JEE NEET

FOUNDATION

CLASS 8

SCIENCE
Based on the NCERT Curiosity

PageSmith
Class 8th Science Foundation
Edition August 2025
Copyright © By PageSmith

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 Contents
CHAP 1. Exploring the Investigative World of Science 5-34

CHAP 2. The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye 35-64

CHAP 3. Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter 65-95

CHAP 4. Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects 96-126

CHAP 5. Exploring Forces 127-154

CHAP 6. Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones 155-184

CHAP 7. Particulate Nature of Matter 185-213

CHAP 8. Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures 214-240

CHAP 9. The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions 241-267

CHAP 10. Light : Mirrors and Lenses 268-296

CHAP 11. Keeping Time with The Skies 297-324

CHAP 12. How Nature Works in Harmony 325-352

CHAP 13. Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet 353-380

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Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

CHAPTER 1
Exploring the Investigative World of Science

SUMMAR 2.2 Health and the Human Body

1. This section will cover how our bodies stay
healthy and fight infections.
1. The Spirit of Scientific Investigation 2. Key elements include nutritious food, regular
exercise, medicines, and vaccines.
1.1 From Wonder to Investigation 2.3 Electricity and Its Effects
Science in Grade 8 moves beyond just asking We will study how electric current is used in
“Why?”. The focus is on active investigation. It’s daily life. This includes the heating effect(used
not just about learning facts, but about learning in heaters) and the magnetic effect(which helps
how to find new facts for yourself. motors run).
1.2 The Core Process of Investigation 2.4 Forces and Pressure
Scientific investigation involves a clear, step-by- Forces are what cause objects to speed up, slow
step process: down, or change their direction of motion.
1. Asking focused questions about the world Pressure is defined as the amount of force applied
around you. over a specific area. These concepts explain things
2. Designing simple experiments to find answers. like a falling ball or a car using its brakes.
3. Observing carefully what happens during
your experiment. 2.5 Weather Phenomena
4. Explaining your finding sclearly. The principles of force and pressure also explain
how air moves.
1.3 The Scientific Mindset A small difference in air pressure causes a gentle
To be a good investigator, you need to balance breeze, while a large difference can lead to
two key ideas: powerful storms and cyclones.
1. Grounded Knowledge (The Root):Base your
work on careful, real-world observations. 2.6 The Particle Nature of Matter
2. Creative Thinking (The Kite):Allow your Everything around us is made of tiny particles.
curiosity and ideas to explore new possibilities. The behavior of these particles determines the
state of matter. In solids, particles can’t move
2. A Preview of Grade 8 Science Topics much, but in gases, they move around freely.
Matter can be classified into elements, compounds,
2.1 The World of Microbes and mixtures.
1. We will explore the hidden world of tiny 2.7 The World of Light
organisms, or microbes, found even in a single
drop of water. We’ll study how light behaves, including:
Reflection : Light bouncing off surfaces like
2. We’ll learn about helpful microbes that assist
mirrors.
in digestion or making medicines, and harmful
Refraction : Light bending as it passes through
microbes that cause infections.
lenses, which is how eyeglasses work.
page 6 Class 8th Science Foundation

The Moon shines because it reflects sunlight. The 3.3 The Nature of Science
phases of the Moon .we see are caused by the This method of systematic investigation is the
changing positions of the Earth, Moon, and Sun. foundation of all scientific experiments, from
simple to complex. Even an everyday observation
2.8 Ecosystems and Life on Earth
can be scientifically fascinating and may not be
An ecosystem is the complex web of relationships completely understood yet.
between living organisms (plants, animals) and
their non-living environment (air, water, sunlight).

2.9 Our Planet’s Future

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO
Earth is uniquely suited for life because of its
ideal distance from the Sun, presence of liquid
water, and a protective atmosphere. 1. What was the central theme of the science
Human activities are causing changes in the curriculum in Grade 6?
Earth’s climate, which presents a serious challenge. (A) The investigative world of science
Science provides the tools to understand these (B) Science is always evolving
changes and find solutions to protect our planet. (C) The history of scientific discoveries
(D) Science begins with wonder
3. How to Investigate Like a Scientist :
The Puri Example

Ans
This section shows how to apply the scientific (D) Science begins with wonder
method to an everyday observation : Why does a The journey into science in Grade 6 focused
puri puff up and have one thin side? on how scientific inquiry starts with a sense of
wonder and asking basic questions like “Why?”
3.1 The “Laboratory” is Everywhere and “How?” about the world. This approach
You don’t need a formal lab to do science. Your encourages natural curiosity as the foundation for
kitchen is a great place to start observing and learning. The other options describe themes for
experimenting. later grades.

3.2 Steps for a Systematic Investigation 2. What concept was emphasized in the Grade 7
science curriculum, as mentioned in the chapter?
1. Ask a Clear Question. Start with what you
(A) That science is primarily about laboratory
want to find out. For instance, what factors
experiments conducted by professionals.
affect how a puri puffs up?
(B) That science is a collection of unchanging
2. Identify Variables.
facts that are memorized from textbooks.
(i) Things You Can Change (Control
Variables):The thickness of the dough, (C) That science is always evolving and new
the type of flour, or the temperature of questions arise from existing answers.
the oil. (D) That science begins with simple wonder and
(ii) Things You Can Observe (Dependent curiosity about everyday phenomena.
Variables):Whether the puri puffs up,

Ans
how long it takes, or the thickness of the
final product. (C) That science is always evolving and new
questions arise from existing answers.
3. Control the Experiment. To get clear results,
The Grade 7 curriculum highlighted the dynamic
change only one thing at a time. For example,
nature of science, showing that scientific knowledge
to test oil temperature, use dough pieces of the
is not static. It emphasized that every discovery
exact same thickness and size for each test.
or answer leads to new questions, illustrating that
4. Record Everything. Keep notes of all your
science is a continuous process of exploration and
observations what you see, smell and hear.
refinement of ideas.
5. Ask New Questions. Your results will likely
lead to more questions for future experiments,
like “Does dough that has been stored work
differently?”
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

3. What is the primary goal of the investigative aspects. One must be grounded in careful, real-
approach to science introduced in Grade 8? world observations (like the root), while also
(A) To learn complex mathematical formulas allowing for the freedom of creative thinking and
used in science to solve theoretical problems. new ideas to explore possibilities (like the kite).
(B) To learn how to find new facts through
observation and experimentation. 6. The chapter explains t hat investigation in science
(C) To memorize as many scientific facts as means asking more ______ questions and
possible from various scientific disciplines. designing ways to do simple ______ to answer
(D) To focus only on the historical aspects them.
of scientific discoveries made by famous (A) difficult, calculations
individuals. (B) general, readings
(C) historical, drawings


Ans (D) focused, experiments
(B) To learn how to find new facts through

Ans
observation and experimentation.
The Grade 8 approach shifts the focus from (D) focused, experiments
simply learning existing facts to understanding Moving beyond simple “Why?” questions, the
the process of scientific discovery itself. The goal is investigative approach involves formulating more
to equip students with the skills to ask questions, specific or focused questions. The next step in this
design simple experiments, and use observations process is to devise simple, practical experiments
to build their own understanding. that can help in finding the answers to these
well-defined questions, thereby building a deeper
4. The root symbol on the left-hand pages is to a understanding.
solid foundation of knowledge as the kite symbol
is to ________. 7. In the overview of the year’s topics, what example
(A) curiosity taking flight to explore the unknown of invisible helpers is mentioned?
(B) historical facts that form the basis of our (A) The force of gravity that holds us to the
current knowledge Earth.
(C) environmental connections between organisms (B) Microbes that help digest food inside our
and their habitats bodies.
(D) laboratory safety rules that must be followed (C) The particles in the air that allow us to
during all experiments breathe.
(D) Microbes that cause infections when we are


Ans sick.
(A) curiosity taking flight to explore the unknown

Ans
The chapter presents two key symbols. The root
represents being grounded in knowledge and (B) Microbes that help digest food inside our
heritage, providing a stable base. The kite, soaring bodies.
in the sky, is used as a metaphor for letting one’s The chapter introduces the topic of microbes
curiosity and ideas fly freely to explore new and by highlighting their dual nature. While some
unknown scientific territories. microbes can be harmful and cause infections,
others are described as “invisible helpers.” A
5. What two elements does the chapter suggest need specific example given for these helpers is the
to be balanced for scientific investigation to work microbes that aid in the digestion of our food.
best?
(A) Careful observation and creative thinking 8. According to the chapter’s preview, what causes
(B) Working alone and working in groups gentle breezes or strong cyclones?
(C) Reading textbooks and watching videos (A) Differences in air pressure
(D) Memorization and practical application (B) The phases of the Moon
(C) The temperature of the ocean


Ans (D) The rotation of the Earth
(A) Careful observation and creative thinking

Ans
The chapter emphasizes that a successful scientific
investigation requires a balance between two key (A) Differences in air pressure
page 8 Class 8th Science Foundation

The text explains that the movement of air, which (C) The material of the rolling pin
we experience as wind, is governed by the concept (D) The price of the cooking oil
of pressure. A small difference in air pressure


Ans
between two areas can result in a gentle breeze,
while a much larger pressure difference can lead (A) The time it takes for the puri to puff up
to powerful weather events like strong winds and An observation or measurement is the outcome
cyclones. or result that is recorded during an experiment.
Measuring the time in seconds for a puri to puff up
9. Why does the chapter use the everyday example is a quantifiable observation that can be compared
of making a puri to explain the scientific process? across different experimental conditions, such as
(A) To provide a detailed recipe for making different oil temperatures or dough thicknesses.
perfect puris every time.
(B) To suggest that cooking is a more important 12. Which statement best describes the principle of a
skill than laboratory science. controlled experiment as explained in the chapter?
(C) To show that scientific investigation can be (A) Change only one thing at a time while keeping
applied to everyday phenomena, not just in a other conditions the same.
lab. (B) Use the most expensive equipment available
(D) To prove that all scientific questions related for the best results.
to cooking have already been answered. (C) Repeat the experiment until you get the
answer you want to see.


Ans (D) Change as many things as possible at once to
(C) To show that scientific investigation can be see what happens.
applied to everyday phenomena, not just in a lab.


Ans
The puri example is used to demystify the scientific
process. It illustrates that you don’t need a formal (A) Change only one thing at a time while keeping
laboratory to think like a scientist. Curiosity, other conditions the same.
observation, and simple experimentation can A controlled experiment is designed to isolate the
be applied to understand common, everyday effect of a single variable. To do this, it is crucial
occurrences, making science accessible and to change only one factor at a time. All other
relatable. conditions must be kept constant to ensure that
any observed changes are due to the one variable
10. In the puri-making experiment, what would be being tested.
an example of a variable a student can change or
control? 13. The chapter states that even a simple observation
(A) The number of people watching the of a puri swelling is not completely understood by
experiment. scientists. What does this imply about science?
(B) The color of the frying pan being used. (A) Scientists are not interested in everyday
(C) The time of day the experiment is conducted. subjects like cooking.
(D) The thickness of the rolled dough. (B) There are always more questions to
investigate, even in simple phenomena.


Ans (C) Science is not useful for solving everyday
(D) The thickness of the rolled dough. problems or answering simple questions.
A controllable variable is a factor that the (D) Science has already answered all of the most
investigator deliberately changes to see what effect important questions in the world.
it has. In the context of the puri experiment, the


Ans
thickness of the dough is a variable that can be
systematically altered to observe its impact on (B) There are always more questions to investigate,
how the puri puffs up. even in simple phenomena.
This statement highlights the depth and
11. When investigating why a puri puffs up, what is complexity of the natural world. It illustrates
an example of something a student could observe that science is a continuous journey of discovery,
or measure? and even seemingly simple, everyday events can
(A) The time it takes for the puri to puff up hold mysteries. It encourages the idea that there
(B) The brand of the flour used is always something new to learn and investigate.
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

14. What two examples of the heating and magnetic 17. What is the logical first step in conducting a
effects of electric current are mentioned in the scientific investigation, based on the puri example?
chapter’s preview? (A) Ask a scientific question about what might
(A) Lighting a bulb and charging a phone affect the outcome.
(B) Cooking food and creating a compass (B) Record the results of the experiment in a neat
(C) Keeping us warm and making motors run table.
(D) Powering a computer and running a fan (C) Immediately start mixing ingredients to make
the dough.


Ans
(D) Decide on the final conclusion before starting
(C) Keeping us warm and making motors run the experiment.
The preview of upcoming topics mentions the
practical applications of electric current. It

Ans
specifically points out the heating effect’s role (A) Ask a scientific question about what might
in keeping us warm (like in a heater) and the affect the outcome.
magnetic effect’s importance in making motors The process of scientific investigation, as outlined,
run and machines function. begins with curiosity leading to a question. Before
experimenting, one must first ask a clear, focused
15. Which of the following is NOT listed as a major question, such as, “What different things may
topic to be explored in the Grade 8 curriculum change the way a puri puffs up when fried?” This
overview? question then guides the entire investigation.
(A) The History of Ancient Civilizations
(B) Light, Mirrors, and Lenses 18. In the context of the Grade 8 curriculum, what
(C) Forces and Pressure does “investigation” primarily mean?
(D) Ecosystems and Climate Challenges (A) A process of asking focused questions and
conducting simple experiments to find answers


Ans
(B) Reading about past scientific achievements
(A) The History of Ancient Civilizations and discoveries
The chapter provides a comprehensive overview of (C) Memorizing the entire periodic table of
the science topics for the year, including microbes, elements
health, electricity, forces, pressure, matter, light, (D) Learning to use a microscope without any
the moon, and ecosystems. The history of ancient specific goal or question
civilizations is a social studies topic, not a science
topic listed in this overview.

Ans
(A) A process of asking focused questions and
16. Which of the following statements incorrectly conducting simple experiments to find answers
describes the concept of scientific investigation as The chapter defines investigation as a hands-on
presented in Chapter 1? process. It’s not just about learning facts but
(A) It requires a fancy, expensive laboratory to be about actively seeking them out. This involves
performed correctly. moving from general wonder to asking specific
(B) It starts with curiosity and asking focused questions, designing experiments to test them, and
questions. then using observations to build understanding.
(C) It involves designing simple experiments to
find answers. 19. The chapter mentions that calendars are linked
(D) It is a process of careful observation and clear to the motions of objects far beyond our planet.
explanation. What does this illustrate?
(A) That the Moon’s phases are random and


Ans
entirely unpredictable.
(A) It requires a fancy, expensive laboratory to be (B) That astronomy has no practical use or
performed correctly. application on Earth.
The chapter explicitly states that science is everywhere (C) That calendars were only invented very
and uses the kitchen as an example of a place for recently with modern technology.
investigation. The main idea is that the scientific (D) That scientific concepts are often
process relies on curiosity and careful methods, not interconnected, linking distant phenomena to
on having access to a sophisticated laboratory. our daily lives.
page 10 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans 22. Why is keeping notes an important part of a

(D) That scientific concepts are often scientific experiment, according to the chapter?
interconnected, linking distant phenomena to our (A) To remember all observations and sensory
daily lives. details, which might be important.
This example shows the interconnected ness of (B) To have something to read at a later date for
science. The astronomical movements of the Sun entertainment.
and Moon, which occur far away in space, have (C) To prove to your teacher that you actually
a direct and practical application in our lives did the work assigned.
through the creation of calendars that organize (D) To practice and improve your handwriting
our time and routines on Earth. and drawing skills.

20. What crucial role does Earth’s atmosphere play

Ans

in making the planet suitable for life? (A) To remember all observations and sensory
(A) It provides oxygen and shields us from details, which might be important.
harmful rays. Scientific investigation relies on evidence
(B) It makes the planet spin faster on its axis. gathered through observation. Keeping detailed
(C) It attracts meteors to the surface to provide notes ensures that no piece of information is
rare minerals. lost, including sensory details like smells or
(D) It keeps all water on the planet frozen in a sounds. These details might later prove crucial
solid state. for explaining the results or thinking of new
questions.


Ans
(A) It provides oxygen and shields us from 23. How does the Grade 8 theme of “investigation”
harmful rays. build upon the Grade 6 theme of “wonder”?
The chapter’s preview of the final topic on Earth (A) It replaces the concept of wonder with a set of
mentions key factors for life. The atmosphere very strict rules.
is highlighted for two vital functions: providing (B) It is a completely separate and unrelated
the oxygen necessary for breathing and acting theme from the previous grade.
as a protective shield against the Sun’s harmful (C) It transforms the general wonder of “Why?”
ultraviolet radiation. into a systematic process of finding answers.
(D) It shows that having a sense of wonder is not
21. A student wants to see if the type of flour affects important for doing science.
how a puri puffs up. They use atta for one puri
and maida for another. What must they keep the

Ans
same for this to be a fair test? (C) It transforms the general wonder of “Why?”
(A) The thickness of the dough and the into a systematic process of finding answers.
temperature of the oil. The curriculum is designed as a progression. The
(B) The time of day the experiment is done and initial “wonder” from Grade 6, characterized by
the brand of salt used. broad “Why?” questions, is the starting point. In
(C) The color of the plate the puri is served on Grade 8, this wonder is channeled into a more
and the shape of the rolling pin. structured, investigative process involving focused
(D) The number of puris made from each flour questions, experiments, and observations to
and the location of the kitchen. actively seek answers.


Ans 24. What human activities are mentioned as causing
(A) The thickness of the dough and the changes to the Earth’s climate?
temperature of the oil. (A) Activities that cause small changes in the
To test the effect of the flour, all other significant temperature of the Earth
variables must be kept constant. The thickness (B) Reading a large number of books and playing
of the dough and the oil temperature are critical a variety of sports
factors that directly influence how a puri cooks. (C) Farming a wide range of crops and building
Keeping them the same ensures that any difference different types of houses
observed is actually due to the type of flour. (D) Observing the various phases of the moon
throughout the year
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

Ans 27. A student observes that a ball rolls further on a

(A) Activities that cause small changes in the tiled floor than on a carpet. To investigate this
temperature of the Earth scientifically, what should be their next step?
The chapter’s final section preview points to (A) Ask a focused question, such as “How does
the impact of human activities on our planet. It the surface texture affect the distance a ball
specifically states that these activities can lead to rolls?”
slight temperature changes, which in turn disrupt (B) Try rolling the ball on various other surfaces
climate patterns and pose significant challenges like grass and sand immediately.
to the planet’s health. (C) Conclude that tiled floors are inherently
better surfaces than carpets for all purposes.
25. The chapter suggests we stay grounded in real (D) Measure the precise size of the ball and the
______ while allowing our ideas to soar area of the carpet.
towards new ______.
(A) textbooks, chapters

Ans
(B) traditions, festivals (A) Ask a focused question, such as “How does the
(C) classrooms, grades surface texture affect the distance a ball rolls?”
The scientific process begins by turning a general
(D) observations, horizons
observation into a specific, testable question. This


Ans focused question will then guide the design of an
experiment, such as rolling the same ball with the
(D) observations, horizons
same initial push on different surfaces to measure
This phrase encapsulates the core philosophy
the distance it travels.
presented in the chapter, using the symbolism of
the root and the kite. Scientific progress requires 28. What is the significance of the “Probe and
being firmly based in real, factual observations ponder” questions at the start of each chapter?
(grounded) while simultaneously being open (A) They are riddles that have no real scientific
to new, creative ideas and possibilities (soaring answer.
towards new horizons). (B) They are meant to spark curiosity and
encourage exploration.
26. What is a ‘systematic investigation’ as described
(C) They are practice questions that will appear
in the chapter?
on the final exam.
(A) A process involving asking questions,
(D) They are mandatory homework assignments
experimenting by changing one variable at a
that must be answered.
time, and recording observations.
(B) A random collection of interesting facts from

Ans
different scientific fields. (B) They are meant to spark curiosity and
(C) Reading a science textbook from the first encourage exploration.
page to the last page. The introduction explicitly states that these
(D) A method used only by professional scientists questions are “not meant for any exam” but
in advanced laboratories with expensive are “invitations to spark your curiosity.” Their
equipment. purpose is to get students thinking and wondering
about the topics before they even start reading,


Ans setting a tone of inquiry and exploration.
(A) A process involving asking questions,
29. Which of these is NOT an example of a question
experimenting by changing one variable at a time,
from the “Probe and ponder” section of Chapter
and recording observations.
1?
Systematic investigation is presented as the
(A) Why has nature created such a vast variety of
formal process of doing science. It’s not random;
life?
it follows a logical sequence starting with a
(B) Why is one side of a puri thinner than the
question, designing a controlled experiment,
other?
making careful observations, keeping notes, and
(C) Are there more grains of sand on Earth or
drawing conclusions, which often lead to more
stars in our galaxy?
questions.
(D) What is the chemical formula for water?
page 12 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans 32. After one round of experiments, you may think

(D) What is the chemical formula for water? of more questions like “What happens if I prick
The “Probe and ponder” questions are designed a hole in the puri ?”. What does this illustrate
to be open-ended and intriguing to spark curiosity. about the scientific process?
Questions about the puri, sand vs. stars, and (A) That the first experiment you conduct is
biodiversity are listed. A question asking for a always the most important one.
specific, known fact like the chemical formula for (B) That science is a circular and ongoing process,
water does not fit this exploratory purpose. not a linear one.
(C) That you should only ask one single question
30. Which statement accurately reflects the book’s per scientific topic.
message about the relationship between humans (D) That experiments often fail to produce any
and Earth’s climate? meaningful results.
(A) Humans are both the cause of climate
problems and the key to finding solutions

Ans
through science. (B) That science is a circular and ongoing process,
(B) Humans have absolutely no impact on the not a linear one.
Earth’s climate patterns. This illustrates that science is not a simple
(C) Earth’s climate changes are natural and path from question to answer. The results and
cannot be understood by science. observations from one experiment often spark
(D) Only professional scientists and governments new questions and ideas for further investigation.
can take action to protect the planet. This shows that the process is cyclical, with each
discovery leading to new avenues of exploration.


Ans
(A) Humans are both the cause of climate 33. What topic is introduced as the bridge between
problems and the key to finding solutions through understanding forces and understanding weather
science. events like cyclones?
The chapter concludes its overview by highlighting (A) Pressure
the dual role of humanity. It states that human (B) Light
activities are influencing the climate, but also (C) Microbes
emphasizes that we “can—and must—use science (D) Electricity
to understand these changes and guide our

Ans
actions,” positioning us as central to both the
problem and the solution. (A) Pressure
The chapter’s overview creates a logical flow
31. Asking “Why does dough rise?” is to everyday between topics. It explains that understanding
life as asking “Is the world getting warmer?” is to forces leads to the idea of pressure. The concept
________. of pressure, specifically differences in air pressure,
(A) a simple experiment that can be done at is then presented as the key to understanding how
home winds, storms, and cyclones are formed.
(B) a question that has no possible answer
(C) a problem that has already been solved 34. Which of the following is NOT described as a way
(D) the bigger mysteries of Earth science will be approached in Grade 8?
(A) Accepting scientific facts without questioning


Ans them.
(D) the bigger mysteries of Earth (B) Using questions as starting points for
The chapter provides a range of puzzles that investigation.
science can investigate. The rising of dough is (C) Learning to observe carefully and experiment
presented as an example from everyday life. In thoughtfully.
contrast, the question of a warming world is given (D) Explaining clearly what is observed during an
as an example of the larger, planet-wide mysteries experiment.
that scientific investigation also addresses.

Ans
(A) Accepting scientific facts without questioning
them.
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

The entire premise of the chapter is to move away (D) Science is about understanding both nature
from rote learning and passive acceptance of facts. on the ground and technology in the sky.
The core message is to actively engage in science


Ans
by questioning, investigating, observing, and
experimenting, which is the opposite of accepting (B) Scientific progress requires both a foundation
information without inquiry. in facts and the freedom to be creative.
The chapter explains this symbolism directly. The
35. What are “ecosystems”? root signifies being grounded in solid knowledge
(A) The different phases of the Moon as seen from and observation, while the kite represents the
Earth. soaring curiosity and creative thinking needed
(B) A collection of different types of mirrors and to explore new ideas. Together, they represent
lenses. the balanced approach essential for scientific
(C) A collection of different calendars from investigation.
around the world.
(D) Complex patterns of relationships between 38. A student reads that plants need sunlight to
living organisms and their environments. grow. To investigate this, they place one plant
in a sunny window and another in a dark closet.


Ans What else must they do to make it a fair test?
(D) Complex patterns of relationships between (A) Use two different types of plants to see which
living organisms and their environments. one is stronger in the dark.
The overview introduces ecosystems as a topic of (B) Place the plants in rooms that have very
study. It defines them by describing the intricate different average temperatures.
connections and dependencies between all living (C) Give the plant in the closet more water to
beings (from insects to trees) and their non-living make up for the lack of sun.
surroundings, such as air, water, and sunlight, (D) Give both plants the same amount of water
which together support life. and use the same type of soil.

36. To investigate the effect of oil temperature on

Ans

a puri, you would use dough circles of the same (D) Give both plants the same amount of water
______ and drop them in the ______ way. and use the same type of soil.
(A) flavor, slowest Following the principles of a controlled experiment,
(B) color, fastest the only variable that should be changed is the
(C) brand, opposite amount of sunlight. All other conditions, such as
(D) thickness, same the amount of water, type and amount of soil, and


Ans plant type, must be kept identical for both plants.

(D) thickness, same 39. According to the chapter, classifying things

This question tests the understanding of a is an important feature of science. What three
controlled experiment. To isolate the effect of classifications of materials are mentioned?
oil temperature, all other variables must be kept (A) Elements, compounds, and mixtures
constant. Therefore, the dough’s thickness must (B) Solids, liquids, and gases
be uniform, and the method of dropping it into (C) Metals, non-metals, and metalloids
the oil must be consistent for each trial. (D) Plants, animals, and microbes

37. The book’s design includes a root on the left pages

Ans
and a kite on the right. What is the intended (A) Elements, compounds, and mixtures
message of this dual symbolism? In the preview of upcoming chapters, the text
(A) You should study both biology, the science mentions that after understanding the particulate
of living things, and physics, the science of nature of matter, students will learn to classify
motion. materials. The specific classifications listed are
(B) Scientific progress requires both a foundation elements (pure substances), compounds (bonded
in facts and the freedom to be creative. elements), and mixtures (physically combined
(C) The book is divided into two sections of substances).
study: an easy section and a hard section.
page 14 Class 8th Science Foundation

40. Which statement best summarizes the main idea (A) Flat and curved mirrors
of Chapter 1? In the section previewing the chapter on light, the
(A) The main goal of science is to prove that old text specifically mentions that students will study
theories are wrong. how light rays reflect off both flat and curved
(B) All important scientific discoveries have mirrors. This distinction is key to understanding
already been made and are in this book. different types of reflections and images.
(C) Science is an exciting investigative journey
that starts with curiosity and can be explored 43. What is the scientific meaning of a ‘pure substance’
in everyday life. as hinted at in the chapter’s preview?
(D) Grade 8 science is primarily about memorizing (A) A substance that has been cleaned thoroughly
difficult concepts from physics and chemistry. with soap and water.
(B) Any product that is sold in a store with the


Ans label ‘pure’ on it.
(C) Science is an exciting investigative journey (C) A substance that consists of only one type of
that starts with curiosity and can be explored in particle.
everyday life. (D) A mixture where the components are all
The chapter introduces Grade 8 science not as evenly distributed.
a collection of facts to be learned, but as an

Ans
active, investigative process. It emphasizes that
(C) A substance that consists of only one type of
this journey begins with simple curiosity and that
particle.
scientific thinking can be applied anywhere, even
The chapter on classifying materials will
in the kitchen, making it accessible to everyone.
distinguish between everyday and scientific
41. The chapter mentions that we will explore topics meanings. Scientifically, a pure substance is one
from “tiny microbes we can’t see to planet-wide that is not a mixture; it is composed of only a
challenges we can’t ignore.” What does this range single type of element or compound, meaning all
of topics illustrate about science? its constituent particles are identical.
(A) Science is too broad a subject to be understood
44. Which of the following is NOT an effect of forces
by Grade 8 students.
mentioned in the chapter’s preview?
(B) Microbiology and climate science are the only
(A) Making objects speed up or slow down
two important fields of study.
(B) Making a car stop when brakes are applied
(C) The principles of scientific investigation can
(C) Changing the direction of an object’s motion
be applied across a vast scale of subjects.
(D) Changing the color of an object
(D) Science is only concerned with things that are
very small or very large.

Ans


Ans (D) Changing the color of an object
The preview of the chapter on forces lists several
(C) The principles of scientific investigation can
effects: changing an object’s speed (speeding
be applied across a vast scale of subjects.
up, slowing down, stopping) and changing its
By presenting a wide range of topics from
direction. Changing an object’s color is a chemical
microscopic to global scales, the chapter
or physical property change not typically caused
demonstrates the versatility and power of
by the application of mechanical force.
the scientific method. It shows that the same
investigative approach can be used to understand 45. The chapter encourages students to be
different phenomena, regardless of their size or “investigators, young scientists.” What is the
complexity. main purpose of this encouragement?
(A) To suggest that students should not trust the
42. What are the two types of mirrors mentioned in
information given by their teachers.
the preview of the chapter on light?
(B) To make the subject of science seem more
(A) Flat and curved mirrors
difficult and serious than it is.
(B) Large and small mirrors
(C) To prepare all students for a professional
(C) Clean and dirty mirrors
career in a scientific field.
(D) Old and new mirrors
(D) To foster an active, inquisitive mindset rather


Ans than passive learning.
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

Ans (C) The chapter does not state the cause, but
(D) To foster an active, inquisitive mindset rather encourages investigation into it
than passive learning. (D) The skill and experience of the cook
By framing students as “young scientists,”

Ans
the book aims to shift their role from passive
recipients of information to active participants in (C) The chapter does not state the cause, but
the learning process. It encourages them to adopt encourages investigation into it
a mindset of curiosity, inquiry, and investigation, The chapter uses the puri puffing up as a
which is at the heart of scientific thinking. central example for how to investigate, not
what the answer is. It poses questions about the
46. Careful observations of sunrises, sunsets, and phenomenon and outlines experimental steps,
______ cycles led to the creation of the first but deliberately leaves the scientific explanation
______. open to encourage the students to investigate
(A) lunar, calendars themselves.
(B) water, maps
(C) weather, clocks 49. What two symbols are found on the pages of
(D) sleep, beds the textbook to represent the philosophy of the
curriculum?


Ans (A) A book and a pencil
(A) lunar, calendars (B) A microscope and a telescope
The chapter explains that early timekeeping (C) A root and a kite
was closely linked to astronomy. By carefully (D) The sun and the moon
observing the regular, predictable patterns of the

Ans
sun’s daily motion (sunrises and sunsets) and the
Moon’s monthly phases (lunar cycles), ancient (C) A root and a kite
people were able to develop the first calendars. The chapter explicitly describes the design of the
book, pointing out the specific symbols used. A
47. If you find that a particular brand of soap makes root is found on the bottom of left-hand pages,
more lather than another, how would you begin a and a kite is found on the top corner of right-hand
scientific investigation to confirm this? pages, symbolizing the balance between grounded
(A) Use both of the soaps at the same time in the knowledge and soaring curiosity.
same bucket of water.
(B) Conclude that the first brand of soap is 50. The introduction states, “each answer opens
superior in quality. new questions.” What does this reveal about the
(C) Ask a focused question like, “Does Brand X nature of science?
produce more lather than Brand Y under the (A) Scientific knowledge is a never-ending journey
same conditions?” of discovery.
(D) Ask your friends and family which soap brand (B) Science is confusing and never provides any
they like better. clear answers.
(C) Only the first question in any field of study is


Ans important.
(C) Ask a focused question like, “Does Brand (D) All scientific research is a waste of time and
X produce more lather than Brand Y under the resources.
same conditions?”

Ans
The first step in a scientific investigation is to
formulate a clear, testable question. This question (A) Scientific knowledge is a never-ending journey
sets the stage for designing a fair test where you of discovery.
would use the same amount of water, same water This phrase captures the essence of scientific
temperature, and the same washing action for progress. It implies that knowledge is not a
both soaps to compare the lather produced. final destination but a continuous process. Each
discovery, while providing an answer, also reveals
48. What is the direct cause of a puri puffing up? new complexities and areas of ignorance, prompting
(A) The type of flour used in the dough further questions and deeper exploration.
(B) The temperature of the oil it is fried in
page 16 Class 8th Science Foundation

51. Which statement accurately describes the role of 54. The book’s introduction hopes that students
experimentation as presented in the chapter? will not just be ______ but also ______,
(A) Experiments are a way to test focused exploring real-world puzzles.
questions and gather observations. (A) readers, writers
(B) Experiments are only done to prove what is (B) students, teachers
already known to be true. (C) listeners, speakers
(C) The results of a scientific experiment are (D) learners, investigators
always predictable.


Ans
(D) Experiments must always be complex and
involve dangerous chemicals. (D) learners, investigators
The text explicitly states its goal for students:


Ans “each of you won’t just be learners but also
(A) Experiments are a way to test focused investigators, young scientists, exploring real-
questions and gather observations. world puzzles.” This highlights the shift from a
The chapter positions experimentation as a passive role (learner) to an active one (investigator)
central tool in the investigative process. It’s not in the scientific process.
for proving foregone conclusions, but for actively
exploring a question. By designing and conducting 55. Why would a scientist investigating puris want to
experiments, one can collect observational data use the same type of flour when testing the effect
that helps to answer the initial question. of oil temperature?
(A) To ensure the experiment is a fair test of the
52. A motor is to the magnetic effect of current as a temperature variable.
room heater is to the ________. (B) To make all the puris taste better.
(A) heating effect of current (C) Because that specific type of flour is the
(B) force of gravity cheapest one to buy.
(C) chemical effect of current (D) Because different types of flour are hard to
(D) physical effect of current find in stores.


Ans

Ans
(A) heating effect of current (A) To ensure the experiment is a fair test of the
The chapter preview uses these specific examples temperature variable.
to illustrate two effects of electric current. It This is a direct application of the principle of a
connects the magnetic effect to the functioning of controlled experiment. To determine the specific
motors and explicitly connects the heating effect effect of oil temperature, all other factors that
to applications like keeping us warm, as a room could influence the outcome, such as the type of
heater does. flour, must be kept constant. This isolates the
variable being tested.
53. What example is given to show how corrective
glasses work? 56. Which of the following is NOT a question a
(A) The formation of a rainbow after it rains. scientist might ask while investigating a puri,
(B) The reflection of light in a shiny spoon. according to the chapter?
(C) The phases of the Moon seen at night. (A) What happens if I prick a hole in the puri
(D) The bending of light as it passes through before frying?
lenses. (B) What is the most popular brand of puri in the
world?


Ans
(C) Do puris puff better when made from fresh or
(D) The bending of light as it passes through stored dough?
lenses. (D) What are the different things that may change
The chapter explains that the study of light will the way a puri puffs up?
include lenses. It directly connects the phenomenon
of light bending when it passes through lenses to

Ans
the practical application of corrective glasses, (B) What is the most popular brand of puri in
which use this principle to help people see clearly. the world?
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

The questions a scientist would ask are related to 59. Besides microbes, health, and forces, what is
the physical phenomena of how and why the puri another major area of study mentioned in the
puffs. Questions about dough freshness, holes, Grade 8 preview?
and variables are scientific. A question about (A) The particulate nature of matter
brand popularity is a market research question, (B) Ancient languages and their origins
not a scientific one about the process itself. (C) World geography and capital cities
(D) Music theory and composition
57. What is the “investigative world of science” that
is the theme for Grade 8?

Ans
(A) The historical period when most major (A) The particulate nature of matter
scientific discoveries were made. The overview of the textbook’s content clearly lists
(B) An approach to learning that emphasizes the topics to be covered. After discussing forces
asking questions, experimenting, and and pressure, it states, “To truly understand how
discovering facts. air can exert pressure... we need to zoom into
(C) A new theme park that is based on scientific these materials and see what kind of particles
principles. they are made up of,” introducing the particulate
(D) A TV show that focuses on solving scientific nature of matter.
mysteries.
60. A student drops a paper airplane and a crumpled


Ans ball of paper of the same mass. The ball falls faster.
(B) An approach to learning that emphasizes What scientific question could this observation
asking questions, experimenting, and discovering lead to?
facts. (A) Why is paper typically made from wood
The chapter introduces this phrase as the central pulp?
theme for the year. It’s not a place or a show, (B) How does the shape of an object affect its fall
but a mindset and a method for learning science. through the air?
This approach involves actively investigating (C) Which of the two paper objects is heavier?
phenomena rather than just reading about them, (D) What is the chemical composition of paper?
making the student a participant in the discovery


Ans
process.
(B) How does the shape of an object affect its fall
58. Arrange the following steps of a scientific through the air?
investigation (based on the puri example) in the This applies the investigative method. The
correct order: observation is that shape seems to matter. The
(1) Observe the outcome, logical next step is to form a focused question
(2) Ask a focused question, about the relationship between an object’s shape
(3) Change one variable while keeping others and how it is affected by air resistance as it falls,
constant, which would then lead to further experiments.
(4) Note down all observations.
(A) 2, 3, 1, 4 61. If a student observes that a puri puffs up perfectly
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4 every time, regardless of the dough thickness or
(C) 3, 2, 4, 1 oil temperature they use, what could this suggest?
(D) 2, 1, 3, 4 (A) The experiment is flawed because a variable
is not being properly changed or observed.


Ans (B) The student is a very skilled cook who can
(A) 2, 3, 1, 4 make perfect puris.
The scientific process described starts with (C) Puris are magical objects that defy the normal
asking a focused question (2). This is followed by laws of physics.
designing and performing a controlled experiment (D) The scientific method does not apply to
where one variable is changed (3). During and everyday activities like cooking.
after the experiment, you observe the outcome (1)


Ans
and meticulously record everything you see and
sense (4). (A) The experiment is flawed because a variable
is not being properly changed or observed.
page 18 Class 8th Science Foundation

Science involves looking for cause-and-effect 64. What is the key difference between asking “Why
relationships. If changing variables has no effect does a puri puff up?” and asking “What is the
on the outcome, it suggests either that those effect of oil temperature on how much a puri puffs
variables are not the cause, or that the experiment up?”
is not being conducted correctly. The lack of (A) The first is a scientific question, while the
variation in the result points to a potential issue second is not.
in the experimental setup or observation. (B) There is no real difference; they are the same
type of question.
62. What is the relationship between “facts” and (C) The first is a general wonder, while the second
“investigation” in the scientific process described? is a focused, testable question.
(A) You must learn all the existing facts before (D) The second question is too simple to be
you are allowed to investigate. investigated in a classroom.
(B) Knowing facts makes the process of
investigation completely unnecessary.

Ans
(C) Investigation is the process used to discover (C) The first is a general wonder, while the second
new facts. is a focused, testable question.
(D) Facts and the process of investigation are The chapter teaches the progression from general
completely unrelated. curiosity to scientific inquiry. “Why does it puff


Ans up?” is a great starting point of wonder. The second
question is more focused and scientific because it
(C) Investigation is the process used to discover isolates a specific variable (oil temperature) and a
new facts. measurable outcome (how much it puffs), making
The chapter’s main theme is that science is not it suitable for a controlled experiment.
just a static body of facts. Instead, it is an active
process. Investigation, which involves questioning 65. What are two of the “invisible” or “fundamental”
and experimenting, is the very method through concepts the Grade 8 curriculum will explore?
which new scientific facts and understandings are (A) The feelings of plants and animals
discovered and established. (B) Historical events and ancient maps
(C) Artistic techniques and musical notes
63. The chapter preview mentions that human (D) Forces and the particulate nature of matter
activities can cause small changes in Earth’s
temperature. What is the potential effect of this

Ans
cause? (D) Forces and the particulate nature of matter
(A) The phases of the Moon will begin to change The overview describes moving from visible
more rapidly. phenomena to the underlying principles. It
(B) The Earth will start to move closer to the introduces the study of fundamental forces that
Sun. cause motion and the idea that all matter is made
(C) Disruption of climate patterns with dangerous of tiny, invisible particles, both of which are core
consequences. concepts in physics and chemistry.
(D) An increase in the number of chemical
elements found on Earth. 66. Based on the introduction, which statement best
describes the textbook’s approach?


Ans (A) It presents science as a series of facts to be
(C) Disruption of climate patterns with dangerous memorized for exams.
consequences. (B) It aims to make science an interactive and
The text establishes a clear cause-and-effect investigative process grounded in curiosity.
chain. The cause is the temperature change due (C) It suggests that all scientific questions have
to human activities. The direct effect mentioned simple, single-word answers.
is the disruption of established climate patterns, (D) It focuses solely on theoretical science with no
which in turn leads to dangerous consequences for connection to the real world.
the planet and its inhabitants.


Ans
(B) It aims to make science an interactive and
investigative process grounded in curiosity.
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

The entire chapter is dedicated to explaining These words are used to describe the key skills of
this approach. It repeatedly emphasizes the investigative process. Science requires not just
curiosity, wonder, asking questions, investigating, looking, but observing carefully. It requires not
experimenting, and connecting science to everyday just doing things, but experimenting thoughtfully
life, clearly rejecting rote memorization in favor of with a clear purpose and plan. These skills are
an active, inquiry-based method. central to the scientific method.

67. A student wants to find out if salt dissolves faster 70. What does the presence of “hidden scientific
in hot water than in cold water. To follow the thoughts” in the page’s bottom line patterns
scientific method, what should they measure? suggest about the book’s philosophy?
(A) The final color of the water in each container. (A) That the main text of the chapter is not
(B) The time it takes for a fixed amount of salt to important.
dissolve completely. (B) That students must be able to decipher these
(C) The total volume of the water before adding patterns for their exams.
salt. (C) That science can be found in unexpected and
(D) The brand of the salt being used in the playful ways.
experiment. (D) That science is a secret code only a few can
understand.


Ans
(B) The time it takes for a fixed amount of salt to

Ans
dissolve completely. (C) That science can be found in unexpected and
To answer the question about the speed of playful ways.
dissolving, the key variable to measure is time. The text mentions these patterns and their hidden
By using the same amount of salt and water, and thoughts in a lighthearted way, saying they are
only changing the temperature, measuring the “mainly to make the page a little less boring.”
time to dissolve provides the data needed to draw This reinforces the overall theme that science is
a conclusion. not just a rigid, formal subject but can be fun,
creative, and discovered in surprising places.
68. A single drop of water is to a hidden world of
microbes as a ______ is to the movement of 71. In the Grade 8 curriculum overview, the study
particles in matter. of forces and pressure is shown to lead to an
(A) zoom-in perspective understanding of what natural phenomena?
(B) magnifying glass (A) Tides and seasons
(C) photograph (B) Earthquakes and volcanoes
(D) telescope (C) Photosynthesis and respiration
(D) Gentle breezes, strong winds, and cyclones


Ans
(A) zoom-in perspective

Ans
The chapter uses the idea of “zooming in” to (D) Gentle breezes, strong winds, and cyclones
understand concepts. Just as looking closely at The text explicitly links the concepts. It states
a drop of water reveals the microbial world, the that understanding force and pressure “decide
preview explains that to understand properties how air moves,” and then specifies that differences
like pressure, we need to “zoom into” materials in pressure can result in everything from a “gentle
to see the invisible particles and how they move. breeze” to “strong winds, and sometimes even
cyclones.”
69. The chapter aims to help students observe
______, experiment ______, and explain 72. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of the
clearly what they see. investigative approach promoted in Chapter 1?
(A) silently, correctly (A) Learning how to find new facts for oneself.
(B) occasionally, loudly (B) Following a rigid set of instructions without
(C) carefully, thoughtfully deviation.
(D) quickly, rarely (C) Designing simple experiments to test ideas.
(D) Using questions as starting points for


Ans
exploration.
(C) carefully, thoughtfully
page 20 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans identical ice cubes and environments, changing

(B) Following a rigid set of instructions without only the bowl material to test its effect.
deviation.
75. Why is it important to investigate “real-world
The investigative approach emphasizes creative
thinking and exploration. While it involves a puzzles” in science class?
systematic process, it’s about designing your (A) Because real-world puzzles do not require any
own ways to answer questions, not just rigidly special equipment to solve.
following a pre-written recipe. The spirit is one of (B) It is the only way to successfully pass the
inquiry and discovery, which allows for flexibility. final science exams.
(C) It shows that science is relevant and applicable
73. What is the relationship between the root and to everyday life.
the kite symbols and the process of scientific (D) Because they are always easier to understand
investigation? than abstract scientific concepts.
(A) The root represents the subject of biology

Ans
and the kite represents the subject of physics.
(B) They are simply decorative elements designed (C) It shows that science is relevant and applicable
to make the book look nice. to everyday life.
(C) They have no real relationship to the scientific Focusing on real-world puzzles, like a puffing puri
process. or a warming planet, connects scientific principles
(D) They represent the need to balance careful to students’ own experiences and concerns. This
observation (root) with creative thinking makes science more engaging and demonstrates
(kite). its practical importance beyond the classroom,
fostering a deeper appreciation for the subject.


Ans
76. Which statement accurately describes the book’s
(D) They represent the need to balance careful
observation (root) with creative thinking (kite). view on asking questions in science?
The chapter explains that these symbols are not (A) Questions should become more focused to
random. The root symbolizes staying grounded guide experiments and improve understanding.
in real observations and foundational knowledge. (B) Only simple “Why?” and “How?” questions
The kite symbolizes letting curiosity and creative are valuable in science.
ideas soar to explore new possibilities. The (C) All scientific questions have already been
balance of these two is presented as essential for answered in the textbook.
effective scientific investigation. (D) Students should not ask questions and just
listen to the teacher.
74. You notice that ice melts faster in a metal bowl

Ans
than in a plastic bowl. Using the principles
from Chapter 1, what is the best next step to (A) Questions should become more focused to
investigate this? guide experiments and improve understanding.
(A) Formulate a question: “Does the material of The book encourages a progression in
the container affect the melting rate of ice?” questioning. While simple wonder is the start, the
(B) Put both of the bowls in the freezer to see investigative approach requires students to learn
what happens to them. how to ask “more focused questions” that can be
(C) Assume that metal is always a better material systematically investigated through experiments,
for containers than plastic. leading to a more refined understanding.
(D) Use different sizes of ice cubes in each of the
77. A detective investigating a case is like a student
bowls.
investigating a scientific puzzle because both:


Ans (A) wear a special uniform while they are working.
(A) Formulate a question: “Does the material of (B) ask questions, gather evidence (observations),
the container affect the melting rate of ice?” and draw conclusions.
A good investigation starts with a clear, focused (C) know the answer to the case or puzzle before
question based on an observation. This question they start.
frames the problem and helps in designing a (D) must work only at night to find the correct
controlled experiment where you would use clues.
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

Ans (B) Type of flour

(B) ask questions, gather evidence (observations), (C) The way the puri tastes
and draw conclusions. (D) Temperature of the hot oil
The analogy holds because the core process

Ans
is similar. Both a detective and a scientific
investigator start with a question or a mystery, (C) The way the puri tastes
then systematically collect evidence (clues or The chapter lists several variables that can be
experimental data/observations), and finally deliberately changed (controlled) by the person
analyze that evidence to form a logical explanation doing the experiment, including dough properties
or conclusion. and oil temperature. Taste is an outcome or an
observation, a result of the process, not a variable
78. In the final chapter, the book will explore what that can be directly controlled beforehand.
makes Earth ‘just right’ for life and the urgent
______ that our planet now ______. 81. Which of these is NOT an example of a mixture
(A) resources, wastes mentioned in the chapter’s preview section?
(B) holidays, celebrates (A) Elements bonded together in a compound
(C) opportunities, offers (B) Sugar dissolved in tea
(D) challenges, faces (C) A sprout salad
(D) Poha


Ans


Ans
(D) challenges, faces
The preview of the final chapter sets a serious (A) Elements bonded together in a compound
tone. It will first cover the conditions that make The preview on matter classification defines
Earth habitable (“just right”). Then, it will shift mixtures as combinations that can be separated
to the significant environmental problems or physically. Sugar in tea, sprout salad, and
“urgent challenges” that the planet “now faces,” poha are all given as examples of mixtures. A
such as climate change, positioning science as a compound, by definition, involves elements that
key to addressing them. are chemically bonded and is a pure substance,
not a mixture.
79. The chapter mentions that science is “always
evolving.” What does this mean? 82. The text states that a scientist might ask why a
(A) That scientists frequently change their minds phulka swells on a flame. What does this imply
for no logical reason. about scientific questions?
(B) That our understanding of the world changes (A) They should always have an immediate
and improves as we gather new evidence. practical application.
(C) That science textbooks need to be rewritten (B) They are only asked inside of professional
completely every single year. laboratories.
(D) That all scientific facts that we learn are (C) They must be about very complex and
always wrong. difficult topics.
(D) They can arise from simple, common


Ans observations.
(B) That our understanding of the world changes

Ans
and improves as we gather new evidence.
An evolving science means that knowledge is not (D) They can arise from simple, common
absolute or final. As new tools are developed observations.
and more observations are made, our theories By using examples like a swelling phulka or a
and understanding are refined, corrected, and puffing puri, the chapter demonstrates that the
expanded. It is a process of getting progressively starting point for scientific inquiry isn’t necessarily
closer to a more accurate description of reality. something grand or complex. Profound scientific
questions can emerge from observing the most
80. In the puri experiment, which of the following is ordinary, everyday phenomena with a curious
NOT listed as something the experimenter can mind.
control?
(A) Thickness and size of the dough
page 22 Class 8th Science Foundation

83. A group of students is investigating the puri (A) They all involve very complex mathematics.
problem. One student uses very hot oil, another (B) They are all mentioned in ancient scientific
uses warm oil, and a third uses cool oil. To make texts.
their investigation systematic, what should they (C) They can all be investigated using the
all agree on? scientific method of questioning, observing,
(A) Getting the exact same result in each trial. and experimenting.
(B) Finishing the entire experiment at the same (D) They all require a powerful microscope to be
time. seen.
(C) Using dough of the same size and thickness.


Ans
(D) Using different types of frying pans.
(C) They can all be investigated using the


Ans scientific method of questioning, observing, and
(C) Using dough of the same size and thickness. experimenting.
To test the effect of temperature, it is the only The central theme of the chapter is the universality
variable that should change. All other conditions of the scientific process. This process—the
must be controlled, meaning they must be kept “investigative world of science”—is the common
the same for all three trials. Using identical dough approach that allows scientists to study and
ensures that any difference in puffing is due to the understand a vast range of phenomena, regardless
oil temperature, not the dough. of their scale or specific field.

84. What topic from Grade 7 is referenced as a point 87. Based on the chapter’s introduction, which
of continuation for the Grade 8 curriculum? statement about scientific experiments is FALSE?
(A) The different types of soil in various regions. (A) The results must always match the scientist’s
(B) The diversity of plants and animals in nature. initial prediction.
(C) How to properly use a compound microscope. (B) It is best to change only one condition at a
(D) The concept that science is always evolving. time.


Ans (C) They should be designed to answer a focused
question.
(D) The concept that science is always evolving.
(D) They can be performed with simple materials,
The chapter explicitly recaps the journey, stating,
even in a kitchen.
“In Grade 7, we learnt that science is always
evolving—that each answer opens new questions,

Ans
and how our ideas can slowly change as we explore
(A) The results must always match the scientist’s
deeper.” This sets the stage for the next step in
initial prediction.
Grade 8.
The goal of an experiment is to discover what
85. In solids, the tiny particles cannot move much, actually happens, not to confirm a preconceived
while in ______ they can move around notion. Unexpected results are a vital part of
______. science, often leading to new questions and deeper
(A) vacuums, instantly (B) plasmas, quickly understanding. The process is about discovery,
(C) gases, freely (D) liquids, slowly not just confirmation.

Ans 88. If a student performing the puri experiment

(C) gases, freely changes the dough thickness, the oil temperature,
The preview of the chapter on the particulate and the type of flour all at the same time, why
nature of matter contrasts the states of matter would their results be difficult to interpret?
based on particle movement. It specifies that (A) Because the experiment would be too simple
particles in solids are restricted, while in gases, to yield useful data.
they are able to move around freely, which (B) Because it is impossible to know which change
explains many of their properties. caused the observed effect.
(C) Because the puri would likely taste bad as a
86. The introduction suggests that science can help result of the changes.
us understand everything from microbes to (D) Because it would take too long to record all of
climate change. What is the common thread that the data.
connects the study of such different topics?
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

Ans 91. What role does the Moon’s reflection of light play
(B) Because it is impossible to know which change in what we see from Earth?
caused the observed effect. (A) It creates the different phases of the Moon.
This violates the principle of a controlled (B) It causes the seasons to change during the
experiment. With multiple variables changed year.
simultaneously, one cannot isolate the cause (C) It helps in predicting the occurrence of
of any particular outcome. If the puri puffs earthquakes.
differently, it’s impossible to tell if it was due to (D) It makes the Earth rotate on its axis.
the thickness, the temperature, the flour, or some

Ans
combination.
(A) It creates the different phases of the Moon.
89. What is the symbolic meaning of the “root” on The chapter’s overview mentions that the Moon
the textbook’s pages? reflects light from the Sun. It then explains that
(A) A reminder to stay grounded in real the “beautiful phases of the Moon that we see
observations and connected to our heritage. in the sky” are a result of the changing relative
(B) A guide to the chapter that focuses on plants positions of the Earth, Moon, and Sun, which
and biology. determines how much of the illuminated part we
(C) The importance of gardening and agriculture can see.
in science.
(D) A symbol for the complexity of scientific 92. How is the scientific approach in Grade 8 different
problems. from that in Grade 6 and 7?
(A) It moves from general wonder to a more


Ans structured, investigative process of
(A) A reminder to stay grounded in real experimentation.
observations and connected to our heritage. (B) It is less hands-on and more focused on
The text explicitly defines the symbolism: “you’ll theoretical concepts.
find the image of a root, symbolizing the deep, (C) It covers fewer topics but in much greater
solid foundation of knowledge that keeps us scientific detail.
connected to our environment, traditions, and our (D) It focuses on memorization of facts rather
cultural and natural heritage.” It also links it to than on understanding.
being “grounded in real observations.”

Ans
90. In the scientific investigation of the puri, what (A) It moves from general wonder to a
is the ‘cause’ and what is the ‘effect’ a student more structured, investigative process of
might test? experimentation.
(A) Cause: The taste of the puri; Effect: The size The chapter outlines a clear progression: Grade 6
of the puri. was about wonder (“Why?”), Grade 7 was about
(B) Cause: The student’s hunger; Effect: Making science evolving, and Grade 8 integrates these
the puri. into the “Investigative World of Science,” which
(C) Cause: The puri puffing up; Effect: The hot is a more systematic approach involving focused
oil. questions and simple experiments to find answers.
(D) Cause: The type of flour; Effect: How much
the puri puffs. 93. Which of the following is NOT a step in the
scientific investigation of a puri as described in


Ans the chapter?
(D) Cause: The type of flour; Effect: How much (A) Looking up the perfect puri recipe online and
the puri puffs. following it exactly.
In an experiment, the cause is the variable you (B) Measuring the time it takes for the puri to
change (the independent variable), and the effect puff up.
is the outcome you measure (the dependent (C) Keeping notes on what is observed during the
variable). A student could change the type of experiment.
flour (the cause) to see if it changes how much (D) Changing the thickness of the rolled dough to
the puri puffs (the effect). see what happens.


Ans
page 24 Class 8th Science Foundation

(A) Looking up the perfect puri recipe online and 96. The chapter explains that everything around us
following it exactly. is made of tiny ______ and that ______
The process described is about investigation and between living organisms and their environment
discovery, not about following a recipe. A recipe form ecosystems.
provides instructions to achieve a known outcome. (A) particles, relationships
A scientific investigation, in this context, involves (B) molecules, distances
changing variables to understand why and how a (C) atoms, barriers
certain outcome is achieved. (D) cells, interactions

94. The chapter suggests that science is not just a

Ans

body of knowledge but a way of thinking. What (A) particles, relationships
is the core of this “way of thinking”? The preview touches upon two core concepts.
(A) A process of inquiry based on curiosity, First, it mentions the particulate nature of matter,
observation, and experimentation. stating everything is made of “tiny particles.”
(B) The ability to perform complex mathematical Second, when discussing ecosystems, it highlights
calculations from memory. the “complex patterns of relationships” between
(C) Believing everything you read in a science organisms and their environment as the defining
textbook without question. feature.
(D) Memorizing the names and dates of famous
scientists and their discoveries. 97. What is the final topic mentioned in the Grade 8
curriculum overview?


Ans (A) Understanding what makes Earth suitable for
(A) A process of inquiry based on curiosity, life and the challenges it faces
observation, and experimentation. (B) The phases of the Moon and other celestial
The entire introductory chapter is dedicated to bodies
establishing this idea. It moves the focus away from (C) The particulate nature of matter in solids,
science as a static collection of facts and redefines liquids, and gases
it as an active, dynamic process of inquiry—a
(D) The heating and magnetic effects of electric
way of approaching the world with curiosity and
current
systematically seeking understanding.


Ans
95. If a student wants to see if the size of the dough
affects how a puri puffs, what is the best way to (A) Understanding what makes Earth suitable for
conduct the experiment? life and the challenges it faces
(A) Make one small and one large puri, keeping The chapter preview ends by discussing the final
the thickness, flour type, and oil temperature topic, which synthesizes many concepts. It focuses
the same for both. on why Earth is a habitable planet and then
(B) Make one small and one large puri using addresses the “urgent challenges that our planet
different types of flour for each one. now faces,” such as climate change, highlighting
(C) Make one small and one large puri, and fry the role of science in finding solutions.
them in oil at very different temperatures.
98. Why is it stated that “you don’t need a fancy
(D) Make two puris that are the same size but
laboratory” to do science?
have different thicknesses.
(A) To discourage students from pursuing a


Ans professional career in science.
(A) Make one small and one large puri, keeping (B) To emphasize that the scientific mindset of
the thickness, flour type, and oil temperature the curiosity and observation is more important
same for both. than the location.
This adheres to the principle of a controlled (C) Because all scientific experiments can be done
experiment. The variable being tested is the with simple household items.
size. Therefore, all other significant variables (D) Because professional laboratories are often
(thickness, flour, temperature) must be kept dangerous places for students.
constant to ensure that any observed difference in

Ans
puffing is directly due to the change in size.
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

(B) To emphasize that the scientific mindset of (A) The expected outcome and the final conclusion
curiosity and observation is more important than that will be written.
the location. (B) The historical context and the cultural
This statement aims to make science accessible. significance of the experiment.
It reinforces the central idea that science is a (C) The cost of the materials and the time
process of thinking and investigating, which can required to complete the task.
be applied anywhere. The kitchen is used as an (D) What can be changed/controlled and what
example to show that what truly matters is the can be observed/measured.
curious mind and systematic approach, not the


Ans
setting.
(D) What can be changed/controlled and what
99. Which of these is NOT a question posed in the can be observed/measured.
“Probe and ponder” section? The chapter outlines the initial steps of
(A) What is the process of photosynthesis? experimental design. A scientist must first
(B) Are there more grains of sand on all the determine the variables they can manipulate
beaches and deserts of the world, or more (control) and then decide on the specific outcomes
stars in our galaxy? they will look for (observe or measure) to see if
(C) Why is one side of a puri thinner than the the changes had any effect.
other?
(D) Why has nature created such a vast variety of 102. Why does the chapter describe the kitchen as a
insects? “wonderful place to observe and ask questions”?
(A) To suggest that all students should learn how


Ans to cook for their families.
(A) What is the process of photosynthesis? (B) To illustrate that science is not confined
The “Probe and ponder” questions are framed to a formal lab and is present in everyday
to be broad, curiosity-driven, and thought- activities like cooking.
provoking. Asking for a definition of a specific (C) Because kitchen experiments are always much
scientific process like photosynthesis is more of safer than laboratory ones.
a standard textbook question, not one designed (D) Because it is the only place where scientific
to simply “spark curiosity” in the way the others phenomena occur at home.
are.


