could be spent as per section 15 of the
act?
a. Payment to buy goods required for the enterprise
b. Payment of employees in the factory establishment
c. The payment of expenses for the administration of trade union or any member thereof
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c.
11. State true or false
I. A person who has attained the age of 10 years can be a member of a registered trade union subject to
any rules of the
trade union.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b
12. On which of the following grounds an office bearer or executive of the trade union be disqualified?
A. Has been convicted by the court of any offence involving moral turpitude
B. Has not attained the age of 18 years
C. Is not working with any establishment
a. A & B
b. A & C
c. B & C
d. A, B and C
ANSWER: a.
13. How many members’ consent is required to change the name of the registered trade union?
a. 1/4th of the total members
b. 3/4th of the total members
c. Half of the total members
d. 2/3rd of the total member
ANSWER: d.
14. How many percentage of votes should be recorded when amalgamating 2 or more registered trade
unions?
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 20%
d. 75%
ANSWER: a.
15. How many members should sign the notice of dissolution?
a. 5 members and the secretary of the trade union
b. 10 members and the secretary of the trade union
c. 20 members and the secretary of the trade union
d. 7 members and the secretary of the trade union
ANSWER: d.
16. On what grounds can a union refuse to admit a person or expel a member?
a. Because of goodwill
b. Because of misconduct
c. Because of change in job
d. None of the above
r
ANSWER: b.
17. Trade unions are the principal schools in which the workers learn the lesson of _______ and ______.
a. Spirit of combination and class - consciousness
b. Social evils and exploitation
c. Self - reliance and solidarity
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c.
18. In which year did the labor movement start in India?
a. 1875
b. 1918
c. 1939
d. 1945
ANSWER: a.
18. State true or false.
I. Labor movement is "by the worker" whereas the trade union movement is "for the worker"
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b
19. In which year did the trade union movement start in India?
a. 1975
b. 1939
c. 1935
d. 1918
ANSWER: d.
20. The trade union movement was at a disadvantage in an age when the __________ held the field.
a. Rage committee
b. First world war
c. Doctrine of Laissez faire
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c.
21. In how many periods can you divide the growth and development of trade union movement in India?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 3
d. 8
ANSWER: b.
22. Which 2 Indian Humanitarians who themselves were factory workers drew the governmental€™s
attention
towards unhappy working conditions of laborers in 1875 and 1884?
a. Storable Shapurji Bengali & N.M. Lokhandey
b. S.N. Banerjee & Punker
c. Lokamanya Tikal & Mill owners associations
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a.
23. Match the following periods of trade unions with respective years
1. Second world war -------------- A. 1939 - 1945
2. Post - independence period ---- B. 1947 - to date
3. Social welfare period -------- C. 1918 - 1924
4. Early trade union period ------ D. 1875 - 1918
5. Left wing trade unionism period --- E. 1924 - 1934
6. Trade unions' unity period ------- F. 1935 - 1938
a. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c, 5-e, 6-f
b. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-e, 5-d, 6-f
c. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d, 5-e, 6-f
d. 1-b, 2-c, 3-f, 4-e, 5-a, 6-d
ANSWER: a
24. Which year saw the history of modern industrialism in India?
a. 1918
b. 1875
c. 1850
d. 1904
ANSWER: c.
25. Who formed Bombay Mill hands Association and in which year?
a. Storable shapurjee Bengali in 1980
b. N.M Lokhandey in 1890
c. Social Service League in 1910
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b.
26. What was the name of the newspaper published for the working class?
a. Shades Vassal
b. Dinbhandhu
c. Indian spectator
d. Sind Times
ANSWER: b.
27. From the below mentioned options which of the organization was formed during the period 1879
–1881?
a. British Indian Association
b. Satyashodhak Samar
c. Theosophical society in Madras
d. Union of Calcutta
ANSWER: a.
28. Which were the two main factors responsible for the slow and steady growth of the movement?
A. Slow and gradual proletarisation
B. Weakness and disability of the Indian working class
C. Illiteracy amongst the Indian working class
a. A & C
b. B & C
c. A, B & C
d. A & B
ANSWER: d.
29. Why were most of the organizations unstable and loose in nature?
a. They lacked unity
b. They lacked definite aims and constitution
c. They lacked support from the acting government
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b.
30. State true or false
I. The early leadership was provided by 3 types of people namely, the intellectuals, careerists and
politicians and
nationalists.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a.
31. Which year marked the regulation period under the social welfare period?
a. 1875 - 1891
b. 1891 - 1917
c. 1917 - 1919
d. None of the above
ANSWER: a.
32. I. L. O was established in the year ____.
a. 1917
b. 1918
c. 1924
d. 1919
ANSWER: d.
33. Who initiated the textile labor association and in which year?
a. Lokmanya Tikal in 1921
b. Mahatma Gandhi in 1920
c. B.P. Wada in 1920
d. Annie Besant in 1920
ANSWER: b.
34. What is the full form of AITUF?
a. All International Trade Union Federation
b. All India Trade Union Forums
c. All India Trade Union Federation
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c
35. In which year did the Second World War break out?
a. 1939
b. 1945
c. 1947
d. 1937
ANSWER: a
36. In which year was the Indian National Trade Union Congress formed?
a. 1947
b. 1950
c. 1948
d. 1935
ANSWER: c.
37. State true or false
I. All India Trade Union Congress was established in December 1948.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b.
38. Which of these politicians attended the All India Trade Union Congress Meet?
a. Annie Besant
b. Motile Nehru
c. Villach Bahia Patel
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d.
39. In which city did the United Trade Union Committee meet again to form a new union under the name
of United?
Trade Union Congress?
a. Calcutta
b. Bombay
c. Delhi
d. Coimbatore
ANSWER: a.
40. Match the following Trade unions with their correct objectives
1. To establish just industrial relations --------- A. Bhatia Amador Singh
2. To establish a socialist state in India----------- B. United Trade Union Congress
3. To bring about unity in the trade union movement--- C. All - India Trade Union Congress
4. The right to strike------------------------------- D. The Indian National Trade Union Congress
a. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
b. 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
c. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
d. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
ANSWER: a.