Ans
100. The text states that “A small difference in (B) To illustrate that science is not confined to
pressure can result in a gentle breeze.” What is a formal lab and is present in everyday activities
the cause and what is the effect? like cooking.
(A) Cause: pressure; Effect: small difference. This reinforces the book’s core philosophy. The
(B) Cause: gentle breeze; Effect: difference in kitchen is full of physical and chemical changes
pressure. (like dough rising or puris puffing), making
(C) Cause: small difference; Effect: gentle breeze. it an excellent, accessible environment to
(D) Cause: difference in pressure; Effect: gentle practice scientific observation and inquiry, thus
breeze. demystifying the scientific process.


Ans 103. Keeping other conditions the same is to a
(D) Cause: difference in pressure; Effect: gentle controlled experiment as a ______ is to a solid
breeze. foundation of knowledge.
The text explains that the movement of air (the (A) root
effect, a breeze) is caused by a difference in air (B) kite
pressure between two locations (the cause). Air (C) question
moves from a higher pressure area to a lower (D) conclusion
pressure area, creating wind.


Ans
101. What two main things does a scientific investigator (A) root
need to identify before starting an experiment, The analogy connects a key methodological
according to the puri example? principle with a key philosophical symbol from
page 26 Class 8th Science Foundation

the chapter. A controlled experiment is grounded

Ans

by keeping conditions constant to ensure validity, (D) The location where the food bowls are placed.
just as scientific knowledge, according to the While a cat’s hunger is a factor, it’s hard to
book’s symbolism, should be grounded by the control directly. However, the experimenter can
“root” of established facts and observations. easily and deliberately control the location of the
bowls, presenting them in the same spot each
104. Science begins with ______, but in Grade time to ensure the cat’s choice isn’t influenced by
8, this is channeled into a systematic process of location, thus making it a fair test.
______.
(A) answers, testing 107. What is the stated effect of understanding how
(B) wonder, investigation elements combine to create compounds?
(C) facts, memorization (A) It allows chemists to invent life-saving medicines.
(D) books, reading (B) It causes the climate on Earth to change.


Ans (C) It helps in predicting local weather patterns.
(D) It explains the different phases of the moon.
(B) wonder, investigation
The text clearly outlines this progression. The

Ans
starting point for all science is wonder and (A) It allows chemists to invent life-saving
curiosity (the theme of Grade 6). In Grade 8, this medicines.
initial spark is developed into a more structured The chapter’s preview section explicitly links the
and purposeful process of investigation, which knowledge of chemistry to practical innovation.
includes experimenting and observing. It states that chemists use their understanding
of how elements form compounds to create
105. Which of the following best represents the journey new substances, with life-saving medicines and
of a scientific idea as described in the chapter? vaccines given as prime examples.
(A) A collection of random facts that do not
connect to each other. 108. Which statement does NOT align with the
(B) A process where initial wonder leads to philosophy of the “Curiosity” textbook series as
focused questions, experimentation, and described in Chapter 1?
evolving understanding. (A) The main goal is to memorize facts provided
(C) A set of rules that must be followed without by the book.
any creative thought. (B) Science starts with simple questions about
(D) A straight line from a single question to a the world.
final, unchanging answer. (C) Scientific ideas can change as we learn more.


Ans (D) Investigation involves careful observation and
thoughtful experimentation.
(B) A process where initial wonder leads to
focused questions, experimentation, and evolving

Ans
understanding. (A) The main goal is to memorize facts provided
The chapter combines the themes of all three by the book.
middle school grades to present this view. It starts The text repeatedly emphasizes a shift away from
with wonder (Grade 6), leads to an understanding rote memorization. The entire philosophy is built
that science evolves (Grade 7), and culminates in on active engagement, curiosity, and learning how
a systematic investigative process (Grade 8) that to find facts through investigation, rather than
uses experiments to refine understanding. simply accepting and memorizing them.

106. A student observes that their cat prefers one 109. What does the term “real-world puzzles” refer to
brand of cat food over another. To investigate in the chapter?
this scientifically, which of these is a controllable (A) Sudoku and crossword puzzles found in
variable? newspapers.
(A) The cat’s favorite color. (B) Fictional mysteries from various storybooks.
(B) The weather outside while the cat is eating. (C) Jigsaw puzzles of different landscapes.
(C) The cat’s current level of hunger. (D) Scientific questions arising from everyday
(D) The location where the food bowls are placed. phenomena or significant global issues.
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

Ans 112. What is the main difference between an

(D) Scientific questions arising from everyday “observation” and an “experiment” in the
phenomena or significant global issues. scientific process?
The chapter uses this term to describe the scope (A) There is no real difference between them.
of scientific investigation. These “puzzles” are not (B) Observations are done outdoors, while
games, but actual scientific questions that range experiments are done indoors.
from the simple (why dough rises) to the complex (C) An observation is always correct, while an
(is the world getting warmer?), all of which are experiment can often be wrong.
rooted in real-world observations. (D) An observation is passive, while an experiment
is an active test.
110. A student is doing the puri experiment. After
observing that hot oil makes the puri puff faster,

Ans
what is a logical next question they might ask? (D) An observation is passive, while an experiment
(A) Is there an optimal temperature, or does is an active test.
hotter always mean faster? While related, they are distinct steps. An
(B) What is the history of puri making in different observation can be simply noticing a phenomenon
cultures? (e.g., a puri puffs up). An experiment is an active,
(C) How much does a single puri cost in a controlled process designed to test a hypothesis
restaurant? about that observation (e.g., deliberately
(D) Can I use a different kind of pan for the next changing the oil temperature to see how it affects
experiment? the puffing).


Ans
113. The chapter’s overview mentions that
(A) Is there an optimal temperature, or does understanding forces helps explain why a car
hotter always mean faster? stops when brakes are applied. What type of force
Scientific investigation is an iterative process is primarily at play here?
where one answer leads to a more refined question. (A) Frictional force
Having established that temperature matters, a (B) Magnetic force
good next step is to investigate the relationship (C) Gravitational force
more deeply—to see if there is a limit or an ideal (D) Electrical force
point, which is a more advanced scientific question.

Ans
111. The chapter states that “science is everywhere.” (A) Frictional force
What is the educational purpose of this statement? Although not explicitly named in Chapter 1, the
(A) To make students feel overwhelmed by the action of brakes on a car is a classic example of
vastness of the subject. frictional force, which opposes motion. The context
(B) To encourage students to see opportunities of making things “slow down” points towards
for scientific observation and inquiry in their friction, a topic to be explored later in the book.
daily lives.
(C) To suggest that students should be studying 114. The chapter preview explains that some microbes
science all the time, without any breaks. are invisible ______, while others can be
(D) To claim that science has already conquered ______, causing infections.
every aspect of modern life. (A) helpers, harmful
(B) enemies, friendly


Ans
(C) plants, animals
(B) To encourage students to see opportunities (D) solids, liquid
for scientific observation and inquiry in their

Ans
daily lives.
This phrase is meant to be empowering. It aims (A) helpers, harmful
to break down the barrier between “science class” The text introduces the dual nature of
and the “real world” by showing that scientific microorganisms right away. It mentions their
principles are at play all around us, and thus, beneficial roles, calling them “invisible helpers”
opportunities for learning and investigation are (like in digestion), and contrasts this with
always present. their negative roles, stating that others can be
“harmful, causing infections.”
page 28 Class 8th Science Foundation

115. Which of the following is an example of a “focused chapter, this is the only factor that should be
question” suitable for a scientific investigation? systematically changed, while all others (the car,
(A) Does the amount of water given to a pea the ramp surface, the release point) must be kept
plant affect its height? constant.
(B) Why is the sky blue?
(C) What is science? 118. A recipe is to a known outcome as a scientific
(D) Is space interesting? experiment is to a(n) ________.
(A) simple instruction


Ans (B) guaranteed success
(A) Does the amount of water given to a pea (C) foregone conclusion
plant affect its height? (D) process of discovery
A focused question identifies specific variables

Ans
that can be controlled and measured. This
question clearly defines the variable to be (D) process of discovery
changed (amount of water) and the outcome to A recipe is a set of instructions designed to reliably
be measured (plant height), making it a perfect produce a specific, known result (e.g., a cake). A
basis for a controlled experiment, unlike the other scientific experiment, as described in the chapter,
broader or subjective questions. is a process designed to explore a question where
the outcome may not be fully known, making it a
116. When the chapter talks about the “solid ground journey of discovery.
of careful observation,” what does “solid ground”
metaphorically mean? 119. Which of the following is NOT one of the
(A) That observations should be reliable, factual, broad topics previewed for the Grade 8 science
and form a strong basis for ideas. curriculum?
(B) That science is a very slow and unmoving (A) The composition and classification of matter.
process of learning. (B) The development of computer programming
(C) That all experiments must be done on the languages.
ground, not on a table. (C) The principles of light reflection and bending.
(D) That only observations of solid objects are (D) The relationship between forces, pressure,
scientifically valid. and weather.

Ans

Ans

(A) That observations should be reliable, factual, (B) The development of computer programming
and form a strong basis for ideas. languages.
This metaphor connects to the root symbol. The chapter gives a detailed overview of the
“Solid ground” implies that scientific conclusions science topics for the year, including matter,
cannot be based on guesses or feelings. They light, forces, pressure, and weather. Computer
must be built upon a firm foundation of careful, programming is a subject in the field of computer
repeatable, and factual observations of the real science or technology, not a topic listed within
world. this natural science curriculum preview.

117. If a student is investigating how the angle of a 120. A student performs the puri experiment and finds
ramp affects the speed of a toy car, what is the that the side of the puri that was facing up when
one variable they should be changing? rolled is always thicker after frying. What does
(A) The starting point on the ramp. this suggest?
(B) The weight of the car. (A) The experiment is a complete failure and
(C) The angle of the ramp. should be stopped.
(D) The surface of the ramp. (B) The temperature of the oil is not an important
factor.


Ans (C) This observation provides a possible answer
(C) The angle of the ramp. to the question of why one side is thinner.
The question itself defines the variable to be (D) The student should immediately stop the
tested: the angle of the ramp. To conduct a fair experiment.
test according to the principles outlined in the

Ans
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

(C) This observation provides a possible answer

Ans

to the question of why one side is thinner. (B) flight, grounded
This is a successful observation within an This phrasing directly captures the symbolism
investigation. It provides data that could lead explained in the chapter. The kite represents
to a hypothesis. The student could then design curiosity taking “flight” to explore the unknown.
further experiments to test if this observation The root represents staying “grounded” in the
is consistent and to understand the underlying solid foundation of real-world observations and
physical reason for this difference. knowledge.

121. According to the text, the heart of how science 124. The chapter’s overview mentions that
works is formed by the coming together of which understanding the particulate nature of matter
two concepts? helps explain what?
(A) Wonder and evolution (A) Why the moon has phases.
(B) Reading and writing (B) How to build a strong bridge.
(C) Art and music (C) Why air can exert pressure or why water
(D) History and geography boils.


Ans (D) How vaccines work to prevent diseases.
(A) Wonder and evolution

Ans
The text states, “...entering the Investigative (C) Why air can exert pressure or why water
World of Science, where wonder and evolution boils.
come together to form the heart of how science The text explicitly connects the microscopic world
works.” This suggests that the initial curiosity of particles to macroscopic phenomena. It states,
(wonder) combined with the understanding that “To truly understand how air can exert pressure
knowledge changes (evolves) is central to the or why water boils at a certain temperature we
scientific process. need to zoom into... what kind of particles they
are made up of...”
122. What is the main message behind the statement,
“We don’t want you to just learn new facts, we 125. What is the purpose of designing ways to do
want you to learn how to find new facts”? simple experiments?
(A) The book has no facts in it, so students must (A) To answer focused questions that arise from
find them elsewhere. curiosity.
(B) Finding facts is more important than actually (B) To make the classroom look busy and
knowing them. productive.
(C) Learning facts is too easy for students in (C) To use up all the available laboratory supplies.
Grade 8. (D) To prove that the teacher is always right
(D) The process of scientific inquiry is as about science.
important as the knowledge it produces.

Ans


Ans
(A) To answer focused questions that arise from
(D) The process of scientific inquiry is as curiosity.
important as the knowledge it produces. The chapter presents a clear logic: curiosity leads
This statement highlights a key pedagogical shift. to focused questions, and experiments are the
The emphasis is not just on the ‘what’ (the facts) tools designed specifically to find the answers to
of science, but equally on the ‘how’ (the process those questions. Experimentation is a purposeful
of investigation). The goal is to empower students activity aimed at building understanding based
with the skills of scientific thinking and discovery. on evidence.

123. The kite symbol reminds us that curiosity must 126. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
take ______, while the root symbol reminds “real-world puzzle” mentioned in the chapter?
us to stay ______ in real observations. (A) Why does dough rise?
(A) notes, silent (B) What is the capital of Australia?
(B) flight, grounded (C) Is the world getting warmer?
(C) time, interested (D) Why is one side of a puri thinner than the
(D) control, focused other?
page 30 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (A) final picture

(B) What is the capital of Australia? The chapter describes science as “always
The “real-world puzzles” described are scientific evolving,” where each answer leads to new
in nature, requiring investigation and observation. questions, implying an endless process. This is
The rising of dough, climate change, and the in direct contrast to a completed jigsaw puzzle,
puri phenomenon are all scientific inquiries. The which represents a finished task with a final,
capital of a country is a geographical fact, not static picture and no further questions to answer
a scientific puzzle to be investigated through within its frame.
experiment.
130. According to the overview, what provides the
127. When the chapter advises to “change only one oxygen we breathe and shields us from harmful
thing at a time,” what scientific principle is it ultraviolet rays?
teaching? (A) The atmosphere
(A) The concept of a controlled experiment. (B) The oceans
(B) The principle of conservation of energy. (C) The Earth’s magnetic field
(C) The importance of working slowly and (D) The Moon
deliberately.

Ans
(D) The need for multiple trials in an investigation.
(A) The atmosphere


Ans The chapter’s final section preview explicitly
(A) The concept of a controlled experiment. credits the atmosphere with these two life-
This is the fundamental rule for a fair test or sustaining functions. It is described as providing
a controlled experiment. By isolating a single essential oxygen for respiration and acting as a
variable (changing only one thing), an investigator protective barrier against harmful solar radiation.
can be confident that any observed change in the
131. Which of these actions is NOT part of the
outcome is due to that specific variable, allowing
for a clear cause-and-effect conclusion. systematic investigation process outlined in the
puri example?
128. A student is investigating if the brand of battery (A) Guessing the outcome without experimenting.
affects how long a toy car runs. They test (B) Controlling the temperature of the oil.
three brands. What is a key variable they must (C) Observing whether the puri puffs up.
OBSERVE or MEASURE? (D) Changing the thickness of the dough.
(A) The time the car runs for each brand of

Ans
battery.
(B) The price of the different brands of batteries. (A) Guessing the outcome without experimenting.
(C) The color of the toy car used in the experiment. The process described is based on evidence
(D) The size of the wheels on the toy car. from experiments. While a scientist may have a
hypothesis (an educated guess), the core of the


Ans method is to test it through experimentation and
(A) The time the car runs for each brand of observation, not to simply guess and accept it as
battery. fact.
The question is about “how long” the car runs.
132. The chapter asks, “Are there more grains of sand
Therefore, the primary outcome to be measured is
the duration of operation. This measurable data on all the beaches and deserts of the world, or
will allow for a direct comparison between the more stars in our galaxy?” What is the purpose
different brands of batteries being tested. of such a question?
(A) To serve as a mandatory calculation problem
129. An evolving science is to new questions as a for homework.
completed jigsaw puzzle is to a(n) ______. (B) To show that some questions in science are
(A) final picture impossible to answer.
(B) mystery (C) To spark curiosity and make students think
(C) bigger puzzle about the vastness of scales in the universe.
(D) single piece (D) To test students’ knowledge of astronomy and
geology.


Ans
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

Ans 135. Which of the following is NOT something that a

(C) To spark curiosity and make students think force can do to an object, based on the chapter
about the vastness of scales in the universe. preview?
This is a classic “Probe and ponder” question. (A) Change its temperature.
Its goal isn’t to get a precise numerical answer (B) Make it move from rest.
but to provoke thought and wonder. It encourages (C) Change its speed if it is moving.
students to contemplate immense numbers and (D) Change its direction of motion.
the sheer scale of the world, fostering a sense of

Ans
scientific awe and curiosity.
(A) Change its temperature.
133. How does a “uniform mixture” differ from a The preview of the forces chapter lists several
“non-uniform mixture” as briefly described in the effects: making things move, changing their
chapter preview? speed, and changing their direction. Changing
(A) In uniform mixtures components are evenly temperature is related to heat and energy transfer,
distributed and not visible, unlike in non- a different concept not listed as a direct effect of
uniform mixtures. applying a mechanical force.
(B) Uniform mixtures are always man-made, while
136. If a scientist’s experiment consistently yields
non-uniform mixtures are always natural.
results that contradict their initial hypothesis,
(C) Uniform mixtures are made of solids, while what is the most scientific course of action?
non-uniform mixtures are made of liquids. (A) Re-evaluate and potentially change the
(D) There is no difference mentioned between the hypothesis based on the new evidence.
two types of mixtures. (B) Ignore the results and publish the original


Ans hypothesis anyway.
(C) Conclude the experiment is a failure and
(A) In uniform mixtures components are evenly abandon the topic.
distributed and not visible, unlike in non-uniform (D) Change the experimental data to match the
mixtures. hypothesis.
The preview of the chapter on matter gives
early examples. A sprout salad is non-uniform

Ans
because you can see the different components. (A) Re-evaluate and potentially change the
A sugar-water solution is uniform because the hypothesis based on the new evidence.
components are “evenly distributed and cannot This aligns with the idea of science being “always
be distinguished,” providing a clear contrast. evolving.” Scientific integrity demands that
conclusions be based on evidence. Contradictory
134. What human action is described as the first step of results are not a failure but a discovery, indicating
the journey in the Grade 8 “Curiosity” textbook? that the initial understanding (hypothesis) was
(A) Entering the Investigative World of Science. likely incorrect and needs to be revised.
(B) Pumping air into bicycle tyres to learn about
pressure. 137. The chapter emphasizes the importance of
(C) Building a detailed model of the solar system. learning “how to find new facts.” Why is this skill
considered valuable?
(D) Reading the entire textbook from start to
(A) Because it is the only way to earn a lot of
finish.
money in the future.


Ans (B) Because all of the existing facts in textbooks
are wrong.
(A) Entering the Investigative World of Science.
(C) Because it empowers individuals to think
The chapter states, “Now, in Grade 8, we take
critically and solve new problems.
the next step: entering the Investigative World of
(D) Because the textbook does not contain any
Science...” This is presented as the foundational
facts for students to learn.
theme and the starting point for the year’s
scientific journey.

Ans
(C) Because it empowers individuals to think
critically and solve new problems.
page 32 Class 8th Science Foundation

Learning the process of investigation is a (C) taste, cools

transferable skill. It teaches critical thinking, (D) thickness, puffs
problem-solving, and evidence-based reasoning,


Ans
which are valuable in all aspects of life, not just in
a science classroom. It equips students to tackle (D) thickness, puffs
future, unknown challenges. The chapter distinguishes between controllable
variables and observable outcomes. The thickness
138. What is the cause of the beautiful phases of the of the dough is a variable the experimenter can
Moon, according to the chapter’s overview? deliberately set. Whether the puri puffs up or not
(A) The changing relative positions of the Earth, is the result or outcome that is observed to see the
Moon, and Sun. effect of the controlled variable.
(B) The Earth’s shadow falling on the surface of
the Moon. 141. Which statement best reflects the relationship
(C) Clouds passing in front of the Moon and between the root and kite symbols?
blocking our view. (A) A balance between the two is essential for
(D) The Moon’s own light getting dimmer and effective scientific investigation.
brighter over a month. (B) The kite is much more important than the
root for making scientific discoveries.


Ans (C) The root is much more important than the
(A) The changing relative positions of the Earth, kite for making scientific discoveries.
Moon, and Sun. (D) The two symbols represent opposing ideas
The text explicitly states, “Depending on the that cannot work together in science.
relative positions of the Earth, Moon and Sun, a


Ans
slightly different part of the Moon is illuminated
each night, giving rise to the beautiful phases of (A) A balance between the two is essential for
the Moon that we see in the sky.” effective scientific investigation.
The chapter explicitly states, “investigation in
139. A student wants to investigate if a particular science works best only when we balance the solid
fertilizer helps plants grow taller. They have two ground of careful observation with the freedom
identical plants. What should they do? of creative thinking.” This directly argues for the
(A) Put one plant in the sun and the other in the necessity of combining the principles represented
dark, and give both fertilizer. by both symbols.
(B) Give fertilizer to both of the identical plants.
(C) Give no fertilizer to either of the identical 142. Why might a scientist choose to repeat an
plants. experiment multiple times?
(D) Give fertilizer to one plant and no fertilizer (A) To ensure the results are consistent and not
to the other, keeping all other conditions the due to chance.
same. (B) To waste time and expensive laboratory
resources.


Ans (C) In the hope of getting a different result each
(D) Give fertilizer to one plant and no fertilizer to time they try.
the other, keeping all other conditions the same. (D) Because the first attempt of any experiment
This is a classic controlled experiment. To test the is always wrong.
effect of the fertilizer, one plant (the experimental


Ans
group) gets it, and the other (the control group)
does not. All other factors—sunlight, water, soil, (A) To ensure the results are consistent and not
pot size—must be identical for both plants to due to chance.
ensure a fair comparison. While not explicitly stated in this chapter,
repetition is a core part of systematic investigation.
140. When frying a puri, things we can control include Repeating an experiment helps confirm the
the ______ of the dough, while things we can reliability of the observations. If the same result
observe include whether it ______ up. occurs consistently, it provides stronger evidence
(A) price, breaks that the conclusion is valid and not a random
(B) origin, tastes good fluke.
Pagesmith CH 01 : Exploring the Investigative World of Science

143. What two things does a investigator do after The core purpose of the investigative method is
asking a focused question, according to the text? to construct knowledge. It’s a process where one
(A) Ask the teacher for the answer and memorize moves from not knowing to knowing by asking
it. questions, gathering evidence through observation
(B) Look for the answer on the internet and copy and experiment, and using that evidence to build
it. a clearer and more accurate understanding of a
(C) Read a book and write a detailed report. phenomenon.
(D) Design ways to do simple experiments and 146. What is the initial cause that leads to the
use observations. formation of a gentle breeze?


Ans (A) The presence of clouds in the sky.
(B) The rotation of the Earth on its axis.
(D) Design ways to do simple experiments and
(C) A small difference in air pressure.
use observations.
(D) The gravitational pull of the moon.
The text describes the next steps after forming
a question: “...design ways to perhaps do simple

Ans
experiments to answer those questions, and (C) A small difference in air pressure.
then use your observations to improve your The chapter preview explicitly states that “A
understanding.” This highlights the active, hands- small difference in pressure can result in a gentle
on nature of the investigative process. breeze”. This identifies the pressure difference as
the direct cause and the resulting air movement
144. Which of the following is NOT a topic previewed
(the breeze) as the effect.
in the Grade 8 science curriculum?
(A) How living organisms interact in ecosystems. 147. Following the book’s philosophy, if a student
(B) How to write a scientific research paper for wonders why some foods brown when cooked (like
publication. toast), what should be their first investigative step?
(C) How light reflects off mirrors and bends (A) Read the list of ingredients on the bread
through lenses. packet.
(D) How particles in solids, liquids, and gases (B) Formulate a focused question, like “Does
move. the amount of heat affect how quickly bread


Ans turns brown?”
(C) Conclude that heat is what makes all things
(B) How to write a scientific research paper for
turn brown.
publication.
(D) Avoid eating toast and other brown foods in
The chapter previews content topics like
the future.
ecosystems, light, and the particulate nature
of matter. While it teaches the process of

Ans
investigation (asking questions, experimenting, (B) Formulate a focused question, like “Does the
noting observations), it does not mention the amount of heat affect how quickly bread turns
formal, advanced skill of writing a professional brown?”
research paper for publication. The scientific method starts with turning a general
wonder into a specific, testable question. This
145. The investigative approach of science, as explained
focused question identifies a variable to change
in Chapter 1, is primarily a method for:
(amount of heat) and an outcome to observe (how
(A) Building understanding through evidence and
quickly it browns), setting the stage for a simple,
inquiry.
controlled experiment.
(B) Proving that other people’s ideas are wrong.
(C) Following a set of instructions without 148. The chapter suggests a journey from understanding
thinking. ______ to understanding ______, which in
(D) Winning awards at school science fairs. turn helps explain weather events like cyclones.


Ans (A) forces, pressure
(B) light, the moon
(A) Building understanding through evidence and
(C) microbes, health
inquiry.
(D) elements, compounds
page 34 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans
(A) forces, pressure
The overview presents a logical progression of
concepts. It states that after studying forces,
the curriculum moves to the idea of pressure.
Understanding pressure is then presented as
the key to explaining how air moves, leading to
phenomena like winds and cyclones.

149. What does the kite symbol flying in the sky

represent in the context of scientific learning?
(A) A reminder to go outside and play after
studying.
(B) The importance of physics over other branches
of science.
(C) The freedom for curiosity and ideas to explore
new possibilities.
(D) The need to finish your school work quickly.


Ans
(C) The freedom for curiosity and ideas to explore
new possibilities.
The chapter defines the kite’s symbolism as a
reminder “that curiosity must take flight if we
are to explore the unknown” and allowing “ideas
to soar towards new horizons.” It represents the
creative, exploratory, and imaginative aspect of
scientific thinking.

150. What final, crucial role does the chapter assign

to science in the context of global challenges like
climate change?
(A) To prove that the challenges are not actually
real.
(B) To create more complex problems for the
future.
(C) To document the end of the world as we know
it.
(D) To understand the changes and guide our
actions towards solutions.


Ans
(D) To understand the changes and guide our
actions towards solutions.
The chapter concludes with a hopeful and action-
oriented message. It states that we “can—and
must—use science to understand these changes
and guide our actions,” positioning science as the
essential tool for comprehending global challenges
and finding effective solutions.

*************
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

CHAPTER 2
The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

SUMMAR 2. The Cell : Basic Unit of Life

2.1 What is a Cell?

1. Discovering the Invisible World All living beings, both plants and animals, are
made up of cells. The cell is the basic structural
1.1 The First Glimpses and functional unit of life.
For a long time, the world of tiny living things 2.2 Basic Parts of a Cell
was unknown because they are too small for the
naked eye to see. The invention of lenses, and Almost all cells have three main parts:
later the microscope, opened up this hidden world
filled with tiny creatures.

1.2 Pioneers of Microbiology

Robert Hooke (1665) Observed a thin slice of cork
under his microscope. He saw that it was made
of many small, box-like compartments, which he
named ”cells”.This was the first time the word
‘cell’ was used to describe the basic unit of life.
(See Figure : Cork cells)
Mount of human cheek cells

1. Cell Membrane : The thin outer layer that

encloses the cell. It is porous, allowing
essential materials to enter and waste to exit.
2. Nucleus : A round structure, usually in the
center, that acts as the cell’s “control center.”
It regulates all cell activities.
3. Cytoplasm : A jelly-like substance that fills the
space between the nucleus and the cell membrane.
Most of the cell’s life processes happen here.

2.3 Comparing Plant and Animal Cells

Feature Animal Cell Plant Cell

Cork cells as published in the Micrographia 1. Cell Wall Absent

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (1660s) : Built more 2. Chloroplasts Absent

powerful microscopes. He was the first person to see 3. Vacuole Usually absent,
and describe living microorganisms like bacteria. or very small if
He is known as the “Father of Microbiology”. present.
page 36 Class 8th Science Foundation

2.4 Cell Diversity and Levels of Organisation 4. In Agriculture :

1. Shape and Function : Cells come in many (i) Rhizobium (Bacteria) : Lives in the roots
shapes and sizes (e.g., long and branched of legume plants (like peas and beans)
nerve cells, spindle-shaped muscle cells). A and “fixes” nitrogen from the air into the
cell’s shape is directly related to its specific soil, acting as a natural fertiliser.
function. (ii) Oxygen Production : Micro algae(like
2. Levels of Organization : In complex organisms, Spirulina) are microscopic plant-like
cells are organized in levels: organisms that produce more than
(i) Cells : Basic units. half of the Earth’s oxygen through
(ii) Tissues : Groups of similar cells working photosynthesis. They are also used as a
together. source of food and health supplements.
(iii) Organs : Different tissues combined to 3.3.2 Harmful Microbes
perform a function (e.g., the stomach). Some microbes are harmful and cause food to
(iv) Organ Systems : Several organs working spoil. Others can cause diseases in plants, animals,
together (e.g., the digestive system). and humans. (This will be covered in the next
(v) Organism : The complete living being. chapter).

3. Microorganisms (Microbes) 4. A Quick Comparison of Cell

Structures
3.1 What are Microbes?
Feature Animal Cell Plant Bacterial Cell
Microorganisms are living beings that are too
Cell
small to be seen without a microscope. They are
found everywhere : in soil, water, air, and even 1. Cell Wall No Yes (provides
inside our bodies. rigidity)
1. Unicellular : Organisms made of a single cell
2. Well-defined Yes Yes
(e.g., Bacteria, Amoeba).
Nucleus
2. Multicellular : Organisms made of many cells
(e.g., some fungi and algae). 3. Chloroplasts No Yes(for
photosynthesis)
3.2 Major Groups of Microbes
The main categories are bacteria, fungi, protozoa,
and some algae. Viruses are also microscopic but
are different because they are acellular(not made
of cells) and can only reproduce inside a living

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO
host cell.

3.3 The Role of Microbes in Our World 1. Who is known as the “Father of Microbiology” for
being the first person to clearly see and describe
Microorganisms can be both helpful and harmful. tiny living things like bacteria?
3.3.1 Helpful Microbes (A) Robert Hooke
1. Decomposers : Bacteria and fungi break (B) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
down dead plants, animals, and waste into (C) Isaac Newton
simple, nutrient-rich manure. This cleans the (D) Charles Darwin
environment and recycles nutrients back into

Ans
the soil.
2. In Food Production Yeast (Fungus) : Used in (B) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
baking. It releases carbon dioxide gas, which Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, a Dutch scientist from
makes dough for bread, cakes and bhaturas the 1660s, significantly improved lenses and built
rise and become fluffy. powerful microscopes. This allowed him to be the
3. Lactobacillus (Bacteria) : Ferments milk first to observe and provide detailed descriptions
to make curd by producing lactic acid. It of microorganisms like bacteria and blood cells,
requires warm temperatures to grow well. earning him the title “Father of Microbiology.”
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

2. In 1665, who published the book “Micrographia” central control structure, and the cytoplasm, a
and was the first to use the word “cell” in a jelly-like substance that fills the space between
scientific context? them. These are considered the basic components
(A) Robert Hooke of a cell.
(B) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
(C) Galileo Galilei 5. In the activity to observe onion peel cells, why is
(D) Louis Pasteur safranin stain added to the peel?
(A) To give color to the cells and make them


Ans clearly visible under a microscope.
(A) Robert Hooke (B) To make the cells grow larger by providing
Robert Hooke, a scientist and skilled artist, them with essential nutrients.
published his observations in “Micrographia.” (C) To clean the cells of any dirt or debris from
While observing a thin slice of cork under his the onion bulb.
microscope, he saw small, empty spaces that (D) To kill any harmful bacteria on the peel that
reminded him of a honeycomb and called them could interfere with the observation.
“cells,” marking the first use of this term in

Ans
biology.
(A) To give color to the cells and make them
3. Why did Robert Hooke name the small clearly visible under a microscope.
compartments he saw in cork “cells”? Most cell parts are transparent and difficult to
(A) Because they contained tiny living creatures see under a microscope. Stains like safranin are
that he could see moving. used to add color to different parts of the cell,
(B) Because he discovered them in his laboratory’s increasing the contrast between them and the
cellar storage room. background, which makes the cell structures
(C) Because they reminded him of the small much easier to observe and identify.
rooms in a monastery or a honeycomb.
(D) Because they were circular in shape, much 6. What is the purpose of adding a drop of glycerin
like the blood cells he later observed. to the onion peel on a slide before covering it with
a coverslip?


Ans (A) To dissolve the cell wall and make the inner
(C) Because they reminded him of the small parts more visible.
rooms in a monastery or a honeycomb. (B) To prevent the cells from drying out and
Hooke observed that the cork was made of many improve clarity.
small, empty spaces. These structures reminded (C) To make the cells stick firmly to the glass
him of the compartments of a honeycomb or the slide.
small rooms (cells) in a monastery. This is why (D) To stain the nucleus a different color from the
he chose the name “cell” to describe these basic cytoplasm.
units he saw.

Ans
4. What are the three basic parts found in almost (B) To prevent the cells from drying out and
all cells, as observed in the onion peel and cheek improve clarity.
cell activities? Glycerin is a mounting medium used in slide
(A) Cell wall, chloroplast, and a large central preparation. Its primary functions are to prevent
vacuole the water in the specimen from evaporating, which
(B) Nucleus, cell wall, and the surrounding would cause the cells to dry out and shrink, and to
cytoplasm improve the optical clarity for better visualization
(C) Cell membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus under the microscope.
(D) Cell membrane, vacuole, and colored plastids
7. Which part of the cell is responsible for regulating


Ans all its activities and growth?
(C) Cell membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus (A) Nucleus
The activities reveal the fundamental structure (B) Cytoplasm
of a typical cell. This includes the cell membrane (C) Cell wall
acting as an outer boundary, the nucleus as a (D) Vacuole
page 38 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans wall outside the cell membrane for support and

(A) Nucleus protection. Animal cells, such as human cheek
The nucleus is often called the “control center” cells, lack this structure.
of the cell. It contains the cell’s genetic material
10. What is the function of the cell membrane?
and directs all major functions, including growth,
metabolism, and reproduction. It essentially (A) To provide rigidity and strength to the cell,
governs all the activities that take place within similar to a plant’s cell wall.
the cell. (B) To control all activities that occur within the
cell, acting as the cell’s brain.
8. In the diagram of human cheek cells, what is the (C) To carry out photosynthesis by capturing
jelly-like substance that fills the space between energy from sunlight.
the nucleus and the cell membrane? (D) To separate the cell from others and allow
entry and exit of materials.


Ans
(D) To separate the cell from others and allow
entry and exit of materials.
The cell membrane acts as a selective barrier. It
encloses the cell’s contents, separating it from
the external environment and other cells. Being
porous, it regulates the passage of essential
substances into the cell and waste products out
of the cell.

11. Plant cells have a rigid cell wall, which gives them
(A) Cell wall a more fixed, rectangular shape. What does the
(B) Cytoplasm absence of a cell wall allow animal cells to do?
(C) Vacuole (A) Divide more rapidly than plant cells.
(D) Chloroplast (B) Store significantly more water in vacuoles.


Ans (C) Have more flexible and varied shapes.
(D) Carry out photosynthesis more efficiently.
(B) Cytoplasm
Cytoplasm is the substance that fills the entire cell

Ans
and surrounds the nucleus. It is where most of the (C) Have more flexible and varied shapes.
cell’s metabolic activities occur and contains various The rigid cell wall locks plant cells into a
other small components necessary for life processes. relatively fixed shape. Because animal cells lack
this rigid outer layer, their flexible cell membrane
9. What is a key structural difference between an
allows them to have a wider variety of shapes
onion peel cell (plant cell) and a human cheek cell
(e.g., polygon-shaped cheek cells, long nerve
(animal cell)?
cells, spindle-shaped muscle cells) suited to their
(A) The onion cell has a rigid outer cell wall,
different functions.
which the cheek cell lacks.
(B) The cheek cell has a nucleus for control, but 12. What are the green-colored plastids found in some
the onion cell is completely empty. plant cells that help in photosynthesis?
(C) The onion cell has a cell membrane, but the (A) Ribosomes
cheek cell is only enclosed by cytoplasm. (B) Mitochondria
(D) The cheek cell contains cytoplasm, while the (C) Vacuoles
onion cell is empty and contains only water. (D) Chloroplasts


Ans

Ans
(A) The onion cell has a rigid outer cell wall, (D) Chloroplasts
which the cheek cell lacks. Chloroplasts are a type of plastid that contains
A major distinguishing feature between plant and the green pigment chlorophyll. This pigment is
animal cells is the presence of a cell wall. Plant essential for photosynthesis, the process by which
cells, like those in an onion peel, have a rigid cell plants use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

water into food (glucose), releasing oxygen as a The biological levels of organization follow a
byproduct. hierarchical structure. The simplest unit is the
cell. Groups of similar cells form a tissue. Different
13. How do vacuoles in plant cells typically differ tissues work together as an organ. Multiple organs
from those in animal cells? form an organ system, and all organ systems
(A) Animal cell vacuoles contain chlorophyll, together make up the complete organism.
while plant cell vacuoles do not.
(B) Vacuoles are only for storage in animal cells 16. What is the largest known single cell in the living
but for structural support in plant cells. world?
(C) Plant cells have many small vacuoles, while (A) An amoeba
animal cells have one single large one. (B) A giant squid axon
(D) Plant cells have one large vacuole, while (C) The yolk of an ostrich egg
animal cells usually have small ones or none (D) A human nerve cell
at all.


Ans


Ans (C) The yolk of an ostrich egg
(D) Plant cells have one large vacuole, while The yellow part, or yolk, of an ostrich egg is a
animal cells usually have small ones or none at all. single, massive cell. Measuring about 130 mm to
A large central vacuole is a characteristic feature 170 mm in diameter, it holds the record for the
of mature plant cells. It stores water, nutrients, largest known cell in any living organism.
and waste products, and helps maintain the cell’s
shape. In contrast, animal cells, if they have 17. Looking at a diagram of a plant cell, the large,
vacuoles, typically have several small ones. empty-looking space that helps store substances
and maintain the cell’s shape is the ______.
14. A brick is to a wall as a cell is to a(n) ______.
(A) tissue
(B) nucleus
(C) organism
(D) microscope


Ans
(C) organism
The analogy compares a basic building unit
to the larger structure it forms. A brick is the
fundamental unit used to build a wall. Similarly,
a cell is the fundamental, basic unit of life that,
when combined with others, builds a complete
living organism.

15. Which sequence correctly shows the levels of (A) Nucleus

organization in a multicellular organism from (B) Chloroplast
simplest to most complex? (C) Vacuole
(A) Cell ® Tissue ® Organ ® Organism ® (D) Mitochondrion
Organ System

Ans
(B) Cell ® Tissue ® Organ ® Organ System ®
Organism (C) Vacuole
(C) Organism ® Organ System ® Organ ® Plant cells typically have a large central vacuole.
Tissue ® Cell This membrane-bound sac plays multiple roles,
(D) Tissue ® Cell ® Organ ® Organism ® including storing water, nutrients, and waste
Organ System products. It also helps maintain turgor pressure
against the cell wall, which provides support to


Ans the plant.
(B) Cell ® Tissue ® Organ ® Organ System ®
Organism
page 40 Class 8th Science Foundation

18. What are microorganisms or microbes? (A) To produce oxygen through the process of
(A) Tiny organisms that cannot be seen with the photosynthesis.
naked eye. (B) To break down dead organic waste into
(B) Any organism that has only one cell. nutrient-rich manure.
(C) Animals that are smaller than insects. (C) To cause a wide range of diseases in plants
(D) Organisms that live only in water. and animals.
(D) To fix nitrogen from the atmosphere for all


Ans
types of plants.
(A) Tiny organisms that cannot be seen with the


Ans
naked eye.
The term “microorganism” directly translates to (B) To break down dead organic waste into
“small organism” (micro means very small). It is a nutrient-rich manure.
general term for any living being that is too small Decomposers play a crucial role in nutrient
to be visible without the aid of a microscope. cycling. They act on dead plants and animals
They can be unicellular or multicellular. and their waste products, breaking down complex
organic matter into simpler substances. This
19. Which of the following is NOT a major group of process creates manure, which enriches the soil
microorganisms identified in the chapter? and recycles essential nutrients back into the
(A) Protozoa ecosystem.
(B) Fungi
(C) Insects 22. Why do pickles and murabbas (jams) not get
(D) Bacteria spoiled by microbes easily?
(A) The spices used in these preparations act as


Ans
powerful antibiotics.
(C) Insects (B) The high concentration of salt or sugar acts
The bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and algae as the as a preservative.
main categories of microorganisms observed (C) They are made from fruits and vegetables
in pond water and soil. Insects, while they can that microbes cannot eat.
be small, are multicellular animals and are not (D) They are typically kept in airtight jars that
classified as microorganisms. prevent microbial entry.

20. Why are viruses described as being “acellular”?

Ans

(A) Because they are simply too small to be (B) The high concentration of salt or sugar acts
considered true cells. as a preservative.
(B) Because they can only multiply inside of a High concentrations of salt or sugar create
living host cell. an environment where it is difficult for most
(C) Because they are made of many different microorganisms to grow. These substances draw
types of specialized cells. water out of the microbes through osmosis,
(D) Because they lack the basic components and effectively dehydrating and killing them or
structure of a true cell. inhibiting their growth, thus preserving the food.

Ans 23. What type of microorganism is yeast, which is

used in making bread and cakes?
(D) Because they lack the basic components and
(A) Bacterium
structure of a true cell.
(B) Alga
Acellular means “not consisting of cells.” Viruses
(C) Fungus
are considered acellular because they are not
(D) Protozoan
true cells. They lack a cell membrane, cytoplasm,
and the machinery to reproduce on their own,

Ans
consisting mainly of genetic material (DNA or (C) Fungus
RNA) inside a protein coat. The explicitly categorizes yeast as a type of
microorganism belonging to the fungus kingdom.
21. What is the primary role of decomposer It can be unicellular, and its ability to ferment
microorganisms like some bacteria and fungi in sugars is harnessed in baking and brewing
the environment? industries.
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

24. Why does dough rise when yeast, sugar, and Like many microorganisms, Lactobacillus has
warm water are added to it? an optimal temperature range for growth and
(A) The yeast physically pushes the dough activity. Lukewarm milk provides this ideal warm
upwards as it multiplies. environment, allowing the bacteria to multiply
(B) The yeast respires, releasing carbon dioxide rapidly and ferment the milk into curd. Cold
gas bubbles that get trapped in the dough. temperatures in a refrigerator inhibit this growth.
(C) The sugar reacts chemically with the flour to
27. What is the function of Rhizobium bacteria found
produce a gas.
in the root nodules of leguminous plants like peas
(D) The warm water creates steam, which inflates and beans?
the dough from within. (A) They produce a special type of sugar for the


Ans plant.
(B) They help the plant to absorb more water
(B) The yeast respires, releasing carbon dioxide
from the soil.
gas bubbles that get trapped in the dough.
(C) They convert atmospheric nitrogen into a
Yeast is a living organism that feeds on the sugar
form the plant can use.
in the dough. Through respiration, it breaks down
(D) They protect the plant roots from harmful
the sugar to release energy. A byproduct of this
pests and insects.
process is carbon dioxide gas. These gas bubbles
get trapped within the dough’s structure, causing

Ans
it to expand and rise. (C) They convert atmospheric nitrogen into a
form the plant can use.
25. Which bacterium is responsible for turning milk
Plants cannot use nitrogen gas directly from
into curd?
the air. Rhizobium bacteria live in a symbiotic
(A) Lactobacillus
relationship with legumes and perform nitrogen
(B) Rhizobium
fixation. They trap atmospheric nitrogen and
(C) Spirulina
convert it into compounds like ammonia, which
(D) Yeast
the plant can absorb and use for growth.


Ans
28. Match the pioneering scientists with their key
(A) Lactobacillus
discoveries in the world of microbiology.
Curd contains several bacteria, with Lactobacillus
being a prominent one. This bacterium consumes Column A Column B
the sugar (lactose) in milk and, through
1 Robert Hooke A The first person to
fermentation, produces lactic acid. The acid
clearly see and describe
causes the milk proteins to coagulate, resulting in
tiny living things like
the formation of curd.
bacteria.
26. In the curd-making activity, why is curd formed 2 Antonie van B An instrument with
in the bowl with lukewarm milk but not in the Leeuwenhoek lenses that makes tiny,
bowl with cold milk? invisible objects appear
(A) The cold temperature destroys the beneficial larger.
bacteria in the starter curd.
3 Microscope C The basic structural
(B) Lactobacillus bacteria grow and multiply and functional unit of
well in warm conditions, but not in cold all living organisms.
conditions.
(C) Cold milk has significantly less sugar than 4 Cell D Published Micrographia
lukewarm milk does. and was the first to use
the term “cell.”
(D) The spoon that was used to stir the cold milk
was not clean enough. Options
(a) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C


Ans (b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
(B) Lactobacillus bacteria grow and multiply well (c) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
in warm conditions, but not in cold conditions. (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
page 42 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans

Ans
(a) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C (D) To reach different parts of the body and
Robert Hooke published Micrographia and named transmit messages quickly.
the cell. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek was the first to The structure of a cell is directly related to its
describe living microbes. A microscope uses lenses function. The long, thin shape of a nerve cell
to magnify objects. The cell is the basic unit of life. (neuron) allows it to span long distances, while
its branches enable it to connect with many other
29. Which of the following statements about cells, forming a network for rapid communication
microalgae is FALSE? throughout the body.
(A) They produce more than half of the Earth’s
oxygen. 32. What is the main difference between the nucleus
(B) They are all multicellular organisms. of a bacterium and the nucleus of a plant or
(C) They are a food source for many aquatic animal cell?
animals. (A) Bacteria lack a well-defined nucleus with a
(D) They can be used to make biofuels and health nuclear membrane; they have a nucleoid
supplements. instead.
(B) The bacterial nucleus does not control any of


Ans
the cell’s main activities.
(B) They are all multicellular organisms. (C) The bacterial nucleus is significantly larger
The microalgae as microscopic plant-like than an animal cell’s nucleus.
organisms. While some algae are multicellular, (D) Bacteria have multiple small nuclei contained
many microalgae, like Chlorella, are unicellular. within one single cell.
The statement that they are all multicellular is
incorrect.

Ans
(A) Bacteria lack a well-defined nucleus with a
30. What is a unicellular organism? nuclear membrane; they have a nucleoid instead.
(A) An organism that lives in a large colony with This is a key distinction between prokaryotic
others of its kind. cells (like bacteria) and eukaryotic cells (like
(B) A very small organism that is composed of plants and animals). Eukaryotic cells have a true
many different cells. nucleus, where the genetic material is enclosed
(C) An organism that has a nucleus but no other within a membrane. Bacteria have a nucleoid
distinct cell parts. region, where the genetic material is located, but
(D) An organism that is made up of just one it is not enclosed by a membrane.
single cell.
33. An image shows a microscope slide being


Ans
prepared. A student is using a needle to slowly
(D) An organism that is made up of just one lower a coverslip at a 45-degree angle onto a drop
single cell. of water. What is the primary purpose of this
The term “unicellular” is a combination of “uni-” technique?
(meaning one) and “cellular” (relating to cells). It (A) To press the specimen flat against the slide
refers to any living being whose entire body and for better viewing.
all life functions are contained within a single cell, (B) To center the specimen perfectly in the middle
such as an amoeba or a bacterium. of the slide.
(C) To prevent air bubbles from getting trapped
31. Why is the shape of a nerve cell long and
under the coverslip.
branched?
(D) To make sure the slide is warm enough for the
(A) To provide structural support to the body
specimen to survive.
like a tiny skeleton.
(B) To help it contract and relax in order to cause

Ans
movement. (C) To prevent air bubbles from getting trapped
(C) To store large amounts of nutrients for the under the coverslip.
entire body. Trapped air bubbles can obstruct the view of the
(D) To reach different parts of the body and specimen under the microscope. Lowering the
transmit messages quickly. coverslip at an angle allows the liquid to spread
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

out evenly and pushes the air out to one side, 37. The scientists developed an oil-eating bacterium.
minimizing the chances of trapping bubbles. This is an example of using microorganisms to:
(A) solve environmental problems like pollution.
34. A ______ is a group of similar cells performing (B) produce electricity for industrial use.
a specific function, and different tissues are (C) cause diseases in marine life.
organized to form an ______. (D) create new types of food sources.
(A) system, organ
(B) tissue, organ

Ans
(C) organ, organism (A) solve environmental problems like pollution.
(D) molecule, organelle An oil spill is a major environmental disaster.


Ans The work of Dr. Ananda Mohan Chakrabarty in
developing a bacterium that can break down crude
(B) tissue, organ oil demonstrates a key application of microbiology:
This question tests the understanding of the levels using the natural metabolic processes of microbes
of biological organization. The first level above to clean up pollutants and remedy environmental
a single cell is a tissue, which is a collection of damage.
similar cells. The next level up is an organ, which
is composed of different types of tissues working 38. Match the cell part with its correct description or
together. primary function.

35. A student observes a specimen under a microscope. Column A Column B

It is a single cell, moves with specialized structures, 1 Cell Wall A The jelly-like
has a definite shape, and appears green. What substance that fills
type of microorganism is it most likely to be? the cell and contains
(A) A bacterium other components.
(B) An amoeba (Protozoa)
(C) A single-celled alga 2 Chloroplast B A rigid outer layer
(D) A bread mould (Fungi) found in plant and
fungal cells that


Ans
provides strength.
(C) A single-celled alga
The key characteristic is that the cell appears 3 Cytoplasm C A green structure in
green, which indicates the presence of chlorophyll plant cells that helps
and the ability to photosynthesize. Among the them make their own
options, only algae fit this description. Its single- food.
celled nature and movement are also consistent
4 Nucleoid D The region in
with many types of microalgae.
a bacterial cell
36. Which of the following statements about cells is that holds genetic
NOT true? material, as it lacks a
(A) The cell is the basic structural and functional true nucleus.
unit of life. Options
(B) All cells are identical in shape and size. (a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
(C) All living organisms are made up of one or (b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
more cells. (c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
(D) New cells are formed only from pre-existing (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
cells.


Ans


Ans
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
(B) All cells are identical in shape and size. The cell wall provides rigidity and strength to
The diversity of cells. It shows examples of plant cells. Chloroplasts are green organelles for
rectangular plant cells, polygon-shaped cheek photosynthesis. Cytoplasm is the substance filling
cells, long nerve cells, and spindle-shaped muscle the cell. Bacteria have a nucleoid instead of a
cells. This variation in shape and size is directly well-defined nucleus.
related to their specialized functions.
page 44 Class 8th Science Foundation

39. What substance makes chloroplasts green and is 42. A gardener mixes fruit peels and dry leaves into a
essential for photosynthesis? pit of soil. After a few weeks, it turns into dark-
(A) Hemoglobin colored manure. Which microbes are primarily
(B) Cytoplasm responsible for this transformation?
(C) Safranin (A) Viruses
(D) Chlorophyll (B) Algae and protozoa
(C) Yeast


Ans
(D) Bacteria and fungi
(D) Chlorophyll
Chlorophyll is the green pigment located within

Ans
the chloroplasts of plant cells and algae. Its (D) Bacteria and fungi
primary function is to absorb light energy from The process of converting organic waste like
the sun, which is the crucial first step in the fruit peels and leaves into manure is called
process of photosynthesis. decomposition. The main agents of decomposition
in the soil are microorganisms, specifically various
40. What is a multicellular organism? types of bacteria and fungi, which break down the
(A) An organism that has a protective cell wall. complex organic matter.
(B) An organism made up of many cells.
(C) An organism that is able to live in soil. 43. Which part of the cell is a jelly-like substance
(D) An organism that can be seen without a that fills the space between the nucleus and the
microscope. cell membrane?
(A) Vacuole


Ans
(B) Cell wall
(B) An organism made up of many cells. (C) Cytoplasm
The term “multicellular” is a combination of (D) Chloroplast
“multi-” (meaning many) and “cellular” (relating
to cells). It refers to complex organisms like plants

Ans
and animals that are composed of numerous cells, (C) Cytoplasm
which are often specialized to perform different The cytoplasm is the entire content within a cell,
functions. enclosed by the cell membrane, excluding the
nucleus. It is a semi-fluid, jelly-like substance
41. What is a key difference between a yeast cell and where most of the cell’s metabolic activities and
a bacterial cell? life processes take place.
(A) Yeast is unicellular, while all bacteria are
multicellular. 44. Why do farmers sometimes grow leguminous
(B) Yeast has a cell wall for support, while crops like peas in rotation with other crops like
bacteria do not. wheat?
(C) Yeast has a well-defined nucleus, while (A) To attract different types of beneficial insects
bacteria have a nucleoid. to the field.
(D) Bacteria have a cell membrane, while yeast (B) Because peas are much easier and faster to
does not have one. harvest than wheat.
(C) Because peas use up completely different soil


Ans
nutrients than wheat.
(C) Yeast has a well-defined nucleus, while (D) To naturally enrich the soil with nitrogen.
bacteria have a nucleoid.
Yeast is a eukaryote, meaning its cell has a

Ans
true nucleus enclosed by a membrane. Bacteria (D) To naturally enrich the soil with nitrogen.
are prokaryotes, which are distinguished by the Leguminous plants host Rhizobium bacteria in
absence of a membrane-bound nucleus; their their root nodules. These bacteria fix atmospheric
genetic material is located in a region called the nitrogen, converting it into a form usable by
nucleoid. plants and enriching the soil. By rotating crops,
farmers can use this natural fertilization process to
improve soil fertility for the next, non-leguminous
crop.
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

45. An image shows the levels of organization: a 48. What is the direct effect of the strong interparticle
single muscle cell ® a piece of muscle tissue attractions in solids?
® the stomach ® the digestive system ® a (A) It causes them to have a definite shape and
human. What does the stomach represent in this volume.
hierarchy? (B) It allows their particles to flow easily past one
(A) An organ another.
(B) A tissue (C) It allows them to mix easily with various
(C) An organism other substances.
(D) A cell (D) It makes them invisible to the naked eye.


Ans

Ans
(A) An organ (A) It causes them to have a definite shape and
In the biological hierarchy, an organ is a structure volume.
composed of different types of tissues that work In solids, the constituent particles are held
together to perform a specific function. The tightly together in fixed positions by very strong
stomach, made of muscle tissue, lining tissue, etc., attractive forces. This prevents the particles from
to digest food, is a classic example of an organ. moving freely past one another, resulting in the
solid maintaining a fixed shape and volume.
46. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
bacteria? 49. Match the beneficial microorganism with its
(A) They are unicellular organisms. primary role in nature or food production.
(B) They can be found in soil, water, and air.
(C) They all cause diseases. Column A Column B
(D) They lack a well-defined nucleus. 1 Yeast A Bacteria that convert


Ans atmospheric nitrogen
into a form usable by
(C) They all cause diseases. plants.
While some bacteria are pathogenic and cause
diseases, many are harmless or even beneficial. 2 Lactobacillus B A type of fungus used
The several examples of helpful bacteria, such in baking that makes
as Lactobacillus (makes curd), Rhizobium (fixes dough rise.
nitrogen), and decomposer bacteria that enrich
3 Rhizobium C Microscopic plant-
the soil.
like organisms that
produce a large portion
of Earth’s oxygen.

47. What are viruses? 4 Microalgae D A bacterium that

(A) The smallest type of single-celled bacteria. ferments the sugar in
(B) Unicellular fungi that are commonly used in milk to produce curd.
baking.
(C) Microscopic, acellular entities that can only Options
reproduce inside a host cell. (a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
(D) A type of beneficial microalgae found in (b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
water. (c) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B


Ans (d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
(C) Microscopic, acellular entities that can only

Ans
reproduce inside a host cell. (b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
Viruses are unique among microbes. They are not Yeast makes bread rise by producing carbon
true cells (acellular) and are considered obligate dioxide gas. Lactobacillus is the bacterium used
parasites, meaning they are inert outside of a to make curd from milk. Rhizobium performs
living organism and must infect a host cell to use nitrogen fixation in legume roots. Microalgae
its machinery to replicate. produce over half of the Earth’s oxygen.
page 46 Class 8th Science Foundation

50. A student is looking at cells under a microscope. The activity of observing pond water is designed
The cells are rectangular and have a distinct, to reveal the hidden “invisible world”. Finding
thick outer boundary. What is the student most a variety of different organisms (protozoa,
likely observing? algae, etc.) in a single drop illustrates that
(A) Human cheek cells microorganisms are not only everywhere but also
(B) An amoeba from pond water exist in many different forms, showcasing their
(C) Bacteria from the soil vast diversity.
(D) Plant cells, like those from an onion peel
53. What is a primary difference between a unicellular


Ans organism like an amoeba and a single cell from a
(D) Plant cells, like those from an onion peel multicellular organism like a human?
The two key features described are a rectangular (A) The amoeba is a complete, self-sufficient
shape and a thick outer boundary. These are organism, while the human cell is a specialized
characteristic of plant cells. The rigid cell part of a larger whole.
wall gives them a more defined, often boxy or (B) The amoeba cell is much more complex in its
rectangular shape, which distinguishes them from structure than a typical human cell.
the more irregular shapes of animal cells. (C) The human cell has a cell membrane as an
outer boundary, but the amoeba does not.
51. Besides being used as health supplements, what
is another important environmental role of (D) The amoeba can perform photosynthesis to
microalgae like Spirulina? create its own food, but a human cell cannot.
(A) Decomposing dead organic matter in water.

Ans
(B) Fixing atmospheric nitrogen in the soil.
(C) Causing fermentation in various food (A) The amoeba is a complete, self-sufficient
products. organism, while the human cell is a specialized
(D) Producing a significant portion of the Earth’s part of a larger whole.
oxygen supply. A unicellular organism must perform all life
functions (feeding, respiration, excretion,


Ans movement, reproduction) within its single cell to
(D) Producing a significant portion of the Earth’s survive independently. A cell from a multicellular
oxygen supply. organism is specialized (e.g., a muscle cell for
Microalgae are photosynthetic organisms. contraction) and depends on other cells and
Through this process, they consume carbon systems within the organism for its survival.
dioxide and release oxygen. The collectively, they
54. Which statement about the functions of cell parts
are responsible for producing more than half of
the oxygen in the Earth’s atmosphere, making is incorrect?
them vital for life. (A) The nucleus regulates all of the cell’s activities.
(B) The cell wall in plants provides rigidity and
52. If you observe a single drop of pond water under support.
a microscope, you see many different types of (C) Chloroplasts are the site of photosynthesis in
tiny creatures moving around. What does this plants.
demonstrate? (D) The cytoplasm is an empty space with no
(A) That all microorganisms are capable of function.
swimming.
(B) That pond water is not safe for drinking.

Ans
(C) The great diversity and abundance of (D) The cytoplasm is an empty space with no
microbial life in the environment. function.
(D) That microscopes can create images of things The cytoplasm is far from empty. It is a complex,
that aren’t really there. jelly-like substance that contains various
organelles, proteins and other molecules. It is the


Ans site where most of the cell’s metabolic reactions
(C) The great diversity and abundance of and life processes, such as respiration and
microbial life in the environment. synthesis, take place.
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

55. What instrument is needed to see subcellular cell then undergoes countless divisions, and
components with high magnification, up to the resulting cells differentiate and organize to
1,000,000 times? form all the tissues, organs, and systems of the
(A) A foldscope complete organism.
(B) A magnifying glass
(C) An electron microscope 58. If you prepare a slide of onion cells but forget
(D) A compound light microscope to add the safranin stain, what would be the
most likely result when you look through the


Ans microscope?
(C) An electron microscope (A) The cells would be very difficult to see because
While standard microscopes are good for seeing they are mostly transparent.
cells, observing the tiny components inside the (B) You would see bacteria and other microbes
cells requires much higher magnification. It instead of the onion cells.
specifically names the electron microscope as the (C) The cells would appear to be much larger
tool capable of magnifying objects up to 1,000,000 than they are expected to be.
times for this purpose. (D) The cells would appear to be a bright, natural
pink color.
56. A rotten orange has a cotton-like growth on it.
If you observed this growth under a microscope,

Ans
what type of microorganism would you most (A) The cells would be very difficult to see because
likely see? they are mostly transparent.
(A) Fungi (mould) The purpose of the stain is to add color and
(B) Protozoa contrast. Without it, the cell structures like the
(C) Bacteria cell wall, membrane, and nucleus are largely
(D) Algae colorless and transparent, making them blend
in with the background and extremely hard to


Ans
distinguish under a light microscope.
(A) Fungi (mould)
The description of a “powdery or cotton-like 59. Match the level of biological organization with its
growth” on decaying food is characteristic of correct definition.
mould. Moulds, like bread mould, are a type of
multicellular fungus that grows in a filamentous Column A Column B
pattern, which appears as a fuzzy patch to the 1 Tissue A Several organs working
naked eye. together to perform
a major function, like
57. Why is it stated that life for a complex organism digestion.
like a human begins with a single cell?
(A) Because all multicellular organisms develop 2 Organ B The basic unit of life,
from a single fertilized egg cell that divides like a single muscle
repeatedly. cell.
(B) Because all humans are technically unicellular 3 Organ System C A group of similar
for the first day of their life. cells working together,
(C) Because humans are a large collection of such as muscle tissue.
many different single-celled organisms. 4 Cell D A structure made
(D) Because the first cell formed is always the of different tissues
most important one in the body. organized to perform a


Ans task, like the stomach
(A) Because all multicellular organisms develop Options
from a single fertilized egg cell that divides (a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
repeatedly. (b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
This refers to the process of development. A (c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
multicellular organism starts its existence as (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
one cell (a zygote, or fertilized egg). This single

Ans
page 48 Class 8th Science Foundation

(c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B some even live in our gut to help with digestion,
A tissue is a group of similar cells performing a demonstrating their vital and diverse roles.
function. An organ consists of different tissues
working together. An organ system is a group of 63. The stomach is an organ made of different types
organs. The cell is the basic unit of life. of cells (muscle cells, lining cells). A group of
similar cells working together, such as the muscle
60. A group of muscle cells in the food pipe forms cells in the stomach wall, is called a:
muscle ______, which works as part of an (A) Organelle
______ called the food pipe. (B) Tissue
(A) organism, system (C) System
(B) organ, tissue (D) Organism
(C) system, organism


Ans
(D) tissue, organ
(B) Tissue


Ans The definition of a tissue is a group of cells with a
(D) tissue, organ similar structure that work together to perform a
This question checks the hierarchy of organization. specific function. The muscle cells of the stomach
A group of similar cells, like muscle cells, forms wall collectively form muscle tissue, which is
a tissue (muscle tissue). This tissue, along with responsible for churning the food.
other types of tissues, comes together to form a
functional unit, which is an organ (the food pipe). 64. A diagram shows a typical plant cell. A large, clear
space occupies most of the cell’s volume, pushing
61. Lactobacillus is to curd as yeast is to ______. the nucleus to the side. What is this structure?
(A) bread (A) Large central vacuole
(B) manure (B) Cell membrane
(C) soil fertility (C) Cytoplasm
(D) oxygen (D) Chloroplast


Ans


Ans
(A) bread
(A) Large central vacuole
The analogy relates a specific microbe to its
This description is characteristic of the large
common food-related application. Lactobacillus is
central vacuole found in mature plant cells. It
the key microbe used in the fermentation of milk
can occupy up to 90% of the cell’s volume, and
to make curd. Similarly, yeast is the key microbe
its primary roles include storage and maintaining
used in the fermentation process that makes
turgor pressure, which supports the cell’s shape.
dough rise to produce bread.
65. When you look at your cheek cells under a
62. Which of the following statements about
microscope, you see individual polygon-shaped
microorganisms is true?
cells. What does this observation directly support?
(A) All microorganisms are harmful to humans
(A) That animal cells have a rigid cell wall.
and cause disease.
(B) That animals are made of cells.
(B) Microorganisms are only found in dirty and
polluted places. (C) That all cells are the same shape and size.
(C) Microorganisms play vital roles in the (D) That human cheek cells perform
environment, food production, and health. photosynthesis.
(D) All known microorganisms are unicellular.

Ans


Ans (B) That animals are made of cells.
(C) Microorganisms play vital roles in the This is a direct, hands-on confirmation of the cell
environment, food production, and health. theory. By scraping cells from your own cheek and
The chapter provides a balanced view, highlighting observing them, you are providing direct evidence
the immense importance of microbes. They are that your body, and by extension other animals,
essential decomposers, used to make foods like are composed of these basic structural units called
bread and curd, fix nitrogen for plants, and cells.
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

66. According to the chapter, what two things are 69. Which of the following is NOT a function of the
threatening microalgal diversity and abundance? large central vacuole in a plant cell?
(A) Deforestation and urbanization (A) Regulating all activities of the cell.
(B) Overfishing and soil erosion (B) Storing important substances like water.
(C) Use of pesticides and fertilizers (C) Getting rid of cellular waste products.
(D) Maintaining the shape and firmness of the
(D) Pollution and climate change
cell.


Ans


Ans
(D) Pollution and climate change
(A) Regulating all activities of the cell.
The section on microalgae explicitly lists the
The large central vacuole performs storage, waste
threats they face. It states, “However, pollution,
disposal, and structural support functions. The
climate change, and habitat destruction are
regulation of all cell activities is the primary role
threatening microalgal diversity and abundance,”
of the nucleus, which acts as the cell’s control
highlighting the environmental pressures on these
center.
important organisms.
70. Match the microbial process or entity with its
67. A scientist wants to observe the internal structures
defining characteristic.
of a bacterial cell, which lacks a true nucleus.
What specific region containing genetic material Column A Column B
should they look for?
1 Decomposition A The process used
(A) The chloroplast
by yeast and some
(B) The nucleoid
bacteria to break down
(C) The mitochondria
food, which is useful
(D) The vacuole
in making bread and


Ans curd.
(B) The nucleoid 2 Virus B The process where
It specifies that their genetic material is microbes break down
concentrated in a region within the cytoplasm dead plants and
known as the nucleoid. animals into simple,
nutrient-rich manure.
68. The constant motion of water particles causes
what to happen to a crystal of potassium 3 Fermentation C The conversion of
permanganate dropped into it? atmospheric nitrogen
(A) The crystal gets hotter due to the particle into a form usable
collisions. by plants, performed
(B) The crystal’s particles are pulled out and by bacteria like
spread throughout the water, coloring it pink. Rhizobium.
(C) The crystal floats on the surface of the water. 4 Nitrogen D A microscopic,
(D) The water particles form a barrier, preventing Fixation acellular entity that
it from dissolving. can reproduce only by


Ans infecting a living host
cell.
(B) The crystal’s particles are pulled out and
Options
spread throughout the water, coloring it pink.
(a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
The activity demonstrates the movement of
(b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
particles in a liquid. The constantly moving water
(c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
particles collide with the potassium permanganate
(d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
crystal, knocking off its constituent particles.
These particles then continue to be moved around

Ans
by the water particles until they are evenly (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
distributed, resulting in a uniformly colored Decomposition is the process of breaking down
solution. waste into manure. A virus is an acellular microbe
page 50 Class 8th Science Foundation

that requires a host to multiply. Fermentation (D) It must be a plant cell because plant cells are
is used in making foods like bread and curd. constantly changing.
Nitrogen fixation enriches soil with nitrogen.


Ans
71. What is the correct order of events when a virus (B) It likely lacks a rigid cell wall, similar to an
infects a host? (1) The virus multiplies, (2) The animal cell or an amoeba.
host may develop a disease, (3) The virus enters The ability to change shape indicates flexibility.
a living cell. A rigid cell wall, found in plants, fungi, and
(A) 2, 3, 1 bacteria, provides a fixed structure. Therefore, an
(B) 1, 3, 2 organism that is actively changing its shape as it
(C) 1, 2, 3 moves, like an amoeba, most likely does not have
(D) 3, 1, 2 a cell wall.


Ans 74. What is the term for the thin, transparent layer
(D) 3, 1, 2 pulled from the inner surface of an onion piece for
The process of viral infection follows a specific microscopic observation?
sequence. First, the virus must get inside a suitable (A) Onion tissue
living host cell (3). Once inside, it uses the cell’s (B) Onion membrane
machinery to make copies of itself, or multiply (C) Onion peel
(1). This replication process often damages or (D) Onion skin
destroys the host cells, leading to the symptoms


Ans
of a disease (2).
(C) Onion peel
72. Both yeast and Lactobacillus are used in food The specific term “onion peel” to describe the
production. What is a key difference in the thin epidermal layer that is easily separated from
products of their fermentation? the concave inner surface of an onion slice. This
(A) Yeast produces alcohol and carbon dioxide, peel is ideal for observation because it is typically
while Lactobacillus produces lactic acid. only one cell thick.
(B) Yeast is classified as a bacterium, while
Lactobacillus is classified as a fungus. 75. An organ system, such as the digestive system, is
(C) Yeast produces lactic acid in milk, while defined as:
Lactobacillus produces alcohol in dough. (A) several organs working together to perform a
(D) Yeast works only in cold temperatures, while major function.
Lactobacillus works only in hot temperatures. (B) a complete living being, such as a human.
(C) a group of different tissues working together.


Ans (D) a group of similar cells performing one task.
(A) Yeast produces alcohol and carbon dioxide,


Ans
while Lactobacillus produces lactic acid.
While both are fermenters, they have different (A) several organs working together to perform a
metabolic pathways. Yeast fermentation produces major function.
ethanol (alcohol) and carbon dioxide (which This is the definition for a level of organization
makes bread rise). Lactic acid fermentation by above the organ. For example, the digestive system
bacteria like Lactobacillus produces lactic acid consists of multiple organs (stomach, intestines,
(which makes curd sour). liver, etc.) that all cooperate to perform the
major function of digesting food and absorbing
73. You see a single organism under a microscope nutrients.
that changes its shape as it moves. What can you
infer about its cellular structure? 76. When preparing a slide of cheek cells, methylene
(A) It is definitely a virus because viruses can blue is used. This is an example of a:
change shape. (A) Cleaning agent
(B) It likely lacks a rigid cell wall, similar to an (B) Mounting medium
animal cell or an amoeba. (C) Stain
(C) It must have chloroplasts to get the energy (D) Preservative
required for movement.

Ans
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

(C) Stain This question directly contrasts the outer

Methylene blue is a colored chemical used to dye layers of plant and animal cells. The plant cell’s
biological specimens. Its purpose is to add color outermost layer is the rigid cell wall, which
to the largely transparent animal cells and their provides structural support. In contrast, the
nuclei, making them visible and easier to study animal cell lacks a cell wall, making the flexible
under a light microscope. cell membrane its outermost boundary.

77. If all living things are made of cells, why can’t we 80. Which of the following statements about the cell
see the cells in our hand? nucleus is correct?
(A) Because the cells that make up our hand are (A) It is only present in plant cells and not animal
naturally transparent. cells.
(B) Because they only become visible to the (B) It is a jelly-like substance that fills the entire
naked eye at night. cell.
(C) Because they are covered by a thick, non- (C) It is absent in all types of microorganisms.
cellular layer of skin. (D) It regulates the growth and all activities of
(D) Because most individual cells are too small to the cell.
be seen with the naked eye.


Ans


Ans (D) It regulates the growth and all activities of
(D) Because most individual cells are too small to the cell.
be seen with the naked eye. The nucleus is the control center for eukaryotic
The chapter’s introduction establishes that there cells (plants, animals, fungi, protozoa). It contains
is a world of life too small for our unaided eyes to the genetic blueprint and directs all major cellular
perceive. While our hand is composed of trillions functions, making this statement accurate. It is
of cells, each individual cell is microscopic in size, present in both plant and animal cells and is not
requiring a tool like a microscope to be seen. just a jelly-like substance.

78. A student observes a microorganism that is 81. A single-celled alga is to producer as a ______
a unicellular fungus. Which of the following is to decomposer.
microbes are they most likely observing? (A) mushroom (fungus)
(A) Lactobacillus (B) human
(B) Yeast (C) plant
(C) Amoeba (D) virus
(D) Bread mould


Ans


Ans (A) mushroom (fungus)
(B) Yeast The analogy is based on ecological roles. Single-
The question requires identifying a microbe celled algae are producers because they perform
that fits two criteria: it must be unicellular and photosynthesis. Fungi, such as mushrooms or
a fungus. Amoeba is a protozoan. Bread mould moulds, are primary decomposers because they
is a fungus but is multicellular. Lactobacillus is break down dead organic matter, recycling
a bacterium. Yeast is the only option that is a nutrients back into the ecosystem.
unicellular fungus.
82. The existence of both helpful bacteria (like
79. In a plant cell, the ______ provides rigid Lactobacillus) and harmful bacteria (disease-
support, while in an animal cell, the flexible causing ones) demonstrates that:
______ is the outermost boundary. (A) all bacteria are dangerous and should be
(A) cell wall, cell membrane eliminated from the environment.
(B) nucleus, cell wall (B) microorganisms are a diverse group with
(C) cytoplasm, nucleus varied effects on the world.
(D) vacuole, cytoplasm (C) only beneficial bacteria can be seen with a
standard microscope.


Ans
(D) bacteria are not truly living organisms like
(A) cell wall, cell membrane plants and animals.
page 52 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans 86. A farmer notices his bean plants are not growing
(B) microorganisms are a diverse group with well and look yellow. A soil test reveals a lack of
varied effects on the world. nitrogen. What beneficial microorganism is likely
This highlights the main theme of the latter half missing or ineffective in the soil?
of the chapter. Microorganisms are not a uniform (A) Algae
group of “germs.” They represent a vast and (B) Rhizobium
diverse kingdom of life with a wide spectrum of (C) Lactobacillus
roles, from being essential for life and industry to (D) Yeast
being agents of disease.

Ans
83. What is the shape of a muscle cell as described in (B) Rhizobium
the chapter? Bean plants are legumes that rely on a symbiotic
(A) Spindle-shaped relationship with Rhizobium bacteria to obtain
(B) Long and branched nitrogen from the air. If the plants show signs
(C) Round of nitrogen deficiency, it is highly likely that the
(D) Rectangular necessary Rhizobium bacteria are not present or


Ans are not functioning correctly in the soil.

(A) Spindle-shaped 87. Why is a virus often considered to be on the

The specific examples of cell variation. It describes border between living and non-living?
muscle cells as being shaped like a spindle (tapered (A) Because it does not contain any genetic
at both ends), which is related to their function of material like DNA or RNA.
contraction and relaxation to produce movement. (B) Because it is too small to be seen with any
type of microscope.
84. Which of the following is NOT a level of (C) Because it is acellular and can only reproduce
organization in the body of a living organism? when inside a living host.
(A) Organ (D) Because it can be easily destroyed by common
(B) Tissue soap and water.
(C) Cell
(D) Molecule

Ans


Ans (C) Because it is acellular and can only reproduce
when inside a living host.
(D) Molecule
Viruses exhibit some characteristics of life (like
While cells are made of molecules, in the hierarchy
having genetic material and evolving) but lack
of biological organization for a living organism
others (like being made of cells and being unable
(Cell ® Tissue ® Organ ® etc.), the molecule
to reproduce on their own). They are inert outside
is at a lower, chemical level of organization, not a
a host, like a non-living chemical, but become
biological level like cell or tissue.
active and replicate inside one, blurring the line
85. The cytoplasm contains various components and between living and non-living.
is the site for most of the cell’s life processes.
88. In the activity to observe microorganisms from
Which of the following is NOT a component
soil, what is the liquid containing fine soil particles
found in the cytoplasm?
called?
(A) The cell wall
(A) Soil extract
(B) Carbohydrates
(B) Soil suspension
(C) Proteins
(C) Muddy water
(D) Mineral salts
(D) Soil solution


Ans


Ans
(A) The cell wall
The cell wall is an external structure found outside (B) Soil suspension
the cell membrane in plant cells. The cytoplasm A specific term for the mixture created by stirring
is the internal content of the cell enclosed by the soil in water. A suspension is a mixture where fine,
cell membrane. Therefore, the cell wall is not a solid particles are dispersed in a liquid but are not
component of the cytoplasm. dissolved. This is what the “soil suspension” is.
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

89. If you look through a microscope at a sample and 92. A student draws a cell they observed. It is roughly
see only single-celled organisms without cell walls, circular, has a nucleus, and a cell membrane, but
which of the following have you NOT found? no cell wall or chloroplasts. What kind of cell did
(A) Some types of protozoa they most likely draw?
(B) Plant cells (A) A fungal cell
(C) Amoeba (B) A plant cell
(D) Paramecium (C) An animal cell
(D) A bacterial cell


Ans
(B) Plant cells

Ans
A defining characteristic of plant cells is the (C) An animal cell
presence of a rigid outer cell wall. If the observed The described features—irregular/circular shape,
organisms all lack a cell wall, you can definitively nucleus, and cell membrane, combined with the
rule out the possibility that they are plant cells. absence of a cell wall and chloroplasts—are the
Amoeba and Paramecium are protozoa that lack classic characteristics of a typical animal cell, like
cell walls. the human cheek cell discussed in the chapter.

90. All living beings are made up of basic units 93. How does the movement of particles in a solid
called ______, which can be observed using a differ from the movement of particles in a liquid?
______. (A) Solid particles only vibrate in place, while
(A) organs, magnifying glass liquid particles can move past each other.
(B) cells, microscope (B) Solid particles move faster than liquid
(C) tissues, telescope particles at the same temperature.
(D) atoms, ruler (C) Solid particles can move freely, while liquid


Ans particles are held in fixed positions.
(B) cells, microscope (D) There is no movement of particles in either
The two fundamental points: the cell is the the solid or the liquid state.
basic building block of all life and because cells

Ans
are typically too small to be seen by the naked
eye, a microscope is the essential tool required to (A) Solid particles only vibrate in place, while
observe them. liquid particles can move past each other.
The state of matter is determined by particle
91. Why is it important to conserve microalgae? movement. In solids, strong forces lock particles
(A) To protect a major source of Earth’s oxygen into a fixed lattice where they can only vibrate. In
and a key part of aquatic food webs. liquids, weaker forces allow particles to break free
(B) Because they are responsible for decomposing from fixed positions and slide past one another,
all waste in the environment. enabling the liquid to flow.
(C) To prevent them from evolving into larger,
94. What was Dr. Ananda Mohan Chakrabarty’s
more dangerous organisms.
significant contribution to science mentioned in
(D) Because they are a primary source of nitrogen the chapter?
for plants in the soil. (A) He was the first person to see a cell using a


Ans microscope.
(B) He developed a special bacterium that could
(A) To protect a major source of Earth’s oxygen break down oil spills.
and a key part of aquatic food webs. (C) He discovered the first antibiotic, known as
Microalgae produce over half the world’s oxygen penicillin.
and form the base of many aquatic food chains. (D) He invented the foldscope, a low-cost paper
Conserving them is therefore essential for microscope.
maintaining the planet’s oxygen balance and the
health of aquatic ecosystems.

Ans
(B) He developed a special bacterium that could
break down oil spills.
page 54 Class 8th Science Foundation

The chapter highlights Dr. Chakrabarty’s 400x or more) necessary to see the details of tiny
work as an example of using microbes to solve organisms like amoeba or algae.
environmental problems. His development of
a genetically engineered bacterium capable of 98. What is the significance of the fact that yeast
consuming oil was a pioneering achievement in produces alcohol as a byproduct of respiration?
biotechnology and bioremediation. (A) It has no real significance and is just a cellular
waste product.
95. A single brick is to a brick wall as a single onion (B) It is the basis for the production of alcoholic
cell is to ______. beverages like beer and wine.
(A) the onion peel (C) It is used in the baking industry to make
(B) a plant bread rise and become fluffy.
(C) an onion bulb (D) It makes the dough taste sour, similar to how
(D) the nucleus curd is made.


Ans

Ans
(A) the onion peel (B) It is the basis for the production of alcoholic
The direct analogy is present between a brick beverages like beer and wine.
wall and the structure of an onion peel. A brick While the carbon dioxide from yeast is key for
wall is made of many individual bricks arranged baking, the alcohol (ethanol) produced during
together. Similarly, the onion peel is observed to fermentation is the fundamental principle behind
be made of many individual, rectangular cells the brewing and wine-making industries. This
fitted together. process, carried out by yeast, converts sugars into
alcohol.
96. What is a tissue?
(A) A single, highly specialized cell in the body. 99. Which of these statements about the cell theory is
(B) The basic structural and functional unit of inconsistent with the information in the chapter?
life. (A) Viruses are the simplest form of cells.
(C) A collection of different organs working (B) All living things are composed of cells.
together for a common purpose. (C) The cell is the basic unit of life.
(D) A group of similar cells organized to perform (D) All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
a specific function.


Ans


Ans (A) Viruses are the simplest form of cells.
(D) A group of similar cells organized to perform The viruses are “acellular,” meaning they are not
a specific function. cells at all. They lack the fundamental structures
This is the standard biological definition provided of a cell. Therefore, classifying them as the
in the chapter’s description of the levels of simplest form of a cell is incorrect.
organization. For instance, many muscle cells
group together to form muscle tissue, which 100. A student observes some cells under a microscope
collectively functions to produce movement. that have a cell wall and a nucleus, but no
chloroplasts. These cells are most likely:
97. If you wanted to see living microorganisms from (A) Bacterial cells
a local pond, which instrument would be most (B) Fungal cells
appropriate to use? (C) Animal cells
(A) A magnifying glass (D) Plant leaf cells
(B) A pair of binoculars


Ans
(C) A microscope
(D) A telescope (B) Fungal cells
Let’s use elimination. Animal cells lack a cell wall.


Ans Plant leaf cells have chloroplasts. Bacterial cells
(C) A microscope lack a nucleus. Fungal cells fit all the criteria:
The chapter’s central theme is that microorganisms they are eukaryotic (have a nucleus) and possess
are invisible to the naked eye. While a magnifying a cell wall, but they are not photosynthetic and
glass can enlarge small objects, a microscope thus lack chloroplasts.
provides the much higher magnification (100x to
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

101. The body of a living organism is organized in a shaped, which is suited for their function of
complex way. What is the most basic unit in this contraction and relaxation.
organization?
(A) Cell 104. Which of the following is an accurate statement
(B) Tissue about the diversity of microorganisms?
(C) Organ (A) Microorganisms exhibit great diversity in
(D) Organism shape, size, and can be found in extreme
environments.


Ans (B) All microorganisms are identical in their basic
(A) Cell structure and function.
The text explicitly describes the hierarchy of life, (C) The only types of microorganisms that exist
starting from the most fundamental level. It states are bacteria and viruses.
that the “Cell... is the basic unit of life,” from (D) Microorganisms can only survive in moderate,
which all other levels of organization (tissues, non-extreme temperatures.
organs, etc.) are built.

Ans
102. Why can’t a single human skin cell survive on (A) Microorganisms exhibit great diversity
its own if separated from the body, whereas an in shape, size, and can be found in extreme
amoeba can? environments.
(A) The amoeba has a thick cell wall for The vast diversity within the microbial world. It
protection, unlike the skin cell. notes that they vary in shape (spherical, rod-like,
(B) The skin cell is too small to survive irregular), size, and structure. It also mentions
independently. they are found everywhere, even in extreme
(C) The amoeba is a complete organism, while climates like hot springs and snow.
the skin cell is specialized and depends on
other systems. 105. A chef wants to make fluffy bhaturas. Which
(D) The skin cell does not have a nucleus to microorganism should be added to the dough to
control its functions. achieve this?
(A) Spirulina


Ans (B) Rhizobium
(C) The amoeba is a complete organism, while (C) Lactobacillus
the skin cell is specialized and depends on other (D) Yeast
systems.

Ans
An amoeba is a unicellular organism that must
perform all life functions. A skin cell is part of (D) Yeast
a multicellular organism; it is specialized for The yeast is used in making various food items
protection and relies on the digestive system for soft and fluffy, including breads, cakes, and
nutrients, the respiratory system for oxygen, etc. explicitly mentions its use in dough for making
It cannot survive independently. bhaturas. The carbon dioxide produced by the
yeast during fermentation creates gas pockets,
103. The long and branched shape of a ______ making the dough rise and become fluffy.
cell helps it transmit messages, while the spindle
shape of a ______ cell helps it contract. 106. What is the effect of having very strong
(A) nerve, muscle interparticle attractions between the particles of
(B) cheek, onion a substance at room temperature?
(C) plant, animal (A) The substance will be a gas.
(D) muscle, nerve (B) The substance will dissolve easily in water.
(C) The substance will be a solid.


Ans (D) The substance will be a liquid.
(A) nerve, muscle

Ans
The chapter uses these two cell types to illustrate
the relationship between structure and function. (C) The substance will be a solid.
It describes nerve cells as long and branched The physical state of matter is determined by the
for communication and muscle cells as spindle- strength of the forces between its particles. Very
strong attractive forces lock particles into fixed
page 56 Class 8th Science Foundation

positions with only vibrational movement, which 110. An onion peel cell is to a plant as a cheek cell is
is the defining characteristic of the solid state. to a(n) ______.
(A) animal
107. What was the first-ever use of the word “cell” in (B) fungus
science, as described by Robert Hooke? (C) bacteria
(A) To describe the nucleus of a living plant cell. (D) virus
(B) To describe the small, empty spaces he saw in
a thin slice of cork.

Ans
(C) To describe a single living bacterium he (A) animal
observed. The analogy links a specific type of cell to the
(D) To describe the basic unit of an animal’s larger kingdom of life it represents. An onion
body. peel cell is a classic example of a plant cell,


Ans representing the plant kingdom. A cheek cell is a
classic example of an animal cell, representing the
(B) To describe the small, empty spaces he saw in animal kingdom.
a thin slice of cork.
The Hooke’s first observation and naming of 111. ______ organisms are made of just one cell,
“cells” was based on looking at dead cork tissue. while ______ organisms are made of many
He saw the empty cell walls and named these cells.
compartments “cells,” not knowing at the time (A) Unicellular, multicellular
that they were the remnants of living units. (B) Microscopic, macroscopic
(C) Plant, animal
108. A round-bottom flask filled with water can make (D) Simple, complex
letters on a page appear larger. This is because
the flask and water together act like a:

Ans
(A) Mirror (A) Unicellular, multicellular
(B) Magnifying glass (lens) These are the precise scientific terms used to
(C) Microscope classify organisms based on their cell count. “Uni-
(D) Telescope ” means one, so unicellular refers to single-celled


Ans organisms. ”Multi-” means many, so multicellular
refers to organisms composed of many cells.
(B) Magnifying glass (lens)
The activity demonstrates a basic principle of
optics. The curved surface of the flask filled with
water bends light rays in a way that magnifies the
112. Which of the following is an accurate description
image of the text underneath. This is the same
principle by which a magnifying glass, which is a of the cytoplasm?
convex lens, works. (A) A jelly-like substance where most life
processes of the cell take place.
109. Which statement about the levels of biological (B) A rigid outer layer that is found only in plant
organization is incorrect? cells for support.
(A) A cell is made up of different types of tissues. (C) The control center of the cell which contains
(B) Tissues are made up of groups of similar cells. the genetic material.
(C) An organism is made up of multiple organ (D) An empty space within the cell that is mainly
systems. used to store waste products.
(D) Organs are made up of different types of

Ans
tissues.
(A) A jelly-like substance where most life processes


Ans of the cell take place.
(A) A cell is made up of different types of tissues. This statement correctly identifies both the
This reverses the hierarchy. A cell is the most physical nature (jelly-like) and the functional
basic unit. Tissues are made of cells, not the other importance of the cytoplasm. It is the site for a
way around. Therefore, the statement that a cell vast array of metabolic activities essential for the
is made of tissues is incorrect. cell’s survival, growth and function.
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

113. A student finds that a piece of fruit left in a warm, 116. A “constituent particle” is best defined as:
damp place grows mould faster than one left in a (A) A large piece of a substance that is visible to
cool, dry place. What does this suggest about the the naked eye.
conditions for mould growth? (B) The basic, smallest unit that makes up a
(A) Mould does not need any specific conditions larger piece of a substance.
to grow properly. (C) A mixture of several different substances.
(B) Mould grows better in warm and moist (D) Any particle that is found floating in the air.
conditions.


Ans
(C) Mould can only grow on fruit and not other
types of food. (B) The basic, smallest unit that makes up a
(D) Mould prefers to grow in cool and dry larger piece of a substance.
environments. The chapter introduces this term to explain that
matter is not continuous. Any substance, like a


Ans piece of chalk, is made up of a vast number of
(B) Mould grows better in warm and moist these fundamental building blocks, which are the
conditions. smallest possible units of that substance.
This is a simple experiment demonstrating the
environmental preferences of mould (a fungus). 117. When making a temporary mount of cheek cells,
The observation that growth is faster in the what is the step that should be done immediately
warm, damp location indicates that these are after spreading the scraped material on the slide?
more favorable conditions for the mould to thrive (A) Add a coverslip over the material.
and reproduce. (B) Add a drop of methylene blue stain.
(C) Add a drop of glycerin to prevent drying.
114. What is the direct cause of milk becoming sour (D) Observe the slide under the microscope.
when it is converted to curd?


Ans
(A) The production of lactic acid by bacteria.
(B) The production of alcohol by bacteria. (B) Add a drop of methylene blue stain.
(C) The increase in the temperature of the milk. According to the procedure outlined, once the
(D) The removal of all the sugar from the milk. transparent cell material is on the slide, the next
crucial step is to stain it. The stain (methylene


Ans blue) needs about a minute to color the cells,
(A) The production of lactic acid by bacteria. making them visible, before the mounting medium
The process of curdling. Lactobacillus bacteria (glycerin) and coverslip are added.
ferment the milk sugar (lactose) and produce
lactic acid as a byproduct. It is this acid that 118. Many bacteria in our intestine help in digestion.
gives curd its characteristic sour taste and causes This is an example of what kind of relationship?
the milk proteins to coagulate. (A) A symbiotic or mutually beneficial
relationship.
115. Which of the following statements about cell (B) A parasitic relationship where the bacteria
structure and function is false? harm us.
(A) The cell wall gives a plant cell its rigid shape. (C) A competitive relationship where we fight the
(B) The nucleus is found only in bacterial cells. bacteria for food.
(C) Nerve cells are long and branched to transmit (D) A predator-prey relationship where we
messages. consume the bacteria.
(D) The cell membrane controls what enters and


Ans
leaves the cell.
(A) A symbiotic or mutually beneficial


Ans relationship.
(B) The nucleus is found only in bacterial cells. This is a classic example of symbiosis where both
This statement is the opposite of the truth. A key organisms benefit. We provide the bacteria with
feature of bacterial cells (prokaryotes) is that they a safe place to live and food, and in return, they
lack a true, membrane-bound nucleus. Eukaryotic help us break down food components that we
cells, such as those of plants, animals, and fungi, cannot digest on our own and produce certain
are the ones that possess a well-defined nucleus. vitamins.
page 58 Class 8th Science Foundation

119. What is the main functional difference between 122. Which statement about the organization of a
a chloroplast and a mitochondrion (mentioned in multicellular organism is true?
the cell diagram)? (A) The organism is the simplest level of
(A) Chloroplasts control the cell, and mitochondria organization.
provide shape. (B) An organ is made of only a single type of
(B) Chloroplasts are only in animal cells, and specialized cell.
mitochondria are only in plant cells. (C) A tissue is a more complex level of organization
(C) Chloroplasts perform photosynthesis, while than an organ.
mitochondria perform cellular respiration to (D) Organ systems are collections of different
release energy. organs that work together for a common
(D) Chloroplasts store water for the cell, and function.
mitochondria produce proteins.

Ans


Ans (D) Organ systems are collections of different
(C) Chloroplasts perform photosynthesis, while organs that work together for a common function.
mitochondria perform cellular respiration to This correctly describes the organ system level.
release energy. For example, the digestive system includes organs
Although cellular respiration isn’t detailed in like the stomach, intestines, and liver, all working
this chapter, this is the fundamental difference. together. The other statements incorrectly
Chloroplasts capture light energy to make describe the hierarchy of organization.
food (photosynthesis). Mitochondria are the
123. Why can a single-celled organism like a bacterium
“powerhouses” that break down that food to
carry out all necessary life functions within one
release usable energy for the cell (respiration).
cell?
120. Spirulina, a microalga, is called a superfood (A) Because it is simple and does not need to
because it is a good source of: perform many functions to survive.
(A) Protein and Vitamin B12 (B) Because it does not need to eat or respire like
(B) Fat and sugar more complex organisms.
(C) Vitamin C and fiber (C) Because its single cell contains all the
(D) Water and minerals necessary structures and machinery for
survival and reproduction.


Ans
(D) Because it gets help from other nearby
(A) Protein and Vitamin B12 bacteria to perform its life functions.
The chapter specifically highlights the nutritional

Ans
benefits of Spirulina. It states that it has a high
protein content (over 60% of its weight) and is a (C) Because its single cell contains all the
good source of Vitamin B12, making it a valuable necessary structures and machinery for survival
health supplement. and reproduction.
Unicellular life is not necessarily “simple” in
121. The invention of the ______ opened up a function. A single bacterial cell is a highly
fascinating hidden world, leading to the discovery complex and efficient unit that is fully equipped to
of tiny living creatures called ______. perform all essential life processes—metabolism,
(A) camera, photographs growth, response to stimuli, and reproduction—
(B) microscope, microorganisms independently within its own cellular boundary.
(C) printing press, books
(D) telescope, stars 124. If you observe a slide of plant root cells under a
microscope, what structure present in plant leaf


Ans cells would you expect to be absent?
(B) microscope, microorganisms (A) Chloroplasts
It was the invention of the microscope that (B) A cell wall
provided the necessary magnification to see (C) A nucleus
beyond the limits of the naked eye, leading to (D) No difference, they would be identical.
the discovery of the previously unknown world of

Ans
microorganisms.
(A) Chloroplasts
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

The presence of chloroplasts is directly linked to plants. The fact that it grows on a decaying log
the function of photosynthesis, which requires suggests it is a decomposer. These characteristics
sunlight. Since roots are typically underground all point towards it being a fungus.
and not exposed to light, their cells do not perform
photosynthesis and therefore lack chloroplasts, 128. What is the effect of the cell wall on a plant cell’s
which are abundant in leaf cells. shape?
(A) It makes the cell flexible and able to change
125. A key is to a lock as a(n) ______ is to shape easily.
regulating cell activities. (B) It has no significant effect on the cell’s overall
(A) vacuole shape.
(B) nucleus (C) It causes the cell to be perfectly spherical in
(C) cytoplasm all cases.
(D) cell membrane (D) It gives the cell a rigid, often rectangular, and
fixed shape.


Ans
(B) nucleus

Ans
The analogy relates an object to its specific (D) It gives the cell a rigid, often rectangular, and
function. A key is the object that controls the fixed shape.
function of a lock (opening and closing). Similarly, The cell wall is a strong, structural layer made
the nucleus is the organelle within the cell that primarily of cellulose. Its rigidity is the direct
controls all of the cell’s activities and functions. cause of the fixed, often box-like or rectangular,
shape characteristic of plant cells, providing
126. Which of the following is NOT a beneficial role of support and protection.
microorganisms mentioned in the chapter?
(A) Fixing atmospheric nitrogen for legumes. 129. The “levels of organisation” in living things.
(B) Decomposition of waste to form manure. What does this concept imply?
(C) Production of curd and bread. (A) That living things are built in a hierarchical
(D) Conversion of solar energy into chemical and structured way, from simple units to
energy in all ecosystems. complex systems.
(B) That all cells in an organism are organized in


Ans
a single straight line.
(D) Conversion of solar energy into chemical (C) That organisms are officially organized based
energy in all ecosystems. on their overall size.
While photosynthetic microbes like algae (D) That some organisms are better and more
contribute significantly to this process, the important than others.
statement implies they are solely responsible
in all ecosystems. The primary producers in

Ans
terrestrial ecosystems are multicellular plants. So, (A) That living things are built in a hierarchical
attributing this role entirely to microorganisms is and structured way, from simple units to complex
an overstatement and thus incorrect. systems.
This concept describes how life is structured. It’s
127. An organism is observed to have cells with a not a random assortment of parts. There is a
nucleus and a cell wall. It does not move and clear hierarchy where simpler components (cells)
does not appear green. It is found growing on a are organized into more complex levels (tissues,
decaying log. This organism is most likely a: organs, organ systems), with each level building
(A) Plant upon the one below it to create a functional whole.
(B) Fungus
(C) Animal 130. The shape of a cell is related to its ______, for
(D) Bacterium example, the elongated shape of a nerve cell helps
it carry ______.


Ans
(A) size, water
(B) Fungus (B) function, messages
The presence of a nucleus and cell wall rules out (C) color, nutrients
animals (no cell wall) and bacteria (no nucleus). (D) location, oxygen
The lack of green color (no chlorophyll) rules out
page 60 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (C) Both are onion peels.

(B) function, messages (D) Neither is an onion peel.
The chapter explicitly links cell structure to

Ans
function. It uses the nerve cell as a primary
example, explaining that its long and branched (A) Slide A
structure (shape) is perfectly suited for its specific The analogy of a brick wall for onion cells is
role (function) of transmitting nerve impulses or used. Their rigid cell walls cause them to have
messages throughout the body. a fixed, rectangular shape and to be tightly and
neatly packed together. The irregular shapes and
131. Which statement about the composition of the scattered arrangement are characteristic of animal
cytoplasm is incorrect based on the text? cells like cheek cells.
(A) It contains carbohydrates and proteins.
(B) Most of the cell’s life processes take place 134. Decomposer is to manure as Rhizobium is to
within it. ______.
(C) It contains mineral salts and fats. (A) disease
(D) It contains the cell’s nucleus. (B) nitrogen fixation
(C) curd


Ans (D) bread
(D) It contains the cell’s nucleus.

Ans
The text defines the cytoplasm as the substance
that fills the space between the cell membrane and (B) nitrogen fixation
the nucleus. Therefore, the nucleus is a separate The analogy relates a microbe to its primary
compartment suspended within the cytoplasm, beneficial process or product. Decomposer
not a component of the cytoplasm itself. microbes produce manure. Rhizobium bacteria
carry out the process of nitrogen fixation, which
132. Why is the foldscope mentioned in the chapter? benefits leguminous plants.
(A) As an example of an ancient scientific
instrument. 135. A cell is a complex structure made of many parts.
(B) As the only tool that can be used to see What are the tiny rod-shaped structures found in
viruses. plant cells called?
(C) As a replacement for all high-powered (A) Plastids
laboratory microscopes. (B) Nucleoids
(D) To show that powerful scientific tools can be (C) Cilia
low-cost and accessible to many people. (D) Flagella

Ans

Ans

(D) To show that powerful scientific tools can be (A) Plastids

low-cost and accessible to many people. In the “A step further” section discussing plant
The chapter introduces the foldscope, a low-cost cells, the text explicitly mentions “tiny rod-shaped
paper microscope, to illustrate that scientific structures called plastids.” It then explains that
exploration is not limited to those with expensive chloroplasts are a type of plastid.
equipment. It highlights how innovation can
136. Which of the following is NOT a function of
make the microscopic world accessible to a
cells working together in the digestive system as
wider audience, promoting curiosity and learning
described in the chapter?
everywhere.
(A) Nerve cells carry oxygen to the stomach.
133. You have two slides: one of an onion peel and (B) Muscle cells in the stomach churn the food.
one of a human cheek. You are not told which is (C) Cells in the stomach lining produce digestive
which. You observe that the cells on slide A are juices.
arranged in a neat, brick-like pattern, while the (D) Muscle cells contract to push food down the
cells on slide B are more irregularly shaped and food pipe.
scattered. Which slide is the onion peel?

Ans
(A) Slide A
(A) Nerve cells carry oxygen to the stomach.
(B) Slide B
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

The roles of muscle and lining cells in digestion.

Ans

While nerve cells are present to control these (B) Safranin
muscles, their function is to carry messages, not The procedure for preparing the onion peel slide
oxygen. Oxygen is transported by red blood cells specifies the use of safranin. It is described as a
in the circulatory system. “red-coloured stain” that gives a pinkish color to
the cells to make them more visible under the
137. “A cell is not just a simple bag of liquid.” What microscope.
does this imply?
(A) That cells are highly organized structures 140. Which statement about the levels of organization
with many specialized internal parts. in living things is FALSE?
(B) That cells are actually solid and contain no (A) A tissue is composed of different types of
liquid. organs.
(C) That the main component of a cell is its outer (B) An organ is composed of different types of
bag or membrane. tissues.
(D) That cells do not contain any liquid (C) The cell is the basic unit of life.
components at all. (D) An organ system is composed of several


Ans organs.

(A) That cells are highly organized structures

Ans

with many specialized internal parts. (A) A tissue is composed of different types of
This statement is used to transition from the organs.
basic parts of a cell to the idea of its internal This statement reverses the hierarchy. An organ
complexity. It emphasizes that a cell is a dynamic, is more complex than a tissue. A tissue is made
structured unit with many different components of similar cells, and an organ is made of different
(organelles like the nucleus, plastids, vacuoles) tissues. Therefore, a tissue cannot be composed
each performing a specific, vital function. of organs.

138. How does a mould (multicellular fungus) differ 141. A student is told that a certain microbe is a
from a yeast (unicellular fungus)? prokaryote. Based on this information, what can
(A) Yeast has a cell wall for support, but mould the student conclude about the microbe’s cell
does not. structure?
(B) Mould is a type of microbe, but yeast is not (A) It has a large central vacuole for storage.
considered a microbe. (B) It lacks a true, membrane-bound nucleus.
(C) Mould is made of many cells, while yeast is a (C) It has chloroplasts for photosynthesis.
single cell. (D) It is a multicellular organism.
(D) Mould can perform photosynthesis to make


Ans
food, but yeast cannot.
(B) It lacks a true, membrane-bound nucleus.


Ans
The defining characteristic of a prokaryote, like
(C) Mould is made of many cells, while yeast is a bacterium, is the absence of a membrane-
a single cell. enclosed nucleus. Its genetic material is located
The chapter explicitly makes this distinction to in a nucleoid region. This distinguishes it from
illustrate diversity within the fungi kingdom. eukaryotes (plants, animals, fungi, protozoa).
It states, “yeast is a unicellular fungus while
mould is a multicellular fungus,” highlighting the 142. Why is the microscope such a crucial invention for
difference in their basic body structure based on the field of biology?
the number of cells. (A) It allowed for the first accurate drawings of
large animals and plants.
139. In Activity 2.2, which chemical is used as a red- (B) It proved that all living things are exactly the
colored stain for the onion peel cells? same at the cellular level.
(A) Methylene blue (C) It allowed scientists to create new types of
(B) Safranin cells in the laboratory.
(C) Iodine (D) It revealed the existence of cells and
(D) Glycerin microorganisms, the fundamental units of life.
page 62 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (A) yolk, shell

(D) It revealed the existence of cells and The yellow yolk of the ostrich egg as the massive
microorganisms, the fundamental units of life. single cell. It also mentions that this cell is
Before the microscope, the entire world of life accompanied by non-cellular material, including
smaller than what the naked eye could see was a protective outer shell.
unknown. The microscope opened up this world,
146. Which of the following is an accurate statement
allowing for the discovery of cells and microbes,
which revolutionized biology. about the function of the cell wall?
(A) It is a flexible boundary that allows the cell to
143. What is the effect of having very weak interparticle change its shape.
attractions and large interparticle spaces between (B) Its main function is to carry out the process
the particles of a substance? of photosynthesis.
(A) The substance will be a solid with a fixed (C) It is found in all living cells, including those
shape and volume. of animals.
(B) The substance will be a gas that expands to (D) It provides rigidity and strength, particularly
fill any container. to plant cells.
(C) The substance will be a liquid with a fixed

Ans
volume but no fixed shape.
(D) The substance will be very dense and heavy (D) It provides rigidity and strength, particularly
for its size. to plant cells.
The primary role of the cell wall, which is found


Ans in plants, fungi, and bacteria but not animals, is
(B) The substance will be a gas that expands to structural. It is a tough, rigid layer that provides
fill any container. support, protection, and maintains the cell’s fixed
The properties of gases are a direct result of the shape.
behavior of their particles. Because the attractive
147. Why do you need to add a small amount of curd
forces are negligible and the space between them is
vast, gas particles can move freely and randomly, to milk to start the curd-making process?
causing the gas to have no fixed shape or volume (A) To add extra protein and nutrients to the
and to expand to fill all available space. final product.
(B) To introduce the necessary Lactobacillus
144. A food company wants to produce a fermented bacteria.
milk drink that is sour. Which microorganism (C) To cool the milk down to the correct
would be the most suitable choice for this process? temperature for setting.
(A) Rhizobium, to add nitrogen to the milk. (D) To make the final product taste better and
(B) Spirulina, to add protein and vitamins. less sour.
(C) Lactobacillus, to produce lactic acid.

Ans
(D) Yeast, to produce alcohol and make it fizzy.
(B) To introduce the necessary Lactobacillus


Ans bacteria.
(C) Lactobacillus, to produce lactic acid. The small spoonful of curd acts as a “starter
The goal is to produce a sour milk drink. that culture”. It contains a live population of the
Lactobacillus bacteria ferment milk and produce required bacteria (Lactobacillus). Adding this
lactic acid, which is responsible for the sour taste to the milk inoculates it, providing the microbes
of curd and other fermented dairy products. needed to begin the fermentation process that will
turn the rest of the milk into curd.
145. The ______ of an ostrich egg is the largest
known single cell, and it is protected by an outer 148. The process by which microorganisms like yeast
______. or bacteria break down substances like sugar in
(A) yolk, shell the absence of oxygen is called:
(B) embryo, yolk (A) Decomposition
(C) white, membrane (B) Photosynthesis
(D) nucleus, cytoplasm (C) Fermentation
(D) Respiration


Ans
Pagesmith CH 02 : The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

Ans (C) It allows the cell to move from one place to

(C) Fermentation another.
Although the chapter uses the term respiration (D) It helps maintain the cell’s shape and provides
for yeast, the process described for both yeast support to the plant.
(producing alcohol/CO2) and Lactobacillus

Ans
(producing lactic acid) is more accurately and
commonly known as fermentation. This is the (D) It helps maintain the cell’s shape and provides
metabolic process they use to get energy from support to the plant.
sugar. When the large central vacuole is full of water,
it pushes against the cell wall, creating turgor
149. What are the two main things that threaten the pressure. This pressure makes the cell firm and
diversity of microalgae? rigid, which in turn helps support the entire plant
(A) Predation by fish and competition from larger structure, preventing it from wilting.
aquatic plants.
(B) Over-harvesting for health supplements and a 152. A scientist is studying a sample and finds
lack of sunlight. organisms made of single cells. These cells have
(C) Soil erosion and large-scale deforestation a cell wall and a nucleoid region, but no distinct
projects. nucleus. What type of organisms are they?
(D) Pollution, climate change, and habitat (A) Bacteria
destruction. (B) Fungi
(C) Plants


Ans (D) Animals
(D) Pollution, climate change, and habitat

Ans
destruction.
The text explicitly lists the dangers facing (A) Bacteria
microalgae. It states, “However, pollution, climate The combination of features is key. The presence
change, and habitat destruction are threatening of a cell wall is common in several groups, but
microalgal diversity and abundance.” These are the lack of a true nucleus and the presence of a
the primary environmental pressures mentioned. nucleoid instead is the defining characteristic of
prokaryotes, which are bacteria.
150. Which of the following statements about the role
of microbes in the environment is false? 153. The cells from different parts of a human (cheek,
(A) All microbes in the soil are harmful to plant muscle, nerve) look very different. What is the
growth. fundamental reason for this variation?
(B) Microalgae produce a large amount of the (A) The cells have different numbers of nuclei
oxygen in the atmosphere. inside them.
(C) Some bacteria and fungi decompose dead (B) The cells are specialized to perform different
matter, recycling nutrients. functions.
(D) Some bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen (C) The cells come from different parents of the
into usable forms for plants. individual.


Ans (D) The cells are all different ages from one
another.
(A) All microbes in the soil are harmful to plant
growth.

Ans
Decomposer bacteria and fungi create nutrient- (B) The cells are specialized to perform different
rich manure, and Rhizobium bacteria provide functions.
nitrogen directly to legumes. Therefore, the This is a core concept in multicellular organisms
statement that all soil microbes are harmful is known as cell differentiation. Cells develop specific
incorrect. structures and shapes that are highly adapted
to their particular jobs. A nerve cell’s shape is
151. What is the direct effect of having a large central
for communication, a muscle cell’s shape is for
vacuole filled with water in a plant cell?
contraction, demonstrating that structure follows
(A) It makes the cell turn a bright green color.
function.
(B) It causes the entire cell to shrink in size.
page 64 Class 8th Science Foundation

154. What is the correct sequence for preparing an

onion peel slide? (1) Place peel on slide, (2) Add
stain, (3) Add glycerin and coverslip, (4) Pull out
the thin peel.
(A) 4, 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 4, 2, 1, 3
(D) 2, 4, 1, 3


Ans
(A) 4, 1, 2, 3
The logical procedure is to first obtain the
specimen (4. pull out the peel). Then, you must
place the specimen on the slide (1. place peel on
slide). After that, you add the color to make it
visible (2. add stain). Finally, add the mounting
medium and coverslip to complete the mount (3.
add glycerin and coverslip).

155. What is the name of the process by which

Rhizobium bacteria convert nitrogen from the air
into a form usable by plants?
(A) Nitrogen fixation
(B) Respiration
(C) Decomposition
(D) Photosynthesis


Ans
(A) Nitrogen fixation
The specific process of converting atmospheric
nitrogen gas (N2), which is unusable by most
plants, into compounds like ammonia is called
nitrogen fixation. The chapter credits Rhizobium
bacteria with this vital agricultural and ecological
function.

*************
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

CHAPTER 3
Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

SUMMAR 2. How to Stay Healthy

2.1 Maintaining a Healthy Lifestyle

1. What is Health? A healthy lifestyle is crucial for overall well-being.
This includes:
1.1 The Complete Definition of Health 1. Eating a Balanced Diet : Consume plenty of
fruits, vegetables, and whole grains. Avoid
According to the World Health Organization
excessive processed, fatty, or sugary foods.
(WHO), health is defined as a “state of complete
physical, mental, and social well-being, and not
merely the absence of disease”.Being healthy is
not just about not falling sick; it also involves
feeling good physically, thinking positively, and
having good relationships with others.

1.2 The Three Aspects of Health

True health is a balance of three main areas:

Eat a balanced diet

2. Staying Physically Active : Engage in regular

activities like playing outdoors, walking,
running, or cycling.

Aspects of health

1. Physical Health : Taking care of your body

through diet, exercise, and cleanliness.
2. Mental Health : Maintaining a positive
mindset, managing stress, and feeling good
emotionally.
3. Social Health : Having strong, positive Stay physically active
relationships with family, friends, and the
community. 3. Getting Enough Rest : Proper sleep helps
your body and mind recover.
page 66 Class 8th Science Foundation

Living in a clean, hygienic area reduces the

chances of falling sick from diseases spread by flies
and mosquitoes.

3. Understanding Diseases

3.1 Signs vs. Symptoms

A diseases a condition that negatively affects
the normal functioning of the body or mind.
Get enough sleep Symptoms are what a person feels when they are
unwell, such as pain, tiredness, or desensitizers
4. Managing Stress : Practice relaxation indicators that can be seen or measured by others,
techniques like yoga or simple breathing like a fever, a rash, or high blood pressure.
exercises.
3.2 Types of Diseases
Diseases are broadly grouped into two types:
1. Communicable Diseases : Caused by disease-
causing organisms called pathogens(e.g.,
bacteria, viruses).They can spread from an
infected person to a healthy person. Examples
include the flu, chickenpox, typhoid, and
COVID-19.
2. Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) : These
diseases are not caused by pathogens and do
not spread from person to person.They are
usually linked to lifestyle factors, genetics,
Manage stress and the environment. Examples include
diabetes, heart disease, asthma, and cancer.
5. Avoiding Harmful Substances : Say ‘NO’ to
NCDs are now the leading cause of death in
tobacco, alcohol, and addictive drugs.
India.

4. Communicable (Infectious) Diseases

4.1 How They Spread

Pathogens can enter our bodies and spread in
several ways :

Say no to smoking or alcohol

2.2 Importance of a Clean Environment

Your surroundings significantly impact your
health. Clean air and water are essential. Air
pollution from vehicles and factories can cause Common methods of transmission of diseases
respiratory problems like coughing and asthma.
1. Through the Air : When an infected person
coughs or sneezes.
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

2. Direct/Indirect Contact : Shaking hands with 6.2 Prevention Through Vaccines

an infected person or sharing their personal 1. A vaccine trains the immune system to
items like towels. recognise and fight specific pathogens without
3. Contaminated Food and Water : Consuming causing the disease.
food or water that contains pathogens. 2. They are made from weakened, dead, or
4. Through Vectors : Insects like mosquitoes and harmless parts of the pathogen.
houseflies can carry pathogens and transmit 3. Vaccines are a preventive measure; they
them to humans. protect you from getting sick but do not cure
the disease once you have it.
4.2 Common Examples and Prevention
4. Mass vaccination campaigns have successfully
1. Air-borne (e.g., Common Cold, TB) : eradicated diseases like smallpox.
Prevention includes washing hands, covering
your mouth when coughing, and vaccination. 6.3 Treatment with Antibiotics
2. Water/Food-borne (e.g., Cholera, Typhoid) Antibiotics are medicines used to treat diseases
: Prevention involves drinking boiled water, caused by bacteria. They work by killing the
eating properly cooked food, and maintaining bacteria or stopping their growth.
good hygiene. Important : Antibiotics do not work against
3. Vector-borne (e.g., Malaria, Dengue) : viruses, so they cannot cure illnesses like the
Prevention includes using mosquito nets and common cold or flu.
repellents and preventing mosquitoes from
breeding in stagnant water. 6.4 The Challenge of Antibiotic Resistance
1. Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria
5. Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) change and are no longer killed by antibiotics.
2. This is a serious global health threat, caused
5.1 Causes and Types by the overuse and incorrect use of antibiotics.
1. NCDs are often called lifestyle diseases 3. To prevent resistance, antibiotics should only
because they are linked to habits like an be used when prescribed by a doctor and the
unhealthy diet and lack of physical activity. full course must be completed.
2. Deficiency Diseases : A type of NCD caused
by a lack of specific nutrients in the diet, such
as scurvy (lack of Vitamin C) or anaemia
(lack of iron).

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO
3. Chronic Diseases : Diseases that last for
a long time (more than 3 months), such as
diabetes and asthma. 1. What are “constituent particles”?
(A) The visible dust motes floating in a sunbeam
which are large enough to be seen.
(B) The small, indivisible particles that make up
all matter.
5.2 Focus on Diabetes
(C) The different states of matter, such as solid,
Diabetes is a major health concern in India, liquid, or gas, which describe bulk properties.
affecting both children and adults. It develops due (D) The smallest unit of a living organism, like a
to factors like hormonal imbalances, unhealthy cell in a plant or animal.
eating habits, lack of physical activity, and being


Ans
overweight.
(B) The small, indivisible particles that make up
6. Disease Prevention and Treatment all matter.
The chapter introduces the concept that all
6.1 The Body’s Defence : Immunity matter, whether it’s a piece of chalk or a drop of
water, is not a continuous block but is composed
Immunity is the body’s natural ability to fight off
of extremely small, fundamental units. These
diseases. This is handled by the immune system,
basic building blocks are referred to as constituent
which protects the body from harmful pathogens.
particles.
page 68 Class 8th Science Foundation

2. Why can you write with a piece of chalk on a The smell of the incense is carried by its gaseous
blackboard? particles. These particles, along with the air
(A) The chalk chemically reacts with the surface particles in the room, are in constant, random
to form a new white-colored compound. motion. They collide and spread out, eventually
(B) The blackboard has a magnetic property that distributing themselves evenly throughout the
attracts the chalk, holding it in place. entire room, which is a process called diffusion.
(C) The particles of chalk break off and fill the
tiny gaps on the board’s surface. 5. In solids, how is the movement of constituent
(D) The heat from the friction of writing melts particles best described?
the chalk so it sticks to the blackboard. (A) They are locked in fixed positions and only
vibrate.


Ans (B) They can slide past one another easily.
(C) The particles of chalk break off and fill the (C) They move around freely and randomly.
tiny gaps on the board’s surface. (D) They do not move at all.
The ability to write with chalk is evidence of

Ans
the particulate nature of matter. The force of
writing breaks the chalk into its tiny constituent (A) They are locked in fixed positions and only
particles, which then get lodged in the microscopic vibrate.
irregularities (gaps) on the surface of the The particles in a solid are held together by very
blackboard, leaving a visible mark. strong attractive forces, which lock them into a
fixed, organized structure. While they cannot
3. What key property of matter is demonstrated by move from place to place, they possess kinetic
dissolving sugar in water without changing the energy and are in constant vibration about their
water level? fixed positions.
(A) Matter is made of particles that are extremely
small. 6. In which state of matter are the attractive forces
(B) Particles of matter have spaces between them. between particles the weakest?
(C) Particles of matter are in constant, random (A) Liquid
motion. (B) Solid
(D) Particles of matter attract each other. (C) Gas
(D) Plasma


Ans


Ans
(B) Particles of matter have spaces between them.
When sugar dissolves, its particles do not simply (C) Gas
sit on top of the water particles. Instead, they In the gaseous state, particles are far apart
separate and occupy the empty spaces, or and move at high speeds. The attractive forces
intermolecular gaps, that exist between the water between them are very weak or negligible, which
particles. This is why the overall volume does not is why gases have no fixed shape or volume and
noticeably increase. expand to fill any container they occupy.

4. Why does the smell of a lit incense stick (agarbatti) 7. Why do liquids take the shape of their container
quickly spread throughout a room? but have a fixed volume?
(A) The smoke from the incense stick is lighter (A) Their particles can slide past one another, but
than air and rises to the ceiling. the attractive forces are still strong enough to
(B) The particles of matter are continuously hold them together.
moving and mix with the air. (B) Their particles are locked into fixed positions,
(C) The heat from the incense stick creates strong but the entire structure can bend to fit the
air currents in the room. container.
(D) The particles of matter are extremely small (C) Their particles have no attractive forces
and can pass through solid objects. between them, allowing them to take any
shape.


Ans (D) Their particles are extremely small and can
(B) The particles of matter are continuously fit into the shape of any container regardless
moving and mix with the air. of size.
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

Ans 10. What does the term “interparticle space” refer

(A) Their particles can slide past one another, to?
but the attractive forces are still strong enough to (A) The size of the individual particles themselves.
hold them together. (B) The gaps or empty spaces between the
In liquids, the attractive forces are weaker than in particles of matter.
solids but stronger than in gases. This allows the (C) The distance between the nucleus and the
particles to break free from fixed positions and outer edge of a particle.
slide around, enabling the liquid to flow and take (D) The pathway a particle takes as it moves
the shape of its container. However, the forces are through a substance.
still sufficient to keep the particles close together,
resulting in a fixed volume.

Ans
(B) The gaps or empty spaces between the
8. What is diffusion?
particles of matter.
(A) The process of a solid turning directly into a
The particulate nature of matter theory states
gas without becoming a liquid first.
that particles are not packed together perfectly.
(B) The intermixing of particles of different
There are small empty spaces between them.
substances on their own.
These spaces are known as interparticle or
(C) The force of attraction that exists between
intermolecular spaces, and their size varies
particles of the same substance.
depending on the state of matter.
(D) The change of state from a liquid to a solid
upon cooling. 11. In which state of matter are the interparticle


Ans spaces the largest?
(A) Gas
(B) The intermixing of particles of different
(B) Liquid
substances on their own.
(C) Solid
Diffusion is the natural movement of particles
(D) They are the same in all states.
from an area of higher concentration to an area
of lower concentration, driven by their constant

Ans
random motion. This results in the spontaneous (A) Gas
mixing of substances, like a drop of ink spreading In the gaseous state, the particles are very far
through water. apart from each other due to weak attractive
forces. This results in large empty spaces between
the particles, which is why gases are highly
compressible. In contrast, the particles in liquids
9. A drop of ink spreads faster in hot water than and solids are much closer together.
in cold water. What does this observation prove?
(A) The particles of matter attract each other 12. You can easily move your hand through the air,
more strongly in hot water. but not through a solid wooden table. What does
(B) Hot water is less dense than cold water, this difference primarily demonstrate?
allowing the ink to sink faster. (A) The particles of wood are much larger than
(C) The particles of matter move faster at higher the particles of air.
temperatures. (B) Air is a gas with weak forces and large spaces,
(D) The particles of hot water are smaller than while wood is a solid with strong forces and
the particles of cold water. small spaces.


Ans (C) The air is at a higher temperature than the
wooden table, which makes it less dense.
(C) The particles of matter move faster at higher
(D) The particles of air are not in motion, while
temperatures.
the particles of wood are vibrating.
Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic
energy of particles. At higher temperatures, both

Ans
the water particles and the ink particles have more
(B) Air is a gas with weak forces and large spaces,
kinetic energy, causing them to move faster. This
while wood is a solid with strong forces and small
increased speed leads to more frequent collisions
spaces.
and a faster rate of intermixing (diffusion).
page 70 Class 8th Science Foundation

This comparison illustrates the differences not locked in place. This is why a gas has neither
between the states of matter. In the air (a gas), a fixed shape nor a fixed volume.
the particles are far apart with weak forces, so
your hand can easily move through the spaces. 16. Particles in a solid are like people in a crowded
In the wood (a solid), the particles are tightly auditorium sitting in their assigned seats, while
packed with strong forces, preventing your hand particles in a gas are like:
from passing through. (A) people standing very close together in a
tightly packed queue.
13. What is the force that holds the particles of a (B) people moving around freely and randomly in
substance together? a large, open park.
(A) Gravitational force (C) people swimming in a very specific lane in a
(B) Electrostatic force swimming pool.
(C) Interparticle force of attraction (D) people sleeping in their beds at home and not
(D) Nuclear force moving at all.


Ans

Ans
(C) Interparticle force of attraction (B) people moving around freely and randomly in
The particles of matter are held together by a force a large, open park.
of attraction. This force is specifically referred to The analogy captures the key characteristics
as the interparticle (or intermolecular) force of of particle motion. People sitting in fixed seats
attraction. The strength of this force determines represent the vibrating particles in a solid’s fixed
the physical state of the substance. structure. People moving freely and randomly in a
large, open space represent the fast, random motion
14. In which state of matter are the interparticle of gas particles with large distances between them.
forces of attraction the strongest?
(A) Gas 17. Why can a gas be compressed easily, while a solid
(B) Liquid cannot?
(C) Solid (A) Because gas particles are soft and can be
(D) They are equally strong in all states. squashed, while solid particles are hard.
(B) Because there are large interparticle spaces


Ans
in a gas that can be reduced by applying
(C) Solid pressure.
In solids, the particles are held in a tightly (C) Because gases are always lighter than solids,
packed, fixed arrangement. This is because the which makes them easier to compress.
attractive forces between the particles are very (D) Because gas particles do not attract each
strong, preventing them from moving freely and other at all, while solid particles do.
giving solids their rigidity and definite shape.


Ans
15. Which statement about gases is FALSE? (B) Because there are large interparticle spaces in
(A) They do not have a fixed volume because a gas that can be reduced by applying pressure.
their particles are very far apart from each Compressibility is directly related to the distance
other. between particles. Gases have large empty spaces
(B) They can be easily compressed because of the between their particles. Applying pressure pushes
large spaces between their particles. these particles closer together, reducing the
(C) They have a fixed shape because their volume. In solids, the particles are already tightly
particles are locked in place. packed, leaving very little empty space to be
(D) They exert pressure on the walls of their compressed.
container due to particle collisions.
18. What is the process of a liquid changing into a


Ans
gas called?
(C) They have a fixed shape because their (A) Melting
particles are locked in place. (B) Condensation
This statement accurately describes a solid, not (C) Evaporation or boiling
a gas. A key characteristic of a gas is that its (D) Freezing
particles are in constant, random motion and are
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

Ans

Ans
(C) Evaporation or boiling (c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
Both evaporation (which occurs at the surface The WHO defines health as complete well-being.
at any temperature) and boiling (which occurs A pathogen is a disease-causing germ. A symptom
throughout the liquid at a specific temperature) is what a patient feels, while a sign is an objective
are processes where a substance in the liquid state indicator that can be measured by a doctor.
gains enough energy to transition into the gaseous
state. 21. A diagram shows three beakers representing solid,
liquid, and gas. The beaker for the solid shows
19. What is matter? particles in a neat, ordered pattern. The beaker
(A) Anything that has mass and occupies space. for the liquid shows particles close together but
(B) Anything that can be seen with the naked disordered. What does the beaker for the gas
eye. show?
(C) Anything that is in a solid state at room (A) Particles close together in a neat, ordered
temperature. pattern.
(D) Anything that is made up of only one type of (B) Particles far apart and randomly scattered
particle. throughout the container.
(C) Particles close together and disordered at the


Ans
bottom of the container.
(A) Anything that has mass and occupies space. (D) No particles are shown in the beaker for the
This is the fundamental scientific definition of gas.
matter. To be classified as matter, a substance
must have two key properties: it must have mass

Ans
(a measure of the amount of ‘stuff’ it contains) (B) Particles far apart and randomly scattered
and it must have volume (it occupies space). throughout the container.
A proper representation of the gaseous state would
20. Match the fundamental health concepts with show the constituent particles widely separated
their correct definitions. from each other and moving randomly, occupying
Column A Column B the entire volume of the beaker, reflecting their
weak attractive forces and high kinetic energy.
1 Health (WHO A An indication of disease
Definition) that can be seen or
measured, like a fever
or rash.
22. Which of the following statements correctly
2 Pathogen B A feeling of being describes the particles of a liquid?
unwell that a person (A) They are held in fixed positions and can only
experiences, such as vibrate.
pain or dizziness. (B) They are very far apart and move randomly
3 Symptom C A state of complete with high speed.
physical, mental, and (C) They are close together but can slide past one
social well-being, not another.
just the absence of (D) They have no attractive forces between them
disease. at all.
4 Sign D A disease-causing

Ans
microorganism, such as (C) They are close together but can slide past one
a bacterium, virus, or another.
fungus. This statement accurately captures the state
Options of particles in a liquid. The attractive forces
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C are strong enough to keep the particles in close
(b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B proximity (giving a fixed volume) but weak
(c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A enough to allow them to move around and slide
(d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D past each other (giving a variable shape).
page 72 Class 8th Science Foundation

23. In solids, the interparticle spaces are ______, 26. According to the chapter, what are the three
while in gases, they are very ______. properties of particles of matter?
(A) smallest, large (A) They are solid, liquid, or gas.
(B) medium, small (B) They are very small, have spaces between
(C) largest, small them, and are continuously moving.
(D) absent, large (C) They are hard, have a fixed shape, and cannot
be broken.


Ans
(D) They are large, have no spaces between them,
(A) smallest, large and are stationary.
The size of the interparticle space is a key
difference between the states of matter. In solids,

Ans
particles are tightly packed, leaving the smallest (B) They are very small, have spaces between
spaces. In gases, particles are far apart, resulting them, and are continuously moving.
in very large intermolecular spaces. The chapter systematically introduces and
provides evidence for three fundamental
24. Which of the following everyday items is NOT an characteristics of the particles that constitute
example of matter? all matter: they are extremely small, they have
(A) A glass of water intermolecular spaces, and they are in a state of
(B) A book constant, random motion.
(C) The air in a balloon
(D) The feeling of happiness 27. A substance has a definite volume but no definite
shape. In which state of matter is this substance?


Ans
(A) Solid
(D) The feeling of happiness (B) Liquid
To be matter, something must have mass and (C) Gas
occupy space. Water, a book, and the air in a (D) Plasma
balloon all have mass and volume. Happiness is
an emotion or a feeling; it does not have mass or

Ans
occupy space, and therefore it is not classified as (B) Liquid
matter. This question provides the properties and asks for
the state. A definite volume means the particles
25. A sponge can be compressed, even though it is a are held closely together by attractive forces. No
solid. Why is this possible? definite shape means the particles can move and
(A) The solid material of the sponge itself is slide past one another. These two properties are
compressible. the defining characteristics of the liquid state.
(B) The sponge is actually a very thick type of
liquid. 28. Which of the following statements about the
(C) The sponge has tiny holes that are filled with states of matter is FALSE?
air, and it is the air that gets compressed. (A) Solids have the highest density among the
(D) When you squeeze a sponge, you are breaking three common states.
the solid particles into smaller pieces. (B) Gases have the highest compressibility.
(C) Solids have a fixed shape and volume.


Ans
(D) Liquids have particles that are completely
(C) The sponge has tiny holes that are filled with stationary.
air, and it is the air that gets compressed.
A sponge is a porous solid. Its compressibility

Ans
is not due to the solid material itself being (D) Liquids have particles that are completely
compressed, but due to the expulsion of the air stationary.
trapped in its numerous tiny holes or pores. You The particles of a liquid are in constant, random
are compressing the gas within the sponge, not motion. They are continuously moving, colliding,
the solid itself. and sliding past one another, which is what allows
a liquid to flow. The idea that they are stationary
is incorrect.
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

29. What is kinetic energy in the context of particles diver’s hand moves into the interparticle spaces,
of matter? pushing the water molecules aside.
(A) The energy a particle has due to its motion.
(B) The force of attraction between two particles. 32. How does the density of a substance generally
(C) The amount of space a particle occupies. change as it goes from a solid to a liquid to a gas?
(D) The energy stored within the bonds of a (A) It decreases.
particle. (B) It increases.
(C) It remains constant.


Ans (D) It increases then decreases.
(A) The energy a particle has due to its motion.

Ans
The particles of matter are always moving,
and this motion gives them energy. The energy (A) It decreases.
possessed by an object or particle due to its Density is mass per unit volume. For most
movement is called kinetic energy. The faster the substances, as you go from solid to liquid to gas,
particles move, the higher their kinetic energy. the particles move farther apart, meaning the
same amount of mass occupies a larger volume.
30. What happens to the kinetic energy of particles A larger volume for the same mass results in a
when the temperature of a substance is increased? lower density.
(A) It decreases.
(B) It increases. 33. What is the main reason that solids have a fixed
(C) It remains the same. shape?
(D) It becomes zero. (A) Their particles are very heavy and sink to the
bottom of any container.


Ans (B) Their particles are locked into a rigid structure
(B) It increases. by strong interparticle forces.
Temperature is a direct measure of the average (C) Their particles have no kinetic energy and are
kinetic energy of the particles. When you heat completely still.
a substance, you are adding energy to it, which (D) Their particles are extremely large and cannot
makes its constituent particles move faster (or be easily moved.
vibrate more vigorously in the case of a solid).

Ans
This increase in motion means their kinetic energy
has increased. (B) Their particles are locked into a rigid structure
by strong interparticle forces.
31. A diver can easily cut through water in a swimming The rigidity and fixed shape of solids are direct
pool. Which property of water particles makes consequences of the strong forces of attraction
this possible? between their particles. These forces hold the
(A) The particles of water are in a constant state particles in fixed positions within a lattice,
of motion. preventing them from moving freely and thus
(B) The interparticle forces of attraction in water maintaining the object’s shape.
are not very strong, and the particles have
spaces between them. 34. What are the particles that make up a piece of
(C) The particles of water are extremely small iron?
and invisible. (A) Cells
(D) The water has a low temperature, which (B) Molecules
weakens the bonds between particles. (C) Atoms
(D) Compounds


Ans


Ans
(B) The interparticle forces of attraction in water
are not very strong, and the particles have spaces (C) Atoms
between them. Iron is a chemical element. The basic constituent
The ability to move through water is possible particle of an element is the atom. Therefore,
because it is a liquid. The attractive forces between a piece of iron is made up of a vast number of
water particles are weak enough to be overcome individual iron atoms tightly packed together in
by the force exerted by the diver’s hand. The a solid structure.
page 74 Class 8th Science Foundation

35. Which of the following is a correct statement the room) until they are evenly distributed. This
about the characteristics of matter particles? process is diffusion.
(A) The particles of matter are so large they can
be seen with the naked eye. 38. A single crystal of potassium permanganate can
color a large volume of water. What does this
(B) The particles of matter are not in motion;
experiment demonstrate about the particles of
they are always stationary.
matter?
(C) The particles of matter have empty spaces
(A) That one particle of potassium permanganate
between them.
must break down into millions of tiny
(D) There are no forces of attraction between the particles.
particles of matter. (B) That the particles of potassium permanganate


Ans are extremely reactive with water.
(C) That the particles of matter have strong
(C) The particles of matter have empty spaces forces of attraction between them.
between them. (D) That the particles of matter are constantly
This is one of the three key properties of matter moving in a straight line.
particles established in the chapter. The activity
of dissolving salt or sugar in water demonstrates

Ans
that there must be intermolecular spaces for the (A) That one particle of potassium permanganate
solute particles to occupy. The other statements must break down into millions of tiny particles.
are incorrect descriptions of matter. For a single, small crystal to color a large volume
of water, it must be composed of a vast number
36. The force of attraction between particles of the
of incredibly small constituent particles. These
same substance is called the force of ______,
millions of particles then spread out through the
while the force between particles of different
water, making the entire solution appear colored,
substances is called the force of ______.
thus demonstrating the extremely small size of
(A) cohesion, adhesion
particles.
(B) motion, diffusion
(C) pressure, volume 39. Match the type of disease with its correct
(D) solid, liquid description or example.


Ans Column A Column B
(A) cohesion, adhesion 1 Communicable A A disease like scurvy
These are the specific terms for interparticle forces. Disease or anaemia, caused by
Cohesion refers to the attraction between like the lack of a specific
particles (e.g., water molecule to water molecule). nutrient in the diet.
Adhesion refers to the attraction between unlike
particles (e.g., water molecule to a glass surface). 2 Non- B An illness caused by
communicable pathogens that spreads
37. When you open a bottle of perfume in one corner Disease through insects like
of a room, the scent can soon be smelled in the mosquitoes, such as
opposite corner. This is a practical example of: Dengue fever.
(A) Sublimation
(B) Diffusion 3 Deficiency C An illness like
(C) Condensation Disease chickenpox or typhoid,
(D) Compression caused by pathogens
that can spread from


Ans person to person.
(B) Diffusion
The perfume evaporates, and its gaseous particles 4 Vector-borne D A condition like
move randomly and collide with air particles. Disease diabetes or asthma,
This continuous motion causes them to spread which is linked to
out from the area of high concentration (near the lifestyle and does
bottle) to areas of low concentration (the rest of not spread between
people.
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

Options 42. What does “particulate nature of matter” mean?

(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B (A) The idea that matter is continuous and can
(b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C be divided indefinitely.
(c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (B) The idea that matter exists in three different
(d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A states: solid, liquid, and gas.
(C) The idea that matter is made up of tiny,


Ans
discrete particles.
(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B (D) The idea that some types of matter are more
Communicable diseases are caused by pathogens important than others.
and can spread. Non-communicable diseases are


Ans
linked to lifestyle and do not spread. Deficiency
diseases are caused by a lack of nutrients. Vector- (C) The idea that matter is made up of tiny,
borne diseases are transmitted by insects. discrete particles.
This phrase encapsulates the central theme of the
40. A substance is observed to have very high chapter. It represents the theory that matter is
compressibility and no fixed volume. What can be not a smooth, continuous substance but is instead
concluded about the particles of this substance? composed of a vast number of individual, separate
(A) The particles are tightly packed with very units called particles (atoms, molecules, or ions).
strong attractive forces.
(B) The particles are very far apart with very 43. Which statement about the properties of matter
weak attractive forces. particles is FALSE?
(C) The particles are close together but are able (A) The rate of diffusion is faster in gases than in
to slide past one another. liquids.
(D) The particles are locked into fixed positions (B) Particles of matter are in constant motion.
and can only vibrate. (C) Particles of matter attract each other.
(D) There are no spaces between the particles of


Ans
a solid.
(B) The particles are very far apart with very

Ans
weak attractive forces.
High compressibility is possible only when there (D) There are no spaces between the particles of
are large spaces between particles. No fixed a solid.
volume indicates that the attractive forces are too While the interparticle spaces in solids are the
weak to hold the particles together. These two smallest among the three states, they are not
properties—large spaces and weak forces—are the zero. There are still tiny gaps between the tightly
defining characteristics of the gaseous state. packed particles. The idea that there are no spaces
at all is incorrect.
41. What is the name of the ancient Indian philosopher
who proposed that matter is made of very small 44. You mix sand and water. The sand settles at the
particles called ‘parmanu’ ? bottom. You mix salt and water, and the salt
(A) Maharishi Kanad disappears. Why does the salt “disappear” while
(B) Aryabhata the sand does not?
(C) Chanakya (A) The salt particles are small enough to fit into
(D) Patanjali the spaces between water particles, while
sand particles are too large.


Ans (B) Sand is a solid, while salt is not considered a
(A) Maharishi Kanad true solid substance.
The chapter’s introduction gives a historical (C) Salt chemically reacts with water to form an
context, mentioning that the idea of matter being invisible gas that bubbles away.
particulate is very old. It specifically credits (D) The water is not hot enough to dissolve the
the ancient Indian sage Maharishi Kanad with large particles of sand.
postulating that matter is composed of minute,

Ans
indivisible particles he named ‘parmanu’.
(A) The salt particles are small enough to fit into
the spaces between water particles, while sand
particles are too large.
page 76 Class 8th Science Foundation

This illustrates both the particulate nature

Ans

of matter and the concept of solubility. The (A) definite, definite
dissolving of salt happens because its constituent Due to the strong interparticle forces locking
particles are small enough to break away and particles into a fixed structure, a solid does not
occupy the intermolecular spaces in the water. change its shape or its volume when moved to a
Sand particles are macroscopic grains, much too different container. It maintains both a definite
large to fit into these spaces. shape and a definite volume.

45. If you keep dividing a piece of chalk, you will 48. Gases have an ______ shape and an ______
eventually reach a point where the particle cannot volume.
be divided further. This smallest indivisible (A) indefinite, definite
particle is the basic idea behind: (B) definite, definite
(A) The three states of matter. (C) definite, indefinite
(B) The law of conservation of energy. (D) indefinite, indefinite
(C) The particulate nature of matter.


Ans
(D) The concept of density.
(D) indefinite, indefinite


Ans Due to weak interparticle forces and high kinetic
(C) The particulate nature of matter. energy, gas particles move freely and spread
This thought experiment gets to the heart of out. This means a gas will take on the shape of
the particulate theory. It contrasts the idea any container it is in (indefinite shape) and will
of continuous matter (which could be divided expand to fill the entire volume of that container
forever) with particulate matter (which has a (indefinite volume).
smallest, fundamental unit). The existence of a
49. What property of gases allows a large amount of
smallest indivisible particle is the core concept.
LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) to be stored in a
46. What is the main difference in the arrangement of small cylinder?
particles between a solid and a liquid? (A) Their low density.
(A) Solid particles are arranged in an orderly (B) Their ability to diffuse quickly.
pattern, while liquid particles are disordered. (C) Their high compressibility.
(B) Solid particles are much smaller than liquid (D) Their high flammability.
particles.


Ans
(C) Solid particles are always in motion, while
liquid particles are stationary. (C) Their high compressibility.
(D) There are no attractive forces in solids, but LPG is stored as a liquid under high pressure,
there are strong forces in liquids. but it is a gas at normal pressure. The reason a
large volume of the gas can be forced into a small


Ans cylinder is that gases are highly compressible.
(A) Solid particles are arranged in an orderly The large spaces between the gas particles can
pattern, while liquid particles are disordered. be greatly reduced by applying pressure, forcing
A key feature of most solids (crystalline solids) them into a much smaller volume.
is that their particles are arranged in a regular,
50. You observe a substance that flows to take the
repeating, three-dimensional pattern called a
shape of the bottom of its container and is very
lattice. In liquids, while the particles are still
difficult to compress. This substance is most
close, they lack this long-range order and are
likely a:
arranged randomly.
(A) Gas
47. Solids have a ______ shape and a ______ (B) Solid
volume. (C) Liquid
(A) definite, definite (D) Plasma
(B) definite, indefinite

Ans
(C) indefinite, definite
(D) indefinite, indefinite (C) Liquid
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

The ability to flow and take the container’s shape (A) The sugar particles have spread evenly
rules out the solid state. The fact that it is very throughout the water.
difficult to compress indicates that its particles The sweet taste is uniform throughout the water
are already closely packed, which rules out the because the sugar particles, through diffusion,
gaseous state. These properties combined are have moved into the spaces between the water
characteristic of a liquid. molecules and distributed themselves evenly. This
ensures that any sample of the water contains
51. Match the method of disease prevention or sugar particles, resulting in a sweet taste.
treatment with its correct description.
53. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
Column A Column B particles in a solid?
1 Vaccination A The body’s natural ability (A) They are tightly packed.
to recognize and fight off (B) They have strong interparticle forces.
harmful germs. (C) They have very little kinetic energy.
2 Antibiotic B A medicine that is (D) They vibrate about their fixed positions.
effective only against

Ans
bacterial infections and (C) They have very little kinetic energy.
does not work on viruses. This statement is potentially misleading. While
3 Hygiene C A preventive measure that particles in a solid have less kinetic energy than
trains the immune system in a liquid or gas at the same temperature, they
to fight a specific disease certainly do not have “very little” in an absolute
before infection occurs. sense. They possess kinetic energy, which is
4 Immunity D Practices like washing why they are in constant vibration. The most
hands with soap and inaccurate description among the choices is this
keeping surroundings one, as the vibration itself is a manifestation
clean to prevent the of kinetic energy. The other options are key
spread of germs. characteristics of solids.

Options
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
(b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
(c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B 54. Which of these phenomena provides the best
(d) 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C evidence that particles of matter are continuously
moving?


Ans (A) The diffusion of the smell of food from the
(b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A kitchen to other rooms.
Vaccination trains the immune system to prevent (B) A brick retaining its shape and volume when
disease. Antibiotics are medicines that kill moved.
bacteria. Hygiene involves keeping clean to avoid (C) The ability to compress a gas into a smaller
germs. Immunity is the body’s natural ability to volume.
fight diseases. (D) A spoon of sugar dissolving in a glass of
water.
52. When sugar is added to water, the water tastes
sweet. What does this indicate about the particles?

Ans
(A) The sugar particles have spread evenly (A) The diffusion of the smell of food from the
throughout the water. kitchen to other rooms.
(B) A chemical reaction has occurred, changing While dissolving sugar also involves particle
the water particles into sweet particles. motion, the spreading of a smell over a long
(C) The water particles themselves have become distance through the air is a very clear and large-
sweet. scale example of diffusion. This process depends
(D) The sugar particles have all settled at the entirely on the constant, random movement of
bottom of the container. both the food scent particles and the air particles,
causing them to intermix and fill the entire space.


Ans
page 78 Class 8th Science Foundation

55. What is the key difference between the interparticle (A) Because the gas is very light and does not
forces in a liquid and a gas? weigh much.
(A) The forces are much stronger in a liquid than (B) Because the gas is chemically changed into a
in a gas. liquid for transport.
(B) The forces are much stronger in a gas than in (C) Because gases are highly compressible and can
a liquid. be forced into a small volume under pressure.
(C) There are no forces at all in a liquid, but (D) Because the gas cylinders are specially
there are strong forces in a gas. designed to expand as needed.
(D) The forces are attractive in a liquid but


Ans
repulsive in a gas.
(C) Because gases are highly compressible and


Ans can be forced into a small volume under pressure.
(A) The forces are much stronger in a liquid than The utility of CNG as a fuel relies on the high
in a gas. compressibility of gases. A large amount of the
The state of matter is primarily determined by the gas, which would occupy a huge volume at normal
balance between kinetic energy and interparticle pressure, can be squeezed into a manageable,
forces. The forces in a liquid are strong enough to small-volume cylinder by applying high pressure.
keep the particles close together (fixed volume), This makes it practical to store and transport.
while in a gas, they are negligible, allowing the
particles to fly far apart. 59. Because of the large spaces between particles,
gases have high ______, but because of the
56. The property of a substance that describes the strong forces between particles, solids have high
amount of mass in a given volume is called: ______.
(A) Compressibility (A) density, rigidity
(B) Density (B) compressibility, fluidity
(C) Diffusion (C) compressibility, rigidity
(D) Rigidity (D) fluidity, density


Ans

Ans
(B) Density (C) compressibility, rigidity
Density is a fundamental physical property of These properties are direct consequences of
matter, defined as the ratio of its mass to its particle arrangement. The large spaces in gases
m allow them to be easily compressed. The strong
volume ( t = ). It essentially describes how
V
tightly packed the matter is in a substance. forces in solids lock the particles in place, making
them resistant to changes in shape, a property
57. A stack of neatly arranged books is to a solid as known as rigidity.
a pile of flowing sand grains is to a(n) ______.
(A) liquid 60. Which of the following comparisons between the
(B) gas states of matter is incorrect?
(C) plasma (A) Solids have a definite shape; liquids and gases
(D) element do not.
(B) Liquids and solids are not easily compressible;


Ans
gases are.
(A) liquid (C) Gases have the highest rate of diffusion; solids
The analogy compares the arrangement and have the lowest.
movement of particles. The neatly stacked books (D) The kinetic energy of particles is highest in
represent the ordered, fixed structure of a solid. solids and lowest in gases.
The sand grains, while being solid individually,


Ans
can flow and slide over each other to take the
shape of their container, mimicking the collective (D) The kinetic energy of particles is highest in
behavior of particles in a liquid. solids and lowest in gases.
This statement is the opposite of the truth. For
58. Why can a large volume of natural gas (CNG) be a given substance, the kinetic energy of particles
transported in cylinders for use in vehicles? increases with temperature. Generally, the
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

gaseous state exists at the highest temperature, Options

so its particles have the highest kinetic energy. (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
The solid state exists at the lowest temperature, (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
so its particles have the lowest kinetic energy. (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
(d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
61. When you light a candle, the solid wax melts
into a liquid. What change has occurred in the

Ans
particles of the wax? (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(A) The particles have gained enough energy to Diabetes is a non-communicable lifestyle disease.
overcome the strong forces holding them in The common cold is a viral disease spread through
fixed positions. the air. Malaria is caused by a protozoan spread
(B) The particles have lost energy, causing them by mosquitoes. Tuberculosis is a bacterial lung
to move closer together and form a liquid. disease spread through the air.
(C) The wax particles have chemically reacted
with the flame to form a new substance. 63. Gases exert pressure on the walls of their
(D) The particles themselves have broken down container. What is the cause of this pressure?
into smaller, simpler particles. (A) The gravitational force pulling the gas
particles downwards.


Ans
(B) The electrostatic repulsion between the
(A) The particles have gained enough energy to individual gas particles.
overcome the strong forces holding them in fixed (C) The force exerted by the gas particles as they
positions. collide with the walls of the container.
Melting is a change of state from solid to liquid.
(D) The strong attractive forces between the gas
This occurs when the solid is heated, and its
particles and the walls of the container.
particles gain enough kinetic energy to vibrate
so vigorously that they break free from the rigid

Ans
lattice structure. They can then slide past one (C) The force exerted by the gas particles as they
another as a liquid. collide with the walls of the container.
62. Match the disease with its primary cause or mode Gas pressure is a result of the constant motion
of transmission. of its particles. These particles are continuously
colliding with each other and with the inner
Column A Column B surfaces of their container. The cumulative force
1 Diabetes A Caused by a protozoan of these countless collisions per unit area is what
pathogen that is we measure as pressure.
transmitted to humans 64. If you try to mix oil and water, they form
through a mosquito separate layers. What does this suggest about the
bite. interparticle forces?
2 Common Cold B A non-communicable (A) The cohesive forces between water molecules
disease strongly linked are stronger than the adhesive forces between
to lifestyle factors water and oil molecules.
like diet and lack of (B) The particles of oil are too large to fit into the
physical activity. spaces between the water particles.
3 Malaria C A bacterial infection (C) The attractive forces between oil particles
that primarily affects are much weaker than those between water
the lungs and spreads particles.
through the air. (D) Oil and water do not have constituent
4 Tuberculosis D Caused by a virus and particles, so they cannot mix.
(TB) commonly spreads

Ans
through the air when
an infected person (A) The cohesive forces between water molecules
coughs or sneezes. are stronger than the adhesive forces between
water and oil molecules.
page 80 Class 8th Science Foundation

For two liquids to mix, the attraction between 68. What happens to the interparticle spaces when a
their different types of particles (adhesion) must solid melts into a liquid?
be comparable to the attraction between their own (A) They generally increase slightly.
particles (cohesion). Water molecules are strongly (B) They generally decrease significantly.
attracted to each other. This attraction is much (C) They disappear completely.
stronger than their attraction to oil molecules, so (D) They do not change at all.
the water molecules “stick together” and exclude


Ans
the oil, causing them to form separate layers.
(A) They generally increase slightly.
65. What is the process of a gas changing directly When a solid melts, its particles break free from
into a solid, bypassing the liquid state, called? their ordered lattice and begin to move more
(A) Evaporation freely. This slightly less efficient packing usually
(B) Condensation results in a small increase in the average distance
(C) Deposition (and thus the spaces) between the particles,
(D) Melting leading to a slight increase in volume for most


Ans substances.

(C) Deposition 69. A substance is stored in a sealed container.

Deposition is the change of phase where a When the container is opened, the substance
substance in a gaseous state turns directly into immediately spreads to fill the entire room. What
a solid without passing through the liquid phase. state of matter was the substance in?
A common example is the formation of frost on a (A) Solid
cold surface from water vapor in the air. (B) Liquid
(C) Gas
66. Which of the following actions demonstrates that (D) Plasma
gases are highly compressible?
(A) Stirring sugar into a cup of tea.

Ans
(B) Inflating a car tyre with air at a petrol station. (C) Gas
(C) Sharpening a pencil. The ability to expand indefinitely to fill all
(D) Freezing water to make ice cubes. available space is a unique characteristic of gases.


Ans It is a direct result of the high kinetic energy
and negligible attractive forces of their particles.
(B) Inflating a car tyre with air at a petrol station. Neither solids nor liquids behave this way.
When a tyre is inflated, a large volume of air is
forced into the fixed, smaller volume of the tyre. 70. Which statement accurately describes the forces
This is only possible because the air, being a gas, between particles of matter?
is highly compressible, allowing its particles to be (A) There are no attractive forces between
squeezed much closer together under pressure. particles in any state of matter.
(B) These forces are responsible for holding the
67. Which property is common to both liquids and particles of a substance together.
gases? (C) These forces are strongest in gases and
(A) They have a definite shape. weakest in solids.
(B) They have a definite volume. (D) These forces increase as the distance between
(C) They are easily compressible. particles increases.
(D) They can flow and take the shape of their
container (fluidity).

Ans

Ans (B) These forces are responsible for holding the

particles of a substance together.
(D) They can flow and take the shape of their This statement correctly identifies the primary
container (fluidity). function of interparticle forces. These attractive
Both liquids and gases are classified as fluids. forces are what bind atoms and molecules
This is because their particles are not held in fixed together, and their strength determines whether
positions and are free to move past one another. the substance will exist as a solid, liquid, or gas
This particle mobility allows them to flow and under a given set of conditions.
conform to the shape of the container they are in.
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

71. The particles in a liquid have more ______ 74. Which of the following is NOT evidence for the
than the particles in a solid, but less than the particulate nature of matter?
particles in a ______. (A) The ability to write on a board with chalk.
(A) kinetic energy, gas (B) The dissolving of salt in water.
(B) mass, gas (C) The diffusion of a smell across a room.
(C) volume, solid (D) The reflection of light from a mirror.
(D) attractive force, solid


Ans


Ans (D) The reflection of light from a mirror.
(A) kinetic energy, gas Reflection of light is a phenomenon of optics,
For a given substance, the kinetic energy of its dealing with the behavior of light waves as they
particles is lowest in the solid state, intermediate bounce off a surface. The other three options are
in the liquid state, and highest in the gaseous phenomena that are directly explained by the
state. This corresponds to the increasing freedom theory that matter is composed of tiny, moving
of movement of the particles as the state changes. particles with spaces between them.

72. In a hospital, oxygen is supplied in large cylinders. 75. An unknown substance is found to have low
The oxygen inside the cylinder is in a highly density, high fluidity, and high compressibility.
compressed state. Which property of oxygen This substance must be a:
allows this? (A) Solid
(A) It is a colorless and odorless substance. (B) Liquid
(B) It is a gas and is therefore highly compressible. (C) Gas
(C) It is essential for human respiration. (D) Metal
(D) It is slightly heavier than the air around us.


Ans


Ans (C) Gas
(B) It is a gas and is therefore highly compressible. Each property points to the gaseous state. Low
Just like with CNG or LPG, the ability to store density results from particles being far apart.
a large amount of oxygen in a portable cylinder High fluidity (ability to flow) is characteristic of
relies on its physical properties as a gas. Gases liquids and gases. High compressibility is a unique
have large intermolecular spaces, allowing them feature of gases due to the large intermolecular
to be compressed into a much smaller volume spaces.
under high pressure for storage and transport.
76. What is the primary reason why diffusion occurs
73. If you drop a book and a piece of paper from the much faster in gases than in liquids?
same height, the book falls faster. If you crumple (A) Gas particles are much larger than liquid
the paper into a tight ball, it falls almost as fast particles.
as the book. This shows that the difference in (B) Gas particles move much faster and have
falling speed was mainly due to: larger spaces between them.
(A) The weight of the objects. (C) The attractive forces between gas particles
(B) The color of the objects. are much stronger.
(C) The effect of air resistance on the shape of the
(D) Gases are always at a much higher temperature
objects.
than liquids.
(D) The temperature of the objects.


Ans


Ans
(B) Gas particles move much faster and have
(C) The effect of air resistance on the shape of
larger spaces between them.
the objects.
Diffusion relies on the movement of particles. Gas
The flat piece of paper has a large surface area,
particles have higher kinetic energy (they move
so it catches a lot of air and is slowed down by
faster) and encounter fewer obstacles because
air resistance (a force exerted by gas particles).
the spaces between them are so large. In liquids,
Crumpling the paper reduces its surface area
particles are more crowded and move slower,
and the effect of air resistance, allowing it to fall
leading to a much slower rate of diffusion.
faster, closer to the rate of the denser book.
page 82 Class 8th Science Foundation

77. What is fluidity? close together, resulting in small interparticle

(A) The ability of a substance to be compressed spaces (as in solids). When the forces are weak,
into a smaller volume. the particles can move farther apart, resulting in
(B) The property of a substance to resist a change large spaces (as in gases).
in its shape.
(C) The ability of a substance to flow. 80. Match the scientific term or pioneer with their
(D) The measure of the mass contained in a given correct contribution to health science.
volume of a substance. Column A Column B


Ans 1 Edward Jenner A A condition where
(C) The ability of a substance to flow. bacteria evolve and
Fluidity is the property that allows a substance’s are no longer killed
particles to move past one another, causing the by medicines, often
substance as a whole to flow and take the shape of due to overuse.
its container. Both liquids and gases are classified
2 Alexander B An organism, such
as fluids because they exhibit this property.
Fleming as a mosquito or
78. When you add a few drops of Dettol to a bucket of housefly, that carries
water, the entire bucket of water smells of Dettol. and transmits
This demonstrates that: pathogens.
(A) The particles of matter are very small and 3 Vector C The English doctor
have spaces between them. who developed the
(B) Dettol chemically reacts with the water to world’s first vaccine
produce a smell. by studying cowpox
(C) Dettol is a solid that can dissolve in water. and smallpox.
(D) The temperature of the water increases when
Dettol is added. 4 Antibiotic D The bacteriologist
Resistance who made the


Ans chance discovery of
(A) The particles of matter are very small and penicillin, the first
have spaces between them. antibiotic.
This is another example of diffusion and the
Options
particulate nature of matter. A few drops of
(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
Dettol must contain a vast number of particles.
(b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
These particles then spread out (diffuse) into the
(c) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
spaces between the water molecules, distributing
(d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
themselves throughout the entire volume of water.


Ans
79. What is the relationship between the interparticle
(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
force of attraction and the interparticle space?
Edward Jenner developed the smallpox vaccine.
(A) They are not related to each other in any way.
Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin. A vector
(B) Generally, stronger forces lead to smaller
is an insect that spreads disease. Antibiotic
spaces.
resistance occurs when bacteria survive antibiotic
(C) Generally, stronger forces lead to larger
treatment.
spaces.
(D) The relationship depends on the temperature 81. What is the process of a solid changing directly
of the substance. into a gas called?


Ans (A) Melting
(B) Boiling
(B) Generally, stronger forces lead to smaller
(C) Sublimation
spaces.
(D) Freezing
There is an inverse relationship between these two
properties. When the attractive forces between

Ans
particles are very strong, they pull the particles (C) Sublimation
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

Sublimation is the phase transition where a flow (liquids and gases). “Rigid” describes a
substance goes from the solid state directly to substance that maintains a fixed shape and
the gaseous state, without passing through the resists deformation, which is a key characteristic
intermediate liquid phase. Dry ice (solid carbon of solids.
dioxide) is a common example.
85. An empty glass is inverted into a trough of water.
82. Why do solids have high density? Water does not enter the glass. What does this
(A) Because their constituent particles are very experiment prove?
heavy. (A) The glass is made of waterproof material.
(B) Because their constituent particles are packed (B) The glass is not truly empty; it is filled with
very closely together. air, which is a form of matter that occupies
(C) Because their constituent particles move very space.
slowly. (C) The water is not dense enough to enter the
(D) Because their constituent particles have very glass.
strong kinetic energy. (D) The force of gravity prevents the water from
rising into the glass.


Ans
(B) Because their constituent particles are packed

Ans
very closely together. (B) The glass is not truly empty; it is filled with
Density is mass divided by volume. In solids, the air, which is a form of matter that occupies space.
strong interparticle forces cause the particles to This classic experiment demonstrates that air is
be packed tightly, meaning a large amount of matter. The “empty” glass is full of air particles.
mass is contained within a small volume. This For water to enter, it must displace the air.
results in a high density. Since the air has nowhere to escape, it occupies
the space inside the glass and exerts pressure,
83. Which of the following is a key postulate of the preventing the water from entering.
particulate nature of matter?
(A) All matter is continuous. 86. What must be overcome for a substance to change
(B) Particles of matter are stationary. from a solid to a liquid, or a liquid to a gas?
(C) Matter is composed of tiny particles. (A) The kinetic energy of the particles.
(D) Particles of matter do not have spaces between (B) The force of gravity acting on the substance.
them. (C) The interparticle forces of attraction.
(D) The pressure of the surrounding atmosphere.


Ans


Ans
(C) Matter is composed of tiny particles.
(C) The interparticle forces of attraction.
This is the foundational principle of the theory. It
Changes of state that involve particles moving
posits that matter is not a seamless, continuous
farther apart (melting, boiling, sublimation)
whole but is instead made up of a vast number
require an input of energy. This energy is used
of discrete, individual units called particles. The
to overcome the attractive forces that hold the
other statements contradict the theory’s main
particles together in the more condensed state
points.
(solid or liquid).
84. Liquids and gases are called ______ because
87. How does the movement of particles in a hot solid
they can flow, while solids are called ______
compare to a cold solid?
because they are not easily deformed.
(A) The particles in the hot solid vibrate more
(A) solids, fluids
vigorously than in the cold solid.
(B) fluids, rigid
(B) The particles in the hot solid stop moving,
(C) rigid, fluids
while they move in the cold solid.
(D) hard, soft
(C) The particles in the hot solid can slide past


Ans each other, unlike in the cold solid.
(B) fluids, rigid (D) There is no difference in the particle
These are the correct scientific terms. “Fluid” movement.
is a classification for any substance that can

Ans
page 84 Class 8th Science Foundation

(A) The particles in the hot solid vibrate more

Ans

vigorously than in the cold solid. (A) Liquid
Increasing the temperature of a solid increases the This is the defining combination of properties for
kinetic energy of its particles. Since the particles the liquid state. The attractive forces are strong
are locked in a lattice, this increased energy enough to maintain a fixed volume, but the
manifests as more rapid and vigorous vibrations particles can move past each other, allowing the
about their fixed positions. liquid to take the shape of its container.

88. Which of these is NOT considered a state of 91. The continuous, zig-zag motion of pollen grains
matter in the context of this chapter’s primary suspended in water (Brownian motion) is caused
focus? by:
(A) Solid (A) The pollen grains themselves being alive and
(B) Liquid moving.
(C) Gas (B) The pollen grains being pushed around by the
(D) Light constant, random movement of the invisible


Ans water particles.
(C) Convection currents in the water caused by
(D) Light temperature differences.
The chapter focuses on the three common (D) The pollen grains being lighter than water,
states of matter: solid, liquid, and gas, which which causes them to float and bob around.
are defined by their constituent particles having
mass and occupying space. Light is a form of

Ans
electromagnetic radiation (energy) and does not (B) The pollen grains being pushed around by
have the properties of matter in the same way. the constant, random movement of the invisible
water particles.
89. A bag of crisps sealed at sea level appears to puff Brownian motion is powerful indirect evidence
up when taken to a high-altitude location like the for the kinetic theory of matter. The larger,
mountains. This happens because: visible pollen grains are not moving on their
(A) The air pressure inside the bag increases at own. They are being bombarded unevenly by
high altitudes. the much smaller, invisible water particles that
(B) The lower air pressure at high altitude allows are in constant, random motion, resulting in the
the air trapped inside the bag to expand. observed erratic movement.
(C) The temperature is always lower in the
mountains, causing the bag to shrink.
(D) The plastic material of the bag becomes more
flexible at high altitudes. 92. Which of the following statements about the


Ans particulate theory of matter is incorrect?
(A) The particles of matter are extremely small.
(B) The lower air pressure at high altitude allows
(B) The particles of a given substance are
the air trapped inside the bag to expand.
identical.
The bag is sealed with air at sea-level pressure.
(C) The spaces between particles are filled with
At a high altitude, the surrounding atmospheric
air.
pressure is significantly lower. Because the
(D) The particles of matter are in constant
pressure inside the bag is now greater than the
motion.
pressure outside, the gas inside expands, pushing
against the bag and causing it to inflate or “puff

Ans
up.” (C) The spaces between particles are filled with
air.
90. The state of matter characterized by a definite
The intermolecular spaces between particles are
volume but an indefinite shape is:
considered to be empty space, or a vacuum. They
(A) Liquid
are not filled with air or any other substance.
(B) Solid
The idea that they are empty is crucial to
(C) Gas
understanding properties like compressibility and
(D) Plasma
dissolving.
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

93. When a solid like camphor or naphthalene is left 96. Which of the following is NOT one of the three
open in a room, it slowly disappears without characteristics of particles of matter discussed in
leaving any residue. This process is called: the chapter?
(A) Evaporation (A) Particles have spaces between them.
(B) Melting (B) Particles are continuously moving.
(C) Sublimation (C) Particles are all spherical in shape.
(D) Condensation (D) Particles attract each other.


Ans

Ans
(C) Sublimation (C) Particles are all spherical in shape.
This phenomenon is a direct observation of The chapter establishes three main characteristics:
sublimation. The solid camphor particles are particles have spaces, are in motion, and attract
gaining enough energy from the surroundings to each other. It also mentions a fourth (they are very
change directly into a gas, bypassing the liquid small). The shape of constituent particles (which
state entirely, which causes the solid to gradually can be atoms, molecules, or ions) is complex and
disappear. varied, and they are not all simple spheres.

94. What is the most significant difference between 97. The ability of an iron almirah to maintain its
the properties of a liquid and a gas? shape is due to which property of its particles?
(A) Liquids are fluids, but gases are not. (A) The iron particles have very high kinetic
(B) Liquids have a definite volume, while gases do energy.
not. (B) The iron particles have very large spaces
(C) Gases can be seen, but liquids cannot. between them.
(D) Gases have strong interparticle forces, while (C) The iron particles have very strong forces of
liquids have weak ones. attraction between them.
(D) The iron particles are continuously sliding


Ans
past one another.
(B) Liquids have a definite volume, while gases
do not.

Ans
While both are fluids, this is a key distinction. (C) The iron particles have very strong forces of
The forces in a liquid are sufficient to maintain a attraction between them.
constant volume. The forces in a gas are negligible, The iron almirah is a solid. Its rigidity and
so a gas expands to fill the entire volume of its definite shape are direct results of the very strong
container, meaning its volume is indefinite. interparticle forces (metallic bonds in this case)
that hold the iron atoms in a fixed, tightly packed
95. A scientist finds that a certain material has lattice, preventing them from moving out of
particles that are very far apart and move at position.
extremely high speeds. The scientist has most
likely identified a: 98. A syringe is filled with air, its nozzle is sealed,
(A) Solid and the piston is pushed. The piston moves in
(B) Liquid significantly. The same is done with a syringe
(C) Gas filled with water, and the piston barely moves.
(D) Pure substance This demonstrates that:
(A) Air (a gas) is highly compressible, while water


Ans
(a liquid) is not.
(C) Gas (B) Water is much heavier than air.
The description of particles being very far apart (C) The syringe works better with air than with
and moving at high speeds perfectly matches the water.
model of the gaseous state of matter. These two (D) Air is a mixture, while water is a pure
characteristics are responsible for all the main compound.
properties of gases, such as low density, high
compressibility, and indefinite shape and volume.

Ans
(A) Air (a gas) is highly compressible, while water
(a liquid) is not.
page 86 Class 8th Science Foundation

This experiment directly compares the The behavior of a gas is governed by these two
compressibility of a gas and a liquid. The large properties. The high kinetic energy keeps the
movement of the piston with air shows that particles in constant, rapid, random motion. The
the volume of the gas can be easily reduced. negligible attractive forces mean there is nothing
The minimal movement with water shows that to hold the particles together, so they continue
its volume cannot be easily reduced because its to move and spread out until they are stopped
particles are already closely packed. by the container walls, thus filling any available
volume.
99. What happens to the rate of diffusion as
temperature increases? 102. You can break a stream of water from a tap with
(A) It decreases because particles slow down. your finger, but the stream re-forms after your
(B) It does not change with temperature. finger passes. This demonstrates that:
(C) It increases because particles gain kinetic (A) Water is not a form of matter.
energy and move faster. (B) The particles of water have forces of attraction
(D) It becomes zero because the particles stop holding them together.
moving. (C) Water is easily compressible.
(D) The particles of water are stationary.


Ans
(C) It increases because particles gain kinetic

Ans
energy and move faster. (B) The particles of water have forces of attraction
Diffusion is the result of particle motion. Since holding them together.
increasing the temperature increases the kinetic While your finger can overcome the forces to break
energy and speed of the particles, they will the stream (fluidity), the fact that the stream
intermix more quickly. This is why a drop of ink joins back together shows that the cohesive forces
spreads faster in hot water than in cold water. between the water molecules are pulling them
back together as soon as the external disrupting
100. The particles of matter are very ______, and force (your finger) is removed.
the spaces between them are called ______
spaces. 103. Which of the following is NOT a property of a
(A) large, external solid?
(B) small, interparticle (A) Definite shape
(C) heavy, empty (B) Definite volume
(D) visible, particle (C) High fluidity
(D) High density


Ans
(B) small, interparticle

Ans
The two key characteristics: matter is made (C) High fluidity
of extremely small particles, and the gaps Fluidity is the ability to flow, which is characteristic
between these particles are scientifically termed of liquids and gases. Solids, due to their particles
interparticle (or intermolecular) spaces. being locked in fixed positions, are rigid and do
not flow. Therefore, high fluidity is not a property
101. What allows a gas to fill a container of any size of solids.
or shape?
(A) Its particles have high kinetic energy and 104. A substance maintains its volume when poured
negligible forces of attraction. from a small cup into a large bowl, but it spreads
(B) Its particles are very small and can fit out to cover the bottom of the bowl. This
anywhere. substance is a:
(C) Its particles have a very strong attraction to (A) Solid
the walls of the container. (B) Gas
(D) Its particles are very heavy and spread out (C) Liquid
along the bottom. (D) Mixture


Ans

Ans
(A) Its particles have high kinetic energy and (C) Liquid
negligible forces of attraction.
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

Maintaining its volume is a key property that (B) The weight of the gas particles pressing down
distinguishes it from a gas (which would expand). due to gravity.
Spreading out to take the shape of the container (C) The attractive forces between the individual
distinguishes it from a solid (which has a fixed gas particles.
shape). These two behaviors together are the (D) The chemical reactions between the gas
defining characteristics of a liquid. particles and the container.

105. Why is the diffusion of one solid into another

Ans

solid an extremely slow process? (A) The collisions of the gas particles with the
(A) Because the particles of solids do not move at walls of the container.
all. Gas pressure is a direct result of the kinetic
(B) Because the particles of solids are too large to theory. The gas particles are in constant, high-
intermix. speed, random motion. The force they exert when
(C) Because the particles of solids are locked they repeatedly collide with the inner surface of
in fixed positions and their movement is their container creates the pressure we measure.
restricted to vibration.
(D) Because solids do not have interparticle 108. Which state of matter is characterized by having
spaces. the least amount of kinetic energy in its particles
(for a given substance)?


Ans (A) Solid
(C) Because the particles of solids are locked in (B) Liquid
fixed positions and their movement is restricted (C) Gas
to vibration. (D) The kinetic energy is the same in all states.
Diffusion requires particle movement from one


Ans
place to another. In solids, the particles are not free
to move around; they are confined to vibrating in (A) Solid
their fixed lattice positions. This severe restriction For a given substance, the solid state exists at
on movement is why solid-state diffusion is almost the lowest temperatures. Since temperature is
negligible under normal conditions. a measure of the average kinetic energy of the
particles, the solid state corresponds to the state
106. When you add sugar to iced tea, it dissolves much with the lowest kinetic energy, where particle
more slowly than in hot tea. This is because the motion is restricted to vibration.
particles in the iced tea:
(A) are much larger than the particles in hot tea. 109. The ability of matter to exist in different physical
(B) have less kinetic energy and move more forms like solid, liquid, and gas is referred to as
slowly. its:
(C) have stronger forces of attraction between (A) Physical states
them. (B) Chemical properties
(D) have no spaces between them for the sugar to (C) Density
fit into. (D) Fluidity

Ans

Ans
(B) have less kinetic energy and move more slowly. (A) Physical states
Dissolving involves the tea particles knocking The chapter’s entire focus is on describing the
apart the sugar particles and mixing with them. properties of matter in its different physical
At a lower temperature (iced tea), the water forms. These forms—solid, liquid, and gas—are
particles have less kinetic energy, so they move known as the physical states of matter.
slower and collide with the sugar less frequently
110. The interparticle forces of attraction are strongest
and with less force, leading to a much slower rate
in ______ and weakest in ______.
of dissolving.
(A) gases, solids
107. What causes the pressure exerted by a gas? (B) liquids, gases
(A) The collisions of the gas particles with the (C) solids, gases
walls of the container. (D) gases, liquids
page 88 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans This is a key characteristic of mixtures. The iron

(C) solids, gases is still magnetic, and the salt can still be recovered
The strength of these forces determines the state by removing the water. Because the components
of matter. The forces are strongest in solids, do not chemically change when mixed, we can
locking particles in place. They are intermediate exploit their different physical properties (like
in liquids, allowing particles to slide. They are magnetism or boiling point) to separate them.
weakest (negligible) in gases, allowing particles to
113. You are given a transparent, sealed box containing
move freely.
(A) It has a definite shape and volume. an unknown substance. You cannot see anything
(B) It can be easily broken. inside, but when you shake it, you can feel
(C) It is made of organic material. something sloshing around. The substance is most
(D) It floats on water. likely a:
(A) Gas


Ans (B) Liquid
(A) It has a definite shape and volume. (C) Solid
The classification of matter into states is based on (D) Solid and a liquid
its physical properties. The defining macroscopic
properties of a solid are that it maintains a

Ans
fixed shape and a fixed volume, regardless of (B) Liquid
its container. The piece of wood exhibits these The fact that you cannot see anything suggests
properties. it’s not a visible solid. The “sloshing” sound
and feeling are characteristic of a liquid moving
111. Which of the following is NOT an example of
around inside a container. A gas would not slosh,
diffusion?
and a solid would not move in that manner unless
(A) The smell of perfume spreading through a
it was a powder.
room.
(B) A drop of blue ink turning a glass of water 114. The property of solids to maintain their shape
light blue. when subjected to an outside force is known as:
(C) Sugar dissolving in water to make a sweet (A) Fluidity
solution. (B) Compressibility
(D) A rock sitting motionless at the bottom of a (C) Density
lake. (D) Rigidity


Ans

Ans
(D) A rock sitting motionless at the bottom of a (D) Rigidity
lake. Rigidity is the term used to describe the firmness
Diffusion is the intermixing of particles due to of a solid and its ability to resist deformation or
their motion. The spreading of perfume, ink, changes in its shape. This property is a direct
and sugar are all examples of this process. A result of the strong forces holding its particles in
rock sitting still does not involve the intermixing a fixed lattice.
of different substances and is therefore not an
example of diffusion. 115. Why can we consider a rubber band a solid, even
though it changes shape when stretched?
112. To separate iron filings from sand, you can use (A) It regains its original shape when the force is
a magnet. To separate salt from water, you can removed, and it breaks if stretched too much.
use evaporation. These methods work because the (B) It is not a solid; it is a very thick liquid.
components of a mixture:
(C) It can be easily compressed into a smaller
(A) all have identical chemical properties.
volume.
(B) retain their individual physical properties.
(C) chemically react with each other when mixed. (D) It is made of particles that are very far apart.
(D) can only be separated by chemical means.

Ans


Ans (A) It regains its original shape when the force is
(B) retain their individual physical properties. removed, and it breaks if stretched too much.
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

The chapter addresses this apparent contradiction. 119. What is the main difference between matter and
A rubber band is a solid because it resists a change energy?
in shape (you have to apply force) and attempts (A) Matter has mass and occupies space, while
to return to its original shape. Furthermore, it energy does not.
doesn’t flow and will break under excessive force, (B) Energy has mass and occupies space, while
which are all characteristics of a solid, not a liquid matter does not.
or gas. (C) Matter and energy are two different words for
the same thing.
116. Which of the following has the highest rate of (D) Matter is always a solid, while energy is
diffusion? always a gas.
(A) A spoonful of honey in water.
(B) A drop of ink in water.

Ans
(C) The smell of hot food in the air. (A) Matter has mass and occupies space, while
(D) A block of wood sitting on a table. energy does not.


Ans This is the fundamental distinction. Matter is
the “stuff” that makes up the universe (atoms,
(C) The smell of hot food in the air. molecules). Energy (like light, heat, sound) is
Diffusion is fastest in gases. The smell of food the capacity to do work or cause change. While
is carried by gaseous particles moving through they are related ($E=mc^2$), they are distinct
the air (another gas). Honey and ink diffuse in a concepts, and the defining properties of matter
liquid, which is a much slower process. There is are mass and volume.
negligible diffusion in the solid wood block.
120. A key difference between a solid and a gas is that
117. A chef adds a pinch of saffron to a bowl of hot a solid has a definite shape, while a gas has:
milk. The milk slowly turns yellow and fragrant. (A) A definite shape as well.
This is an example of: (B) An indefinite shape.
(A) The milk undergoing a chemical reaction. (C) A shape that depends on its temperature.
(B) The saffron melting into the milk. (D) A shape that is always spherical.
(C) The process of diffusion.
(D) The saffron undergoing sublimation.

Ans

Ans (B) An indefinite shape.

A solid’s shape is fixed due to its rigid particle
(C) The process of diffusion. structure. A gas, with its freely moving particles,
The color and aroma particles from the saffron will always take on the shape of whatever container
are spreading out from the pinch and intermixing it is placed in, meaning its shape is indefinite.
with the milk particles. This movement of
particles from an area of high concentration to
low concentration is the process of diffusion. The
heat of the milk speeds up this process.
121. The kinetic energy of particles ______
118. Which statement incorrectly describes the as temperature increases, causing the rate of
properties of a liquid? ______ to also increase.
(A) It has a definite volume. (A) decreases, diffusion
(B) It is not easily compressible. (B) increases, diffusion
(C) It does not flow. (C) decreases, compression
(D) It takes the shape of its container. (D) increases, rigidity


Ans

Ans
(C) It does not flow. (B) increases, diffusion
The ability to flow (fluidity) is a defining The two concepts are directly related. Higher
characteristic of liquids. Because their particles temperature means higher kinetic energy (faster
can slide past one another, liquids are able to flow particle movement). Faster particle movement
and pour. The statement that a liquid does not leads to a more rapid intermixing of substances,
flow is false. which is an increased rate of diffusion.
page 90 Class 8th Science Foundation

122. A student observes that a substance cannot be the gaps or spaces that exist between the water
compressed and it retains its shape when placed particles. This single observation supports both of
in a new container. The student has observed a: these key ideas.
(A) Gas
(B) Liquid 125. Which of the following correctly lists the states of
(C) Solid matter in order of increasing interparticle force of
(D) Fluid attraction?
(A) Solid, Liquid, Gas


Ans (B) Gas, Liquid, Solid
(C) Solid (C) Liquid, Solid, Gas
The inability to be compressed suggests particles (D) Gas, Solid, Liquid
are tightly packed. Retaining its shape is the key

Ans
property of rigidity. These two characteristics—
low compressibility and definite shape—are the (B) Gas, Liquid, Solid
defining features of the solid state. The question asks for increasing order of force
strength. The forces are weakest in gases,
123. A karate expert can break a slab of ice with a intermediate in liquids, and strongest in solids.
single blow. This shows that: Therefore, the correct order is Gas, then Liquid,
(A) The particles of ice have no force of attraction then Solid.
between them.
(B) Ice is not a true solid. 126. How do the interparticle spaces in a liquid
(C) A large external force can overcome the compare to those in a solid?
interparticle forces holding the solid together. (A) They are slightly larger in a liquid.
(D) The karate expert’s hand is harder than the (B) They are much smaller in a liquid.
ice. (C) They are identical in both states.


Ans (D) They are absent in liquids but present in
solids.
(C) A large external force can overcome the
interparticle forces holding the solid together.

Ans
While the interparticle forces in a solid like ice
(A) They are slightly larger in a liquid.
are very strong, they are not infinite. The karate
For most substances, when a solid melts into a
expert applies a very large force in a very short
liquid, the particles become slightly less ordered
amount of time, which is sufficient to overcome the
and move a little farther apart. This results in
forces of attraction between the water molecules
the interparticle spaces being, on average, slightly
in the ice lattice, causing it to fracture.
larger in the liquid phase than in the solid phase.
124. The fact that a single drop of ink can color a
127. Which statement incorrectly describes the
whole glass of water is evidence for which two
behavior of gas particles?
properties of matter?
(A) They move in straight lines until they collide
(A) Matter is very hard, and its particles are
with another particle or a wall.
continuously moving.
(B) They are held in fixed positions and can only
(B) Matter is made of very small particles, and
vibrate.
these particles have spaces between them.
(C) Matter has a definite shape, and its particles (C) They have negligible forces of attraction
attract each other. between them.
(D) Matter has a high density, and its particles (D) They possess high kinetic energy.
are stationary.

Ans


Ans (B) They are held in fixed positions and can only
(B) Matter is made of very small particles, and vibrate.
these particles have spaces between them. This statement describes the behavior of particles
For the ink to spread, it must be made of a huge in a solid. The defining characteristic of gas
number of tiny particles. For it to mix with the particles is their freedom of movement; they are
water, its particles must be able to move into not held in fixed positions at all.
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

128. When water boils, bubbles rise to the surface. results from weak forces that do not restrict
What are these bubbles made of? particle movement.
(A) Air that was trapped in the water.
(B) Pure hydrogen gas. 131. Which of the following statements provides the
(C) A vacuum with nothing inside. best description of a liquid?
(D) Water that has turned into a gas (steam). (A) It has a definite shape and a definite volume.
(B) It has an indefinite shape and an indefinite


Ans volume.
(D) Water that has turned into a gas (steam). (C) It has an indefinite shape but a definite
Boiling is the process of a liquid turning into a volume.
gas throughout its bulk. The bubbles that form (D) It has a definite shape but an indefinite
within the liquid water are pockets of gaseous volume.
water, known as steam or water vapor, which rise

Ans
to the surface and escape.
(C) It has an indefinite shape but a definite
129. Why does a solid have the highest density volume.
among the common states of matter (for most This combination of properties is unique to the
substances)? liquid state. Liquids flow to take the shape of
(A) Because its particles have the greatest mass. their container (indefinite shape), but the forces
(B) Because its particles are packed most closely between their particles are strong enough to
together, occupying the least volume for a keep them from dispersing, thus maintaining a
given mass. constant volume.
(C) Because its particles have the lowest kinetic
energy. 132. The smell of hot, sizzling food reaches you from
(D) Because the interparticle forces in a solid are several meters away, but to get the smell of cold
repulsive, pushing the particles together. food, you have to go very close. This is because:
(A) Hot food contains more particles than cold


Ans food.
(B) Because its particles are packed most closely (B) The particles of hot food have more kinetic
together, occupying the least volume for a given energy and diffuse faster through the air.
mass. (C) Cold food does not release any smell particles
Density is mass/volume. In a solid, strong forces at all.
pull the particles into a tight, closely packed (D) Your sense of smell works better at higher
arrangement. This means a large amount of temperatures.
mass fits into a small volume, resulting in a high

Ans
density compared to the less tightly packed liquid
(B) The particles of hot food have more kinetic
and gaseous states.
energy and diffuse faster through the air.
130. A substance has very low density and high fluidity. The higher temperature gives the food’s aroma
What can be inferred about its interparticle particles more kinetic energy. This causes them
forces? to leave the food and travel through the air much
(A) The interparticle forces are very strong. more quickly and readily than the slower-moving
(B) The interparticle forces are negligible. particles from the cold food, allowing the smell to
(C) The interparticle forces are of medium reach you from farther away.
strength.
133. What is the main evidence from the experiment
(D) There is no relationship between density and
of dissolving salt in water that proves there are
interparticle forces.
spaces between water particles?


Ans (A) The water becomes salty.
(B) The interparticle forces are negligible. (B) The salt becomes invisible.
Low density implies that the particles are far (C) The water level does not rise.
apart. This can only happen if the attractive (D) The water becomes cloudy.
forces between them are very weak or negligible,

Ans
allowing them to spread out. High fluidity also
(C) The water level does not rise.
page 92 Class 8th Science Foundation

If there were no spaces, the salt particles would 137. If you can see through a substance, but it
have to sit on top of the water particles, increasing maintains its own shape and volume, it is a:
the total volume and causing the water level to (A) Transparent solid
rise. The fact that the level remains unchanged is (B) Transparent liquid
strong evidence that the salt particles are fitting (C) Transparent gas
into pre-existing empty spaces between the water (D) Colorless liquid
particles.


Ans
134. The interparticle spaces are minimum in (A) Transparent solid
______ and maximum in ______. Maintaining its own shape and volume are the
(A) solids, gases defining properties of a solid. Being able to see
(B) liquids, solids through it means it is transparent. Therefore, the
(C) gases, solids substance is a transparent solid, like glass or a
(D) solids, liquids clear crystal.


Ans 138. The constant, random motion of particles in a
(A) solids, gases fluid is driven by their:
This compares the relative packing of particles. (A) Kinetic energy
Solids are the most tightly packed, having the (B) Potential energy
minimum spaces between particles. Gases are the (C) Gravitational force
most loosely packed, having the maximum spaces (D) Electrostatic charge
between particles.


Ans
135. Which of these is NOT a characteristic property (A) Kinetic energy
of gases? Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. The inherent
(A) High compressibility thermal energy of a substance gives its constituent
(B) High density particles kinetic energy, which manifests as their
(C) Indefinite shape continuous and random movement. The higher
(D) High fluidity the temperature, the higher the kinetic energy


Ans and the faster the motion.

(B) High density 139. A major difference between liquids and solids is
Gases have very low density. Because their that liquids can flow. This property is called:
particles are very far apart, a given mass of gas (A) Rigidity
occupies a very large volume, leading to a low (B) Fluidity
mass-to-volume ratio (low density). High density (C) Compressibility
is characteristic of solids. (D) Density


Ans
(B) Fluidity
The ability to flow is the defining characteristic
136. Which state of matter is most common in the
of a fluid. Because the particles in a liquid are
universe, found in stars like our Sun?
not locked in place and can slide past each other,
(A) Solid
liquids exhibit fluidity. Solids, being rigid, do not.
(B) Liquid
(C) Gas 140. What property of matter is defined as mass per
(D) Plasma unit volume?


Ans (A) Pressure
(B) Density
(D) Plasma (C) Weight
While not a primary focus of the chapter, plasma is (D) Force
often called the fourth state of matter. It consists
of ionized gas (atoms stripped of their electrons)

Ans
and is the most abundant state of matter in the (B) Density
universe, making up stars and nebulae.
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

This is the standard scientific definition of density. interparticle forces tend to pull them together.
It is a measure of how much matter (mass) is The state depends on which of these two factors
packed into a certain amount of space (volume). is dominant under a given set of conditions
The formula is ρ = m . (temperature and pressure).
V
141. In liquids, the interparticle forces are strong 144. Which statement about the particulate model of
enough to keep the volume ______, but weak matter is false?
enough to allow the particles to ______. (A) Particles in a liquid are arranged in a fixed,
(A) definite, vibrate only orderly pattern.
(B) indefinite, flow (B) Particles in a solid vibrate about fixed
(C) definite, flow positions.
(D) indefinite, vibrate only (C) Particles in a gas are in constant, random
motion.


Ans (D) The forces between gas particles are negligible.
(C) definite, flow

Ans
This statement perfectly summarizes the behavior
of liquids. The attractive forces are sufficient to (A) Particles in a liquid are arranged in a fixed,
hold the particles together, resulting in a definite orderly pattern.
volume. However, the forces are not strong enough A fixed, orderly pattern is characteristic of a
to lock them in place, allowing them to move past crystalline solid. The particles in a liquid, while
each other, which results in the ability to flow. still close together, are disordered and can move
past one another.
142. When you pump air into a bicycle tyre, you are
demonstrating that: 145. A substance has a very low density, is a fluid,
(A) Air is a fluid. and is not easily compressible. This description is
(B) Air has mass. inconsistent. Which property is incorrectly stated
(C) Air is compressible. for a single state of matter?
(D) Air is a mixture of gases. (A) Low density
(B) Fluid


Ans (C) Not easily compressible
(C) Air is compressible. (D) All are consistent
Pumping air into a tyre involves forcing a large

Ans
volume of air into the much smaller, fixed volume
of the tyre. This is a direct application of the (C) Not easily compressible
high compressibility of gases, which allows their Low density and being a fluid are properties of
volume to be significantly reduced under pressure. a gas. However, gases are highly compressible,
not “not easily compressible.” Low density and
143. The three common states of matter are solid, not being easily compressible are contradictory
liquid, and gas. What is the primary factor that properties. Liquids are fluids and not easily
determines the state of a given substance? compressible, but they have a much higher
(A) The size and shape of its particles. density than gases. Therefore, the combination
(B) The balance between the kinetic energy of of “low density” and “not easily compressible” is
the particles and the interparticle forces of inconsistent.
attraction.
(C) The color and odor of the substance. 146. To make a sweet lime soda, a vendor dissolves
(D) The chemical reactivity of the substance with sugar in lime juice and then adds soda water,
its container. which fizzes. The fizzing is caused by a:
(A) Solid dissolving in a liquid.


Ans (B) Liquid evaporating into a gas.
(B) The balance between the kinetic energy of the (C) Gas escaping from a liquid.
particles and the interparticle forces of attraction. (D) Chemical reaction producing a solid.
The state of matter is determined by a competition

Ans
between two factors. The kinetic energy of the
particles tends to make them fly apart. The (C) Gas escaping from a liquid.
page 94 Class 8th Science Foundation

Soda water is a solution of carbon dioxide gas 150. The rate of diffusion is highest in ______ and
dissolved in water under pressure. When the lowest in ______.
bottle is opened, the pressure is released, and the (A) solids, gases
dissolved gas comes out of the solution, forming (B) liquids, solids
bubbles (fizzing). (C) gases, liquids
(D) gases, solids
147. What is the best explanation for why a solid block


Ans
of steel is rigid?
(A) The atoms of steel are locked in place by (D) gases, solids
strong metallic bonds. Diffusion depends on particle movement. It is
(B) The atoms of steel are very large and heavy. fastest in gases where particles move quickly and
(C) The steel is at a very low temperature. have large spaces. It is very slow in liquids where
(D) The atoms of steel have no kinetic energy. particles are crowded. It is almost negligible in
solids where particles are locked in place.


Ans
(A) The atoms of steel are locked in place by 151. An object has a fixed volume, is a fluid, and is
strong metallic bonds. virtually incompressible. This object is a:
The rigidity of a solid is a direct consequence of the (A) Block of wood (solid)
strong interparticle forces holding its constituent (B) Sample of oxygen (gas)
particles in a fixed lattice structure. In steel, these (C) Volume of water (liquid)
forces are strong metallic bonds that prevent the (D) Rubber band (solid)
iron atoms from moving freely.

Ans
148. The change of state from gas to liquid is called: (C) Volume of water (liquid)
(A) Sublimation The properties listed—fixed volume, fluidity
(B) Evaporation (ability to flow), and being nearly incompressible—
(C) Condensation are the defining characteristics of the liquid state.
(D) Melting Water is the only liquid among the choices.

Ans 152. A student takes two identical balloons, inflates one

(C) Condensation with air and leaves the other empty. The inflated
Condensation is the process where a substance balloon is heavier. What does this experiment
in a gaseous state cools down and transitions prove about air?
into the liquid state. A common example is the (A) Air has mass.
formation of water droplets on the outside of a (B) Air occupies space.
cold glass. (C) Air is a mixture.
(D) Air is compressible.
149. Which two properties are shared by solids and

Ans
liquids but not by gases?
(A) They are fluids and have low density. (A) Air has mass.
(B) They have definite volumes and are not easily By showing that the balloon filled with air is
compressible. heavier than the empty one, the experiment
(C) They have definite shapes and high rigidity. directly demonstrates that the air inside has mass,
(D) They have high compressibility and indefinite which is one of the two fundamental properties of
shapes. matter.

Ans 153. The particles of matter are said to attract each

other. What is the evidence for this force in a
(B) They have definite volumes and are not easily
stream of water from a tap?
compressible.
(A) The stream falls downwards due to gravity.
Because the particles in both solids and liquids
(B) The stream can be easily broken with a finger.
are closely packed, they are difficult to compress
(C) The stream remains together and does not
and maintain a constant volume. Gases, with their
break apart into individual droplets on its
widely spaced particles, have indefinite volumes
own.
and are easily compressible.
(D) The water is transparent and colorless.
Pagesmith CH 03 : Getting to Know the Particulate Nature of Matter

Ans
(C) The stream remains together and does not
break apart into individual droplets on its own.
If there were no attractive forces, the moving
water particles would fly off in all directions. The
fact that they stick together to form a continuous
stream is direct evidence of the cohesive forces of
attraction between the water molecules.

154. Which of the following statements about the

kinetic energy of particles is false?
(A) It increases with an increase in temperature.
(B) It is the energy of motion.
(C) Particles in a solid have zero kinetic energy.
(D) Gas particles have more kinetic energy than
liquid particles (for the same substance).


Ans
(C) Particles in a solid have zero kinetic energy.
This is a common misconception. Particles in a
solid possess kinetic energy, which is why they
are in a constant state of vibration. They would
only have zero kinetic energy at the theoretical
temperature of absolute zero (0 Kelvin), which is
unattainable.

*************
page 96 Class 8th Science Foundation

CHAPTER 4
Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

SUMMAR 1.3 Strength and Polarity of Electromagnets

1. Strength : The strength of an electromagnet
can be changed in three main ways:
1. The Magnetic Effect of Electric (i) Inserting an iron core inside the coil
Current makes it much stronger.
(ii) Increasing the amount of current (e.g., by
1.1 The Link Between Electricity and Magnetism using more cells in a battery) creates a
stronger magnetic field.
When an electric current flows through a wire,
(iii) Increasing the number of turns of the
it produces a magnetic field around it. This is
wire in the coil also makes the magnet
known as the magnetic effect of electric current.
stronger.
This effect can be observed when a magnetic
compass needle deflects from its normal position 2. Polarity : Just like a permanent magnet, an
when brought near a current-carrying wire. The electromagnet has a North and a South pole.
magnetic effect disappears when the current stops The poles can be reversed by simply changing
flowing. This fundamental connection between the direction of the electric current.
electricity and magnetism was discovered by
1.4 Applications of Electromagnets
scientist Hans Christian Oersted in 1820.
1. The magnetic effect of current is used in many
1.2 Electromagnets : Temporary Magnets common devices like electric bells, motors,
A current-carrying coil that behaves like a magnet fans, and loudspeakers.
is called an electromagnet. It can be made by 2. Lifting Electromagnets : Very strong
tightly wrapping an insulated wire around an iron electromagnets are attached to cranes in
core (like a nail).The coil acts as a magnet only factories and scrap yards. They are used
when electric current is flowing through it. When to lift, move, and sort heavy iron and steel
the current is turned off, it loses its magnetism. objects by switching the current on and off.

2. The Heating Effect of Electric

Current

2.1 How Current Produces Heat

When an electric current passes through a conductor,
the conductor gets heated. This is known as the
heating effect of electric current. This happens
because all conductors offer some resistance to the
flow of current. This resistance converts some of
the electrical energy into heat energy.
Materials like nichrome wire have high resistance
and are therefore used specifically for their
Coil of wire connected with a cell heating properties.
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

3. How Batteries Generate Electricity

3.1 The Basic Principle

A cell or a battery is a device that generates
electric current through chemical reactions that
take place inside it. A typical simple cell, like
a Voltaic cell, consists of two different metal
plates called electrodes and a liquid or paste
called an electrolyte. When the chemicals in the
electrolyte are used up, the cell stops working and
Heating effect in a wire is considered ‘dead’.

3.2 Types of Cells and Batteries

2.2 Factors Affecting the Heat Produced 1. Dry Cells : These are the common single-use
The amount of heat generated in a wire depends cells used in devices like TV remotes and toys.
on several factors: They are called ‘dry’ because their electrolyte
1. The amount of electric current flowing is a moist paste, not a liquid. Once used up,
through it (more current generates more they must be disposed of.
heat).
2. The material, thickness, and length of the
wire.
3. The duration for which the current flows.

2.3 Applications of the Heating Effect

1. This principle is used in many household
appliances such as electric irons, room heaters,
water heaters, electric stoves, and hair dryers.
(a) Dry cell; (b) Its internal structure

2. Rechargeable Batteries : These batteries can

be recharged and reused many times, which
saves money and reduces waste. They are
used in mobile phones, lap tops, and electric
vehicles.

Simple household electric heating appliances (a) Room

heater; (b) Electric stove; (c) Electric kettle; (d) Electric
iron; (e) Water heating immersion coil; or (f ) Hair dryer
Typical rechargeable batteries used in (a) Laptops;
2. These devices contain a special coil of wire (b) Mobile phones; (c) Camera; (d) Inverter; (e) Vehicles;
(f ) Charging a mobile phone
called a heating element that is designed to
get very hot when current passes through it. 3. Lithium-ion (Li-ion) batteries are the most
3. This effect is also used in industrial common type of rechargeable battery today.
applications, such as in electric furnaces for 4. Even rechargeable batteries wear out after
melting and recycling steel. being charged and used many times.
page 98 Class 8th Science Foundation

3.3 Battery Life and Disposal aligns with this new magnetic field, causing it to
1. When a battery stops working, it can still deflect from its original north-south direction.
contain harmful chemicals like lead and acids.
3. What is an electromagnet?
2. These batteries should not be thrown in
(A) A permanent magnet that is powered by an
regular garbage. They should be disposed
external source of electricity.
of properly at special ‘e-waste’ recycling
(B) A special type of battery that uses powerful
facilities to protect the environment.
magnets to generate a current.
(C) A current-carrying coil of wire, often with an
iron core, that behaves like a magnet.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO (D) A natural stone that attracts iron and also
produces a small electric current.


Ans
1. Who was the first scientist to discover that an (C) A current-carrying coil of wire, often with an
electric current can produce a magnetic effect? iron core, that behaves like a magnet.
(A) Hans Christian Oersted An electromagnet is a temporary magnet created
(B) Alessandro Volta when an electric current flows through a coil of
(C) Alexander Fleming wire. Its magnetism can be switched on and off
(D) Luigi Galvani with the current. Inserting an iron core inside the


Ans coil significantly strengthens its magnetic field for
practical applications.
(A) Hans Christian Oersted
In 1820, Hans Christian Oersted, a Danish 4. Why is a piece of soft iron often placed inside the
professor, accidentally discovered the link between coil of an electromagnet?
electricity and magnetism. He noticed that the (A) To make the entire coil significantly lighter
needle of a magnetic compass deflected whenever and more portable.
an electric circuit nearby was switched on or off, (B) To make the electromagnet much stronger.
proving that electric current creates a magnetic (C) To prevent the wire from overheating by
field. absorbing excess heat.
(D) To make the electromagnet a permanent
2. In Activity 4.1, why does the magnetic compass
magnet after one use.
needle move when the switch is turned ON?
(A) The wire gets hot due to the heating effect,

Ans
and the resulting air current pushes the (B) To make the electromagnet much stronger.
needle. When an iron core is placed inside a current-
(B) The electric current flowing through the wire carrying coil, the iron becomes strongly
generates a magnetic field that interacts with magnetized by the coil’s magnetic field. This
the compass needle. effect adds to the coil’s own field, resulting in a
(C) The battery itself acts as a strong permanent much more powerful overall electromagnet than
magnet and directly attracts the metallic the coil would be on its own.
compass needle.
(D) The mechanical action of the switch creates a 5. Which of the following is NOT a way to increase
small, sharp vibration that is transmitted and the strength of an electromagnet?
moves the compass. (A) Replacing the iron core with a wooden stick.


Ans (B) Increasing the number of turns in the coil.
(C) Increasing the electric current flowing through
(B) The electric current flowing through the wire the coil.
generates a magnetic field that interacts with the (D) Using a core made of a suitable magnetic
compass needle. material like soft iron.
The experiment demonstrates the magnetic
effect of electric current. A current-carrying wire

Ans
generates a magnetic field in the space around it. (A) Replacing the iron core with a wooden stick.
The compass needle, being a tiny magnet itself, The strength of an electromagnet is increased by
a stronger current, more turns of wire, and an
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

iron core. Wood is not a magnetic material and (C) Nichrome

cannot be magnetized. Replacing the iron core (D) Iron
with wood would remove the core’s contribution,


Ans
making the electromagnet much weaker.
(C) Nichrome
6. What will happen to the poles of an electromagnet Nichrome is an alloy of nickel and chromium. It is
if the direction of the electric current in the coil used for heating elements because it has a much
is reversed? higher electrical resistance than conductors like
(A) The poles will completely disappear, leaving copper. This high resistance causes it to generate
the coil non-magnetic. a significant amount of heat when current flows
(B) The overall magnetic strength of the through it, without melting.
electromagnet will significantly increase.
(C) The North and South poles will switch places. 9. What is the heating effect of electric current?
(D) Nothing will happen to the poles; their (A) The generation of heat in a conductor when
position and strength remain the same. an electric current flows through it.
(B) The process of significantly cooling a wire by


Ans passing a steady current through it.
(C) The North and South poles will switch places. (C) The generation of bright light from a wire
The polarity (the location of the North and South when any amount of current flows.
poles) of an electromagnet is determined by the (D) The strong magnetic field that is produced by
direction of the current flowing through its coil. any wire that has become hot.
If the connections to the battery are reversed, the


Ans
current flows in the opposite direction, causing
the magnetic poles to flip. (A) The generation of heat in a a conductor when
an electric current flows through it.
7. In the diagram of a dry cell , what component When electric current flows through a wire, the
acts as the positive terminal? conductor offers some opposition or resistance
to the flow. This resistance causes some of the
electrical energy to be converted into heat
energy, causing the conductor to warm up. This
phenomenon is known as the heating effect.

10. Why does a battery with two cells make a

nichrome wire hotter than a battery with one cell
in the same amount of time?
(A) Because two cells are physically larger and
generate more ambient heat.
(B) Because two cells provide a larger current,
(A) The zinc container which generates more heat.
(B) The electrolyte paste (C) Because the wire’s electrical resistance
(C) The outer plastic wrapping significantly decreases when connected to two
(D) The carbon rod with a metal cap cells.


Ans (D) Because the presence of a second cell in the
circuit cools the first cell down.
(D) The carbon rod with a metal cap
In a standard dry cell, the central carbon rod is

Ans
the positive electrode (cathode). The metal cap (B) Because two cells provide a larger current,
on top serves as the external positive terminal which generates more heat.
where connections are made in a circuit. The amount of heat produced in a wire is directly
related to the magnitude of the electric current
8. Which material is commonly used to make the
flowing through it. A battery with two cells
heating element in appliances like electric heaters
provides a higher voltage and thus pushes a larger
and stoves due to its high resistance?
current through the wire, resulting in more heat
(A) Copper
being generated.
(B) Aluminium
page 100 Class 8th Science Foundation

11. Which of the following household appliances does (A) The electricity was generated internally by
NOT work on the principle of the heating effect the frog’s muscles and was a form of “animal
of electric current? electricity.”
(A) Electric fan (B) A single type of metal was sufficient to create
(B) Electric iron electricity when in contact with the frog’s leg.
(C) Electric kettle (C) The electricity came from the combination
(D) Hair dryer of two different metals and a liquid, not the


Ans frog.
(A) Electric fan (D) A significant amount of heat was required
An electric iron, kettle, and hair dryer all contain to make the frog’s leg twitch and produce a
heating elements designed to convert electricity current.
into heat for their function. An electric fan,

Ans
however, works primarily on the magnetic effect
(C) The electricity came from the combination
of electric current, which is used to power a motor
of two different metals and a liquid, not the frog.
that turns the blades.
While Galvani thought the electricity was
12. In a Voltaic cell, what are the two metal plates “animal electricity,” Volta hypothesized that the
made of different materials called? frog’s body was merely acting as a conductor. He
(A) Electrolytes proved his theory by replacing the frog’s leg with
(B) Terminals saltwater-soaked paper between two different
(C) Electrodes metals and still generating an electric current,
(D) Wires leading to the invention of the battery.


Ans 15. Looking at the household appliances in figure,
(C) Electrodes what do they all have in common?
A Voltaic or Galvanic cell generates electricity
through a chemical reaction. This reaction
takes place at the surface of two different metal
conductors that are immersed in an electrolyte.
These metal plates are specifically called
electrodes.

13. What is the liquid or moist paste inside a cell that

reacts chemically with the electrodes to produce
electricity?
(A) An insulator
(B) A conductor
(C) An electrolyte
(D) A solvent (A) They all use electric motors.
(B) They are all used for cooking.


Ans (C) They are all battery-operated.
(C) An electrolyte (D) They all contain a heating element.
The electrolyte is a crucial component of any

Ans
chemical cell. It is a substance that contains
ions and can conduct electricity. The chemical (D) They all contain a heating element.
reactions between the electrolyte and the different The figure shows a room heater, stove, kettle,
electrode materials are what generate the electrical iron, immersion rod, and hair dryer. The primary
potential difference (voltage) of the cell. function of each of these devices is to generate
heat, and they all achieve this by passing an
14. The discovery of the Voltaic cell was inspired by electric current through a high-resistance heating
Luigi Galvani’s observation of a dead frog’s leg element.
twitching when touched by two different metals.
What was Alessandro Volta’s key insight that led
to the battery?
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

16. What is the main difference between a simple dry it rests in a roughly north-south direction, not
cell and a rechargeable battery? east-west.
(A) A dry cell is a single-use battery, while a
rechargeable battery can be used multiple 19. Why is an electromagnet more suitable than a
times. permanent magnet for use in a crane that lifts
(B) A dry cell contains a liquid electrolyte, while and releases scrap iron?
a rechargeable battery contains a solid paste. (A) Electromagnets are typically stronger than
(C) A dry cell is primarily used in cars, while any available permanent magnet.
rechargeable batteries are mainly used in (B) The magnetism of an electromagnet can be
small toys. switched on and off.
(D) A dry cell is capable of producing a much (C) Electromagnets are significantly cheaper to
higher voltage than any standard rechargeable manufacture for industrial use.
battery. (D) Electromagnets are designed so that they do
not attract any form of iron.


Ans


Ans
(A) A dry cell is a single-use battery, while a
rechargeable battery can be used multiple times. (B) The magnetism of an electromagnet can be
The fundamental difference is their reusability. In switched on and off.
a dry cell, the chemical reaction that produces The key function of a scrap yard crane is to both
electricity is irreversible; once the chemicals are lift and release the metal. A permanent magnet
used up, the cell is discarded. In a rechargeable would lift the scrap but would not be able to
battery, the chemical reaction can be reversed by easily release it. An electromagnet’s magnetism
passing a current through it, restoring its charge. can be turned on to lift the iron and then turned
off to drop it in the desired location.
17. In a common dry cell, what material is the
container typically made of, which also serves as 20. Match the fundamental effects of electric current
the negative terminal? with their correct description.
(A) Carbon
Column A Column B
(B) Copper
(C) Plastic 1 Magnetic A A temporary magnet
(D) Zinc Effect of created by passing an


Ans Current electric current through
a coil of wire.
(D) Zinc
Dry cell clearly identifies the outer casing 2 Heating Effect B The generation of a
or container of the cell as being made of zinc, of Current magnetic field around a
which also functions as the negative electrode or conductor when electricity
terminal of the cell. flows through it.
3 Electromagnet C The opposition to the
18. Which of the following statements about the flow of current in a
Earth’s magnetic field is incorrect? wire, which causes it to
(A) It causes a freely suspended magnet to rest in get warm.
an east-west direction.
(B) It is believed to be generated by the movement 4 Resistance D The phenomenon
of liquid iron in the Earth’s core. where a conductor gets
(C) It protects life on Earth by blocking harmful heated up due to the
particles from space. flow of electric current.
(D) Many migratory animals use it for navigation. Options
(a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B


Ans
(b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(A) It causes a freely suspended magnet to rest in (c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
an east-west direction. (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
The Earth’s magnetic field causes a freely


Ans
suspended magnet, like a compass needle, to align
itself with the magnetic field lines. This means (c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
page 102 Class 8th Science Foundation

The magnetic effect is the creation of a magnetic depends on the intrinsic properties of the material
field by a current. The heating effect is the warming (like nichrome vs. copper) and its physical
of a conductor by that current. An electromagnet dimensions (length and thickness).
is a current-carrying coil. Resistance is what
causes the heating effect. 24. A Voltaic cell is to a liquid electrolyte as a dry cell
is to a ______.
21. The region around a current-carrying wire where (A) solid electrolyte
its magnetic effect can be felt is called a magnetic (B) gaseous electrolyte
______, and this phenomenon is known as the (C) metal electrolyte
______ effect of electric current. (D) moist paste electrolyte
(A) field, magnetic


Ans
(B) coil, heating
(C) pole, electrical (D) moist paste electrolyte
(D) force, Voltaic The analogy contrasts the type of electrolyte used
in two different kinds of cells. The original Voltaic


Ans cell used a liquid electrolyte. The key innovation
(A) field, magnetic of the dry cell was replacing this liquid with a
A magnetic field is the specific term for the area thick, moist paste, which made it more portable
where magnetic forces are present. The creation of and less prone to leaking.
this field by an electric current is the fundamental
principle known as the magnetic effect of electric 25. A student wraps 50 turns of insulated wire around
current, as discovered by Oersted. a plastic pen and connects it to a cell, but it fails
to pick up any paper clips. What is the most
22. In the lemon battery experiment, what acts as the likely reason?
electrolyte? (A) The pen is made of plastic, so it cannot be
(A) The copper wire magnetized by the current.
(B) The lemon juice (B) The current from one cell is too weak to
(C) The iron nail create a strong enough magnetic field.
(D) The LED (C) The number of turns in the coil is too high for
a single cell to power.


Ans
(D) Paper clips are not made of a magnetic
(B) The lemon juice material and cannot be picked up.
A Voltaic cell requires an electrolyte to facilitate
the chemical reaction and conduct ions between

Ans
the electrodes. In the lemon battery, the acidic (B) The current from one cell is too weak to
juice of the lemon serves as this electrolyte, create a strong enough magnetic field.
reacting with the copper and iron electrodes to While an iron core is needed for a strong
generate a small electric current. electromagnet, even an air-cored coil (like one
wrapped on a plastic pen) produces a magnetic
23. Which of the following statements about the field. However, this field is very weak. With a
heating effect of current is true? single cell, the current is small, and the resulting
(A) All wires heat up by the same amount when magnetic field is likely insufficient to overcome
the same current flows through them. the weight of the paper clips.
(B) A copper wire generates more heat than a
nichrome wire of the same dimensions. 26. What is a heating element?
(C) The heat generated in a wire depends on its (A) A coil or rod of high-resistance wire inside an
material, length, and thickness. appliance that gets hot when current passes
(D) The heating effect is a disadvantage and has through it.
no useful applications in technology. (B) The main switch that turns on any common
household heating appliance.


Ans
(C) The external metal or plastic casing of a
(C) The heat generated in a wire depends on its device such as an electric iron.
material, length, and thickness. (D) A special device used for measuring the
The amount of heat produced is a function of the temperature of an appliance.
wire’s electrical resistance. Resistance, in turn,
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

Ans (A) Removing the iron nail to create an air-cored

(A) A coil or rod of high-resistance wire inside coil.
an appliance that gets hot when current passes (B) Using only 25 turns of wire around the same
through it. nail.
This is the functional part of any electrical heating (C) Replacing the paper clips with lighter plastic
appliance. It is a specially designed component, clips.
usually made of a material like nichrome, which (D) Using a battery of two cells instead of one.
has high electrical resistance. This high resistance

Ans
causes it to convert electrical energy into heat
efficiently. (D) Using a battery of two cells instead of one.
To lift more clips, the electromagnet needs to be
27. What is the most common type of rechargeable stronger. The increasing the current makes the
battery found in modern devices like mobile magnet stronger. Using a battery of two cells will
phones and laptops? provide a larger current than a single cell, thereby
(A) Lead-acid battery increasing the magnetic strength and its lifting
(B) Dry cell capacity.
(C) Lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery
(D) Voltaic cell 30. Which of the following statements about
electromagnets is FALSE?


Ans (A) They always have a fixed strength that cannot
(C) Lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery be changed.
The “A step further” section on batteries explicitly (B) Their magnetic field can be switched on and
states, “Today, the lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery is off.
the most common type of rechargeable battery, (C) They have a North and a South pole, similar
found in almost all devices that use batteries.” to a bar magnet.
This highlights its prevalence in modern portable (D) Inserting an iron core makes them significantly
electronics. stronger.

28. What is the main safety concern related to the

Ans

heating effect of electric current in household (A) They always have a fixed strength that cannot
wiring? be changed.
(A) The wires might produce a large and One of the key advantages of an electromagnet
dangerous magnetic field. over a permanent magnet is that its strength is
(B) The electricity might leak out of the wires if variable. The strength can be changed by altering
they get warm. the amount of current flowing through the coil or
(C) The wires could become too cold and brittle, by changing the number of turns in the coil.
causing them to break.
(D) Overheating can damage plugs and sockets or
even cause fires.
31. What is the positive terminal of a common dry


Ans
cell?
(D) Overheating can damage plugs and sockets or (A) The carbon rod with a metal cap at the
even cause fires. center.
While the heating effect is useful in appliances, it (B) The flat bottom of the zinc container.
can be dangerous in wiring. If too much current (C) The entire outer zinc casing.
flows through a wire that is too thin, it can (D) The moist paste electrolyte.
overheat. This excessive heat can melt the plastic
insulation on plugs, sockets, and wires, potentially

Ans
leading to a short circuit and a fire. (A) The carbon rod with a metal cap at the
center.
29. A student builds an electromagnet with 50 turns The diagram and description of the dry cell
of wire around an iron nail, powered by one cell. clearly identify its components and terminals. The
It picks up 5 paper clips. What change would central carbon rod, which is topped with a metal
most likely allow it to pick up 10 paper clips? cap, serves as the positive electrode or terminal.
page 104 Class 8th Science Foundation

32. An incandescent light bulb glows because the battery example. The two different metals
electric current: (copper and iron) are the electrodes where the
(A) creates a strong magnetic field within the chemical reaction occurs. The acidic lemon juice
bulb that produces visible light. is the electrolyte that facilitates this reaction.
(B) causes a complex chemical reaction in the
inert gas sealed inside the bulb. 35. Match the type of electric cell or its component
(C) heats its thin filament to a very high with the correct description.
temperature, causing it to glow. Column A Column B
(D) directly converts into light energy without
the production of any heat. 1 Voltaic Cell A The liquid or moist paste
inside a cell that reacts


Ans
chemically with the
(C) heats its thin filament to a very high electrodes to produce
temperature, causing it to glow. electricity.
The incandescent lamp as an example of the
2 Dry Cell B A cell that generates
heating effect of current. The filament is a
electricity using two
very thin wire with high resistance. When
different metal plates
current passes through it, it gets extremely hot
dipped in a liquid
(incandescent), and this intense heat causes it to
electrolyte.
emit visible light.
3 Rechargeable C A common single-use
33. Why are rechargeable batteries considered more Battery cell where the electrolyte
environmentally friendly than single-use batteries? is a thick moist paste
(A) Because they are made from entirely natural instead of a liquid.
and biodegradable materials.
(B) Because they can be reused many times, 4 Electrolyte D A type of battery that
reducing waste. can be charged and
(C) Because they do not contain any chemicals reused multiple times,
that could be considered harmful. such as a lithium-ion
(D) Because they do not require any electricity battery.
from the grid to be charged.
Options


Ans (a) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
(B) Because they can be reused many times, (b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
reducing waste. (c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
Single-use batteries are discarded after one use, (d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
contributing to a large amount of waste, including

Ans
potentially harmful materials. Rechargeable
(b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
batteries can replace hundreds of single-use
A Voltaic cell uses two different metals and a liquid
batteries over their lifespan, significantly reducing
electrolyte. A dry cell uses a paste electrolyte
the overall volume of battery waste generated.
and is for single use. Rechargeable batteries
34. In a lemon battery, the copper strip and the iron can be reused many times. An electrolyte is the
nail act as the ______, while the lemon juice conducting medium in a cell.
acts as the ______.
36. Which of these factors does the amount of heat
(A) electrolyte, electrodes
generated in a wire NOT depend on?
(B) poles, current
(A) The material of the wire.
(C) wires, switch
(B) The length and thickness of the wire.
(D) electrodes, electrolyte
(C) The magnitude of the current flowing through


Ans it.
(D) electrodes, electrolyte (D) The color of the wire’s insulation.
This question tests the understanding of the

Ans
components of a Voltaic cell using the lemon
(D) The color of the wire’s insulation.
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

The heat produced depends on the wire’s ON (3), which allows it to lift the scrap iron (5).
material, its dimensions (length and thickness), After moving the scrap to the desired location, the
and the current. The color of the plastic insulation current is switched OFF (1), which deactivates
is a superficial property and has no effect on the magnet and causes the scrap to fall (4).
the electrical resistance or the amount of heat
generated within the conductor itself. 39. Why is it important to dispose of used batteries
in special ‘e-waste’ facilities?
37. What is the primary difference between the (A) Because they contain valuable and potentially
magnetic effect and the heating effect of an harmful materials that should be recycled.
electric current? (B) Because they can be easily recharged and sold
(A) The magnetic effect is a useful phenomenon, for reuse by the facility.
while the heating effect is always a waste of (C) Because they are worth a significant amount
energy. of money when sold as scrap.
(B) The magnetic effect only works with copper (D) Because regular garbage bins are not large
wire, while the heating effect only works with enough to hold multiple batteries.
iron wire.


Ans
(C) The magnetic effect involves creating a force
field, while the heating effect involves energy (A) Because they contain valuable and potentially
conversion to heat. harmful materials that should be recycled.
(D) The magnetic effect is used to produce heat, The “A step further” section on battery disposal
while the heating effect is used to produce a warns that used batteries are not empty. They
magnetic field. contain materials like acids and heavy metals
(lead, lithium) that can harm the environment


Ans if sent to a landfill. They also contain valuable
(C) The magnetic effect involves creating a force materials that can be recovered and reused
field, while the heating effect involves energy through recycling.
conversion to heat.
The two effects are fundamentally different 40. Which of the following is NOT an application of
physical phenomena. The magnetic effect is the the magnetic effect of electric current?
creation of a magnetic field around a conductor, (A) Electric stoves
which can exert forces on other magnets. The (B) Electric bells
heating effect is the conversion of electrical (C) Loudspeakers
energy into thermal energy due to the conductor’s (D) Electric motors
resistance.

Ans
38. What is the correct sequence of events when an (A) Electric stoves
electromagnet in a crane is used to move scrap Electric bells, loudspeakers, and motors all rely
iron? on the interaction of magnetic fields created by
1. The current is switched OFF. electric currents to function. An electric stove,
2. The electromagnet is moved over the scrap however, works on the heating effect of electric
iron. current, using a high-resistance coil to generate
3. The current is switched ON. heat for cooking.
4. The scrap iron falls down.
41. To make a temporary magnet that can be turned
5. The scrap iron is lifted.
on and off to pick up small pins, you would need
(A) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
a coil of wire, an iron nail, and a(n):
(B) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
(A) permanent magnet.
(C) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
(B) electric cell.
(D) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
(C) piece of wood.


Ans (D) magnetic compass.
(A) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

Ans
The logical process is to first position the crane’s
(B) electric cell.
electromagnet over the target material (2). Then,
To create an electromagnet, which is a temporary
the magnet is activated by switching the current
magnet, you need a source of electric current. An
page 106 Class 8th Science Foundation

electric cell or battery provides the electricity 45. When Hans Christian Oersted performed his
that flows through the coil, creating the magnetic demonstration, what object’s deflection led to his
field. Without the cell, the coil will not become discovery?
a magnet. (A) A magnetic compass
(B) An iron nail
42. A light bulb filament is to the heating effect as a (C) A piece of paper
crane’s lifting magnet is to the ______. (D) An electric lamp
(A) chemical effect
(B) Voltaic effect

Ans
(C) magnetic effect (A) A magnetic compass
(D) cooling effect The story of Oersted’s discovery, as recounted in


Ans the chapter, centers on his observation that the
needle of a magnetic compass, which was lying
(C) magnetic effect nearby, deflected when he switched his electrical
The analogy links a device to the electrical circuit on and off.
principle it primarily uses. A filament glows
due to the heating effect of current. A lifting 46. Which of the following is NOT a component of
electromagnet works because of the magnetic the simple Voltaic cell shown in the diagram?
effect of current, which allows it to attract and (A) A heating element
lift iron objects. (B) An electrolyte
(C) Two different electrodes
43. What is the direct effect of a chemical reaction (D) Connecting wires
between the electrodes and electrolyte in a Voltaic
cell?

Ans
(A) The cell gets very hot, producing thermal (A) A heating element
energy. The diagram of a Voltaic cell shows two
(B) The cell produces bright light from the electrodes, an electrolyte, connecting wires, and
electrolyte. an electric lamp (the load). A heating element
(C) The cell generates an electric current. is a component used in appliances that work on
(D) The electrolyte in the cell rapidly evaporates. the heating effect of current, not in a device that


Ans generates current chemically.

(C) The cell generates an electric current. 47. Match the term related to electromagnets with its
This is the fundamental principle of a chemical correct property or discoverer.
cell. The chemical energy stored in the electrodes
and electrolyte is converted into electrical energy Column A Column B
through a chemical reaction. This conversion 1 Strength of A The scientist who
creates a flow of electrons, which is an electric Electromagnet first discovered the
current. magnetic effect of
electric current.
44. The opposition that a conductor offers to the flow
of electric current is called: 2 Iron Core B The North and
(A) Voltage South ends of the
(B) Resistance electromagnet, which
(C) Polarity can be reversed by
(D) Electrolysis changing the current’s
direction.


Ans
3 Polarity of C Can be increased by
(B) Resistance Electromagnet using more electric
Resistance is the property of a material that current or increasing
impedes the flow of electric current. It is this the number of turns in
resistance that causes the conversion of electrical the coil.
energy into heat.
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

4 Hans Christian D A piece of iron inserted To maximize the heating effect, you need a wire
Oersted into a current-carrying with high resistance. The nichrome has a much
coil to make the higher resistance than copper or aluminium. A
magnetic field much thinner wire also has more resistance than a
stronger. thicker one, so a thin nichrome wire is the ideal
choice.
Options
(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A 50. A single-use battery like a dry cell is ______
(b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C after its chemicals are used up, while a ______
(c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B battery can have its chemical reaction reversed.
(d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (A) disposed of, rechargeable


Ans (B) recycled, permanent
(C) heated, cooled
(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A (D) magnetized, demagnetized
An electromagnet’s strength depends on current
and coil turns. An iron core is used to make it

Ans
stronger. Its polarity can be reversed. Oersted (A) disposed of, rechargeable
discovered the link between electricity and This question contrasts the two main types of
magnetism. batteries. Dry cells have an irreversible chemical
reaction and must be disposed of once they are
48. What does it mean when a rechargeable battery “dead.” Rechargeable batteries are designed so
“wears out”? that an external current can reverse the reaction,
(A) It means the battery can be charged much allowing them to be reused.
faster than when it was new.
(B) It means the chemical reactions inside can 51. How does the electrolyte in a dry cell differ from
no longer be efficiently reversed, and it can’t the electrolyte in the original Voltaic cell?
hold a charge well. (A) The dry cell electrolyte is a solid, while the
(C) It means the battery has transformed into a Voltaic cell electrolyte is a gas.
very strong permanent magnet. (B) The dry cell has no electrolyte, while the
(D) It means the outer plastic or metal casing of Voltaic cell has a liquid one.
the battery is physically damaged. (C) The dry cell electrolyte is a moist paste, while


Ans the Voltaic cell electrolyte is a liquid.
(D) The dry cell electrolyte is non-conductive,
(B) It means the chemical reactions inside can no while the Voltaic cell electrolyte is conductive.
longer be efficiently reversed, and it can’t hold a
charge well.

Ans
The chemical processes in a rechargeable battery (C) The dry cell electrolyte is a moist paste, while
are not perfectly reversible. Each charge and the Voltaic cell electrolyte is a liquid.
discharge cycle causes slight degradation of the The name “dry cell” itself points to this key
electrodes and electrolyte. Over many cycles, this difference. The original Voltaic cell used a liquid
accumulated wear reduces the battery’s capacity acid or salt solution. Dry cells were an improvement
to store and deliver energy, meaning it wears out. because they use a thick, non-spillable paste as
the electrolyte, making them more practical and
49. If you want to build an electric circuit to portable.
demonstrate the heating effect of current, which
of these wires would be the best choice for the 52. If a straight wire carrying current is placed
part that gets hot? directly above a compass, and the north pole of
(A) A thick copper wire the compass deflects to the east, what would you
(B) A thick iron wire expect to happen if the wire is placed below the
(C) A thin aluminium wire compass?
(D) A thin nichrome wire (A) The needle would not deflect at all.


Ans (B) The needle would deflect to the west.
(C) The needle would still deflect to the east.
(D) A thin nichrome wire (D) The needle would point up towards the wire.
page 108 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans

Ans
(B) The needle would deflect to the west. (D) The voltage from the socket is lower than it
The magnetic field created by a current-carrying should be, resulting in a lower current.
wire is circular around the wire. The direction The heat produced is proportional to the current.
of the field (and thus the compass deflection) A lower voltage supply would cause a lower
depends on the direction of the current and current to flow through the heating element. This
your position relative to the wire. Reversing the reduced current would generate less heat per
position from above to below reverses the direction second, making the kettle take much longer to
of the magnetic field at the compass, causing the boil the water.
deflection to be in the opposite direction.
56. What is the direct cause of the Earth behaving
53. What are two applications of electromagnets like a giant magnet?
mentioned in the chapter, apart from lifting (A) The movement of liquid iron in the Earth’s
cranes? core, creating electric currents.
(A) Electric stoves and hair dryers (B) The presence of many large permanent
(B) Incandescent lamps and kettles magnets located in the Earth’s crust.
(C) Electric bells and motors (C) The constant rotation of the Earth on its own
(D) Dry cells and rechargeable batteries axis.
(D) The strong gravitational pull of the Sun and


Ans
the Moon.
(C) Electric bells and motors
In the section following Oersted’s discovery, the

Ans
chapter lists several practical applications of the (A) The movement of liquid iron in the Earth’s
magnetic effect of current. It explicitly mentions core, creating electric currents.
“devices like electromagnets, electric bells, The Earth’s magnetism is not a simple permanent
motors, fans, loudspeakers, and more.” magnet but functions like a giant electromagnet.
The flow of molten, conductive iron in the outer
54. Which of the following is NOT a component used core generates large-scale electric currents, which
to build the simple circuit with a compass in in turn produce the planet’s magnetic field.
Activity 4.1?
(A) An iron nail 57. Match the electrical component or appliance with
(B) An electric cell the effect it is based on.
(C) A magnetic compass
(D) Connecting wires Column A Column B

Ans 1 Electric Iron A Its needle deflects

when current flows
(A) An iron nail nearby, demonstrating
Activity 4.1 is designed to show the magnetic the magnetic effect of
effect of a current in a wire alone. The setup current.
includes a cell, wires, a switch, and a compass. An
iron nail is introduced later in Activity 4.2, where 2 Magnetic B A wire with high
it is used as a core to build an electromagnet. Compass resistance that gets very
hot, making it ideal for
55. An electric kettle is taking a very long time to heating elements.
boil water. Assuming the kettle is not faulty, what 3 Lifting C An appliance that
electrical issue could be the cause? Electromagnet uses the heating effect
(A) The current flowing to the kettle is much too of electric current to
high. press clothes.
(B) The electrical resistance of the heating
element has decreased. 4 Nichrome Wire D A device used in
(C) The kettle has somehow become a strong cranes that works on
electromagnet. the magnetic effect of
(D) The voltage from the socket is lower than it electric current to lift
should be, resulting in a lower current. iron and steel.
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

Options 60. Why is copper, and not nichrome, used for the
(a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D connecting wires in an electric circuit?
(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (A) Because copper is a much better insulator
(c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C than nichrome.
(d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (B) Because copper is a stronger magnetic
material than nichrome.


Ans
(C) Because copper is cheaper and more readily
(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B available than nichrome.
An electric iron works on the heating effect. A (D) Copper has low resistance, so it doesn’t get
magnetic compass needle deflects due to the very hot and waste energy.
magnetic effect. A lifting electromagnet uses the
magnetic effect to lift metals. Nichrome wire is

Ans
used for its high resistance to produce heat. (D) Copper has low resistance, so it doesn’t get
very hot and waste energy.
58. A “dead” cell is one that: The purpose of connecting wires is to transport
(A) has lost its natural magnetic properties. electricity efficiently with minimal energy loss.
(B) has become physically broken or cracked. Copper has very low electrical resistance, so it
(C) has run out of the chemicals needed to allows current to flow easily without generating
produce electricity. much heat. Using high-resistance nichrome for
(D) can be recharged multiple times to work wiring would be inefficient and dangerous due to
again. overheating.


Ans
61. Which statement about Lithium-ion (Li-ion)
(C) has run out of the chemicals needed to batteries is FALSE?
produce electricity. (A) They last forever and never wear out.
A chemical cell works by converting chemical (B) They are a common type of rechargeable
energy into electrical energy. This process battery.
consumes the reactive materials (chemicals) in (C) They are used in devices like mobile phones.
the electrodes and electrolyte. A cell is considered (D) They rely on special metals like lithium and
“dead” when these chemicals are depleted to cobalt.
the point where they can no longer sustain the
reaction that produces a current.

Ans
(A) They last forever and never wear out.
59. To test if a coil of wire becomes a magnet, what The rechargeable batteries, including Li-ion
is the most direct test? batteries, do not last forever. After many charge
(A) Measure its length and weight accurately. and discharge cycles, their chemical components
(B) Connect it to a cell and see if it attracts iron degrade, and their ability to hold a charge
paper clips. diminishes, causing them to eventually wear out.
(C) See if it gets hot when connected to a cell for
a long time. 62. When you wrap a wire into a coil, the magnetic
(D) Wrap it around a piece of wood to see if the field it produces is stronger than that of a straight
wood becomes magnetic. wire with the same current. Why is this?
(A) Coiling the wire significantly increases its


Ans
electrical resistance.
(B) Connect it to a cell and see if it attracts iron (B) The magnetic fields from each loop of the coil
paper clips. add together.
The defining property of a magnet is its ability (C) The coiling process makes the wire much
to attract ferromagnetic materials like iron. hotter, increasing its magnetism.
Therefore, the most straightforward test is to (D) The coil uses less wire than a straight piece of
pass a current through the coil to turn it into the same length.
an electromagnet and then see if it exhibits this
magnetic property by attracting iron objects.

Ans
(B) The magnetic fields from each loop of the coil
add together.
page 110 Class 8th Science Foundation

Each turn of the wire in the coil produces its own The primary distinction is the nature of their
circular magnetic field. When the wire is coiled, magnetism. A permanent magnet retains
these individual fields overlap and reinforce each its magnetic properties continuously. An
other inside the coil, creating a much stronger, electromagnet’s magnetism is temporary and
more concentrated magnetic field than a single is directly controlled by the flow of an electric
straight wire could produce. current; when the current stops, the magnetism
disappears.
63. In the lemon battery experiment (Activity 4.6),
what two different metals were used as electrodes? 66. Match the scientist with their key discovery or
(A) Zinc and Lead invention.
(B) Aluminium and Silver
(C) Copper and Iron Column A Column B
(D) Gold and Platinum 1 Alessandro Volta A Noticed a compass


Ans needle deflecting
near a current-
(C) Copper and Iron carrying wire, linking
The materials list for Activity 4.6, which describes electricity and
how to construct a simple Voltaic cell, specifically magnetism.
calls for “copper wires/strips... and iron nails”
to be inserted into the lemons to act as the two 2 Luigi Galvani B A device used in
different electrodes. scrap yards that can
pick up and release
64. An incandescent lamp glows due to the ______ iron objects by
effect, while an electric motor turns due to the switching the current
______ effect of current. on and off.
(A) heating, magnetic
(B) magnetic, heating 3 Hans Christian C Observed a dead
(C) chemical, physical Oersted frog’s leg twitching
(D) lighting, spinning when touched by
two different metals,


Ans sparking early ideas
(A) heating, magnetic about electricity.
An incandescent lamp’s filament gets extremely
4 Lifting D Proved that
hot and glows, which is an application of the
Electromagnet electricity could be
heating effect. An electric motor uses the force
generated from two
generated by the interaction of magnetic fields to
different metals and
produce rotation, which is an application of the
a liquid, leading to
magnetic effect.
the first battery.
65. What is the key difference between a permanent Options
magnet and an electromagnet? (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
(A) A permanent magnet has two poles, while an (b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
electromagnet has only one pole.
(c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
(B) A permanent magnet is always magnetic,
while an electromagnet is only magnetic when (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
current flows.

Ans
(C) A permanent magnet is made of iron, while
(a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
an electromagnet is made of copper.
(D) A permanent magnet is generally weak, while Alessandro Volta invented the first battery by
an electromagnet is always very strong. showing two metals and a liquid produce current.
Galvani’s frog leg experiment preceded this.


Ans Oersted discovered the magnetic effect of current.
(B) A permanent magnet is always magnetic, A lifting electromagnet is a practical application
while an electromagnet is only magnetic when of this effect.
current flows.
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

67. Which of the following is an accurate statement 70. What is the name of the iron nail with a wire
about the safety of electrical appliances? wrapped around it, which was connected to a
(A) It is perfectly safe to use any plug in any battery in the science exhibition model?
socket, regardless of the current rating. (A) A lifting electromagnet
(B) Using wires and plugs rated for the specified (B) A permanent magnet
current helps prevent overheating and fires. (C) An electric heater
(C) Minor overheating in household circuits is not (D) A dry cell
a serious risk and can be ignored.


Ans
(D) The heating effect of current is never a safety
concern in household wiring systems. (A) A lifting electromagnet
The introductory story describes this specific


Ans model. The nail, wrapped with wire and connected
(B) Using wires and plugs rated for the specified to a power source, functions as an electromagnet
current helps prevent overheating and fires. designed for lifting magnetic objects (paper clips),
Appliances draw different amounts of current. hence it is a “lifting electromagnet.”
Using plugs, sockets, and wires that are
71. An electric iron has a heating element to produce
appropriately rated for that current ensures they
can handle the load without overheating, which is heat. Why is the connecting cord of the iron made
a critical safety measure to prevent fires. of copper wire, which does not get hot?
(A) Because the cord has low resistance, while the
68. A device consisting of a spring and a hook, used heating element has high resistance.
to measure weight (force) in newtons, is called a: (B) Because copper is a very effective electrical
(A) Spring balance insulator.
(B) Beam balance (C) Because the cord is much thicker than the
(C) Digital balance internal heating element.
(D) Thermometer (D) Because the current in the cord is lower than


Ans the current in the heating element.
(A) Spring balance

Ans
A spring balance operates on the principle that
(A) Because the cord has low resistance, while the
the extension of a spring is proportional to
heating element has high resistance.
the force applied. It is specifically designed to
The appliance is designed this way. The same
measure force, which includes weight, and is often
current flows through both the cord and the
calibrated in newtons.
element. The copper cord has very low resistance
69. If you increase the number of turns in an to efficiently carry current without significant
electromagnet’s coil from 50 to 100 but keep the heating. The nichrome element has very high
current the same, what happens to the magnetic resistance, causing it to get very hot and perform
field? its function.
(A) It becomes weaker.
72. Which of the following is NOT a part of a standard
(B) It disappears entirely. dry cell?
(C) It becomes stronger. (A) Liquid acid electrolyte
(D) Its polarity reverses from North-South to (B) Zinc container
South-North. (C) Carbon rod
(D) Metal cap


Ans


Ans
(C) It becomes stronger.
The strength of an electromagnet is directly (A) Liquid acid electrolyte
proportional to the number of turns in its coil. A key feature of a “dry” cell is that its electrolyte
By doubling the number of turns, you are adding is not a free-flowing liquid. It is a thick, moist
together the magnetic fields from twice as many paste. The presence of a liquid acid electrolyte is
loops of wire, which results in a significantly characteristic of a “wet” cell, like a Voltaic cell or
stronger overall magnetic field. a car battery.
page 112 Class 8th Science Foundation

73. You connect a coil of wire to a battery and place An inverter battery is a rechargeable storage
a compass nearby, but the needle does not deflect. device. When mains power is available, it charges.
Which is the LEAST likely reason for this? When the power goes out, the stored chemical
(A) The wire is made of copper. energy is converted back into electrical energy to
(B) The battery is dead, so no current is flowing. run household appliances, providing backup power.
(C) There is a break in the wire, preventing
current flow. 76. Why does a single lemon cell produce only a small
(D) The compass is placed too far from the coil to amount of electricity, often not enough to light a
detect the field. regular bulb?
(A) Because the iron and copper electrodes used


Ans are typically too small.
(A) The wire is made of copper. (B) Because a regular incandescent bulb requires
The magnetic effect occurs in any conducting a magnetic field to light up.
wire, and copper is an excellent conductor used (C) The chemical reaction in a lemon is very
for this experiment. The most likely reasons for slow and weak, producing a low voltage and
failure are a lack of current (dead battery, broken current.
circuit) or the compass being too far away to (D) Because lemons are not very good conductors
detect the weak magnetic field. of electricity and block the current.

74. What is the sequence of energy conversion in a

Ans

Voltaic cell connected to a lamp? (C) The chemical reaction in a lemon is very slow
(A) Electrical Energy ® Chemical Energy ® and weak, producing a low voltage and current.
Light Energy While a lemon battery demonstrates the principle
(B) Light Energy ® Chemical Energy ® of a Voltaic cell, the materials involved (citric
Electrical Energy acid, iron, copper) produce a relatively inefficient
(C) Chemical Energy ® Electrical Energy ® chemical reaction. This results in a very small
Light and Heat Energy potential difference (voltage) and a limited flow of
(D) Heat Energy ® Electrical Energy ® Chemical current, which is usually insufficient for a device
Energy requiring significant power.


Ans 77. Some security doors use a magnetic lock that
(C) Chemical Energy ® Electrical Energy ® releases when the power is cut. This lock most
Light and Heat Energy likely uses a(n):
The process starts inside the cell, where stored (A) Electromagnet
chemical energy is converted into electrical (B) Permanent magnet
energy. This electrical energy then flows through (C) Dry cell
the circuit to the lamp, where it is converted into (D) Heating element
light energy (making it glow) and also some heat

Ans
energy (making it warm).
(A) Electromagnet
75. What is the primary function of an inverter A key feature of this lock is that it can be
battery in a home? turned off. This functionality is the hallmark of
(A) To store electrical energy from the mains and an electromagnet. The lock is held shut by the
provide power during an outage. magnetic force when current is flowing. In an
(B) To generate electricity directly from sunlight emergency (like a power cut or fire alarm), the
or solar power. current stops, the magnetic field disappears, and
(C) To act as a large, powerful electromagnet for the door unlocks.
home security.
(D) To heat the water for bathing and other 78. A cell is to a battery as a single link is to a
household uses. ______.
(A) chain


Ans (B) box
(A) To store electrical energy from the mains and (C) wire
provide power during an outage. (D) key
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

Ans

Ans
(A) chain (A) The common dry cell used in a TV remote.
The analogy relates a single unit to a collection of A dry cell as a “single use cell” that must be
those units. A single electrochemical unit is called disposed of after use. Batteries for phones,
a cell. A battery is technically a collection of two inverters, and vehicles are all given as examples of
or more cells connected together to provide more rechargeable batteries that can be used multiple
voltage or capacity, just as a chain is made of times.
multiple links connected together.
82. Which statement about the link between
79. When current flows through an insulated wire electricity and magnetism is correct?
wrapped around an iron nail, the nail becomes a (A) Only permanent magnets are capable of
______ magnet, and when the current stops, producing a stable electric current.
it ______ its magnetism. (B) Only a flow of electricity is able to produce
(A) permanent, increases any form of magnetism.
(B) temporary, loses (C) There is no fundamental link between the
(C) weak, retains phenomena of electricity and magnetism.
(D) natural, reverses (D) Electricity can produce magnetism, and a
moving magnet can produce electricity.


Ans
(B) temporary, loses

Ans
This describes the fundamental property of (D) Electricity can produce magnetism, and a
an electromagnet. Its magnetism is induced by moving magnet can produce electricity.
the electric current and is therefore temporary. The “A step further” section then introduces
When the current is switched off, the magnetic the reverse concept (electromagnetic induction)
field collapses, and the iron core loses most of its that a moving magnet can also generate an
magnetism. electric current, highlighting the deep, two-way
connection between the two forces.
80. How does a lead-acid battery (like in a car) differ
from a lemon battery? 83. The phenomenon where a conductor gets warm
(A) The car battery uses a more powerful chemical due to the flow of electric current is known as:
reaction and is rechargeable. (A) The magnetic effect
(B) The lemon battery is rechargeable, but the (B) The heating effect
car battery is a single-use device. (C) Electrolysis
(C) The lemon battery produces AC current, (D) Resistance
while the car battery produces DC current.


Ans
(D) The car battery has no electrolyte, while the
lemon battery uses acidic juice. (B) The heating effect
This is the specific term used in the chapter to


Ans describe the conversion of electrical energy into
(A) The car battery uses a more powerful chemical heat when current passes through a resistive
reaction and is rechargeable. material. It is the principle behind many common
A car battery uses a highly efficient and reversible electrical appliances.
chemical reaction involving lead plates and
sulfuric acid to produce a large current, and it is 84. Who are the two Italian scientists from whom the
designed to be recharged. A lemon battery uses Voltaic or Galvanic cell gets its name?
a weak, non-reversible reaction and is a simple, (A) Galileo Galilei and Leonardo da Vinci
single-use demonstration cell. (B) Alessandro Volta and Luigi Galvani
(C) Hans Oersted and Alexander Fleming
81. Which of the following is NOT an example of a (D) Isaac Newton and Robert Hooke
rechargeable battery mentioned in the chapter?


Ans
(A) The common dry cell used in a TV remote.
(B) Batteries used in mobile phones. (B) Alessandro Volta and Luigi Galvani
(C) Batteries used in inverters. It describes Galvani’s initial observation and
(D) Batteries used in vehicles. Volta’s correct interpretation and subsequent
page 114 Class 8th Science Foundation

invention of the first battery, leading to the cell A lemon battery is a primary or single-use cell.
being named after them. The chemical reaction that produces electricity is
not easily reversible by passing a current through
85. The cord of an electric heater has two wires inside. it. It is a simple demonstration of a Voltaic cell,
Why are these wires insulated with plastic? but not a rechargeable one.
(A) To prevent the two wires from touching each
other and causing a short circuit. 88. What is the direct effect of wrapping a current-
(B) To make the cord look more colorful and carrying wire into a coil?
aesthetically pleasing. (A) It significantly increases the voltage supplied
(C) To make the copper wires inside heat up more by the battery.
quickly and efficiently. (B) It changes the material of the wire from
(D) To make the cord more flexible and easier to copper to magnetic iron.
bend without breaking. (C) It concentrates the magnetic field, making it
stronger.


Ans
(D) It completely eliminates the heating effect of
(A) To prevent the two wires from touching each the electric current.
other and causing a short circuit.


Ans
The plastic covering is an electrical insulator.
It keeps the live and neutral wires electrically (C) It concentrates the magnetic field, making it
separated. If the insulation were to fail and the stronger.
bare wires touched, it would create a short circuit, Each loop of the wire creates a magnetic field.
allowing a very large current to flow, which is By coiling the wire, the magnetic fields from all
extremely dangerous and can cause a fire. the loops add up and become concentrated in the
center of the coil. This results in a much stronger
86. If you had a very strong permanent magnet and and more useful magnetic field than a straight
an equally strong electromagnet, what is the main wire would produce.
advantage of the electromagnet?
(A) It is significantly lighter in weight for the 89. What is the main component of the “thick moist
same strength. paste” that serves as the electrolyte in a dry cell?
(B) Its magnetic force can be turned off. (A) A mixture of chemicals, including a salt or
(C) It does not have distinct North and South weak acid.
poles. (B) Pure, distilled water with no additives.
(D) It does not require any energy to maintain its (C) Liquid iron that has been melted down.
magnetism. (D) A highly concentrated sugar solution.


Ans

Ans

(B) Its magnetic force can be turned off. (A) A mixture of chemicals, including a salt or
The key advantage of an electromagnet is its weak acid.
controllability. While a permanent magnet is While the exact composition varies, the electrolyte
always “on,” an electromagnet’s force can be paste in a dry cell is a chemical mixture designed
precisely controlled—turned on, turned off, or to conduct ions. It typically contains a salt like
even varied in strength—by adjusting the electric ammonium chloride or zinc chloride mixed with a
current, making it far more versatile for many filler material to create the paste-like consistency.
applications.
90. What is a key difference in how an electric motor
87. Which statement about a simple lemon battery and an electric heater use electricity?
is false? (A) A motor works only with AC, while a heater
(A) It is a type of rechargeable battery. works only with DC.
(B) The lemon juice acts as an electrolyte. (B) A motor requires an iron core for its function,
(C) It requires two different types of metal to while a heater does not.
work. (C) A motor uses the heating effect, while a
(D) It works on the principle of a Voltaic cell. heater uses the magnetic effect.
(D) A motor converts electrical energy into


Ans mechanical energy, while a heater converts it
(A) It is a type of rechargeable battery. into heat energy.
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

Ans

Ans
(D) A motor converts electrical energy into (B) An electromagnet has a North and a South
mechanical energy, while a heater converts it into pole, and their positions can be reversed.
heat energy. Like a permanent magnet, an electromagnet is
An electric motor uses the magnetic effect to dipolar. Activity 4.4 demonstrates this and also
create rotational motion (mechanical energy). An shows that the polarity is dependent on the
electric heater is specifically designed to use the direction of current flow. Reversing the current
heating effect to produce thermal energy (heat). will reverse the positions of the North and South
poles.
91. A loudspeaker contains a coil of wire attached to
a cone and is placed near a magnet. What effect 94. Why does a lifting electromagnet at a scrap
of current causes the cone to vibrate and produce yard require a large and continuous supply of
sound? electricity?
(A) The heating effect (A) To generate enough heat to partially melt the
(B) The magnetic effect scrap metal.
(C) The chemical effect (B) To power the bright lights and loud horn on
(D) The Voltaic effect the crane.
(C) To create a magnetic field strong enough to


Ans
lift very heavy iron and steel objects.
(B) The magnetic effect (D) To constantly recharge its own internal
In a loudspeaker, the audio signal is an electric batteries while it works.
current that flows through the coil. This turns
the coil into a rapidly changing electromagnet.

Ans
The interaction between the electromagnet and (C) To create a magnetic field strong enough to
the permanent magnet causes the coil (and the lift very heavy iron and steel objects.
attached cone) to vibrate rapidly, creating sound The strength of an electromagnet is directly
waves. related to the current flowing through its coils.
Lifting tons of scrap metal requires an incredibly
92. In a dry cell, the central ______ rod acts as powerful magnetic force. To generate such a
the positive terminal, and the outer ______ strong magnetic field, a very large electric current
container acts as the negative terminal. must be continuously supplied to its massive coils.
(A) carbon, zinc
(B) zinc, carbon 95. Which of the following is NOT a useful application
(C) iron, copper of the heating effect of electric current?
(D) copper, iron (A) An electric motor
(B) An electric room heater


Ans
(C) An incandescent light bulb
(A) carbon, zinc (D) An electric iron
The chapter’s diagram and description of a dry
cell clearly label these parts and their roles. The

Ans
carbon rod in the middle is the positive electrode, (A) An electric motor
and the zinc casing that forms the body of the cell An electric motor is a primary application of the
is the negative electrode. magnetic effect of current, where magnetic forces
are used to create motion. While a motor does
93. Which of the following is a correct statement generate some waste heat (an unwanted heating
about the poles of an electromagnet? effect), its primary function is not based on
(A) An electromagnet only has a North pole, but generating heat.
no South pole.
(B) An electromagnet has a North and a South 96. A single electrochemical unit that converts
pole, and their positions can be reversed. chemical energy to electrical energy is called a(n):
(C) The poles of an electromagnet are permanently (A) Cell
fixed and cannot be changed. (B) Battery
(D) A simple electromagnet does not have any (C) Circuit
magnetic poles. (D) Electromagnet
page 116 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans

Ans
(A) Cell (A) Because a Voltaic cell requires two different
This is the precise definition. A “cell” is the metals to create a potential difference.
fundamental unit. A “battery” is technically a The generation of electricity in a Voltaic cell
collection of one or more cells. For example, a depends on the difference in chemical reactivity
standard AA “battery” is actually a single cell. between the two electrodes and the electrolyte. If
both electrodes are made of the same metal, there
97. Which phenomenon explains why a compass is no potential difference created, and no current
placed near a live electrical wire in a wall might will flow.
give an incorrect reading?
(A) The chemical effect of the current. 100. An incandescent bulb is to glowing filament as an
(B) The magnetic effect of the current. electric stove is to a ______.
(C) The heating effect of the current. (A) red-hot heating element
(D) The high resistance of the wall material. (B) magnetic coil
(C) zinc container


Ans
(D) carbon rod
(B) The magnetic effect of the current.
The electric current flowing through the wire

Ans
in the wall creates its own magnetic field. This (A) red-hot heating element
field can interfere with or overpower the Earth’s The analogy links an appliance to its functional
magnetic field, which the compass is designed to part that utilizes the heating effect. In a bulb,
detect. This interference will cause the compass the glowing filament produces light and heat. In
needle to deflect and point in the wrong direction. an electric stove, the red-hot heating element (or
coil) produces the heat for cooking.
98. What is the first step in the activity to make a
lemon battery? 101. Future battery technology mentioned in the
(A) Join all the lemons together with a series of chapter, which uses solid materials instead of a
connecting wires. paste or liquid, is called:
(B) Squeeze the juice out of the lemons to create (A) Nuclear batteries
the electrolyte. (B) Solid-state batteries
(C) Connect the LED to the first and last (C) Solar batteries
electrodes in the series. (D) Dry-state batteries
(D) Insert the copper wire and iron nail into one


Ans
of the lemons.
(B) Solid-state batteries


Ans The “A step further” section on batteries looks to
(D) Insert the copper wire and iron nail into one the future. It explicitly states, “Scientists are also
of the lemons. working on the next big leap: solid-state batteries,
The first step in constructing the basic unit of which replace the liquid or paste-like electrolytes
the battery is to create a single cell. This is done with solid materials.”
by inserting the two different metal electrodes
(copper and iron) into the electrolyte (the lemon). 102. Which of the following is NOT a factor that
This step is then repeated for the other lemons. affects the amount of heat produced in a wire?
(A) The strength of the magnetic field around the
99. Why can’t you make a lemon battery using two wire.
copper wires instead of one copper and one iron? (B) The duration for which the current flows.
(A) Because a Voltaic cell requires two different (C) The material of the wire.
metals to create a potential difference. (D) The magnitude of the electric current.
(B) Because copper is not a sufficiently good


Ans
conductor of electricity.
(C) Because using two copper wires would be too (A) The strength of the magnetic field around
heavy for the lemon to support. the wire.
(D) Because copper is too expensive to use for The factors affecting heat generation are material,
both electrodes in an experiment. dimensions, current magnitude, and duration of
flow. The magnetic field is a separate effect of the
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

current and does not determine the amount of

Ans

heat produced by resistance. (D) LEDs require very little current and voltage
to light up, which the lemon battery can provide.
103. An electromagnet is connected to a battery, but Different electrical components have different
it does not produce any magnetic field. Its wires power requirements. An LED is highly efficient
do not get hot. What is the most probable cause? and can glow with a very small amount of
(A) There is a break in the circuit, and no current electrical current. An incandescent bulb requires
is flowing. a much larger current to heat its filament. The
(B) The iron core is made of the wrong type of weak lemon battery can often produce enough
iron. current for the LED but not for the bulb.
(C) The number of turns in the coil is too high for
the battery. 106. Which of the following accurately describes how
(D) The ambient room temperature is too cold for a dry cell works?
magnetism to work. (A) It stores electricity from a wall socket and


Ans releases it later when needed.
(B) A chemical reaction between a zinc container,
(A) There is a break in the circuit, and no current a carbon rod, and a moist electrolyte paste
is flowing. produces electricity.
Both the magnetic and heating effects require (C) It uses an internal magnetic field to generate
an electric current to be flowing. If there is a continuous electric current.
no magnetic field AND no heating, it strongly (D) It converts heat energy from the surrounding
indicates a complete lack of current, most likely environment into electricity.
due to a break in the circuit (a loose wire, a dead
battery, or an open switch).

Ans
(B) A chemical reaction between a zinc container,
104. What is the effect of the Earth’s magnetic field on a carbon rod, and a moist electrolyte paste
migratory birds? produces electricity.
(A) It provides them with a direct source of food This statement correctly identifies the key
during their journey. components and the fundamental process of a dry
(B) It physically protects them from predators cell. It is a portable chemical device where the
during flight. reaction between the zinc (negative electrode),
(C) It makes them fly at a much faster speed than carbon (positive electrode), and the electrolyte
they otherwise could. paste converts stored chemical energy into usable
(D) It helps them navigate during long journeys. electrical energy.


Ans
107. The introductory story mentions that when
(D) It helps them navigate during long journeys. Sumana opened the circuit of her electromagnet,
Many migratory animals, including birds and the paper clips fell off. This demonstrates that:
fish, have an innate ability to sense the Earth’s (A) The paper clips were not made of iron.
magnetic field. They use this field as a natural (B) The electromagnet is a type of permanent
compass to help them navigate accurately over magnet.
vast distances during their migrations. (C) The electromagnet only works when an
electric current is flowing.
105. Why can a small LED be lit by a lemon battery,
(D) Gravity is a much stronger force than
but a large incandescent bulb cannot?
magnetism.
(A) LEDs are made from a special metal that
reacts directly with lemon juice.

Ans
(B) The lemon battery produces the wrong color (C) The electromagnet only works when an
of electricity for the incandescent bulb. electric current is flowing.
(C) LEDs work on the magnetic effect, while This observation is the key to understanding an
bulbs work on the heating effect of current. electromagnet. The magnetic force that held the
(D) LEDs require very little current and voltage clips disappeared the moment the circuit was opened
to light up, which the lemon battery can (current stopped). This proves that its magnetism is
provide. temporary and dependent on the flow of electricity.
page 118 Class 8th Science Foundation

108. What is the main difference in composition The wire is wound into many tight loops. If the
between the wire in a heating element and the wire were bare metal, the loops would touch each
wire in an electromagnet’s coil? other, and the current would take the shortest
(A) The heating element wire is a good insulator, path, effectively creating a single, thick conductor
while the coil wire is a good conductor. instead of a coil. The insulation ensures the
(B) The heating element wire is strongly current travels through the entire length of the
magnetic, while the coil wire is completely wire, creating many loops to strengthen the
non-magnetic. magnetic field.
(C) The heating element wire has high resistance,
while the coil wire has low resistance. 111. You are given an iron nail, a copper wire, and
(D) There is no difference in composition; they a D-cell battery. What can you build with these
are made of the exact same material. items?
(A) A simple electric heater


Ans (B) A simple electromagnet
(C) The heating element wire has high resistance, (C) A permanent magnet
while the coil wire has low resistance. (D) A rechargeable battery
The wires are chosen for opposite properties

Ans
based on their function. A heating element (like
nichrome) needs high resistance to efficiently (B) A simple electromagnet
convert electricity to heat. An electromagnet’s These are the exact components described in
coil (like copper) needs low resistance to allow Activity 4.2. By wrapping the insulated copper
a large current to flow easily and create a strong wire around the iron nail (the core) and connecting
magnetic field without excessive heating. the ends to the battery (the power source), you
create a simple but functional electromagnet.
109. Which of the following devices does NOT contain
an electromagnet as a key component? 112. The heating effect of current is useful in an electric
(A) An electric kettle ______, but is an unwanted energy loss in a
(B) An electric bell ______ wire.
(C) An electric motor (A) heater, connecting
(D) A loudspeaker (B) motor, connecting
(C) battery, heater


Ans (D) bell, motor
(A) An electric kettle

Ans
Electric bells, motors, and loudspeakers all
rely on the magnetic effect of current and use (A) heater, connecting
electromagnets to function. An electric kettle In an appliance like a heater, the effect is desirable
works on the heating effect of current, using a and is maximized by using a high-resistance
high-resistance element to heat water, and does element. In a connecting wire, the goal is efficient
not contain an electromagnet. energy transport, so heating is an undesirable loss
of energy, minimized by using a low-resistance
110. Why must the wire used to make an electromagnet wire like copper.
be insulated?
(A) To prevent the current from taking a shortcut 113. What was Hans Christian Oersted’s key conclusion
between the loops of the coil. from his experiment?
(B) To make the wire stronger and less likely to (A) That all metals are inherently magnetic.
break. (B) That magnets can be used to produce heat.
(C) To make the wire heat up more effectively (C) That electricity and magnetism are linked
and efficiently. phenomena.
(D) To make the finished electromagnet look (D) That powerful batteries can be made from
more colorful. lemons.

Ans

Ans

(A) To prevent the current from taking a shortcut (C) That electricity and magnetism are linked
between the loops of the coil. phenomena.
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

Oersted’s discovery was groundbreaking (A) The lemon battery can be recharged by
because, before him, electricity and magnetism plugging it into a wall socket.
were considered separate, unrelated forces. The lemon battery is a primary (single-use) cell.
His observation that an electric current could The chemical reaction that generates electricity
influence a magnet was the first experimental is not reversible. Attempting to pass a current
proof of a fundamental connection between them. through it will not recharge it; it will only cause
electrolysis of the lemon juice.
114. An electric heater is to a nichrome coil as a
______ is to a zinc container and carbon rod. 117. What is the term for a material, like nichrome,
(A) dry cell that has high opposition to the flow of electric
(B) rechargeable battery current?
(C) lifting electromagnet (A) A high-resistance material
(D) lemon battery (B) A good conductor
(C) An insulator


Ans
(D) An electrolyte
(A) dry cell
The analogy links an appliance to its key internal

Ans
components. An electric heater’s function (A) A high-resistance material
depends on its nichrome coil. A dry cell’s function Resistance is the measure of opposition to current
depends on its key structural components, the flow. Materials like nichrome that significantly
zinc container (negative terminal) and the carbon impede the current are said to have high resistance.
rod (positive terminal). This property is what makes them suitable for use
as heating elements.
115. What is the main difference in function between
the iron nail in an electromagnet and the iron nail 118. The movement of which substance in the Earth’s
in a lemon battery? core is believed to generate its magnetic field?
(A) In both devices, it primarily acts as a powerful (A) Solid rock
magnet. (B) Liquid iron
(B) In the electromagnet it is an electrode; in the (C) Liquid water
battery it is a magnetic core. (D) Natural gas
(C) In the electromagnet it becomes a magnet; in


Ans
the battery it acts as an electrode.
(D) There is no significant functional difference (B) Liquid iron
between its two roles. The chapter’s “A step further” section on Earth’s
magnetism explains the dynamo theory. It states


Ans that the movement of conductive liquid iron in
(C) In the electromagnet it becomes a magnet; in the Earth’s outer core generates electric currents,
the battery it acts as an electrode. which in turn produce the planet’s magnetic field.
The iron nail serves two completely different
purposes. In the electromagnet, it is the 119. If you build an electromagnet and it gets very hot
ferromagnetic core that is magnetized by the quickly, but is not very magnetic, what is a likely
current-carrying coil. In the lemon battery, it is problem?
one of the two different metals (an electrode) that (A) You are using a wire with very high resistance.
reacts with the electrolyte to produce electricity. (B) You are using a battery with very low voltage.
(C) You have wrapped too many turns in the coil.
116. Which statement about the lemon battery (D) The iron core is too large for the coil.
experiment is FALSE?


Ans
(A) The lemon battery can be recharged by
plugging it into a wall socket. (A) You are using a wire with very high resistance.
(B) The lemon juice acts as the electrolyte. An ideal electromagnet uses a low-resistance wire
(C) The copper and iron act as the electrodes. (like copper) to allow a large current to flow and
(D) Connecting several lemon cells in series can create a strong magnetic field without generating
light an LED. excessive heat. If the wire gets very hot, it means
it has high resistance, which dissipates a lot of


Ans
page 120 Class 8th Science Foundation

electrical energy as heat instead of contributing (C) It disappears when the current stops flowing.
effectively to the magnetic field. This is a defining feature demonstrated in
Activity 4.1. The magnetic field is a direct result
120. An electric bell uses an electromagnet to rapidly of the moving electric charges (the current). If
attract and release a small hammer that strikes the current ceases, the magnetic field it generated
a gong. To make the hammer release, what must collapses and disappears instantly.
happen?
(A) The current to the electromagnet must be 123. A ______ battery, like the one in a car, can
significantly increased. be recharged, whereas a simple ______ cell is
(B) The circuit must be momentarily broken, a single-use device.
switching off the electromagnet. (A) lead-acid, dry
(C) The permanent magnet in the bell must be (B) Voltaic, dry
removed temporarily. (C) lemon, Voltaic
(D) The temperature of the coil must be lowered (D) lithium-ion, lead-acid
very quickly.


Ans


Ans (A) lead-acid, dry
(B) The circuit must be momentarily broken, The car battery (a lead-acid type) as a prime
switching off the electromagnet. example of a rechargeable battery. It contrasts
The ringing mechanism relies on the electromagnet this with the common dry cell, which is explicitly
being able to switch off. The electromagnet pulls defined as a single-use, non-rechargeable cell.
the hammer in. The movement of the hammer
itself breaks the circuit, cutting the current. The 124. Copper is to a connecting wire as ______ is to
electromagnet turns off, and a spring pulls the a heating element.
hammer back, which remakes the circuit, and the (A) nichrome
cycle repeats rapidly. (B) plastic
(C) iron
121. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a (D) zinc
typical Voltaic cell?


Ans
(A) It has two electrodes made of the same metal.
(B) It converts chemical energy to electrical (A) nichrome
energy. The analogy relates a material to its typical
(C) It contains a liquid or paste-like electrolyte. application based on its electrical properties.
(D) It has a positive and a negative terminal. Copper, with its low resistance, is ideal for
connecting wires. Nichrome, with its high


Ans resistance, is the material of choice for making
(A) It has two electrodes made of the same metal. heating elements in appliances.
A fundamental requirement for a Voltaic cell to
produce a potential difference is that the two 125. A student wraps 100 turns of wire around an
electrodes must be made of different conductive iron nail and connects it to a battery. It picks
materials (usually metals). The difference in their up 20 paper clips. They then unwrap half the
chemical properties drives the electrochemical wire, leaving 50 turns, and connect it to the same
reaction. battery. How many clips will it likely pick up now?
(A) Significantly fewer than 20 clips.
122. What is a key characteristic of an electric current’s (B) More than 20 clips.
magnetic field? (C) Exactly 20 clips.
(A) It only exists if the wire is made of a magnetic (D) Exactly 40 clips.
material like iron.


Ans
(B) It is always much stronger than the Earth’s
magnetic field. (A) Significantly fewer than 20 clips.
(C) It disappears when the current stops flowing. The strength of an electromagnet is proportional
(D) It only affects non-magnetic objects such as to the number of turns in its coil. By reducing
wood or plastic. the number of turns from 100 to 50, the student
has significantly weakened the magnetic field.


Ans
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

Therefore, its lifting capacity will be reduced, and 129. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement
it will pick up fewer clips. about Hans Christian Oersted’s discovery?
(A) He invented the first electric battery.
126. What is the fundamental energy conversion that (B) He discovered that electric current creates a
takes place in a heating appliance like an electric magnetic field.
iron? (C) His discovery showed a link between electricity
(A) Chemical energy to heat energy. and magnetism.
(B) Electrical energy to heat energy. (D) He observed the deflection of a magnetic
(C) Electrical energy to magnetic energy. compass needle.
(D) Mechanical energy to heat energy.


Ans


Ans
(A) He invented the first electric battery.
(B) Electrical energy to heat energy. Oersted discovered the magnetic effect of current.
The function of an electric iron is to get hot. The first electric battery (the Voltaic pile) was
It achieves this by passing an electric current invented by Alessandro Volta around 1800, about
through a high-resistance heating element. The 20 years before Oersted’s discovery.
resistance of the element causes the electrical
energy of the current to be converted directly into 130. What is the purpose of the switch in the circuits
thermal (heat) energy. described in the activities?
(A) To increase the current flowing from the
127. Which of the following is NOT an example of a battery.
rechargeable battery? (B) To provide a path for the electricity to flow.
(A) The zinc-carbon cell in a disposable torch (C) To measure the strength of the magnetic field.
(B) Lithium-ion battery in a smartphone (D) To safely and easily open and close the circuit.
(C) Lead-acid battery in a car


Ans
(D) The battery in an inverter
(D) To safely and easily open and close the circuit.


Ans A switch is a control device. It allows the user
(A) The zinc-carbon cell in a disposable torch to complete the circuit (turn it ON, allowing
Zinc-carbon cells are the most common type of current to flow) or break the circuit (turn it
primary or “dry cell.” They are single-use and OFF, stopping the current) in a controlled and
non-rechargeable. The others are all common convenient way without having to constantly
examples of secondary or rechargeable batteries. connect and disconnect wires from the battery.

131. What is the main difference between an

electromagnet and a permanent magnet in terms
of control?
128. The warning “Objects in mirror are closer than (A) Both are equally controllable by the user.
they appear” is found on a convex mirror used as (B) A permanent magnet is controllable, while an
a side-view mirror on vehicles. Why is a convex electromagnet is not.
mirror used? (C) An electromagnet’s strength and polarity are
(A) It works based on the heating effect of light controllable, while a permanent magnet’s are
energy. fixed.
(B) It shows a highly enlarged image of the (D) An electromagnet is controlled by heat,
objects. while a permanent magnet is controlled by
(C) It provides a wider field of view. electricity.
(D) It is a special type of electromagnet.

Ans


Ans (C) An electromagnet’s strength and polarity
(C) It provides a wider field of view. are controllable, while a permanent magnet’s are
A convex mirror bulges outwards, allowing it to fixed.
reflect light from a wider area. This gives the This is the key advantage of an electromagnet. Its
driver a larger field of view of the traffic behind strength can be varied by changing the current or
them, which is a crucial safety feature. turns, and its poles can be flipped by reversing
page 122 Class 8th Science Foundation

the current. A permanent magnet has a fixed reactants are depleted, it cannot be effectively
strength and fixed polarity. recharged.

132. What happens to the energy in a rechargeable 135. An electric hair dryer uses the ______ effect
battery when it is being charged? to produce hot air and the ______ effect to
(A) Electrical energy is converted into chemical spin the fan.
energy. (A) heating, magnetic
(B) Chemical energy is converted into electrical (B) magnetic, chemical
energy. (C) chemical, heating
(C) Heat energy is converted into electrical (D) Voltaic, magnetic
energy.


Ans
(D) Electrical energy is converted into magnetic
energy. (A) heating, magnetic
A hair dryer is a device that utilizes both major


Ans effects of electric current. It contains a high-
(A) Electrical energy is converted into chemical resistance coil (heating element) that gets hot to
energy. warm the air. It also contains an electric motor
Charging is the reverse of discharging. When (which uses electromagnets) to spin a fan that
you plug in a rechargeable battery, you are using blows the hot air out.
external electrical energy to force the chemical
reaction inside the battery to run in reverse, 136. To determine the polarity of an electromagnet’s
storing the energy back in a chemical form for end, you would bring a magnetic compass near
later use. it and observe which pole of the compass is
______. If the North pole is attracted, the
133. A maglev (magnetic levitation) train uses powerful electromagnet’s end is ______.
magnets to float above the track. To control the (A) repelled, North
train’s speed and lift, which type of magnet would (B) attracted, North
be most suitable? (C) attracted, South
(A) Natural lodestones (D) repelled, South
(B) A combination of different lemon batteries


Ans
(C) Permanent magnets only
(D) Electromagnets (C) attracted, South
The law of magnetism states that opposite poles


Ans attract. Therefore, to find the polarity, you
(D) Electromagnets observe the attraction. If the North pole of the
Maglev trains require precise control over the known magnet (the compass) is attracted, it must
magnetic forces for levitation and propulsion. be attracted to an opposite pole, which is a South
Electromagnets are ideal because their strength pole.
and polarity can be rapidly adjusted by controlling
the electric current, allowing for the fine-tuned 137. Why does an incandescent light bulb eventually
control needed to lift, propel, and brake the train. burn out?
(A) The thin filament gets so hot that over time
134. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a dry it evaporates and breaks.
cell? (B) The glass bulb cracks from the intense heat
(A) It is rechargeable. generated by the filament.
(B) It has a positive terminal and a negative (C) The battery it is connected to runs out of
terminal. power and can no longer light it.
(C) Its electrolyte is a moist paste. (D) The bulb gradually loses its internal magnetic
(D) Its outer container is made of zinc. properties required for light.


Ans

Ans
(A) It is rechargeable. (A) The thin filament gets so hot that over time
The a standard dry cell (like a zinc-carbon cell) it evaporates and breaks.
as a primary or single-use cell. Once its chemical The filament operates at extremely high
temperatures. At these temperatures, the
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

tungsten metal of the filament slowly evaporates

Ans

(sublimates). Over many hours of use, the filament (A) Wire B will get hotter.
becomes thinner and weaker at some point until it Electrical resistance is higher in a thinner wire
breaks, creating an open circuit and “burning out.” than in a thicker wire of the same material and
length. Since the heating effect is caused by
138. A battery is technically defined as: resistance, the thinner wire (Wire B) will have
(A) Any single device that produces a flow of higher resistance and will therefore generate more
electricity. heat when the same current flows through it.
(B) A combination of two or more electric cells
connected together. 141. What kind of materials are attracted by an
(C) A single unit that converts chemical energy electromagnet?
into electrical energy. (A) Magnetic materials like iron and steel.
(D) A special device that works on the heating (B) All types of common metals, including copper
effect of current. and aluminium.


Ans (C) Only other permanent magnets, not
unmagnetized metals.
(B) A combination of two or more electric cells (D) Non-metallic materials like wood, plastic, and
connected together. glass.
While in common language we call a single AA or
D cell a “battery,” the strict scientific definition

Ans
of a battery is a device consisting of two or more (A) Magnetic materials like iron and steel.
cells linked together to provide a higher voltage or An electromagnet behaves like a permanent
capacity than a single cell can. magnet in terms of what it attracts. It exerts
a force on ferromagnetic materials, with iron
139. Which of the following is a correct statement and steel being the most common examples, as
regarding the strength of an electromagnet? demonstrated by the paper clips in the activities.
(A) Once an electromagnet is built, its strength is
permanent and fixed. 142. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of an
(B) Increasing the current through the coil makes electromagnet over a permanent magnet?
the magnet weaker. (A) It does not require a power source to work.
(C) The material of the core does not affect the (B) Its magnetism can be switched on and off.
strength of the magnet. (C) Its strength can be easily changed.
(D) A coil with more turns will produce a stronger (D) Its polarity can be reversed.
magnetic field than a coil with fewer turns,


Ans
given the same current.
(A) It does not require a power source to work.


Ans
This is the main disadvantage or requirement of
(D) A coil with more turns will produce a stronger an electromagnet. Its magnetic properties only
magnetic field than a coil with fewer turns, given exist when there is a continuous flow of electric
the same current. current from a power source like a battery or a
The total magnetic field is the sum of the fields mains supply. A permanent magnet requires no
from each individual loop of wire. Therefore, external power.
increasing the number of loops (turns) directly
increases the overall strength of the electromagnet. 143. What is the purpose of the “e-waste” recycling
This is one of the key ways to control its power. facilities mentioned in the chapter?
(A) To repair old batteries so they can be sold
140. You have two wires of the same length and made and reused by others.
of the same material. Wire A is thicker than Wire (B) To safely dispose of batteries and recover
B. If you pass the same current through both, valuable or harmful materials.
which wire will get hotter? (C) To sell large quantities of used batteries to
(A) Wire B will get hotter. other countries for their use.
(B) Wire A will get hotter. (D) To store used batteries permanently in sealed
(C) Both will get equally hot. underground containers.
(D) Neither will get hot.


Ans
page 124 Class 8th Science Foundation

(B) To safely dispose of batteries and recover stopping the current and causing the magnetic
valuable or harmful materials. field to disappear, so the needle returns.
E-waste facilities are designed to handle the
environmental and resource issues of used 147. How is the function of a heating element in
electronics. They safely dismantle items like a hair dryer different from the filament in an
batteries to prevent harmful chemicals from incandescent bulb?
polluting the environment and to recover valuable (A) The hair dryer element is designed to produce
metals for recycling into new products. a lot of heat without melting, while the bulb
filament is designed to get hot enough to glow
144. An electric toaster uses a timer to switch off the brightly.
current after a certain period. This is important (B) The hair dryer element produces visible light,
because the heating effect depends on: while the bulb filament primarily produces
(A) the duration for which the current flows. heat.
(B) the material of the bread being toasted. (C) The hair dryer uses a DC power source, while
(C) the number of turns in the heating coil. the incandescent bulb uses an AC source.
(D) the polarity of the household electrical supply. (D) There is no significant difference in their
primary function or design principle.


Ans
(A) the duration for which the current flows.

Ans
The total amount of heat generated depends not (A) The hair dryer element is designed to produce
only on the current and resistance but also on a lot of heat without melting, while the bulb
how long the current is applied. A timer is used filament is designed to get hot enough to glow
to control this duration, ensuring the bread is brightly.
toasted to the desired level without burning due While both use the heating effect, their primary
to continuous heating. goals differ. A hair dryer’s element is optimized for
maximum heat output to warm the air. A bulb’s
145. A magnet is to a magnetic field as a ______ is filament is optimized for light output; it needs to
to an electric current. reach a much higher temperature (incandescence)
(A) resistor where it emits visible light.
(B) cell or battery
(C) switch 148. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
(D) wire heating appliance?
(A) Loudspeaker


Ans
(B) Electric room heater
(B) a cell or battery (C) Electric iron
The analogy links a concept to its source. A (D) Electric stove
magnet is the source of a magnetic field. A cell
or battery is the source of an electric current in a

Ans
simple DC circuit. (A) Loudspeaker
A loudspeaker is an application of the magnetic
146. In Activity 4.1, the compass needle deflects when effect of current. It uses a rapidly changing
the switch is in the ______ position and electromagnet to vibrate a cone and produce
returns to its original direction when the switch is sound. The other three devices are all designed
in the ______ position. specifically to convert electrical energy into heat.
(A) ON, OFF
(B) OFF, ON 149. A material that offers very high opposition to the
(C) middle, ON flow of current, such as nichrome, has high:
(D) OFF, middle (A) Resistance
(B) Voltage


Ans
(C) Conductance
(A) ON, OFF (D) Magnetism
The magnetic effect is only present when
current is flowing. The ON position closes the

Ans
circuit, allowing current to flow and causing the (A) Resistance
deflection. The OFF position opens the circuit,
Pagesmith CH 04 : Electricity : Magnetic and Heating Effects

Resistance is the specific physical property that

Ans

quantifies a material’s opposition to the flow (A) Oersted, electric motors
of electric current. Materials like nichrome are The chapter credits Hans Christian Oersted with
chosen for heating elements precisely because the discovery of the link between electricity and
they have high resistance. magnetism. It then lists electric motors as one of
the key modern technologies that is based on this
150. What did Luigi Galvani mistakenly believe magnetic effect of electric current.
was the source of the electricity in his frog leg
experiment? 153. If the Earth’s magnetic field suddenly disappeared,
(A) The two different metals he was using for the what would be a major consequence for life on the
dissection. planet?
(B) The frog’s own muscles and nerves (“animal (A) We would be exposed to more harmful
electricity”). particles from the sun and space.
(C) The moisture present in the surrounding air. (B) All electrical power grids and devices would
(D) A nearby lightning storm that was occurring. immediately stop working.


Ans (C) The planet would stop spinning on its axis,
causing extreme temperatures.
(B) The frog’s own muscles and nerves (“animal
(D) All permanent magnets on the surface would
electricity”).
instantly lose their magnetism.
The Galvani observed the twitching and concluded
that the electricity was generated within the frog’s

Ans
biological tissue itself. It was Alessandro Volta (A) We would be exposed to more harmful
who later correctly identified the metals and the particles from the sun and space.
frog’s body fluids (as an electrolyte) as the true The chapter’s “A step further” section explains
source. that the Earth’s magnetic field acts as a protective
shield. It deflects the solar wind and cosmic rays.
151. The hard drives in older computers used tiny,
Without this shield, these high-energy particles
powerful electromagnets. What was their most
would bombard the atmosphere and surface,
likely function?
posing a significant threat to life.
(A) To heat the drive to the correct operating
temperature for data storage.
(B) To rapidly change the magnetic orientation
on the disk to read and write data.
(C) To spin the internal disk using the heating 154. You observe that an electric iron is not heating
effect of the electric current. up, but the indicator light on it is on. What does
(D) To provide a backup source of power for the this suggest?
computer in an outage. (A) There is no electricity reaching the iron from
the power socket.


Ans
(B) The switch on the iron is faulty and stuck in
(B) To rapidly change the magnetic orientation the off position.
on the disk to read and write data. (C) The heating element is broken, creating an
Hard drives store data as tiny magnetic patterns open circuit within the iron.
on a spinning disk. The read/write head uses a (D) The iron has somehow become a permanent
very small and fast-acting electromagnet to create magnet, preventing it from heating.
(write) or detect (read) these magnetic patterns,


Ans
making the magnetic effect of current fundamental
to its operation. (C) The heating element is broken, creating an
open circuit within the iron.
152. In the 1800s, ______ discovered that electricity The indicator light being on proves that electricity
produces magnetism, a phenomenon now used in is reaching the appliance. If the iron is not heating,
devices like ______. it means the current is not flowing through the
(A) Oersted, electric motors high-resistance heating element. The most likely
(B) Volta, batteries cause is that the element has broken, creating an
(C) Fleming, antibiotics open in that part of the circuit.
(D) Jenner, vaccines
page 126 Class 8th Science Foundation

155. What is the primary energy conversion that including the generation of electricity and the
takes place when a rechargeable battery is in use creation of devices that convert electricity into
(discharging)? motion.
(A) Chemical energy to electrical energy.
(B) Electrical energy to chemical energy.

*************
(C) Magnetic energy to electrical energy.
(D) Heat energy to chemical energy.


Ans
(A) Chemical energy to electrical energy.
When a battery is powering a device, it is
discharging. During this process, the stored
chemical energy within the battery’s components
is converted into electrical energy, which then
flows out into the circuit to power the device.

156. Which of the following statements about the

heating effect of current is false?
(A) It is the principle behind the operation of an
electric fan.
(B) The amount of heat depends on the resistance
of the wire.
(C) A larger current produces more heat.
(D) It can be a safety hazard in household wiring
if not managed properly.


Ans
(A) It is the principle behind the operation of an
electric fan.
An electric fan operates on the magnetic effect of
current, which powers a motor to turn the blades.
The heating effect is an unwanted byproduct in a
fan, not its principle of operation.

157. Why is the discovery of the link between electricity

and magnetism considered so important?
(A) It explained the natural phenomenon of
lightning during storms.
(B) It was the foundation for technologies like
electric motors, generators, and modern
communications.
(C) It allowed for the creation of much better and
stronger permanent magnets.
(D) It proved that chemical reactions could be
used to produce significant heat.


Ans
(B) It was the foundation for technologies
like electric motors, generators, and modern
communications.
This discovery unified two previously separate
forces of nature. This new understanding of
“electromagnetism” paved the way for countless
inventions that are central to modern life,
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

CHAPTER 5
Exploring Forces

SUMMAR 2. It is used for all physical activities like

walking, lifting, and pushing.
3. Animals also use muscular force for movement
, and it is essential for internal body processes
1. Understanding Force like digestion and blood circulation.

1.1 Definition of Force

In science, a force is defined as a push or a pull
applied to an object. A force occurs as a result of
an interaction between at least two objects.
The SI unit of force is the newton, and its symbol
is N.

Use of muscular force by living beings

2.1.2 Frictional Force (Friction)

Friction is the force that comes into play when an
Moving a box in different ways (a) Pushing ; (b) Pulling ;
(c) Lifting (pulling up), and carrying object moves or attempts to move over another
surface. It always acts in the direction opposite to
the motion, causing moving objects to slow down
1.2 The Effects of Force and eventually stop. Friction is caused by tiny
Applying a force to an object can cause several irregularities on the two surfaces in contact locking
changes: into each other. The force of friction is greater on
1. Make a stationary object move. rough surfaces compared to smooth ones.
2. Change the speed of a moving object.
3. Change the direction of a moving object’s
motion.
4. Change the shape of an object.

2. Types of Forces
Forces are broadly divided into two categories :
contact forces and non-contact forces.

2.1 Contact Forces

Friction between two surfaces due to irregularities
Contact forces act only when objects are in
physical contact with each other.
2.2 Non-Contact Forces
2.1.1 Muscular Force
1. This is the force created by the action of Non-contact forces can act on objects from a
muscles in the body. distance, without any physical touch.
page 128 Class 8th Science Foundation

2.2.1 Magnetic Force different forces, meaning different objects have

This is the force exerted by a magnet on another different weights.
magnet or on a magnetic material. It is a non-
3.2 Measuring Weight
contact force as it can act from a distance. Like
magnetic poles repel each other, while unlike A spring balance is a simple device used to
poles attract. measure the weight of an object. It consists of a
spring that stretches when an object is hung from
it. The amount of stretch indicates the object’s
weight.

3.3 Mass vs. Weight

1. Mass is the amount of matter an object
contains. Its value is constant and does not
change with location. The SI unit is the
Force between two ring magnets kilogram (kg).
2. Weight is the force of gravity on that mass. Its
2.2.2 Electrostatic Force value can change depending on the strength
This is the force exerted by an electrically charged of the gravitational pull (e.g., an object’s
object on another charged or uncharged object. weight on the Moon is less than on Earth).
Objects become charged by rubbing them, which
builds up static charges. There are two types of 4. Forces in Liquids
charges : positive and negative. Like charges repel
each other, while unlike charges attract.
4.1 Buoyant Force (Upthrust)
When an object is placed in a liquid, the liquid
exerts an upward force on it. This upward force is
called upthrust or buoyant force.

Charged plastic scale attracting small paper pieces

2.2.3 Gravitational Force (Gravity)

1. This is the force with which the Earth pulls
all objects towards its center.
2. It is a non-contact force and is always Plastic bottle in water
attractive.
3. It is the reason why objects thrown upwards 4.2 Why Objects Float or Sink
fall back down to the ground.
Every object in a liquid is acted upon by two
3. Gravitational Force in Detail forces the downward pull of gravity and the
upward push of the buoyant force.
3.1 Weight : The Force of Gravity 1. An object sinks if the gravitational force (its
weight) is greater than the buoyant force.
The weight of an object is the measure of the
gravitational force pulling it towards the Earth. 2. An object floats if the buoyant force is equal
Since weight is a force, its SI unit is the newton to the gravitational force.
(N).The Earth pulls on different objects with
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO (D) Newton (N)

Ans

1. What is a spring balance used to measure? (D) Newton (N)

(A) The weight of an object The standard international (SI) unit for measuring
(B) The mass of an object force is the newton, named after Sir Isaac Newton.
(C) The pressure exerted by an object It is symbolized by the letter ‘N’.
(D) The volume of an object
5. Which of the following is NOT an effect of force?


Ans (A) Setting a stationary object in motion.
(A) The weight of an object (B) Changing the direction of a moving object.
A spring balance is a device that measures force, (C) Changing the shape of an object.
specifically weight, by the extension of a spring. (D) Changing the mass of an object.
It is calibrated to show the force (in newtons) or

Ans
weight acting on it.
(D) Changing the mass of an object.
2. When you kick a stationary football, what effect Force can change an object’s state of motion or
of force do you observe? its shape, but it cannot change the fundamental
(A) It can only change the shape of an object. amount of matter (mass) in the object. Mass is an
(B) It can set a stationary object in motion. intrinsic property.
(C) It can only bring a moving object to rest.
6. Forces that act only when objects are in physical
(D) It can only change the direction of a moving
contact with each other are called:
object.
(A) Contact forces


Ans (B) Non-contact forces
(B) It can set a stationary object in motion. (C) Gravitational forces
One of the primary effects of force is to change the (D) Magnetic forces
state of motion of an object. Kicking a stationary

Ans
football applies a force that overcomes its inertia
(A) Contact forces
and sets it into motion.
This is the definition of a contact force. The
3. How is ‘force’ best defined in physics? interaction, such as a push, pull, or friction, occurs
(A) The inherent property of an object that because the surfaces of the objects are touching.
resists changes in motion, also known as its
7. Which of the following is an example of a contact
mass.
force?
(B) The rate at which an object changes its
(A) The force of gravity pulling a ball to the
position with respect to a frame of reference.
ground.
(C) A push or a pull exerted on an object that
(B) The force of friction slowing down a rolling
can change its motion or shape.
ball.
(D) The amount of thermal energy contained
(C) A magnet attracting an iron nail from a
within an object, measured in degrees.
distance.


Ans (D) Two positively charged particles repelling
(C) A push or a pull exerted on an object that each other.
can change its motion or shape.

Ans
Force is fundamentally an interaction that, when
(B) The force of friction slowing down a rolling
unopposed, will change the motion of an object.
ball.
It can be characterized as a push (moving things
Frictional force arises from the direct contact
away) or a pull (drawing things closer).
between the surface of the rolling ball and the
4. What is the SI unit of force? ground. It is therefore a prime example of a
(A) Pascal (Pa) contact force.
(B) Joule (J)
(C) Watt (W)
page 130 Class 8th Science Foundation

8. What is friction? 11. A coconut falling from a tree is an example of

(A) A non-contact force that helps objects move which type of force causing the motion?
faster. (A) Magnetic force
(B) The force that pulls all objects towards the (B) Frictional force
center of the Earth. (C) Gravitational force
(C) A force exerted by electrically charged objects (D) Muscular force
on each other.

Ans
(D) A contact force that opposes the relative
(C) Gravitational force
motion between surfaces in contact.
The Earth exerts a gravitational pull on all


Ans objects near it. This non-contact force pulls the
coconut downwards, causing it to fall from the
(D) A contact force that opposes the relative
tree towards the ground.
motion between surfaces in contact.
Friction is a resistive force that always acts in 12. What is electrostatic force?
the direction opposite to the motion or attempted (A) The force of attraction exerted by the Earth
motion of an object. It arises from the microscopic on other objects.
interactions between two surfaces that are (B) The contact force that opposes motion
touching. between two surfaces.
(C) The force exerted by a charged body on
9. What is a non-contact force?
another charged or uncharged body.
(A) A universal force that opposes the relative
(D) The force of attraction or repulsion between
motion between surfaces that are touching
two magnetic poles.
each other.
(B) A type of force that acts only when two

Ans
separate objects are in direct physical contact. (C) The force exerted by a charged body on
(C) A force exerted between objects that are not another charged or uncharged body.
in physical contact with one another. Electrostatic force is a non-contact force that
(D) A specific type of force that exists only arises due to static electric charges. Like charges
between two electrically charged particles. repel, and opposite charges attract. A charged
body can also induce a charge in a neutral body


Ans
and attract it.
(C) A force exerted between objects that are not
in physical contact with one another. 13. Three objects 1, 2, and 3 of the same size and
Non-contact forces, also known as action-at-a- shape but made of different materials are placed
distance forces, can exert a push or pull on an in the water. They dip to different depths as
object without touching it. They act through shown in figure. If the weights of the three objects
fields, such as gravitational or magnetic fields. 1, 2, and 3 are W1 , W2 , and W3 , respectively, then

10. Which of the following is an example of a non-

contact force?
(A) The force applied by a person to lift a box.
(B) The force exerted by a magnet on a paper
clip.
(C) The force of air resistance on a moving car.
(D) The force a bat exerts on a cricket ball.


Ans
(A) W1 = W2 = W3
(B) The force exerted by a magnet on a paper
(B) W1 > W2 > W3
clip.
(C) W2 > W3 > W1
Magnetic force is a classic example of a non-
(D) W3 > W1 > W2
contact force. A magnet can attract a paper clip
from a distance without any physical contact

Ans
between them. (C) W2 > W3 > W1
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

Since all three objects are floating, the upward (C) A force exerted by magnets on magnetic
buoyant force on each object is equal to its weight. materials and other magnets.
The buoyant force is equal to the weight of the Magnetic force is the force of attraction or
water displaced by the submerged part of the repulsion that arises between magnetic poles. It
object. Object 2 is submerged the most, meaning can act over a distance and is responsible for how
it displaces the most water and thus experiences magnets and electromagnets interact with certain
the largest buoyant force. Therefore, its weight ( materials like iron.
W2 ) is the greatest. Object 1 is submerged the
least, displaces the least water, and so its weight 17. What is gravity or gravitational force?
(W1 ) is the smallest. Object 3 is submerged to (A) The force of attraction or repulsion existing
a level between 1 and 2, so its weight (W3 ) is between two magnetic poles.
between W1 and W2 . (B) The force exerted by the Earth that pulls all
objects towards its center.
14. Rubbing a plastic comb on dry hair and then (C) The force that makes certain lightweight
bringing it near small pieces of paper demonstrates objects float on the surface of water.
which force? (D) The contact force that strongly opposes the
(A) Gravitational force motion of all objects.
(B) Electrostatic force


Ans
(C) Frictional force
(D) Magnetic force (B) The force exerted by the Earth that pulls all
objects towards its center.


Ans Gravity is a universal, non-contact force of
(B) Electrostatic force attraction between any two objects with mass.
Rubbing the comb charges it with static electricity. In our daily experience, it refers to the Earth’s
This charged comb then exerts a non-contact gravitational pull, which gives objects weight and
electrostatic force on the neutral pieces of paper, causes them to fall.
inducing a charge in them and causing them to be
attracted to the comb. 18. Why does water from a tap always flow
downwards?
15. Which of the following is NOT an example of a (A) Due to electrostatic force between water
non-contact force? molecules.
(A) Gravitational force (B) Because of the Earth’s magnetic force acting
(B) Magnetic force on it.
(C) Frictional force (C) Because of the gravitational force exerted by
(D) Electrostatic force the Earth.
(D) Due to the atmospheric pressure pushing the


Ans
water down.
(C) Frictional force
Frictional force requires the surfaces of two objects

Ans
to be in direct physical contact to act. Therefore, (C) Because of the gravitational force exerted by
it is classified as a contact force, unlike gravity, the Earth.
magnetism, and electrostatics. Water, like all other matter, has mass and is
therefore subject to the Earth’s gravitational pull.
16. What is magnetic force? This force constantly pulls the water towards the
(A) The force that opposes the motion of objects center of the Earth, causing it to flow downwards.
through the air.
(B) The force exerted by the Earth on objects, 19. What is pressure?
pulling them downwards. (A) The total weight of an object acting on a
(C) A force exerted by magnets on magnetic surface.
materials and other magnets. (B) The force applied per unit area.
(C) The speed at which a force is applied.
(D) A force that arises only when two objects are
(D) The total area over which a force acts.
physically touching.


Ans


Ans
(B) The force applied per unit area.
page 132 Class 8th Science Foundation

Pressure is a measure of how concentrated a force 22. Why do porters place a round piece of cloth (a
is. It is defined as the amount of force acting pugree) on their heads when they carry heavy
perpendicularly on a unit of surface area. The loads?
formula is Pressure = Force / Area. (A) To increase the force exerted by the load on
their head.
20. If you apply the same force with the sharp end (B) To decrease the total area of contact between
of a pin and the blunt end of a pin, why does the the load and their head.
sharp end pierce the skin easily? (C) To increase the area of contact of the load,
(A) Because the force applied by the sharp end is thereby reducing the pressure.
much greater than the force from the blunt (D) To make the load feel significantly lighter
end. through a magnetic effect.
(B) Because the area of the sharp end is much
larger, creating higher overall pressure.

Ans
(C) Because the area of the sharp end is very (C) To increase the area of contact of the load,
small, creating a very high pressure. thereby reducing the pressure.
(D) Because the blunt end is made of a much By placing a pugree on their head, porters increase
softer material than the sharp end. the surface area over which the weight (force) of


Ans the load is distributed. This decrease in pressure
(P=F/A) makes it more comfortable to carry the
(C) Because the area of the sharp end is very heavy load.
small, creating a very high pressure.
Pressure is inversely proportional to the area over 23. How is the pressure exerted by a liquid related to
which the force is applied (P = F/A). The sharp its depth?
end has a tiny area, so the same force results in a (A) Pressure decreases as the depth increases.
much higher pressure, which is enough to pierce (B) Pressure increases as the depth increases.
the skin. (C) Pressure is constant at all depths in a liquid.
(D) Pressure is only exerted at the bottom of the
21. The image of two ring magnets floating one above container.
the other on a wooden stick demonstrates which
principle?

Ans
(B) Pressure increases as the depth increases.
The pressure at a certain depth in a liquid is
due to the weight of the column of liquid above
it. As the depth increases, the height (and thus
the weight) of this column increases, resulting in
higher pressure.

24. In the activity with the plastic bottle having holes

at different heights, why does the water from the
lowest hole travel the farthest?
(A) Unlike poles of magnets attract each other. (A) Because the pressure is greatest at the lowest
(B) Magnets can only attract iron. point.
(C) Gravitational force is stronger than magnetic (B) Because the temperature of the water is
force. highest at the bottom.
(D) Like poles of magnets repel each other. (C) Because the lowest hole is generally wider
than the others.


Ans
(D) Because gravity has a stronger pull on water
(D) Like poles of magnets repel each other. from the lowest hole.
For the top magnet to float, it must be pushed


Ans
upward by the bottom magnet. This repulsive
force occurs when the like poles (e.g., North facing (A) Because the pressure is greatest at the lowest
North) of the two magnets are facing each other, point.
creating a magnetic cushion that counteracts The pressure in a liquid increases with depth.
gravity. The lowest hole experiences the highest pressure,
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

which pushes the water out with the greatest

Ans

force and speed, causing it to travel the farthest (B) The container with honey, because honey is
horizontally. denser than water.
The pressure exerted by a liquid depends on its
25. Which statement accurately describes how a height and its density. Since honey is denser than
liquid exerts pressure? water, a column of honey of the same height will
(A) A liquid exerts pressure only on the bottom have more weight, thus exerting greater pressure
of its container. at the bottom.
(B) A liquid exerts pressure only on the walls of
its container. 28. What is atmospheric pressure?
(C) A liquid exerts pressure on the bottom and (A) The pressure exerted by the water in the
the walls of its container. atmosphere.
(D) A liquid does not exert any significant (B) The pressure exerted by the air around us.
pressure. (C) The pressure inside a sealed container like a


Ans bottle.
(D) The magnetic pressure exerted by the Earth’s
(C) A liquid exerts pressure on the bottom and
core.
the walls of its container.
Liquids exert pressure in all directions. The

Ans
weight of the liquid pushes down on the bottom, (B) The pressure exerted by the air around us.
and this pressure is also transmitted sideways, The Earth is surrounded by an envelope of air
pushing outwards on the walls of the container. called the atmosphere. This air has weight, and
the pressure exerted by this weight on the Earth’s
26. What can be concluded from the activity where
surface and on all objects is known as atmospheric
a balloon is stretched over the end of a glass tube
pressure.
and submerged in water?
(A) That the temperature of water changes with 29. In the spring balance shown in figure, the
depth. difference between major marks ‘01 N’ and ‘02 N’
(B) That water has no effect on the rubber is 1 N, and there are 5 divisions between them.
balloon. What is the value of one small division?
(C) That liquids exert pressure that increases
with depth.
(D) That only the bottom surface of the water
exerts pressure.


Ans
(C) That liquids exert pressure that increases
with depth.
As the tube is pushed deeper into the water, the
rubber balloon bulges inwards more. This happens
because the pressure exerted by the surrounding
water increases with depth, pushing harder on the
balloon.

27. If you have two containers of the same size, one

filled with water and the other with honey, which
will exert more pressure at the bottom?
(A) The container with water, because water is
less viscous.
(B) The container with honey, because honey is
denser than water. (A) 1.0 N
(C) Both will exert the same pressure because the (B) 0.5 N
height is the same. (C) 0.2 N
(D) It is impossible to determine without knowing (D) 5.0 N
the exact temperature.

Ans
page 134 Class 8th Science Foundation

(C) 0.2 N forced out. The atmospheric pressure outside the

The least count of a measuring instrument is the sucker is then greater than the pressure inside,
smallest value it can measure. To find it, divide creating a net force that holds it firmly to the
the value between two major marks by the number surface.
of divisions. Here, it is 1 N divided by 5 divisions,
which equals 0.2 N per division. 33. Who invented the first barometer?
(A) Isaac Newton
30. Why don’t we feel the immense atmospheric (B) Galileo Galilei
pressure acting on us? (C) Evangelista Torricelli
(A) Because the pressure inside our bodies is (D) Blaise Pascal
equal to the atmospheric pressure.


Ans
(B) Because our skin is too thick to feel such a
small pressure. (C) Evangelista Torricelli
(C) Because gravity completely cancels out the Evangelista Torricelli, an Italian physicist and
effect of atmospheric pressure. mathematician, with the invention of the mercury
(D) Because atmospheric pressure only acts on barometer in 1643.
non-living objects.
34. Which of the following statements about pressure


Ans is FALSE?
(A) Because the pressure inside our bodies is (A) Pressure is force per unit area.
equal to the atmospheric pressure. (B) The SI unit of pressure is the Pascal.
We are not crushed by atmospheric pressure (C) Pressure is a non-contact force.
because the fluids inside our bodies (like blood) (D) Liquids exert pressure on the walls of their
exert an outward pressure that balances the container.
inward pressure from the atmosphere.

Ans
31. What does a barometer measure? (C) Pressure is a non-contact force.
(A) Air temperature Pressure itself is not a force; it is a measure of
(B) Atmospheric pressure how a force is distributed. It is a scalar quantity
(C) Humidity derived from force (a vector) and area. Forces
(D) Wind speed can be contact or non-contact, but pressure is a
resulting quantity.


Ans
(B) Atmospheric pressure 35. A force of 100 N is applied to an area of 2 square
A barometer is a scientific instrument specifically meters. What is the pressure?
designed to measure the pressure of the (A) 200 Pa
surrounding atmosphere. Changes in atmospheric (B) 102 Pa
pressure can indicate changes in the weather. (C) 50 Pa
(D) 98 Pa
32. Why is it difficult to pull a rubber sucker off a


Ans
smooth surface after pressing it down?
(A) Because pressing it creates a strong chemical (C) 50 Pa
bond with the surface. Pressure is calculated as Force divided by Area.
(B) Because pressing it squeezes out the air, and In this case, Pressure = 100 N / 2 m² = 50 N/m²,
atmospheric pressure holds it down. which is 50 Pascals (Pa).
(C) Because the rubber sucker becomes a powerful
36. How does atmospheric pressure change with
permanent magnet.
altitude?
(D) Because the temperature difference creates a
(A) It increases as altitude increases.
strong frictional force.
(B) It decreases as altitude increases.


Ans (C) It remains constant regardless of altitude.
(B) Because pressing it squeezes out the air, and (D) It fluctuates randomly with altitude.
atmospheric pressure holds it down.

Ans
When the sucker is pressed against a surface, most
(B) It decreases as altitude increases.
of the air between the sucker and the surface is
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

As you go higher in altitude (e.g., up a mountain), Pressure and area are inversely proportional (P =
there is less air above you. Since atmospheric F/A). If the force (F) remains constant and the
pressure is caused by the weight of the air column area (A) is decreased, the resulting pressure (P)
above, a shorter column of air weighs less and must increase.
therefore exerts less pressure.
41. Why do scuba divers need to be careful about
37. The interaction between two objects, like a bat ascending to the surface too quickly?
hitting a ball, involves: (A) Because the water temperature changes
(A) Only one object exerting a force on the other. rapidly, causing thermal shock.
(B) Two forces acting on a single object. (B) Because the rapid decrease in pressure can
(C) Both objects exerting a force on each other. cause dissolved gases in the blood to form
(D) Neither object exerting any force at all. bubbles.
(C) Because the Earth’s magnetic field is much


Ans
stronger near the surface of the water.
(C) Both objects exerting a force on each other. (D) Because the force of friction from the water
According to Newton’s Third Law of Motion, increases as they move faster towards the
forces always occur in pairs. When the bat exerts surface.
a force on the ball, the ball simultaneously exerts
an equal and opposite force on the bat.

Ans
(B) Because the rapid decrease in pressure can
38. Which of these is NOT a unit of pressure? cause dissolved gases in the blood to form bubbles.
(A) Pascal (Pa) The pressure deep underwater is high, causing
(B) Bar gases like nitrogen to dissolve in a diver’s blood. If
(C) Newton (N) they ascend too fast, the external pressure drops
(D) Atmosphere (atm) rapidly, and these dissolved gases can come out of


Ans solution and form dangerous bubbles, a condition
known as decompression sickness or “the bends.”
(C) Newton (N)
Pascal, bar, and atmosphere are all common units 42. In figure, a person is pushing a box (a), pulling
used to measure pressure. The newton (N) is the it with a rope (b), and lifting it (c). What do all
SI unit of force, not pressure. three actions have in common?
39. ______ is an example of a contact force, while
______ is an example of a non-contact force.
(A) Gravity, Friction
(B) Friction, Gravity
(C) Magnetism, Friction
(D) Electrostatics, Magnetism


Ans (A) They all involve a pull.
(B) They all decrease the box’s weight.
(B) Friction, Gravity
(C) They all involve non-contact forces.
Friction requires surfaces to touch, making it
(D) They all involve applying a force (a push or a
a contact force. Gravity acts over a distance
pull).
without any need for contact, making it a non-
contact force.

Ans
(D) They all involve applying a force (a push or
40. How does the effect of a force change if the area
a pull).
of application is decreased?
The figure illustrates different ways to move a box.
(A) The pressure increases.
Pushing, pulling, and lifting are all different forms
(B) The pressure decreases.
of applying a force. In each case, an interaction
(C) The pressure remains the same.
occurs between a person and the box, resulting in
(D) The total force increases.
a push or pull that can cause motion.


Ans
(A) The pressure increases.
page 136 Class 8th Science Foundation

43. Why are the shoulder straps of a heavy school bag

Ans
made wide? (B) To increase the time over which the ball’s
(A) To increase the pressure on the shoulders. momentum is stopped, reducing the force on their
(B) To decrease the total weight of the bag. hands.
(C) To increase the area of contact and reduce The change in momentum of the ball is constant.
pressure on the shoulders. By increasing the time it takes to bring the ball
(D) To make the bag look more fashionable and to a stop (pulling the hands back), the cricketer
stylish. reduces the rate of change of momentum. Since


Ans force is the rate of change of momentum, this
reduces the impact force felt by the hands.
(C) To increase the area of contact and reduce
pressure on the shoulders. 47. To set an object in motion, the applied force must
Just like a porter’s pugree, wide straps distribute be greater than the force of ______.
the weight (force) of the bag over a larger area of (A) gravity
the shoulders. This reduces the pressure exerted, (B) magnetism
making the bag more comfortable to carry. (C) static friction
(D) pressure
44. If two forces of equal magnitude act on an object
in opposite directions, what is the net force?

Ans
(A) Double the magnitude of one force. (C) static friction
(B) Equal to the magnitude of one force. Static friction is the force that prevents a stationary
(C) Zero. object from moving. To start the object moving,
(D) It depends on the area of the object. you must apply a force that is large enough to


Ans overcome this initial resistive force.
(C) Zero. 48. Which statement about gravity is FALSE?
When two equal forces act in opposite directions, (A) It is a non-contact force.
they are called balanced forces. They cancel each (B) It is always an attractive force.
other out, resulting in a net force of zero. This (C) It acts only on objects on the Earth’s surface.
means there will be no change in the object’s (D) It is responsible for keeping planets in orbit
state of motion. around the Sun.
45. The force exerted by our muscles to perform

Ans
activities like lifting, pulling, or pushing is called: (C) It acts only on objects on the Earth’s surface.
(A) Muscular force Gravity is a universal force that acts between
(B) Gravitational force any two objects with mass, regardless of their
(C) Electrostatic force location. It acts on objects in the air, in space,
(D) Frictional force and everywhere else in the universe.


Ans
(A) Muscular force
Muscular force is a contact force generated by the
contraction of muscles. It is the force we use for 49. The state of an object when the net force acting
all our physical actions. on it is zero is called:
(A) Motion
46. When a cricketer catches a fast-moving ball, they (B) Pressure
pull their hands back. Why? (C) Equilibrium
(A) To apply a greater force to the ball. (D) Acceleration
(B) To increase the time over which the ball’s
momentum is stopped, reducing the force on

Ans
their hands. (C) Equilibrium
(C) To show off their catching style to the An object is in a state of equilibrium if the forces
spectators. acting on it are balanced, meaning the net force
(D) To decrease the time it takes to stop the ball, is zero. An object in equilibrium will either be at
thereby increasing the impact force. rest or moving at a constant velocity.
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

50. Why does a knife with a sharp edge cut better Mass is an intrinsic property and is constant
than one with a blunt edge? everywhere. Weight is a force (Weight = mass ×
(A) The sharp edge is made of a stronger material. acceleration due to gravity) and depends on the
(B) The sharp edge applies the same force over a gravitational field. An object’s mass is the same
smaller area, increasing the pressure. on Earth and the Moon, but its weight is much
(C) The blunt edge creates more friction, which less on the Moon.
resists cutting.
(D) The sharp edge is able to apply a much 53. Which of these is an example of changing an
greater total force. object’s shape with force?
(A) Kicking a football.


Ans (B) Squeezing a sponge.
(B) The sharp edge applies the same force over a (C) A car accelerating.
smaller area, increasing the pressure. (D) A satellite orbiting the Earth.
Cutting is an action that requires high pressure

Ans
to separate material. A sharp edge concentrates
the applied force onto a very small area, creating (B) Squeezing a sponge.
a very high pressure that allows it to slice through Applying a compressive force to a sponge causes
objects easily. it to deform and change its shape. This is a clear
example of one of the effects of force.
51. What happens to the atmospheric pressure as you
climb a high mountain? 54. Unbalanced forces acting on an object will cause
(A) The pressure decreases, which is why it can it to:
be hard to breathe. (A) Remain in a state of perfect equilibrium.
(B) The pressure increases, which is why your (B) Change its state of motion (accelerate).
ears might pop. (C) Lose all of its total mass.
(C) The pressure remains exactly the same as at (D) Become a powerful non-contact magnet.
sea level.

Ans
(D) The pressure becomes zero at the summit of
(B) Change its state of motion (accelerate).
any mountain.
Unbalanced forces result in a net force greater


Ans than zero. According to Newton’s laws, a net force
(A) The pressure decreases, which is why it can will cause a change in the object’s velocity, which
be hard to breathe. means it will accelerate (speed up, slow down, or
As altitude increases, the density of the air and the change direction).
atmospheric pressure both decrease. This means
55. The image of a farmer ploughing a field with two
there are fewer oxygen molecules per breath,
oxen is an example of using which type of force
which is why people can experience breathing
to assist with human tasks?
difficulties at high altitudes.

52. What is the main difference between mass and

weight?
(A) Mass is a measure of force, while weight is a
measure of matter.
(B) Mass is measured in newtons, while weight is
measured in kilograms.
(C) Mass is the amount of matter in an object,
while weight is the force of gravity on that
mass.
(D) There is no difference; mass and weight are
the same thing.
(A) Electrostatic force


Ans
(B) Gravitational force
(C) Mass is the amount of matter in an object, (C) Magnetic force
while weight is the force of gravity on that mass. (D) Muscular force
page 138 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans

Ans
(D) Muscular force (C) more massive, weight
The oxen are using the force generated by their Gravitational force is directly proportional to
muscles to pull the plough through the soil. This mass. An object with more mass experiences a
is a practical application where the muscular stronger pull from gravity. This force of gravity is
force of animals is harnessed to perform difficult what we call the object’s weight.
agricultural labor.
59. Which of the following statements about friction
56. Why are the foundations of high-rise buildings is FALSE?
made wide? (A) It is a contact force.
(A) To increase the pressure on the ground to (B) It always acts in the same direction as motion.
make it more stable. (C) It can be useful for walking.
(B) To decrease the pressure on the ground by (D) It can be reduced by using lubricants.
distributing the weight over a large area.


Ans
(C) To make the building look more aesthetically
pleasing from a distance. (B) It always acts in the same direction as motion.
(D) To allow for more basement levels to be Friction is a resistive force. It always acts in
constructed under the building. the direction opposite to the relative motion or
attempted motion of an object.


Ans
(B) To decrease the pressure on the ground by 60. What is the key difference between electrostatic
distributing the weight over a large area. force and magnetic force?
A high-rise building is extremely heavy. To (A) Electrostatic force acts on electric charges,
prevent it from sinking into the ground, its while magnetic force acts on magnetic poles.
immense weight (force) must be spread over a (B) Electrostatic force is a contact force, while
very large area. This reduces the pressure on the magnetic force is a non-contact force.
soil to a safe level. (C) Electrostatic force is always attractive, while
magnetic force can be repulsive.
57. Can a force be applied to an object without (D) Electrostatic force is much stronger than
causing any motion? magnetic force.
(A) No, any applied force will always cause an


Ans
object to move.
(B) Yes, if the applied force is balanced by another (A) Electrostatic force acts on electric charges,
force like friction. while magnetic force acts on magnetic poles.
(C) Yes, but only if the object is perfectly Although both are non-contact forces, they
spherical in shape. originate from different properties of matter.
(D) No, because force and motion are the exact Electrostatic force is due to static electric charge,
same concept in physics. while magnetic force is due to moving charges or
the intrinsic magnetic moments of materials.


Ans
(B) Yes, if the applied force is balanced by another 61. When a drinking straw is used, what force pushes
force like friction. the liquid up the straw?
If you push on a heavy box, you are applying a (A) Electrostatic force
force. However, if your force is less than or equal to (B) The user’s muscular force
the force of static friction, the forces are balanced, (C) Atmospheric pressure
the net force is zero, and the box will not move. (D) Gravitational force


Ans
58. The ______ an object is, the greater the
gravitational force on it, and therefore the greater (C) Atmospheric pressure
its ______. When you suck on a straw, you reduce the air
(A) smaller, mass pressure inside it. The higher atmospheric
(B) denser, volume pressure outside pushes down on the surface of
(C) more massive, weight the liquid in the glass, forcing the liquid up the
(D) hotter, pressure straw into the low-pressure area.
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

62. Two teams are in a tug-of-war. If the rope does not The pressure at a certain depth in a liquid depends
move, what can be concluded about the forces? only on the depth, the density of the liquid, and
(A) The forces are balanced; each team is pulling the acceleration due to gravity. It does not depend
with an equal force. on the width or shape of the container.
(B) The forces are unbalanced, but the rope has
too much friction. 66. Why do army tanks run on wide steel tracks
(C) Only one team is actually pulling on the rope. instead of wheels?
(D) There are no forces acting on the rope at all. (A) To increase the tank’s speed on smooth roads.
(B) To reduce the pressure on the ground,


Ans preventing the tank from sinking in soft soil.
(A) The forces are balanced; each team is pulling (C) To create a stronger magnetic field under the
with an equal force. tank.
If the rope is not accelerating (it’s stationary), the (D) To increase the friction and make the tank
net force on it must be zero. This means the force harder to move.
exerted by one team in one direction is exactly

Ans
equal and opposite to the force exerted by the
other team. (B) To reduce the pressure on the ground,
preventing the tank from sinking in soft soil.
63. What are the two types of forces discussed in the Tanks are extremely heavy. The wide tracks
chapter? distribute this enormous weight over a very
(A) Strong and Weak forces large surface area. This significantly reduces the
(B) Push and Pull forces pressure exerted on the ground, allowing the
(C) Contact and Non-contact forces tank to travel over soft or uneven terrain without
(D) Internal and External forces getting stuck.


Ans 67. What provides the force that propels a rocket
(C) Contact and Non-contact forces upwards?
The chapter organizes its discussion of forces (A) The upward push of atmospheric pressure on
by first categorizing them based on whether the the rocket’s base.
interacting objects need to be in physical contact (B) The rocket pushing against the launchpad to
or not. lift off the ground.
(C) The force of the hot gases being rapidly
64. A force has both magnitude and ______. expelled downwards.
(A) direction (D) The gravitational pull of the moon and other
(B) pressure celestial bodies.
(C) mass
(D) temperature

Ans
(C) The force of the hot gases being rapidly


Ans
expelled downwards.
(A) direction This is an application of Newton’s Third Law.
Force is a vector quantity. This means that to The rocket exerts a strong downward force on
fully describe a force, you must specify not only the exhaust gases. In reaction, the gases exert an
its strength (magnitude) but also the direction in equal and opposite upward force on the rocket,
which it is acting. which is called thrust, propelling it upwards.
65. Which statement about pressure in liquids is 68. A force of 20 N acts on an area of 0.5 m². The
FALSE? pressure exerted is:
(A) It increases with depth. (A) 10 Pa
(B) It acts in all directions. (B) 20.5 Pa
(C) It depends on the shape of the container. (C) 40 Pa
(D) It is exerted on the walls of the container. (D) 19.5 Pa


Ans

Ans
(C) It depends on the shape of the container. (C) 40 Pa
page 140 Class 8th Science Foundation

Pressure = Force / Area. Pressure = 20 N / 0.5 72. If you stand on one foot instead of two, what
m² = 40 N/m² = 40 Pa. happens to the pressure you exert on the ground?
(A) It decreases by half.
69. To make a ball released from point P stop before (B) It doubles.
point A on the horizontal surface in figure, one (C) It remains the same.
could ______. (D) It becomes zero.


Ans
(B) It doubles.
Your weight (the force) remains the same. By
standing on one foot, you are halving the area of
contact with the ground. Since Pressure = Force /
Area, halving the area doubles the pressure.
(A) Make the horizontal surface smoother 73. The envelope of air surrounding the Earth is
(B) Make the horizontal surface rougher called the:
(C) Increase the mass of the ball (A) Atmosphere
(D) Release the ball from a higher point on the (B) Hydrosphere
incline (C) Lithosphere


Ans (D) Stratosphere
(B) Make the horizontal surface rougher

Ans
The ball stops at point A due to the force of (A) Atmosphere
friction on the horizontal surface. To make it stop The atmosphere is the specific term for the layer
sooner (before A), the frictional force needs to of gases held by a planet’s gravity. The Earth’s
be increased. Making the surface rougher will atmosphere is the source of atmospheric pressure.
increase friction, causing the ball to slow down
more quickly. 74. Picking up a school bag is an example of which
force?
70. What instrument is used to measure atmospheric (A) Magnetic force
pressure? (B) Muscular force
(A) Manometer (C) Electrostatic force
(B) Thermometer (D) Gravitational force
(C) Speedometer
(D) Barometer

Ans
(B) Muscular force


Ans
The action of lifting the bag against the force
(D) Barometer of gravity is accomplished by the contraction of
The specific scientific instrument designed for muscles in your arm and back. This is a direct
the measurement of the pressure exerted by the application of muscular force.
atmosphere is a barometer.
75. Why are dams built with thicker walls at the
71. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic bottom?
of force? (A) To withstand the greater pressure of the
(A) It has a magnitude. water at greater depths.
(B) It has a direction. (B) Because it is architecturally more pleasing to
(C) Its SI unit is the Newton. look at.
(D) It is a scalar quantity. (C) To make the top of the dam lighter than the


Ans bottom part.
(D) To counteract the Earth’s magnetic field
(D) It is a scalar quantity.
more effectively.
A scalar quantity has only magnitude (e.g., mass,
temperature). Force has both magnitude and

Ans
direction, which makes it a vector quantity, not (A) To withstand the greater pressure of the
a scalar. water at greater depths.
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

The pressure exerted by a liquid increases with 79. To change the state of motion of an object, you
depth. A dam holds back a huge body of water, must apply a(n):
and the pressure at the bottom is immense. The (A) Balanced force
walls must be much thicker and stronger at the (B) Unbalanced force
base to withstand this enormous force. (C) Non-contact force only
(D) Contact force only
76. What causes an object to float in a liquid?
(A) The upward buoyant force exerted by the

Ans
liquid is greater than or equal to the object’s (B) Unbalanced force
weight. A balanced force results in a net force of zero
(B) The object’s weight is significantly greater and no change in motion. To cause an object to
than the buoyant force of the liquid. accelerate (i.e., change its state of motion), the
(C) The object has a very strong magnetic forces must be unbalanced, resulting in a net force
attraction to the liquid’s surface. greater than zero.
(D) The atmospheric pressure pushing down on 80. When you inflate a balloon, the balloon expands
the object is very low. in all directions. This demonstrates that:


Ans (A) Gases exert pressure on the walls of their
container.
(A) The upward buoyant force exerted by the
(B) Air has a significant amount of weight.
liquid is greater than or equal to the object’s
(C) The rubber of the balloon is a non-contact
weight.
force.
This is Archimedes’ principle. An object
(D) The temperature inside the balloon decreases
submerged in a fluid experiences an upward
as it inflates.
force called buoyancy. If this buoyant force is
strong enough to balance or exceed the object’s

Ans
downward weight, the object will float. (A) Gases exert pressure on the walls of their
container.
77. The force acting on a unit area of a surface is
The air you blow in consists of gas particles
called:
moving randomly and colliding with the inner
(A) Friction
surface of the balloon. These collisions create an
(B) Weight
outward pressure that acts on all parts of the
(C) Pressure
balloon wall, causing it to expand.
(D) Thrust


Ans 81. The SI unit of force is the ______, and the SI
unit of pressure is the ______.
(C) Pressure
(A) Pascal, Newton
This is the standard definition of pressure. It
(B) Newton, Pascal
quantifies how a force is distributed over a specific
(C) Kilogram, Newton
area.
(D) Pascal, Kilogram
78. Which of the following is NOT an example of a

Ans
contact force?
(B) Newton, Pascal
(A) Kicking a ball
Force is measured in Newtons (N) and pressure
(B) A book resting on a table (which is force per unit area) is measured in
(C) The pull of a magnet on an iron nail Pascals (Pa).
(D) The force of friction
82. How are gravitational and electrostatic forces


Ans similar?
(C) The pull of a magnet on an iron nail (A) They are both always attractive forces.
Kicking a ball, the support force from a table, and (B) They are both types of contact forces.
friction all require physical contact. The magnetic (C) They can both act over a distance without
force acts over a distance and is therefore a non- contact.
contact force. (D) They both act only on magnetic materials.
page 142 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans 85. If the area over which a force acts is doubled, and
(C) They can both act over a distance without the force remains constant, the pressure will be:
contact. (A) Doubled
The key similarity between gravity and (B) Halved
electrostatics is that they are both non-contact, (C) Quadrupled
or action-at-a-distance, forces. They exert their (D) Unchanged
influence through fields that extend through

Ans
space.
(B) Halved
83. Which of the following best describes the normal Pressure and area are inversely proportional (P =
force? F/A). If the area is doubled while the force stays
(A) A non-contact force that is always present in the same, the pressure must be reduced to one-
nature. half of its original value.
(B) The component of force that is parallel to a
surface. 86. All of the following are effects of applying a force
(C) The contact force exerted by a surface to EXCEPT:
support an object resting on it. (A) Changing the color of an object
(D) The force of friction that acts on an object at (B) Changing the speed of an object
rest. (C) Changing the shape of an object
(D) Changing the direction of an object


Ans


Ans
(C) The contact force exerted by a surface to
support an object resting on it. (A) Changing the color of an object
When an object rests on a surface (like a book Force can alter an object’s motion or physical
on a table), it exerts a downward force due to shape. The color of an object is determined by
gravity. The surface pushes back with an equal the wavelengths of light it reflects and is not a
and opposite upward force, which is called the property that is changed by applying a mechanical
normal force. It acts perpendicular (or “normal”) force.
to the surface.
87. Thrust is a type of force. Pressure is defined as:
84. In the image showing a charged plastic scale (A) Thrust multiplied by area
attracting paper pieces, what type of force is (B) Thrust divided by area
demonstrated? (C) Area divided by thrust
(D) The same as thrust


Ans
(B) Thrust divided by area
“Thrust” is often used to mean the force acting
perpendicular to a surface. The definition of
pressure is this perpendicular force (thrust) per
unit area.

88. What allows a gecko to climb up walls and hang

(A) Contact muscular force from ceilings?
(B) Non-contact gravitational force (A) Muscular force alone, as its muscles are
(C) Non-contact electrostatic force extremely powerful for its size.
(D) Contact frictional force (B) A special kind of contact force that creates a
vacuum under its feet.


Ans
(C) Tiny hair-like structures on its feet that
(C) Non-contact electrostatic force create a strong electrostatic or van der Waals
The scale, having been charged by rubbing, force.
exerts a force on the paper pieces from a distance, (D) A non-contact gravitational force that it can
without touching them. This force between a reverse at will.
charged object and an uncharged object is known


Ans
as electrostatic force, which is a non-contact force
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

(C) Tiny hair-like structures on its feet that create (D) newton, pascal
a strong electrostatic or van der Waals force.


Ans
A gecko’s ability to stick to surfaces is an example
of adhesion. The millions of microscopic hairs (A) push, pull
(setae) on its toe pads create a very large surface This is the simplest and most common way to
area for intermolecular forces (like van der Waals describe a force. It is an interaction that can be
forces) to act, generating enough force to support categorized as either a push or a pull on an object.
its weight.
93. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
89. Which of these statements about atmospheric non-contact force?
pressure is FALSE? (A) The force that makes a ball fall to the ground.
(A) It is caused by the weight of the air. (B) The force that makes a compass needle point
(B) It is measured with a barometer. north.
(C) It increases as you go up a mountain. (C) The force that makes two balloons with the
(D) It holds a rubber sucker to a wall. same charge move apart.
(D) The force of a book pushing down on a table.


Ans


Ans
(C) It increases as you go up a mountain.
Atmospheric pressure decreases with increasing (D) The force of a book pushing down on a table.
altitude because the column of air above becomes The book pushing on the table is a contact
shorter and less dense. force (specifically, its weight being transmitted
through contact). Gravity (a), magnetism (b),
90. In a tug-of-war, Team A pulls with a force of 500 and electrostatics (c) are all non-contact forces.
N and Team B pulls with a force of 450 N. What
happens? 94. Match the type of force with its correct description.
(A) The rope moves towards Team A.
Column A Column B
(B) The rope moves towards Team B.
(C) The rope does not move. 1 Muscular A A non-contact force
(D) The rope breaks instantly. Force that pulls all objects
towards the Earth.


Ans
2 Gravitational B A contact force caused
(A) The rope moves towards Team A. Force by the action of
The forces are unbalanced. Team A is pulling muscles, used for lifting
with a greater force than Team B. The net force or pushing.
is 500 N - 450 N = 50 N in the direction of Team
A. This net force will cause the rope (and Team 3 Frictional C A non-contact force
B) to accelerate towards Team A. Force between two charged
objects.
91. Any interaction that, when unopposed, will 4 Electrostatic D A contact force that
change the motion of an object is a(n): Force opposes the motion
(A) Force between two surfaces.
(B) Pressure
(C) Mass Options
(D) Area (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
(b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A


Ans (c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(A) Force (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
This is the fundamental definition of force in

Ans
physics. It is an influence that causes a change in
an object’s velocity (acceleration). (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
Muscular force is a contact force from muscles.
92. A force is a ______ or a ______. Gravitational force is a non-contact pull from
(A) push, pull Earth. Frictional force is a contact force that
(B) contact, non-contact opposes motion. Electrostatic force is a non-
(C) mass, weight contact force between charges.
page 144 Class 8th Science Foundation

95. How does the pressure at the bottom of a narrow (A) It decreases.
tube filled with water compare to the pressure at (B) It increases.
the bottom of a wide lake of the same depth? (C) It remains the same.
(A) The pressure is greater in the narrow tube. (D) It becomes zero.
(B) The pressure is greater in the wide lake.


Ans
(C) The pressure is the same at the same depth.
(D) There is no pressure at the bottom of the (B) It increases.
narrow tube. By pushing the plunger, you are forcing the same
number of air particles into a smaller volume. This


Ans increases the frequency of collisions between the
(C) The pressure is the same at the same depth. particles and the walls of the syringe, resulting in
Liquid pressure at a certain point depends only an increase in pressure.
on the depth and the density of the liquid, not
on the width or total volume of the liquid. This 99. A person weighs 600 N. They are standing on a
is sometimes known as the hydrostatic paradox. single snowshoe that has an area of 0.2 m². What
pressure do they exert on the snow?
96. Why is it easier to walk on soft sand with flat (A) 120 Pa
shoes than with high-heeled shoes? (B) 3000 Pa
(A) Flat shoes have less friction with the sand. (C) 600.2 Pa
(B) High heels apply a smaller force to the sand. (D) 599.8 Pa
(C) Flat shoes distribute weight over a larger area,


Ans
reducing pressure and preventing sinking.
(D) High heels are generally heavier than flat (B) 3000 Pa
shoes. Pressure = Force / Area. Here, the force is the
person’s weight. Pressure = 600 N / 0.2 m² =


Ans 3000 N/m² = 3000 Pa.
(C) Flat shoes distribute weight over a larger
area, reducing pressure and preventing sinking. 100. Which of the following is NOT a property of
High heels concentrate your entire body weight gravity?
onto a very small area, creating high pressure (A) It can be repulsive.
that causes the heel to sink into the soft sand. (B) It depends on the mass of the objects.
Flat shoes spread the same weight over a much (C) It depends on the distance between objects.
larger area, reducing the pressure and allowing (D) It is a non-contact force.
you to walk on top of the sand.

Ans
97. Which of the following is the best description of (A) It can be repulsive.
a ‘Newton’ ? Gravity is unique among the fundamental forces in
(A) The unit of pressure in the SI system. that it is always attractive. It always pulls objects
(B) The amount of matter in a standard object. with mass towards each other. Electrostatic
(C) The force required to give a 1 kg mass an and magnetic forces can be either attractive or
acceleration of 1 m/s². repulsive.
(D) The energy required to lift a 1 kg mass by 1
101. Which term describes a force that causes an
meter.
object to slow down, such as air resistance?


Ans (A) A propulsive force
(C) The force required to give a 1 kg mass an (B) A drag force
acceleration of 1 m/s². (C) A normal force
This is the formal definition of the Newton based (D) A gravitational force
on Newton’s Second Law of Motion (F=ma). It

Ans
defines the unit of force in terms of mass and
(B) A drag force
acceleration.
Drag is the specific term for the resistive force
98. When you press the plunger of a syringe with its exerted by a fluid (like air or water) on an object
nozzle sealed, you are compressing the air inside. moving through it. It always acts to oppose the
What happens to the pressure of the air inside? object’s motion.
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

102. Can a single isolated force exist in nature? Column A Column B

(A) Yes, a single object can exert a force without
any other force being present. 1 Kicking a A Changes the speed of
(B) No, forces always exist in equal and opposite stationary a moving object.
action-reaction pairs. football
(C) Yes, but only for non-contact forces like 2 Pressing an B Changes the direction
gravity. inflated balloon of a moving object.
(D) No, because all forces are balanced by friction.
3 Applying brakes C Makes a stationary


Ans on a bicycle object move.
(B) No, forces always exist in equal and opposite 4 Hitting a D Changes the shape of
action-reaction pairs. moving ball an object.
This is the core concept of Newton’s Third Law with a bat
of Motion. For every action (force), there is an Options
equal and opposite reaction (force). Forces are (a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
interactions between two objects, so they always (b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
come in pairs. (c) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
(d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
103. What causes the tides in the Earth’s oceans?
(A) The gravitational pull of the Moon and the

Ans
Sun. (a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
(B) The pressure difference between the sea and Kicking a football makes it move from rest.
the land. Pressing a balloon changes its shape. Applying
(C) The rotation of the Earth on its axis. brakes changes the speed (slows it down). Hitting
(D) The magnetic field of the Earth’s core. a ball with a bat changes its direction.


Ans
106. Forces are said to be ______ if they are equal
(A) The gravitational pull of the Moon and the in magnitude and opposite in direction, resulting
Sun. in a net force of zero.
The gravitational forces of the Moon and, to a (A) balanced
lesser extent, the Sun pull on the Earth’s water, (B) unbalanced
causing it to bulge. As the Earth rotates, different (C) contact
locations pass through these bulges, experiencing (D) non-contact
high and low tides.


Ans
104. When an astronaut is in orbit, they experience (A) balanced
“weightlessness.” This is because: This is the definition of balanced forces. Their
(A) There is no gravity in space. effects cancel each other out, leading to no change
(B) The astronaut and their spacecraft are in a in the object’s state of motion.
constant state of freefall around the Earth.
(C) The astronaut’s mass becomes zero in space. 107. All of the following are examples of forces changing
(D) The atmospheric pressure inside the spacecraft an object’s motion EXCEPT:
is zero. (A) A car speeding up from rest.


Ans (B) A ball changing direction after hitting a wall.
(C) A bicycle slowing down due to brakes.
(B) The astronaut and their spacecraft are in a (D) A book resting on a table.
constant state of freefall around the Earth.
Gravity is still very strong in orbit. However,

Ans
the astronaut and the spacecraft are both falling (D) A book resting on a table.
towards Earth at the same rate. Since there is no In options A, B, and C, there is a change in
surface to push up on them (no normal force), velocity (acceleration), which means a net force is
they feel no sensation of weight. acting. A book resting on a table is in equilibrium;
the forces (gravity down, normal force up) are
105. Match the action with the primary effect of the balanced, and its state of motion is not changing.
force involved.
page 146 Class 8th Science Foundation

108. What is the main difference between a contact 111. Why is it easier to push a lawnmower than to
force and a non-contact force? pull it?
(A) Contact forces require physical touching, (A) Pushing directs some of the force into the
while non-contact forces do not. ground, increasing the normal force and
(B) Contact forces are always stronger than non- friction, which is incorrect; pulling is generally
contact forces. easier.
(C) Contact forces can change motion, while non- (B) Pulling a lawnmower is physically impossible
contact forces can only change shape. due to its design.
(C) Pushing the lawnmower makes it significantly
(D) Contact forces are measured in Pascals, while
lighter.
non-contact forces are measured in Newtons.
(D) The lawnmower’s engine only works when it


Ans is being pushed forward.
(A) Contact forces require physical touching,

Ans
while non-contact forces do not.
(A) Pushing directs some of the force into the
This is the fundamental distinction used to
ground, increasing the normal force and friction,
categorize forces in the chapter. Contact forces
which is incorrect; pulling is generally easier.
(like friction, tension, normal force) arise from
This is a classic physics problem. When you push
direct physical interaction. Non-contact forces
a lawnmower, the downward component of your
(like gravity, magnetism) act through fields over
force adds to the mower’s weight, increasing the
a distance.
normal force and thus the friction. When you pull
109. If you have two identical boxes, one empty and it, the upward component of your force slightly
one full of books, which one requires more force lifts the mower, reducing the normal force and
to start moving? friction, making it easier to move.
(A) The full box, because it has more mass and
112. Which of the following statements about pressure
therefore more inertia and friction.
is TRUE?
(B) The empty box, because it has less friction. (A) Pressure is a vector quantity with a specific
(C) Both require the same force, as they are direction.
identical boxes. (B) A large force always results in a large pressure.
(D) It depends on the direction you are pushing (C) Pressure is independent of the area over
them. which the force acts.
(D) A given force applied over a small area results


Ans
in a large pressure.
(A) The full box, because it has more mass and


Ans
therefore more inertia and friction.
The full box has a greater mass. This means it (D) A given force applied over a small area results
has more inertia (resistance to change in motion). in a large pressure.
It also means it pushes down on the floor with a Pressure is defined as Force/Area. It is inversely
greater force (weight), which increases the force of proportional to area. Therefore, concentrating a
static friction that must be overcome. force on a smaller area yields a higher pressure.
A large force over a large area can result in low
110. The force that always acts opposite to the pressure. Pressure is a scalar, not a vector.
direction of motion or intended motion is:
(A) Gravity 113. A satellite orbits the Earth at a constant speed. Is
(B) Friction there a force acting on it?
(C) Normal Force (A) No, because its speed is constant.
(D) Tension (B) Yes, the force of gravity is acting on it, causing
it to change direction.


Ans
(C) Yes, the force of air resistance is the only
(B) Friction force acting on it.
This is the defining characteristic of the force of (D) No, objects in space are not subject to any
friction. It is a resistive force that opposes the forces.
relative movement between surfaces in contact.


Ans
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

(B) Yes, the force of gravity is acting on it, causing on the balloon. When this buoyant force is greater
it to change direction. than the total weight of the balloon, it rises.
Velocity is a vector (speed and direction). Even
if the speed is constant, the satellite’s direction 117. Match the scientific term with its correct
is constantly changing as it moves in a circle. definition.
A change in direction is a change in velocity Column A Column B
(acceleration), which requires a net force.
This force is Earth’s gravity, which acts as the 1 Weight A The amount of matter
centripetal force. in an object, which is
constant everywhere.
114. The measure of the force of gravity on an object
2 Friction B The force that opposes
is its:
motion and is greater on
(A) Mass
rough surfaces.
(B) Weight
(C) Inertia 3 Buoyant C The measure of the
(D) Density Force gravitational pull on
an object, measured in


Ans
newtons.
(B) Weight
4 Mass D The upward push exerted
This is the precise definition of weight. It is the
by a liquid on an immersed
gravitational force exerted on an object’s mass by
object.
a large body like a planet.
Options
115. Which of the following is NOT a true statement? (a) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
(A) Forces can cause a stationary object to move. (b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
(B) Forces can change the direction of a moving (c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
object. (d) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
(C) Force is the same as pressure.


Ans
(D) Friction is a type of contact force.
(b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A


Ans
Weight is the gravitational force on an object.
(C) Force is the same as pressure. Friction opposes motion between surfaces.
Force is a push or a pull (a vector quantity, Buoyant force is the upward push from a fluid.
measured in Newtons). Pressure is force per unit Mass is the amount of matter in an object.
area (a scalar quantity, measured in Pascals).
They are related but distinct physical concepts. 118. A force of 50 N is exerted over an area of 5 m².
What is the pressure?
116. Why does a hot air balloon rise? (A) 250 Pa
(A) The fire inside the balloon pushes the balloon (B) 10 Pa
upwards. (C) 55 Pa
(B) The hot air inside is less dense than the cooler (D) 45 Pa
air outside, creating a buoyant force.


Ans
(C) The balloon’s fabric becomes magnetically
charged and repels the Earth. (B) 10 Pa
(D) The atmospheric pressure inside the balloon Using the formula Pressure = Force / Area, we
becomes much greater than outside. have Pressure = 50 N / 5 m² = 10 N/m² = 10 Pa.


Ans 119. The force of ______ keeps us from sliding
(B) The hot air inside is less dense than the cooler when we walk, and the force of ______ keeps
air outside, creating a buoyant force. us from floating into space.
Heating the air inside the balloon makes it expand (A) gravity, friction
and become less dense than the surrounding air. (B) friction, gravity
According to Archimedes’ principle, the buoyant (C) magnetism, pressure
force from the cooler, denser outside air pushes up (D) pressure, magnetism
page 148 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans direction. A stationary object has a state of

(B) friction, gravity motion with zero speed.
Friction between our shoes and the ground
123. Which of these actions does NOT involve a
provides the grip needed to push off and walk.
Gravity is the non-contact force that constantly contact force?
pulls us towards the Earth, anchoring us to the (A) Writing with a pen.
planet. (B) A leaf falling from a tree.
(C) A hammer hitting a nail.
120. A syringe is filled with water, and its nozzle is (D) A person leaning against a wall.
sealed. Why is it very difficult to push the plunger

Ans
in?
(A) Because water is a liquid and is virtually (B) A leaf falling from a tree.
incompressible. Writing, hammering, and leaning all involve
(B) Because the water inside the syringe freezes direct physical contact. A leaf falls primarily due
under pressure. to the non-contact force of gravity. (Air resistance
(C) Because a strong magnetic field is created is a contact force acting on it, but gravity is the
inside the syringe. primary cause of the fall).
(D) Because the pressure of the water decreases
124. A drawing pin has a flat head and a sharp tip.
as you push the plunger.
The purpose of this design is to:


Ans (A) Maximize the force applied by the thumb and
(A) Because water is a liquid and is virtually minimize the pressure on the wall.
incompressible. (B) Minimize the force applied by the thumb and
Unlike gases, which can be easily compressed, maximize the pressure on the wall.
the molecules in a liquid like water are already (C) Maximize the area on the thumb to reduce
very close together. Applying a force does not pressure, and minimize the area at the tip to
significantly reduce the volume, so the pressure increase pressure.
increases dramatically, creating a strong opposing (D) Ensure the force and pressure are equal at
force. both the head and the tip.


Ans
121. The force that pulls objects toward the center of
the Earth is: (C) Maximize the area on the thumb to reduce
(A) Gravity pressure, and minimize the area at the tip to
(B) Friction increase pressure.
(C) Pressure The wide, flat head provides a large area for your
(D) Electrostatic force thumb, so the pressure is low and it doesn’t hurt.
The sharp tip has a very small area, so the same


Ans force creates a very high pressure, allowing it to
(A) Gravity easily penetrate the wall or board.
This is the definition of the force of gravity in the
125. How does a gas exert pressure differently from a
context of our planet. It is the attractive force
between the Earth’s mass and the mass of any solid?
other object. (A) A solid exerts pressure only downwards, while
a gas exerts pressure in all directions.
122. What is the ‘state of motion’ of an object? (B) A gas exerts pressure only downwards, while
(A) Its temperature and shape. a solid exerts pressure in all directions.
(B) Its mass and volume. (C) Neither gases nor solids can exert any
(C) Its speed and direction of movement. pressure.
(D) The forces acting upon it. (D) Both gases and solids exert pressure only on
the bottom of their container.


Ans


Ans
(C) Its speed and direction of movement.
An object’s state of motion is described by its (A) A solid exerts pressure only downwards, while
velocity, which is a vector quantity that includes a gas exerts pressure in all directions.
both its speed (how fast it’s going) and its
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

A solid object (not a fluid) exerts pressure the net force must be unbalanced and greater
primarily downwards due to its weight. A gas than zero.
fills its entire container, and its randomly moving
particles collide with all surfaces, thus exerting 129. The force of gravity between two objects increases
pressure equally in all directions. if their ______ increase, and decreases if the
______ between them increases.
126. What are balanced forces? (A) masses, distance
(A) Two forces that are equal in magnitude and (B) distance, masses
act in the same direction. (C) volumes, densities
(B) Two forces that are unequal in magnitude but (D) densities, volumes
act in opposite directions.


Ans
(C) Two or more forces whose effects cancel each
other out, resulting in a net force of zero. (A) masses, distance
(D) Any two non-contact forces acting on a single Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation states that
object. the force is directly proportional to the product
of the masses and inversely proportional to the


Ans square of the distance between them.
(C) Two or more forces whose effects cancel each
other out, resulting in a net force of zero. 130. A deep-sea submarine must have a very strong
This is the definition of balanced forces. They do hull. This is to withstand the:
not cause a change in an object’s state of motion (A) Extremely high water pressure at great
because their combined effect is zero. depths.
(B) Extremely low temperatures found in the
127. If you drop a feather and a stone from the same deep ocean.
height in a vacuum (where there is no air), what (C) Strong magnetic fields generated by the
will happen? Earth’s core.
(A) The stone will hit the ground first. (D) High friction from moving through dense
(B) The feather will hit the ground first. saltwater.
(C) They will hit the ground at the same time.


Ans
(D) Neither will fall because there is no air.
(A) Extremely high water pressure at great


Ans depths.
(C) They will hit the ground at the same time. Water pressure increases significantly with depth.
In a vacuum, there is no air resistance. The only In the deep sea, the pressure is immense and
force acting on both objects is gravity, which would crush a normal structure. The submarine’s
causes all objects to accelerate downwards at the hull must be engineered to be incredibly strong to
same rate, regardless of their mass. Therefore, resist this huge inward force.
they will fall together.

128. Which of these statements about force is incorrect?

(A) An interaction between two objects results in
131. The property of an object to resist changes in its
a force between them.
(B) Force is measured by a spring balance. state of motion is called:
(C) Forces acting on an object can change its (A) Inertia
shape. (B) Friction
(D) A force always results in the motion of an (C) Pressure
object. (D) Weight

Ans

Ans

(D) A force always results in the motion of an (A) Inertia

object. Inertia is the tendency of an object to keep doing
A force can be applied without causing motion what it’s doing - if it’s at rest, to stay at rest, and
if it is balanced by an opposing force, such as if it’s in motion, to stay in motion with the same
friction or a normal force. For motion to occur, velocity. Mass is a measure of an object’s inertia.
page 150 Class 8th Science Foundation

132. Match the type of force with its specific (C) A compass needle pointing North.
characteristic. (D) A hand pushing a door open.

Column A Column B

Ans

1 Contact A An attractive or (D) A hand pushing a door open.

Force repulsive force that Pushing a door requires direct physical contact
exists between charged between the hand and the door, making it a
objects. contact force. The other examples are driven
by the non-contact forces of gravity (A, B) and
2 Magnetic B An always-attractive magnetism (C).
Force force that exists between
the Earth and any 135. When a fluid (like air or water) flows past a
object. stationary object, it exerts a force on the object.
3 Gravitational C A force, such as friction This force is known as:
Force or muscular force, that (A) Normal force
acts only when two (B) Drag
objects are physically (C) Thrust
touching. (D) Weight

4 Electrostatic D An attractive or

Ans

Force repulsive force that acts (B) Drag
between two magnets. Drag is the resistive force that acts on an object
Options moving through a fluid, or on a stationary object
(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A in a moving fluid. Wind exerting a force on a
(b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B building is an example of drag.
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
136. Force is a vector quantity, which means it has
(d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
both ______ and ______.


Ans (A) magnitude, direction
(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A (B) mass, weight
A contact force requires physical touching. Magnetic (C) force, pressure
force acts between magnets. Gravitational force is (D) friction, gravity
the Earth’s pull. Electrostatic force acts between

Ans
charges.
(A) magnitude, direction
133. A man is pushing a box with a force of 100 N, This is the definition of a vector quantity. To
and the box does not move. What is the force of fully specify a force, you need to state its size or
static friction? strength (magnitude) and the direction in which
(A) Greater than 100 N. it acts.
(B) Less than 100 N.
137. How does the pressure exerted by a liquid compare
(C) Exactly 100 N in the opposite direction.
to the pressure exerted by a gas, assuming they
(D) Zero.
are in identical sealed containers?


Ans (A) The liquid exerts pressure only on the bottom,
(C) Exactly 100 N in the opposite direction. while the gas exerts it on all walls.
Since the box is not moving, the forces on it are (B) The gas exerts pressure only on the top, while
balanced. The force of static friction must be the liquid exerts it on the bottom.
equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to (C) Both exert pressure equally and only on the
the man’s pushing force to create a net force of bottom of the container.
zero. (D) Both exert pressure equally on all surfaces of
the container.
134. Which of the following is NOT an example of a


Ans
non-contact force in action?
(A) A planet orbiting the Sun. (A) The liquid exerts pressure only on the bottom,
(B) An apple falling on Newton’s head. while the gas exerts it on all walls.
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

A gas expands to fill its entire container, so its from falling through it. For an object on a
particles collide with all walls, creating pressure horizontal surface, it balances the object’s weight.
everywhere. A liquid has a definite volume and
settles at the bottom, so while it exerts pressure 141. A force of 15 N is applied to a piston with an area
on the bottom and side walls up to its level, it of 3 m². What is the pressure?
doesn’t exert pressure on the walls above its (A) 45 Pa
surface. (B) 18 Pa
(C) 12 Pa
138. Why does a boat float on water? (D) 5 Pa
(A) The boat is less dense than a solid block of


Ans
steel.
(B) The upward buoyant force from the water is (D) 5 Pa
equal to the boat’s weight. Pressure = Force / Area = 15 N / 3 m² = 5 N/
(C) The boat is completely waterproof. m² = 5 Pa.
(D) The atmospheric pressure pushes the boat
142. Why can a person lie on a bed of nails without
up.
being harmed, if there are enough nails?


Ans (A) The person’s weight is distributed over the
(B) The upward buoyant force from the water is large total area of all the nail tips, so the
equal to the boat’s weight. pressure from each nail is low.
A boat floats because its shape displaces a large (B) The nails are not actually sharp.
volume of water. The weight of this displaced (C) The person’s skin is stronger than steel.
water is equal to the upward buoyant force. If this (D) The force from each nail is zero.
force is equal to the total weight of the boat and

Ans
its contents, the boat floats.
(A) The person’s weight is distributed over the
139. Which of these statements about the effects of large total area of all the nail tips, so the pressure
force is incorrect? from each nail is low.
(A) Force can change the shape of an object. While one nail would create immense pressure
(B) Force can change the direction of a moving and pierce the skin, a bed of hundreds of nails has
object. a large combined surface area. The person’s total
(C) Force can change the velocity of an object. weight is divided among all these points, so the
(D) Force can change the chemical composition of force and pressure exerted by any single nail tip is
an object. too small to cause injury.

Ans 143. Which of the following is NOT a contact force?

(D) Force can change the chemical composition (A) Tension in a rope
of an object. (B) Air resistance
Applying a mechanical force can change an (C) Electrostatic attraction
object’s motion or physical shape (deformation). (D) Normal force
However, it does not typically cause a chemical

Ans
reaction or change the substance the object is
(C) Electrostatic attraction
made of.
Tension, air resistance, and the normal force
140. The force with which a surface pushes back on an all require physical contact to be exerted.
object resting on it is called: Electrostatic attraction is a field force that acts
(A) Weight over a distance.
(B) Normal force
144. What is meant by the “magnitude” of a force?
(C) Friction
(A) The direction in which the force is acting.
(D) Tension
(B) The type of force (e.g., contact or non-


Ans contact).
(B) Normal force (C) The strength or size of the force.
The normal force is the perpendicular contact (D) The object on which the force is acting.
force exerted by a surface to prevent an object
page 152 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans 148. Which of the following statements about forces

(C) The strength or size of the force. is FALSE?
Magnitude is the term used to describe the (A) Forces always occur in pairs.
quantitative value or strength of a vector quantity (B) Force can be a push or a pull.
like force. It is typically measured in Newtons. (C) Balanced forces can change an object’s
direction.
145. What is the relationship between the force of
gravity and the distance between two objects? (D) Gravity is a non-contact force.
(A) Gravity is directly proportional to the

Ans
distance.
(C) Balanced forces can change an object’s
(B) Gravity is inversely proportional to the
direction.
distance.
(C) Gravity is not affected by the distance. Balanced forces result in a net force of zero. A net
(D) Gravity increases linearly with distance. force of zero means there is no acceleration, so
the object’s velocity (speed and direction) cannot


Ans change. Only an unbalanced force can change an
(B) Gravity is inversely proportional to the object’s direction.
distance.
The force of gravity weakens as the distance 149. A hydraulic lift uses a small force on a small
between two objects increases. Specifically, it piston to lift a heavy car on a large piston. This
follows an inverse-square law, meaning if you works because:
double the distance, the force becomes four times (A) The pressure is transmitted equally
weaker. throughout the enclosed fluid.
(B) The fluid used in the lift is extremely light.
146. The force of gravity pulls a falling apple (C) The force is magnified by the fluid itself.
______, while the force of air resistance pushes
(D) The system works on the principle of magnetic
______.
levitation.
(A) downwards, upwards
(B) upwards, downwards

Ans
(C) sideways, upwards
(A) The pressure is transmitted equally
(D) downwards, sideways
throughout the enclosed fluid.


Ans This is Pascal’s Principle. The pressure (P =
(A) downwards, upwards F/A) created by the small force on the small
Gravity always acts towards the center of the piston is transmitted throughout the fluid. This
Earth (downwards). Air resistance is a form of same pressure acts on the large piston. Since P
drag that always opposes the direction of motion. = f/a = F/A, the force F on the large piston is
For a falling object, the motion is down, so air magnified (F = f (A/a)).
resistance acts up.
150. The force that holds the atoms of a molecule
together is an example of a(n):
(A) Gravitational force
(B) Nuclear force
147. When you use a screwdriver to tighten a screw,
(C) Electrostatic force
you are applying a twisting force called:
(A) Torque (D) Frictional force
(B) Pressure

Ans
(C) Friction
(D) Tension (C) Electrostatic force
Chemical bonds, which hold atoms together to


Ans form molecules, are fundamentally due to the
(A) Torque electrostatic forces of attraction between the
Torque is the rotational equivalent of a linear positively charged nuclei and the negatively
force. It is a measure of how much a force acting charged electrons.
on an object causes that object to rotate.
Pagesmith CH 05 : Exploring Forces

151. Which force is responsible for a paper clip sticking

Ans

to a magnet, and which is responsible for the (c) 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
paper clip falling if the magnet is removed? A force is a push or pull. A spring balance measures
(A) Gravity, then Magnetism weight. A contact force requires objects to touch.
(B) Magnetism, then Friction Archimedes’ principle relates to buoyancy.
(C) Magnetism, then Gravity
(D) Friction, then Gravity 154. A student is trying to listen to a conversation on
the other side of a wooden door. Sound can be


Ans heard through the door because:
(C) Magnetism, then Gravity (A) Sound is a type of non-contact electrostatic
The non-contact magnetic force attracts the force.
paper clip and holds it against gravity. When the (B) The door is not a perfect barrier for sound
magnet is removed, the magnetic force disappears, waves.
and the unopposed non-contact force of gravity (C) Sound waves are a form of light that can pass
pulls the paper clip to the ground. through wood.
(D) The wooden door acts as a large spring
152. All of the following are vector quantities EXCEPT: balance.
(A) Force (B) Velocity


Ans
(C) Pressure (D) Acceleration
(B) The door is not a perfect barrier for sound


Ans
waves.
(C) Pressure Sound travels as vibrations. While the door reflects
Force, velocity, and acceleration all have both and absorbs some sound, it also transmits some of
magnitude and direction, making them vectors. the vibrational energy through it, allowing sound
Pressure is defined as force per unit area; to be heard on the other side, although it will be
although it is derived from a vector (force), it is a muffled.
scalar quantity, meaning it has magnitude but no
specific direction. 155. If an object is moving at a constant velocity, what
can you say about the forces acting on it?
153. Match the term or instrument with its scientific (A) There are no forces acting on it.
role or definition. (B) The forces acting on it are balanced (net force
is zero).
Column A Column B
(C) There is a single, constant unbalanced force
1 Force A A simple push or pull acting on it.
resulting from the (D) The forces acting on it are constantly
interaction between two increasing.
objects.

Ans
2 Spring B A type of force, like (B) The forces acting on it are balanced (net force
Balance friction, that requires is zero).
physical touching According to Newton’s First Law, an object in
between objects. motion stays in motion with the same velocity
3 Contact C A principle explaining unless acted upon by a net force. Constant
Force that upthrust is equal velocity means zero acceleration, which implies
to the weight of the the net force is zero. This could mean no forces, or
displaced fluid. (more likely) that the forces acting (e.g., a push
4 Archimedes’ D An instrument used to and friction) are balanced.
Principle measure the weight of an 156. The force of ______ is a contact force that
object. opposes motion, while ______ is a non-contact
Options force that pulls objects together.
(a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (A) friction, gravity
(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (B) gravity, friction
(c) 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C (C) pressure, magnetism
(d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D (D) magnetism, pressure
page 154 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (B) The atmospheric pressure outside the balloon

(A) friction, gravity decreases, allowing the internal pressure to push
Friction requires contact and opposes motion. the walls out.
Gravity acts at a distance and is always attractive. The balloon rises to a higher altitude where
the external atmospheric pressure is lower. The
157. Which of the following is the best example of pressure of the helium inside is now greater than
unbalanced forces? the pressure outside, and this pressure difference
(A) A book sitting still on a desk. creates an outward force that expands the balloon.
(B) A car moving at a steady 60 km/h on a
straight road. 160. Which of these units is NOT a measure of
(C) A tug-of-war where neither team is moving. pressure?
(D) A rocket accelerating upwards during launch. (A) Pound per square inch (psi)
(B) Kilogram per meter


Ans
(C) Millimeters of mercury (mmHg)
(D) A rocket accelerating upwards during launch. (D) Pascal (Pa)
A, B, and C all describe situations of equilibrium


Ans
(net force is zero). An accelerating rocket is, by
definition, experiencing a change in velocity, which (B) Kilogram per meter
can only be caused by an unbalanced net force Psi, mmHg, and Pascal are all standard units
(the upward thrust is greater than the downward of pressure. A kilogram is a unit of mass, and a
force of gravity). meter is a unit of length; kilogram per meter is
not a recognized unit for pressure.
158. What is the fundamental difference between the
force you exert to hold a book up and the force 161. What force allows a car to turn a corner?
that makes the book fall? (A) The force of friction between the tires and the
(A) The holding force is contact (muscular), while road.
the falling force is non-contact (gravity). (B) The force of the engine pushing the car
(B) The holding force is non-contact, while the sideways.
falling force is contact. (C) The force of gravity pulling the car into the
(C) Both forces are types of contact forces. turn.
(D) Both forces are types of non-contact forces. (D) The air pressure acting on the side of the car.


Ans

Ans
(A) The holding force is contact (muscular), while (A) The force of friction between the tires and
the falling force is non-contact (gravity). the road.
To hold the book, your hand must be in physical To change direction, the car needs a sideways
contact with it, exerting a muscular force. To force (a centripetal force). This force is provided
make the book fall, you simply remove that by the static friction between the car’s tires and
contact force, and the ever-present, non-contact the road surface, pushing the car into the curve.
force of gravity takes over.
162. The force per unit of area is the definition of:
159. As a helium balloon rises, it expands. Why? (A) Friction
(A) The temperature of the helium inside (B) Force
increases dramatically as it rises. (C) Pressure
(B) The atmospheric pressure outside the balloon (D) Weight
decreases, allowing the internal pressure to

Ans
push the walls out.
(C) The force of gravity on the balloon’s skin (C) Pressure
decreases, letting it stretch. This is the concise and fundamental definition
(D) The balloon absorbs water vapor from the of the physical quantity of pressure, as stated
clouds, which causes it to swell. repeatedly in the chapter.

Ans

*************
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

CHAPTER 6
Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

SUMMAR 1.3 Atmospheric Pressure

The envelope of air surrounding the Earth is
called the atmosphere. The pressure exerted by
1. Understanding Pressure this air is known as atmospheric pressure.
Air exerts pressure on all objects in all
1.1 Definition and Formula directions.
We are not crushed by the high atmospheric
Pressure is defined as the force applied per unit pressure because the pressure inside our bodies is
area. The formula for pressure is: equal to the atmospheric pressure, which balances
Pressure = Force it out.
Area
For the same amount of force, the pressure is 2. Wind Formation
higher when the area is smaller. This is why sharp
knives cut better and bags with broad straps are 2.1 The Principle : Pressure Difference
more comfortable than those with narrow straps.
The SI unit of pressure is newton per square Wind is essentially moving air. Air moves from
metre ( N/m2 ), which is also called a pascal (Pa). a region of high air pressure to a region of low
air pressure. Differences in air pressure are the
primary cause of wind. For example, during the
day, land heats up faster than the sea, creating a
low-pressure area over the land. Air from the high-
pressure area over the sea then blows towards the
land, creating a sea breeze.

2.2 High-Speed Winds and Reduced Pressure

Buckets with broad and narrow handles
A key principle of wind is that high-speed winds
are accompanied by reduced air pressure. This is
1.2 Pressure in Liquids why roofs of houses can be blown off during storms.
The fast-moving wind above the roof creates a
1. Liquids exert pressure on the bottom and
low-pressure area, while the higher pressure inside
sides of their container.
the house pushes the roof upwards.
2. The pressure exerted by a liquid increases
with the height (or depth) of the liquid
column.
3. This is why water tanks are placed at a height
to increase the water pressure in taps.
4. It is also why the base of a dam is built
much broader than its top—to withstand the
greater pressure of the water at the bottom.
Air moves from a high pressure region to a low pressure
region
page 156 Class 8th Science Foundation

3. Storms and Thunderstorms 4. The rotation of the Earth causes this moving
air to spin, forming the characteristic cyclonic
3.1 How Thunderstorms Form vortex.
5. The center of the cyclone is a calm, low-
1. A storm is defined as strong winds accompanied
pressure area known as the eye.
by rain. A thunder storm is a storm that also
includes lightning and thunder. 4.2 Structure and Destructive Effects
2. They form when warm, moist air rises quickly,
creating a low-pressure area. Cyclones cause destruction through three main
3. As the air rises, it cools, and the moisture factors:
condenses to form clouds and eventually rain. 1. High-speed winds : Can damage buildings,
This process creates strong, circulating winds. trees, and infrastructure.
2. Heavy rainfall : Leads to widespread flooding
3.2 Lightning and Thunder and landslides.
3. Storm surge : A large wall of seawater pushed
1. Inside storm clouds, strong upward and
onto the shore by the cyclone’s winds, which
downward winds cause water droplets and ice
can flood coastal areas.
particles to rub against each other, building
Modern weather satellites help meteorologists
up static electric charges.
(like the IMD in India) track cyclones, allowing
2. Typically, positive charges gather at the
for timely warnings that save lives and property.
top of the cloud and negative charges at the
bottom.
3. Lightning is the bright flash of light created

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO

when there is a massive electrical discharge
between oppositely charged areas—within a
cloud, between clouds, or between a cloud
and the ground.
1. What is the scientific definition of pressure?
4. Thunder is the loud sound produced when the
(A) The speed of moving air within a defined
lightning flash rapidly heats the surrounding
system.
air, causing it to expand suddenly.
(B) The total weight of an object due to
3.3 Safety During a Thunderstorm gravitational pull.
(C) The force applied per unit area on a surface.
1. Lightning is dangerous and can damage
(D) The amount of matter contained within an
property and cause injury or death.
object.
2. During a thunderstorm, it is safest to be
inside a car or building. If outdoors, find a

Ans
low-lying area and avoid tall objects. (C) The force applied per unit area on a surface.
3. A lightning conductor is a metal rod installed on Pressure is a measure of how concentrated a force
buildings to provide a safe path for lightning’s is. It is calculated by dividing the force acting
electric charge to travel to the ground. perpendicularly on a surface by the area over
which that force is distributed. This explains why
4. Cyclones the same force can have different effects depending
on the area it acts upon.
4.1 Formation of a Cyclone
2. What is the SI unit of pressure, also known as
A cyclone is a large, rotating storm system that
newton per square meter (N/m^2)?
forms over warm ocean waters.
(A) Joule (J)
The formation process involves a repeating cycle:
(B) Watt (W)
1. Warm, moist air over the ocean rises, creating
(C) Pascal (Pa)
an area of very low pressure.
(D) Newton (N)
2. As the air rises and cools, water vapor
condenses, releasing heat, which warms the

Ans
air more and makes it rise even faster. (C) Pascal (Pa)
3. Air from surrounding high-pressure areas The standard international (SI) unit for pressure
rushes in toward the low-pressure center. is the pascal, named after Blaise Pascal. One
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

pascal is defined as a force of one newton applied

Ans

over an area of one square meter. It quantifies the (C) Because the pressure exerted by the water
intensity of the force on a surface. increases with depth.
The pressure exerted by a liquid depends on its
3. Why is it more comfortable to carry a heavy depth. The water at the bottom of the reservoir
school bag with broad straps than with narrow exerts a much greater horizontal pressure on the
straps? dam wall than the water at the top. The thicker
(A) The material of broad straps has less friction base provides the necessary strength to withstand
than that of narrow straps. this immense pressure.
(B) Broad straps distribute the force over a larger
area, reducing the pressure on the shoulders. 6. How does a sharp knife cut an apple more easily
(C) The design of broad straps effectively changes than a blunt knife?
and reduces the total weight of the bag. (A) The sharp knife is generally heavier than the
(D) Broad straps are significantly lighter than blunt knife, applying more force.
narrow straps, reducing the overall load. (B) The blunt knife creates significantly more
friction against the apple’s skin.


Ans (C) The material of a sharp knife is always of
(B) Broad straps distribute the force over a larger a much higher quality than that of a blunt
area, reducing the pressure on the shoulders. knife.
The weight of the bag is the force. Pressure (D) The sharp knife has a very small surface area
equals force divided by area. The broad straps at its edge, which exerts a very high pressure.
increase the area over which this force acts on the

Ans
shoulders. This results in lower pressure, making
(D) The sharp knife has a very small surface area
the bag feel more comfortable to carry.
at its edge, which exerts a very high pressure.
4. On what factor does the pressure exerted by a When you push on a knife, you apply a force.
liquid at the bottom of a container primarily The sharp edge has a tiny area. Since pressure is
depend? force divided by area, this small area concentrates
(A) The height of the liquid column. the force, creating a very high pressure that is
(B) The total volume of the liquid in the container. sufficient to slice through the apple’s skin and
(C) The overall shape of the container holding the flesh.
liquid.
7. Activity 6.2 shows water spurting out from holes in
(D) The total weight of the liquid in the container.
the side of a bottle. What does this demonstrate?


Ans (A) Water will always tend to flow in perfectly
(A) The height of the liquid column. straight lines.
Activity 6.1 demonstrates that even with different (B) Liquids exert pressure on the walls (sides) of
weights of water in narrow and broad pipes, the the container.
pressure at the bottom is the same if the height of (C) The bottle is constructed from a particularly
the water is the same. Liquid pressure increases weak material.
directly with depth or the height of the liquid (D) Liquids are only capable of exerting pressure
column above. in a downwards direction.
5. Why are the walls of a dam built to be much

Ans
thicker at the bottom than at the top? (B) Liquids exert pressure on the walls (sides) of
(A) To provide better support for the weight of the container.
any road built on top of the dam. The fact that water flows out of the holes proves
(B) To prevent aquatic animals like fish from that there is a force pushing it outwards. This
getting too close to the base structure. shows that the pressure within a liquid acts in all
(C) Because the pressure exerted by the water directions, not just downwards on the bottom but
increases with depth. also sideways on the walls of its container.
(D) To make the dam appear more visually stable
and aesthetically pleasing.
page 158 Class 8th Science Foundation

8. What is the term for the pressure exerted by the The fluids and gases inside our body exert an
envelope of air surrounding the Earth? outward pressure that is equal to the inward
(A) Atmospheric pressure atmospheric pressure. These opposing forces
(B) Liquid pressure balance each other, so we do not feel the
(C) Cyclonic pressure tremendous weight of the air column above us.
(D) Wind pressure
11. Winds are caused by the movement of air. In


Ans which direction does air always move?
(A) Atmospheric pressure (A) From a region of low pressure to a region of
The Earth is surrounded by a layer of air called high pressure.
the atmosphere. This air has weight and exerts (B) From a warmer region to a colder region.
a force on all objects within it. The pressure (C) From a colder region to a warmer region.
resulting from the weight of this column of air is (D) From a region of high pressure to a region of
known as atmospheric pressure. low pressure.

9. A rubber sucker sticks firmly to a smooth surface

Ans

when pressed. What force holds it there? (D) From a region of high pressure to a region of
(A) The magnetic force generated between the low pressure.
rubber sucker and the surface. This is the fundamental principle of wind
(B) The force from the higher atmospheric formation. Differences in air pressure create a
pressure on the outside of the sucker. force that pushes air from the area where pressure
(C) A special sticky substance that is actively is higher towards the area where pressure is lower.
released by the rubber material. This movement of air is what we experience as
(D) The force of gravity acting on the air that is wind.
trapped inside the sucker. 12. Two vessels, A and B contain water up to the


Ans same level as shown in figure. PA and PB is the
pressure at the bottom of the vessels. FA and FB
(B) The force from the higher atmospheric
is the force exerted by the water at the bottom of
pressure on the outside of the sucker.
the vessels A and B.
Pressing the sucker pushes the air out from
underneath, creating a region of low pressure
inside. The atmospheric pressure on the outside
is now much greater, and this external pressure
pushes the sucker tightly against the surface,
holding it in place.

10. Why are we not crushed by the immense force of

atmospheric pressure?
(A) Because the pressure inside our bodies is
equal to the atmospheric pressure, balancing (a) PA = PB, FA = FB
it out. (b) PA = PB, FA < FB
(B) Because our strong bones are the only things (c) PA < PB, FA = FB
capable of resisting the external pressure. (d) PA > PB, FA > FB
(C) Because atmospheric pressure only acts


Ans
downwards on the top of our heads and not
elsewhere. (b) PA = PB, FA < FB
(D) Because the air and various fluids that are The pressure exerted by a liquid depends only
located inside our bodies are at zero pressure. on the height of its column. Since the water level
is the same in both vessels, the pressure at the


Ans bottom is equal (PA = PB ). Force is calculated as
(A) Because the pressure inside our bodies is Pressure multiplied by Area. Since the base area
equal to the atmospheric pressure, balancing it of vessel B is larger than vessel A, the force on the
out. bottom of B is greater (FA < FB ).
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

13. What causes the formation of a sea breeze during (D) The rapid airflow causes the roofing materials
the daytime? to become intrinsically lighter and float away.
(A) The moon’s gravitational pull, which is


Ans
stronger during the day, pulls air from the
sea. (A) The high-speed wind above the roof creates a
(B) The rotation of the Earth, which generates a low-pressure area, and the higher pressure inside
force that pushes the cooler sea air inland. the house pushes the roof up.
(C) The land heats up faster than the sea, creating Fast-moving wind over the roof reduces the air
a low-pressure area over the land. pressure above it. The air pressure inside the
(D) The sea heats up much faster than the land, house remains at the normal, higher atmospheric
creating a low-pressure area over the sea. pressure. This pressure difference creates a
significant upward force on the roof, which can be


Ans strong enough to lift it off.
(C) The land heats up faster than the sea, creating
a low-pressure area over the land. 16. What is a thunderstorm?
During the day, the land absorbs heat and warms (A) Any type of storm that occurs during the hot
up more quickly than the sea. The air above the summer months.
land gets hot and rises, creating a region of lower (B) A large storm that primarily forms over the
pressure. The cooler, denser air over the sea (a ocean.
high-pressure area) then flows in to replace it, (C) A storm with very strong winds but no
creating a sea breeze. associated rain.
(D) A storm accompanied by lightning and
14. When you blow air at high speed between two thunder.
balloons hanging close together, they move


Ans
towards each other. Why?
(A) Your breath creates a pushing force on the (D) A storm accompanied by lightning and
outer sides of both of the balloons. thunder.
(B) The balloons become electrically charged due A thunderstorm is a specific type of storm
to the airflow and then attract each other. characterized by the presence of electrical activity.
(C) The high-speed air between the balloons It is formed by the rapid upward movement of
creates a region of low pressure. warm, moist air, which leads to the development
(D) The moving air has a sticky quality that of thunderclouds that produce lightning and
actively pulls the balloons together. thunder.

Ans 17. How is lightning formed within a cloud?

(C) The high-speed air between the balloons (A) Through the friction between rising and
creates a region of low pressure. falling water droplets and ice particles, which
This activity demonstrates Bernoulli’s principle. builds up static electric charges.
The fast-moving air stream between the balloons (B) By a direct chemical reaction that occurs
has a lower pressure than the still air on the outer between liquid water droplets and solid ice
sides. The higher pressure on the outside then particles.
pushes the balloons inwards towards the low- (C) From the powerful sound of thunder, which
pressure region. causes visible sparks to form within the cloud.
(D) As a result of intense sunlight reflecting off
15. Why can high-speed winds during a storm blow the many ice crystals present in the cloud.
the roof off a house?


Ans
(A) The high-speed wind above the roof creates
a low-pressure area, and the higher pressure (A) By the friction between rising and falling
inside the house pushes the roof up. water droplets and ice particles, which builds up
(B) The wind is extremely heavy, and the weight static electric charges.
of the moving air crushes the roof downwards. Strong air currents inside a tall storm cloud cause
(C) A perfect vacuum is created by the fast- water droplets and ice crystals to collide and
moving wind, which powerfully sucks the roof rub against each other. This friction separates
upwards. charges, typically leaving the top of the cloud
page 160 Class 8th Science Foundation

positive and the bottom negative. Lightning is the most violent, the air in the eye itself is subsiding,
massive electrical discharge that neutralizes this leading to light winds and often clear skies.
charge separation.
21. What causes the winds in a cyclone to spin?
18. What is thunder? (A) The rotation of the Earth.
(A) The echoing sound that is produced by the (B) The powerful gravitational pull of the moon
original flash of the lightning. on the atmosphere.
(B) The distinct noise created when heavy (C) The specific heating effect created by the sun
raindrops strike the surface of the ground. on the clouds.
(C) The sound produced by the rapid heating and (D) The unique topography and shape of the
expansion of air around a lightning bolt. ocean floor below.
(D) The audible result of two large storm clouds


Ans
colliding with one another.
(A) The rotation of the Earth.


Ans As air rushes from high pressure to the low-
(C) The sound produced by the rapid heating and pressure center of the storm, the rotation of the
expansion of air around a lightning bolt. Earth deflects it (an effect called the Coriolis
A lightning strike is incredibly hot, heating the air effect). This deflection causes the inward-flowing
in its path to temperatures hotter than the sun’s winds to begin rotating, forming the characteristic
surface. This air expands explosively, creating a spiral structure of a cyclone.
powerful shockwave that we hear as the sound of
thunder. 22. In the shown figure, water flows out from four
holes made at the same height near the bottom of
19. What is a cyclone? a bottle. What does this observation demonstrate?
(A) A scientific device that is specifically designed
and used to measure wind speed.
(B) An alternative scientific name that is
commonly used for a land breeze.
(C) A small and localized storm that is only
capable of producing rain.
(D) A large, spinning system of clouds, winds,
and rain that forms over warm ocean waters.


Ans
(D) A large, spinning system of clouds, winds,
and rain that forms over warm ocean waters.
A cyclone is a large-scale weather system
characterized by a low-pressure center and strong Liquid exerts pressure on the wall of the container
winds spiraling inwards. It forms over warm
tropical oceans and is fueled by the heat released (A) Liquids exert pressure only at the bottom of
when moist air rises and condenses. a container.
(B) The pressure of a liquid decreases with depth.
20. What is the calm, low-pressure area at the center (C) Liquids exert pressure on the sides of a
of a cyclone called? container.
(A) The wall (D) Water can only flow downwards.
(B) The spiral
(C) The eye

Ans
(D) The core (C) Liquids exert pressure on the sides of a


Ans container.
The fact that water jets out from the holes on the
(C) The eye sides proves that the liquid is exerting an outward
The eye is the distinct, often clear and calm region force, or pressure, on the walls of the container.
at the center of a strong tropical cyclone. While It also shows the pressure is equal at the same
the winds in the surrounding eyewall are the depth.
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

23. Which of the following is NOT a destructive effect is 50 Pascals (Pa). The SI unit of force is the
of a cyclone? Newton (N).
(A) High-speed winds damaging buildings and
trees. 26. What is the main difference between a storm and
(B) A sudden drop in air temperature causing a a thunderstorm?
blizzard. (A) A thunderstorm is a storm that also includes
(C) Storm surge flooding coastal areas. lightning and thunder.
(D) Heavy rainfall causing floods. (B) A storm has wind, while a thunderstorm has
rain.


Ans (C) There is no difference; the terms are
(B) A sudden drop in air temperature causing a interchangeable.
blizzard. (D) A storm only happens on land, and a
Cyclones are warm-core storms that thrive over thunderstorm only happens over water.
warm waters. They bring torrential rain and warm,

Ans
humid conditions. A blizzard is a winter storm
characterized by snow and freezing temperatures, (A) A thunderstorm is a storm that also includes
which is the opposite of the conditions in a lightning and thunder.
tropical cyclone. A storm is a general term for disturbed
weather with strong winds and precipitation. A
24. A device installed on top of a building with a thunderstorm is a specific type of storm that is
metallic rod connected to the ground is called a characterized by the presence of electrical activity,
lightning conductor. What is its purpose? namely lightning and its resulting sound, thunder.
(A) To provide a safe path for the electric charge
of a lightning strike to travel to the ground. 27. You have two identical containers, A and B,
(B) To deliberately attract lightning strikes to the filled with water to the same height. Container
building for the purposes of scientific study. A is narrow, and container B is wide. How does
(C) To effectively scare away potential storm the pressure at the bottom of A compare to the
clouds from the area around the building. pressure at the bottom of B?
(D) To capture and generate usable electricity (A) The pressure in A and B is the same.
from the energy of lightning strikes. (B) The pressure in B is greater than in A.
(C) The pressure in A is greater than in B.


Ans (D) The pressure depends on the temperature of
(A) To provide a safe path for the electric charge the water.
of a lightning strike to travel to the ground.

Ans
A lightning conductor is a safety device. It is
designed to be the highest point on a building, (A) The pressure in A and B is the same.
providing a preferential target for a lightning Liquid pressure at a certain depth depends only
strike. The conductive metal rod then safely on the height of the liquid column and its density,
channels the massive electrical current directly not on the width or shape of the container. Since
into the Earth, preventing it from passing through the water height is the same in both containers,
and damaging the building. the pressure at the bottom of A and B is equal.

25. A force of 200 N is applied on an area of 4 m2. The 28. A sharp needle is to high pressure as a snowshoe
pressure exerted is ______ Pa, and the SI unit is to ______.
of force is the ______. (A) low temperature
(A) 800, Pascal (B) low pressure
(B) 204, Kilogram (C) high friction
(C) 196, Meter (D) high force
(D) 50, Newton

Ans


Ans (B) low pressure
(D) 50, Newton The analogy relates an object’s design to its
Pressure is calculated as Force divided by Area. effect on pressure. A sharp needle has a tiny area,
So, Pressure = 200 N / 4 m² = 50 N/m², which concentrating force to create high pressure. A
snowshoe has a large area to distribute a person’s
page 162 Class 8th Science Foundation

weight (force), creating low pressure so they don’t (D) The low pressure above the roof and high
sink into the snow. pressure inside create a strong upward force.
This case applies the principle that high-speed
29. Which Indian government agency is responsible winds are associated with low pressure. The fast
for monitoring and issuing warnings for cyclones wind creates low pressure on top of the roof. The
and thunderstorms? still, high-pressure air trapped inside the hut
(A) Defence Research and Development then pushes upwards with a great force, which
Organisation (DRDO) can easily lift a weak roof. In figure, as more
(B) National Disaster Management Authority water is added to the pipe, the balloon at the
(NDMA) bottom bulges out more. This demonstrates that
(C) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) ______.
(D) India Meteorological Department (IMD)


Ans
(D) India Meteorological Department (IMD)
It is important to stay updated on warnings
issued by the India Meteorological Department
(IMD). The IMD is the principal government
agency in all matters relating to meteorology and
allied subjects, including weather forecasting and
disaster warnings.

30. Which of the following is NOT a safe practice

during a thunderstorm?
(A) Taking shelter under a tall, isolated tree.
(B) Staying away from windows and metallic
Higher heights of water column produce bigger bulge of
objects indoors. the balloon
(C) Finding a low-lying open area and crouching
down. (A) Liquid pressure increases with the height of
(D) Staying inside a bus or a car. the column


Ans (B) The balloon’s rubber is stretching
(C) The weight of the water is increasing
(A) Taking shelter under a tall, isolated tree. (D) The pipe is getting wider
Tall, isolated objects like trees are more likely to
be struck by lightning. Taking shelter under one

Ans
is extremely dangerous as the lightning can travel (A) Liquid pressure increases with the height of
down the tree and jump to a person standing the column
nearby. It is one of the most common causes of The extent of the bulge in the balloon is a direct
lightning-related fatalities. indicator of the pressure being exerted on it. As
the height of the water column increases, the bulge
31. During a cyclone, the wind speed over a weak, hut- becomes larger, visually demonstrating the direct
like roof is very high. Inside the hut, the windows relationship between liquid depth and pressure.
are closed and the air is still. This situation is
dangerous because: 32. Why does a cyclone lose its strength after it
(A) The high-speed wind will cool the roof too moves over land?
quickly, making it brittle. (A) Because the overall air pressure on land is
(B) The rain will make the roof too heavy, causing always significantly higher than over the ocean.
it to collapse. (B) Because its source of warm, moist air from
(C) The wind will create a magnetic field that the ocean is cut off.
pulls the roof off. (C) Because the large number of buildings on land
(D) The low pressure above the roof and high effectively act as a barrier to block the wind.
pressure inside create a strong upward force. (D) Because the increased friction with the rough


Ans surface of the land is the main factor that
slows it down.
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Ans This statement is the opposite of the fundamental

(B) Because its source of warm, moist air from principle of air movement. Fluids, including air,
the ocean is cut off. always move from a region of higher pressure to a
A cyclone is a heat engine fueled by the latent region of lower pressure. This pressure difference
heat released when warm, moist air from the is what drives wind.
ocean rises and condenses. Once the cyclone
36. In the diagram of a dam , the arrows indicating
moves over land, it is deprived of this fuel source.
This, along with increased friction, causes it to horizontal pressure are shown to be larger near
gradually weaken and dissipate. the bottom. This represents that ______.

33. If a force of 500 N is applied by an object on

a surface of area 10 m2, what is the pressure
exerted?
(A) 50 Pa
(B) 510 Pa
(C) 490 Pa
(D) 5000 Pa


Ans
(A) 50 Pa
Pressure is calculated using the formula: Pressure
= Force / Area. In this case, Pressure = 500 N / (A) Water flows faster at the bottom
10 m². This simplifies to 50 N/m², which is equal (B) The water pressure is greatest at the bottom
to 50 Pascals (Pa). (C) The dam is weaker at the top
(D) There is more water at the bottom
34. Which of the following conditions is essential for


Ans
the formation of a thunderstorm?
(A) A clear, cloudless sky during the day. (B) The water pressure is greatest at the bottom
(B) A high-pressure area with sinking air. The diagram visually represents the principle that
(C) Extremely cold and dry air near the surface. liquid pressure increases with depth. The longer,
(D) Warm, moist air rising into the atmosphere. thicker arrows at the bottom signify a greater
force per unit area (pressure) being exerted on


Ans the dam wall compared to the smaller arrows near
(D) Warm, moist air rising into the atmosphere. the surface
Thunderstorms are fueled by the energy released
when water vapor condenses. This process starts 37. A person finds it easier to walk on loose sand
with a parcel of warm, humid air near the ground while wearing flat, wide sandals than while
being forced to rise. As it rises, it cools, and the wearing sharp, high-heeled shoes. This is because
moisture condenses, forming the large clouds the sandals:
characteristic of a thunderstorm. (A) are significantly lighter than the high-heeled
shoes.
35. Which of these statements about pressure in (B) have much more friction with the sand
fluids is incorrect? particles.
(A) Atmospheric pressure is the pressure exerted (C) increase the area of contact, reducing the
by the air around us. pressure on the sand.
(B) The pressure exerted by a liquid increases (D) effectively decrease the person’s total body
with its depth. weight.
(C) Air moves from a low-pressure area to a high-


Ans
pressure area.
(D) Liquids exert pressure on the bottom and (C) increase the area of contact, reducing the
sides of their container. pressure on the sand.
To avoid sinking in loose sand, the pressure


Ans exerted must be low. The person’s weight (the
(C) Air moves from a low-pressure area to a high- force) is constant. The wide sandals have a large
pressure area. surface area, which distributes this force and
page 164 Class 8th Science Foundation

results in low pressure. The sharp heels have a 41. During a land breeze at night, the air is cooler over
tiny area, creating very high pressure that causes the ______, creating a region of ______
them to sink. pressure.
(A) land, high
38. What two phenomena are caused by the uneven (B) land, low
heating of the Earth by the sun, leading to (C) sea, high
pressure differences? (D) sea, low
(A) Lightning and thunder
(B) Tides and eclipses

Ans
(C) Land breezes and sea breezes (A) land, high
(D) Earthquakes and volcanoes At night, the land cools down faster than the sea.


Ans This makes the air over the land cooler and denser,
creating a region of relatively high pressure. The
(C) Land breezes and sea breezes warmer air over the sea rises, creating a low-
The land and sea breezes are a direct result of pressure area, so the wind blows from the land
differential heating. During the day, land heats to the sea.
faster, creating low pressure and a sea breeze. At
night, the sea cools slower, creating low pressure 42. Which statement accurately describes the
over the water and a land breeze. This is all driven relationship between wind speed and air pressure?
by uneven solar heating. (A) High-speed winds are accompanied by
reduced air pressure.
39. How does the air in the eye of a cyclone differ
(B) High-speed winds are accompanied by high
from the air in the surrounding eyewall?
air pressure.
(A) The air in the eye is cold and has high
(C) Wind speed has no effect on air pressure.
pressure.
(B) The air in the eye is moving at very high (D) Low-speed winds are accompanied by low air
speeds. pressure.
(C) The air in the eye has heavy rainfall.

Ans
(D) The air in the eye is calm with light winds.
(A) High-speed winds are accompanied by reduced


Ans air pressure.
(D) The air in the eye is calm with light winds. This is a key principle demonstrated by Activity
The eye is a unique feature of a strong cyclone. 6.6 (blowing between balloons). As the speed of
While the eyewall has the most intense winds and a fluid (like air) increases, its internal pressure
rain, the eye is a region of calm. Air is sinking decreases. This principle explains why roofs can
in the eye, which suppresses cloud formation and be lifted off by strong winds.
results in light winds and clear conditions.
43. Which of the following is NOT a good reason for
40. In the formation of lightning, what types of why it is easier to cut with a sharp knife?
charges typically accumulate in the upper and (A) The force is concentrated over a small area.
lower parts of a thundercloud? (B) The sharp knife weighs more than a blunt
(A) Upper part is negative, lower part is positive. knife.
(B) Both parts become electrically positive. (C) The pressure exerted by the sharp edge is
(C) Both parts remain electrically neutral. very high.
(D) Upper part is positive, lower part is negative. (D) A smaller area for the same force results in


Ans greater pressure.
(D) Upper part is positive, lower part is negative.

Ans
The process of charge separation in a thundercloud. (B) The sharp knife weighs more than a blunt
Due to collisions, the lighter, positively charged knife.
ice particles are carried to the upper part of the The effectiveness of a knife depends on the
cloud by updrafts, while the heavier, negatively pressure it can exert, which is determined by
charged water droplets accumulate in the lower the applied force and the sharpness (area) of the
part. edge. The weight of the knife itself is negligible
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

compared to the force applied by the user and 46. An empty plastic bottle is sealed at sea level
does not explain its cutting ability. and then taken up a high mountain. The bottle
appears to bulge outwards. Why?
44. The surge of ocean water pushed towards the (A) The plastic material of the bottle softened
shore by strong cyclone winds is called a: during the ascent.
(A) Tsunami (B) The atmospheric pressure outside the bottle
(B) High tide is lower at a high altitude.
(C) Flash flood (C) The force of gravity on the mountain is
(D) Storm surge significantly weaker.


Ans (D) The air trapped inside the bottle expanded
due to the increase in heat.
(D) Storm surge
A storm surge is a specific phenomenon associated

Ans
with cyclones. It is an abnormal rise in sea level (B) The atmospheric pressure outside the bottle
generated by the storm’s powerful winds and is lower at a high altitude.
low pressure, which can cause extreme coastal At sea level, the air pressure inside and outside the
flooding and is often the most destructive aspect bottle are equal. On a mountain, the atmospheric
of a cyclone. pressure is lower because there is less air above.
The higher-pressure air trapped inside the bottle
then pushes outwards, causing the bottle to bulge.

47. What causes the continuous circulation of wind in

45. In figure, when a person blows between two
hanging balloons, the balloons move closer. This the atmosphere?
demonstrates that ______. (A) The gravitational pull of the moon on the air.
(B) The constant uneven heating of the Earth’s
surface by the sun.
(C) The rotation of the galaxy in which we are
located.
(D) The Earth’s magnetic field pulling on the air
particles.


Ans
(B) The constant uneven heating of the Earth’s
surface by the sun.
The sun heats different parts of the Earth
(equator vs. poles, land vs. sea) unevenly. This
creates temperature differences, which in turn
Blowing between two balloons create pressure differences. These pressure
differences drive the large-scale circulation of air
(A) Blowing creates a magnetic field in the atmosphere, creating global wind patterns.
(B) The balloons are electrically charged
(C) The force of gravity between the balloons 48. In India, localized thunderstorms that occur
increases before the monsoon and help in the ripening of
(D) High-speed winds are accompanied by mangoes in Kerala and Karnataka are known as:
reduced air pressure (A) Kalboishakhi


Ans (B) Bordoisila
(C) Western Disturbances
(D) High-speed winds are accompanied by (D) Mango showers
reduced air pressure
The fast-moving stream of air between the

Ans
balloons creates a zone of lower pressure. The (D) Mango showers
relatively higher pressure of the still air on the The “A step further” box on thunderstorms gives
outer sides of the balloons then pushes them the local names for these pre-monsoon showers. It
inward towards each other. specifically mentions that in Kerala, Karnataka,
page 166 Class 8th Science Foundation

and Tamil Nadu, they are called “mango showers” (D) depth
because they support the ripening of mangoes. The pressure at any point within a liquid is due
to the weight of the liquid column above that
49. If you fill a glass tube with water and cover the point. Therefore, the deeper you go, the taller the
top with a piece of cardboard, then invert it, the column of liquid above you, and the greater the
cardboard and water stay in place. What force is pressure.
holding them up?
(A) The upward force of atmospheric pressure on 52. What is the main difference in the source of
the cardboard. energy for a thunderstorm and a cyclone?
(B) The force of friction between the cardboard (A) A thunderstorm is powered by lightning,
and the glass. while a cyclone is powered by the Earth’s
(C) The electrostatic force generated from your rotation.
hand. (B) There is no significant difference in their
(D) A vacuum that is created inside the top of the primary energy source.
glass. (C) A thunderstorm gets its energy from the sun


Ans heating the land, while a cyclone gets its
energy from warm ocean water.
(A) The upward force of atmospheric pressure on
(D) A thunderstorm is powered by wind, while a
the cardboard.
cyclone is powered by rain.
This classic experiment demonstrates that
atmospheric pressure acts in all directions,

Ans
including upwards. The upward force exerted (C) A thunderstorm gets its energy from the sun
by the air pressure on the outer surface of the heating the land, while a cyclone gets its energy
cardboard is greater than the downward force from warm ocean water.
(weight) of the water inside the glass, thus holding While both involve rising warm, moist air, their
it in place. origins differ. Thunderstorms often form over land
50. What is the correct sequence in the formation of that is intensely heated by the sun. Cyclones, on
a simple storm? the other hand, are much larger systems that
(1) Warm air rises, can only form over vast stretches of warm ocean
(2) Clouds are formed, water, which provides the immense amount of
(3) Land gets heated, moisture and heat needed to sustain them.
(4) Cooler air rushes in. 53. Which of the following is NOT an example of
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 pressure being useful by being increased?
(B) 3, 1, 4, 2 (A) Broad straps on a backpack.
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) A pointed tip on a nail.
(D) 3, 2, 1, 4 (C) A sharp needle for sewing.


Ans (D) The sharp edge of an axe.
(B) 3, 1, 4, 2

Ans
The process starts with a source of heating, so the
land gets heated (3). This causes the air above it (A) Broad straps on a backpack.
to warm up and rise, creating a low-pressure area A needle, nail, and axe are all designed with a
(1). Cooler, denser air from the surroundings then small area to increase pressure and make it easier
rushes in to fill this space (4). As the warm, moist to pierce or cut. Broad backpack straps are
air continues to rise, it cools, and the moisture designed with a large area to decrease pressure
condenses to form clouds (2). and make carrying the load more comfortable.

51. Pressure exerted by a liquid increases as the 54. Lightning is a large discharge of ______
______ increases. electricity, and the sound it produces is called
(A) width of the container ______.
(B) temperature (A) current, a storm
(C) volume (B) static, thunder
(D) depth (C) magnetic, a breeze
(D) liquid, a cyclone


Ans
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Ans

Ans
(B) static, thunder (c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
The rubbing of particles in clouds builds up static Pressure is defined as force per unit area. The SI
electricity. Lightning is the sudden discharge of unit for pressure is the Pascal. Liquid pressure
this built-up charge. The rapid heating of air by increases with depth, affecting structures like
this discharge creates a shockwave that we hear dams. Atmospheric pressure is the pressure
as thunder. exerted by the air around us.

55. A person on the ground floor of a building gets 57. A sea breeze is to daytime as a land breeze is to
water from an overhead tank with greater force ______.
than a person on the top floor. This is because: (A) nighttime
(A) The gravity experienced on the ground floor (B) winter
is significantly stronger. (C) a cyclone
(B) The water delivered to the ground floor is (D) high tide
generally much colder.


Ans
(C) The pipes that lead to the ground floor are
wider in diameter. (A) nighttime
(D) The height of the water column above the The analogy relates a type of wind to the time of
ground floor tap is greater. day it occurs. Sea breezes are caused by the land
heating up faster during the day. Land breezes are


Ans caused by the land cooling down faster at night,
(D) The height of the water column above the reversing the pressure difference.
ground floor tap is greater.
Water pressure increases with depth (or height of 58. If the Earth did not rotate, how would it affect
the water column). The tap on the ground floor the formation of cyclones?
has a greater vertical distance from the water level (A) Cyclones would be much stronger and more
in the tank compared to the tap on the top floor. intense.
This greater height results in higher pressure and (B) Cyclones would spin in the opposite direction.
a stronger flow of water. (C) Cyclones would not form their characteristic
spinning structure.
56. Match the fundamental concepts of pressure with (D) It would have no noticeable effect on cyclones.
their correct definitions.


Ans
Column A Column B (C) Cyclones would not form their characteristic
1 Pressure A Increases with the depth spinning structure.
of the liquid, which is The Earth’s rotation causes the moving air to
why dam bases are built spin. This rotational effect (the Coriolis effect)
broader. is essential for organizing the inwardly rushing
winds into the spiral pattern of a cyclone.
2 Pascal (Pa) B The force exerted per Without rotation, air would flow directly into the
unit area, calculated as low-pressure center, and a large, stable rotating
Force divided by Area. storm would not develop.
3 Liquid C The pressure exerted
Pressure by the envelope of air 59. Which statement about the eye of a cyclone is
surrounding the Earth. correct?
(A) It is a calm area with light winds at the center
4 Atmospheric D The SI unit of pressure, of the storm.
Pressure which is equivalent to one (B) It is an area of very high pressure.
newton per square meter (C) It is the region with the strongest winds and
Options heaviest rain.
(a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (D) It is only visible from the ground level.
(b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A


Ans
(c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (A) It is a calm area with light winds at the center
of the storm.
page 168 Class 8th Science Foundation

The eye as the region of lowest pressure and 4 Cyclone D A wind that blows
calm conditions at the center of a well-developed from the sea to the
cyclone. The most violent weather is found in the land during the day
eyewall, which surrounds the eye. due to differential
60. Which of the following is NOT related to the heating.
pressure exerted by air? Options
(A) The roof of a house being lifted off during a (a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
storm. (b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
(B) The pressure at the bottom of a dam being (c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
greater than at the top. (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
(C) A rubber sucker sticking to a wall.

Ans
(D) The formation of winds.
(c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B


Ans
Wind is the movement of air from high to low-
(B) The pressure at the bottom of a dam being pressure areas. A sea breeze occurs during the
greater than at the top. day as land heats up faster than the sea. A
The pressure difference in a dam is caused by thunderstorm is a storm that includes lightning
the depth of the liquid (water), not by air. The and thunder. A cyclone is a large rotating storm
other three phenomena are all directly related to formed over warm oceans.
atmospheric pressure or pressure differences in
the air. 63. A hot air balloon rises because:
(A) The hot air inside the balloon is less dense
61. The lines on a weather map that connect points of than the cooler air outside.
equal atmospheric pressure are called: (B) The wind pushes the balloon upwards from
(A) Isobars underneath.
(B) Isotherms (C) The balloon material itself is lighter than air.
(C) Contours (D) The fire inside the balloon provides a direct
(D) Latitudes upward push.


Ans

Ans
(A) Isobars (A) The hot air inside the balloon is less dense
This is a standard meteorological term. The than the cooler air outside.
diagram of a cyclone (Figure) shows concentric This relates to the principle that warm air rises.
lines with pressure values (e.g., 1008 mb, 998 Heating the air inside the balloon causes it to
mb). These lines, which connect points of equal expand and become less dense (lighter) than the
pressure, are called isobars. surrounding cooler air. The cooler, denser air
exerts a buoyant force that pushes the less dense
62. Match the weather phenomenon with its correct
balloon upwards.
description.
64. What is the primary cause of the charge
Column A Column B
separation (positive at top, negative at bottom)
1 Wind A A storm that is in a thundercloud?
accompanied by both (A) The rotation of the Earth organizing the
lightning and thunder. charges.
2 Sea Breeze B A large, spinning (B) The friction and collisions between ice
storm system with particles and water droplets in strong updrafts
a calm central eye and downdrafts.
that forms over warm (C) Chemical reactions that are caused by intense
ocean waters. sunlight.
(D) The magnetic field of the Earth separating
3 Thunderstorm C The movement of air
the charges.
from a region of high
pressure to a region of

Ans
low pressure.
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

(B) The friction and collisions between ice 67. A knife with a ______ edge is easier to use
particles and water droplets in strong updrafts because it creates ______ pressure for the
and downdrafts. same amount of force.
The violent air currents inside a cumulonimbus (A) sharp, high
cloud cause ice crystals and water droplets to rub (B) sharp, low
against each other. This friction strips electrons, (C) broad, low
leading to a separation of static charges within (D) blunt, high
the cloud.


Ans
65. Why does a small, sharp pin exert more pressure (A) sharp, high
than your thumb when you push on a board with A sharp edge has a very small surface area.
the same force? According to the formula P = F/A, a small area (A)
(A) The pin is made of metal, which is harder results in a very high pressure (P) for a given force
than skin. (F), which is what allows the knife to cut easily.
(B) The force is concentrated on the very small
area of the pin’s tip. 68. Which of the following statements about
(C) Your thumb is soft and absorbs most of the atmospheric pressure is false?
applied force. (A) The pressure inside our bodies balances the
(D) The pin is significantly heavier than your atmospheric pressure outside.
thumb. (B) It acts on our bodies from all directions.
(C) It increases as you go up to a higher altitude.


Ans (D) It is exerted by the weight of the air in the
(B) The force is concentrated on the very small atmosphere.
area of the pin’s tip.


Ans
Pressure is force divided by area. Even with a
small force from your finger, the extremely tiny (C) It increases as you go up to a higher altitude.
area of the pin’s point results in a tremendously As you go higher in altitude, the column of air
high pressure, which is enough to push it into the above you becomes shorter, so there is less air
board. Your thumb applies the same force over a weighing down on you. Consequently, atmospheric
much larger area, resulting in low pressure. pressure decreases with increasing altitude.

66. How does a cyclone differ from a regular 69. The movement of air caused by differences in air
thunderstorm? pressure is called:
(A) A cyclone is a much larger, more organized, (A) Wind
and longer-lasting rotating system that forms (B) Pressure
over oceans. (C) A storm
(B) A thunderstorm is generally much more (D) A cyclone
destructive than a cyclone.

Ans
(C) A cyclone involves lightning, but a (A) Wind
thunderstorm does not. Wind is specifically defined as the flow of gases on
(D) A cyclone has wind and rain, while a a large scale. On Earth, wind consists of the bulk
thunderstorm only has thunder. movement of air, which is driven by differences in
atmospheric pressure.


Ans
(A) A cyclone is a much larger, more organized, 70. When you suck liquid through a straw, what force
and longer-lasting rotating system that forms actually pushes the liquid up the straw?
over oceans. (A) The force of atmospheric pressure pushing
While both are storms, they differ in scale, down on the liquid in the glass.
structure, and formation. Cyclones are vast, (B) The force of gravity acting on the liquid inside
organized rotating storms that form over warm the straw.
oceans and can last for days. Thunderstorms are (C) The direct pulling force generated by the
typically smaller, more localized, and shorter- muscles in your mouth.
lived, and can form over land. (D) The electrostatic force between the straw and
the liquid.
page 170 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (c) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

(A) The force of atmospheric pressure pushing (d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
down on the liquid in the glass.

Ans
When you suck on the straw, you reduce the
air pressure inside it. The higher atmospheric (a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
pressure on the surface of the liquid in the glass High-speed winds create low pressure, which can
then pushes the liquid up into the low-pressure lift roofs. Lightning is an electrical discharge from
area inside the straw and into your mouth. charge separation in clouds. Thunder is the sound
created by the rapid heating of air from lightning.
71. What is the primary source of energy that drives The eye is the calm, low-pressure center of a
the formation of storms and cyclones? cyclone.
(A) The Sun
(B) The Earth’s rotation 73. A person standing is exerting pressure on the
(C) The Earth’s magnetic field ground. If the person lies down, how does the
(D) The Moon’s gravity pressure they exert on the ground change?
(A) It decreases.


Ans (B) It increases.
(A) The Sun (C) It stays the same.
The sun’s energy heats the Earth’s surface (D) It becomes zero.
unevenly. This heating of land, water, and air

Ans
creates the temperature and pressure differences
that are the fundamental driving forces behind (A) It decreases.
all weather phenomena, including winds, storms, The person’s weight (the force) remains the same.
and cyclones. When standing, this force is concentrated on the
small area of their feet. When lying down, the
72. Match the atmospheric event with its underlying same force is distributed over the much larger
scientific cause. area of their entire body, resulting in a significant
decrease in pressure.
Column A Column B
1 High-speed winds A The calm, low- 74. Pressure is to Pascal as force is to ______.
lifting roofs pressure area at the (A) Meter
center of a large, (B) Newton
rotating storm. (C) Kilogram
(D) Area
2 Lightning B Caused by reduced
air pressure above

Ans
the roof compared to (B) Newton
the higher pressure The analogy relates a physical quantity to its SI
inside the house. unit. The SI unit of pressure is the Pascal (Pa).
3 Thunder C The loud sound The SI unit of force is the Newton (N).
produced when air 75. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
is rapidly heated a cyclone?
and expands due to (A) It forms over warm ocean waters.
a lightning strike. (B) It has a calm, low-pressure eye at its center.
4 Eye of a cyclone D A sudden discharge (C) It has very high pressure at its center.
of static electricity (D) It involves high-speed winds rotating around
built up in clouds the center.
from the rubbing

Ans
of ice and water
particles. (C) It has very high pressure at its center.
A cyclone is fundamentally a low-pressure system.
Options
The extremely low pressure at its center is what
(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
drives the high-speed winds to rush inwards. The
(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

eye is the region of the lowest pressure in the dramatically, causing a sharp drop in the internal
entire storm. pressure. The much higher atmospheric pressure
on the outside then easily crumples the can.
76. When an airplane is flying, the air moves faster
over the curved top surface of the wing than under 79. What is the key difference between how a regular
the flat bottom surface. This creates: storm forms and how a cyclone forms?
(A) Equal pressure above and below the wing. (A) Storms involve rain, while cyclones involve
(B) Lower pressure above the wing, creating lift. wind.
(C) Higher pressure above the wing, pushing it (B) Storms are driven by simple convection,
down. while cyclones require the added effect of the
(D) A strong magnetic field around the wing. Earth’s rotation to organize into a spinning
system.


Ans
(C) Storms form over land, while cyclones form
(B) Lower pressure above the wing, creating lift. over cold water.
This is a direct application of the principle (D) Storms are small, while cyclones are large.
that high-speed fluids have lower pressure. The
faster air above the wing creates lower pressure

Ans
compared to the slower air below. The higher (B) Storms are driven by simple convection, while
pressure underneath pushes the wing upwards, cyclones require the added effect of the Earth’s
generating the aerodynamic force called lift. rotation to organize into a spinning system.
While both begin with rising warm air (convection),
77. What is the phenomenon called when strong a key ingredient for a cyclone is the Coriolis effect
winds during a cyclone push a wall of ocean water from the Earth’s rotation. This effect imparts the
onto the coast? large-scale spin that organizes the storm into a
(A) A storm surge vast, rotating cyclone, a feature absent in smaller,
(B) A high tide localized thunderstorms.
(C) A tsunami
(D) A storm tide 80. If you have a container of water with holes at
three different depths (top, middle, bottom),


Ans
from which hole will the water spurt out with the
(A) A storm surge greatest force?
The storm surge is the abnormal rise of water (A) The bottom hole.
generated by a storm, over and above the predicted (B) The top hole.
astronomical tides, and is a major cause of coastal (C) The middle hole.
flooding during a cyclone. (D) All holes will have the same force.
78. You place an empty, open can in a fire for a short

Ans
time, then quickly seal it and plunge it into cold (A) The bottom hole.
water. The can crushes. This happens because: The pressure exerted by a liquid increases with
(A) The fire weakened the metal of the can. depth. The bottom hole is at the greatest depth,
(B) The cold water froze the can, making it so the pressure there is the highest. This higher
brittle. pressure will push the water out with the greatest
(C) A chemical reaction inside the can created a force and speed.
vacuum.
(D) The hot air inside cooled rapidly, creating 81. Warm air is ______ dense than cool air and
a very low pressure inside the can, and therefore it ______.
atmospheric pressure crushed it. (A) less, sinks
(B) more, rises


Ans
(C) more, sinks
(D) The hot air inside cooled rapidly, creating a (D) less, rises
very low pressure inside the can, and atmospheric
pressure crushed it.

Ans
Heating the can fills it with hot, expanded air. (D) less, rises
Sealing it traps this air. When plunged into When air is heated, its particles move faster
cold water, the trapped air cools and contracts and spread apart, making it less dense. Due to
page 172 Class 8th Science Foundation

buoyancy, this less dense, lighter air will rise Broad straps reduce pressure by increasing the
through the surrounding cooler, denser air. area. A sharp knife increases pressure by reducing
This principle is fundamental to most weather the area. A dam’s wide base is built to withstand
phenomena. higher pressure at greater depths. A lightning
conductor provides a safe path for electrical
82. Why is it often windy at the seaside? discharge.
(A) Because there are no trees or buildings to
block the wind. 84. We are not aware of the atmospheric pressure
(B) Because waves in the sea generate a force that acting on us because:
pushes the air. (A) It is balanced by the pressure inside our
(C) Because of the constant temperature bodies.
difference between the land and the sea. (B) Our skin is too thick to feel it.
(D) Because the salt in the ocean water chemically (C) It is a very weak force.
creates wind. (D) It only acts when we are moving.


Ans

Ans
(C) Because of the constant temperature difference (A) It is balanced by the pressure inside our
between the land and the sea. bodies.
The coast is a boundary where two surfaces with The air outside pushes on us with a significant
different heating properties meet. This leads force, but the fluids and air inside our bodies push
to a consistent daily cycle of temperature and outward with an equal force. Because these forces
pressure differences, creating the reliable on-shore are balanced, there is no net force, and we do not
sea breeze during the day and the off-shore land feel the pressure.
breeze at night.
85. Which of the following is NOT an effect of a
83. Match the practical application or safety measure cyclone moving inland?
with the scientific principle it demonstrates. (A) Heavy rains leading to flooding.
(B) The cyclone gaining strength from the land.
Column A Column B (C) High-speed winds causing damage to
1 School bags A Is made broad to withstand structures.
with broad the high pressure of water (D) Storm surge causing coastal inundation.
straps at greater depths.

Ans
2 A sharp B Increases the pressure for (B) The cyclone gaining strength from the land.
knife edge a given force, making it A cyclone’s energy source is warm ocean water.
easier to cut things. Once it moves over land, this fuel is cut off, and
3 A wide C A metallic rod that increased friction with the ground causes it to
dam base protects buildings by weaken and dissipate, not gain strength.
providing an easy path
86. What is the main difference between pressure and
for electric charges to the
force?
ground.
(A) Force is measured in Pascals, while pressure is
4 A lightning D Increases the area over measured in Newtons.
conductor which the bag’s weight (B) Force is the total push or pull, while pressure
acts, thereby reducing the is that force distributed over an area.
pressure on the shoulders. (C) Pressure is a push, while force is a pull.
Options (D) There is no difference.
(a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B

Ans
(b) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
(B) Force is the total push or pull, while pressure
(c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
is that force distributed over an area.
(d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
Force is the overall interaction (e.g., the 500 N


Ans weight of a person). Pressure describes how that
(b) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C force is concentrated (e.g., high pressure under
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

sharp heels, low pressure under flat feet). Pressure (C) Newton’s Law of Gravity
includes the concept of area, while force does not. (D) Bernoulli’s Principle

87. What is the direct cause of a land breeze at night?

Ans

(A) The land cools faster than the sea, creating a (D) Bernoulli’s Principle
high-pressure zone over the land. While not explicitly named in the chapter, the
(B) The sea becomes much colder than the land principle that the pressure of a moving fluid
at night. decreases as its speed increases is known as
(C) The moon pulls the air from the land towards Bernoulli’s principle. This is the scientific concept
the sea. behind the balloon and roof-lifting examples.
(D) The land heats up faster than the sea.
91. Which of the following statements about lightning


Ans is incorrect?
(A) The land cools faster than the sea, creating a (A) It is a safe phenomenon with no risk to life or
high-pressure zone over the land. property.
At night, the land loses heat more quickly than (B) It causes the sound we hear as thunder.
the water. The air over the land becomes cooler (C) It can occur between clouds or between a
and denser, forming a high-pressure area. The air cloud and the ground.
over the warmer sea is a low-pressure area, so the (D) It is a massive discharge of static electricity.
wind blows from the land out to the sea.


Ans
88. A practical unit of air pressure equal to 100 Pa (A) It is a safe phenomenon with no risk to life
is the: or property.
(A) Joule The “Lightning can be dangerous!” It lists the
(B) Newton risks, including igniting fires, damaging buildings,
(C) Millibar or Hectopascal and causing severe injury or death, and provides
(D) Kilogram safety precautions.


Ans 92. What is the final stage in the life of a cyclone?
(C) Millibar or Hectopascal (A) It moves over land and loses its strength.
The “A step further” section on atmospheric (B) Its wind speed increases to a maximum.
pressure states that while the SI unit is the (C) It forms a calm eye.
Pascal, a more practical unit for weather is the (D) It moves over warm ocean water.
millibar (mb) or hectopascal (hPa), both of which


Ans
are equal to 100 Pascals.
(A) It moves over land and loses its strength.
89. An astronaut in space is outside the space The life cycle of a cyclone ends when it is deprived
station. What is the atmospheric pressure on the of its energy source. When it makes landfall, it is
astronaut? cut off from the warm, moist ocean air and begins
(A) Twice the pressure as on Earth. to weaken and dissipate due to this lack of fuel
(B) Essentially zero. and increased surface friction.
(C) The same as on Earth.
(D) Extremely high. 93. How does the pressure at the bottom of a 10-meter
deep swimming pool compare to the pressure


Ans at the bottom of a 10-meter deep narrow well?
(B) Essentially zero. (Assuming both are filled with water)
Atmospheric pressure is due to the weight of the (A) The pressure in the pool is much greater.
air. In the vacuum of space, there is no air, and (B) It is impossible to compare without knowing
therefore no atmospheric pressure. the volume.
(C) The pressure is the same in both.
90. The property of high-speed winds being (D) The pressure in the well is much greater.
accompanied by reduced air pressure is a
simplified version of:

Ans
(A) Pascal’s Law (C) The pressure is the same in both.
(B) Archimedes’ Principle
page 174 Class 8th Science Foundation

Liquid pressure depends only on the depth and much slower (about 340 m/s), so it takes a
the density of the liquid. Since the depth (10 noticeable amount of time to reach you.
meters) and the liquid (water) are the same for
both, the pressure at the bottom will be identical, 97. Which of the following is NOT a good safety
regardless of the pool’s large width or the well’s measure during a cyclone warning?
narrowness. (A) Going to the beach to watch the large waves.
(B) Moving to a designated cyclone shelter.
94. Which of the following best describes the (C) Keeping an emergency kit ready.
formation of wind? (D) Staying updated on weather reports from the
(A) Airplanes and jets push the air, creating IMD.
large-scale winds.
(B) The moon’s gravity pulls the atmosphere,

Ans
creating tides in the air. (A) Going to the beach to watch the large waves.
(C) The Earth’s rotation pushes the air around. The coast is the most dangerous place to be
(D) Uneven heating of the Earth creates pressure during a cyclone due to the high winds and the
differences, causing air to move. risk of storm surge, which can create massive,


Ans destructive waves and cause rapid flooding. All
official advice is to evacuate coastal areas and
(D) Uneven heating of the Earth creates pressure
move to safe, high ground.
differences, causing air to move.
This statement accurately summarizes the entire 98. What is the relationship between the force
process. The sun’s uneven heating is the root applied, pressure, and area?
cause. This leads to temperature differences, (A) Area = Force x Pressure
which cause pressure differences. The air then (B) Pressure = Area / Force
moves from high to low pressure, creating wind. (C) Force = Pressure x Area
(D) Pressure = Force x Area
95. To reduce pressure, you can ______ the force
or ______ the area over which it acts.

Ans
(A) decrease, increase (C) Force = Pressure x Area
(B) increase, increase The defining formula is Pressure = Force / Area.
(C) decrease, decrease By rearranging this formula algebraically, you get
(D) increase, decrease Force = Pressure × Area.


Ans
(A) decrease, increase
The formula for pressure is P = F/A. To make
P smaller, you can either make the numerator 99. Why are the bases of high-rise buildings made
(F, force) smaller or make the denominator (A, with wide foundations?
area) larger. Therefore, decreasing the force or (A) To provide space for a basement.
increasing the area will reduce the pressure. (B) To reduce the pressure exerted by the building
on the ground.
96. You see lightning and then hear the thunder 5 (C) To increase the friction with the ground.
seconds later. This happens because:
(D) To make the building look more impressive.
(A) Your eyes react faster than your ears.
(B) Thunder is created 5 seconds after the

Ans
lightning flash. (B) to reduce the pressure exerted by the building
(C) Light travels much faster than sound. on the ground.
(D) Sound travels faster in humid air. A tall building has an enormous weight (force).


Ans To prevent it from sinking into the ground, this
force must be distributed over a very large area.
(C) Light travels much faster than sound.
A wide foundation increases the area of contact
Lightning and thunder are produced at the same
with the ground, which significantly reduces the
instant. However, light travels at an extremely
pressure and ensures the ground can support the
high speed (about 300,000,000 m/s), so you see
structure.
the flash almost instantaneously. Sound travels
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

100. Wind is to pressure difference as thunder is to

Ans

______. (B) It creates a region of low pressure at the
(A) lightning surface where it rose from.
(B) storm When a parcel of air is heated, it expands,
(C) rain becomes less dense, and rises. The area on the
(D) clouds surface that this air has just left now has less


Ans air above it, and thus becomes a region of lower
atmospheric pressure.
(A) lightning
The analogy links an effect to its direct cause. 104. When a storm forms, what happens to the water
Wind (effect) is caused by a difference in air vapour in the warm, rising air?
pressure (cause). Thunder (effect) is the sound (A) It freezes into solid ice.
caused by the rapid heating of air from a lightning (B) It rises, cools, and condenses into water
strike (cause). droplets, forming clouds.
(C) It is blown away by the wind before it can
101. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a change state.
component of the atmosphere? (D) It evaporates into a gas.
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Oxygen

Ans
(C) Nitrogen (B) It rises, cools, and condenses into water
(D) Water vapour droplets, forming clouds.


Ans This describes the process of cloud formation.
As warm, moist air rises, it moves into cooler
(A) Hydrogen regions of the atmosphere. This cooling causes
The chapter on pressure, in its section on the the invisible water vapour to condense back into
atmosphere, mentions the main components of tiny liquid water droplets or ice crystals, which
air. It lists nitrogen, oxygen, argon, and carbon aggregate to form a visible cloud.
dioxide. While hydrogen exists in trace amounts,
it is not listed as a significant component in this 105. If you use a hand pump to inflate a bicycle tire,
context. you are increasing the:
(A) Temperature of the tire.
102. A deep-sea submarine must be built with very (B) Weight of the tire.
strong walls. This is to withstand the: (C) Volume of the tire.
(A) High water pressure at great depths. (D) Pressure of the air inside the tire.
(B) Lack of air pressure at great depths.
(C) High temperature at the bottom of the ocean.

Ans
(D) Strong magnetic fields in the deep sea. (D) The pressure of the air inside the tire.


Ans A pump forces more and more air molecules into
the fixed volume of the tire. These additional
(A) High water pressure at great depths. molecules create more frequent and forceful
The pressure exerted by a liquid increases collisions with the inner walls of the tire, which
significantly with depth. At the bottom of the manifests as an increase in the internal air
ocean, the weight of the massive column of water pressure.
above creates immense pressure. The submarine’s
hull must be incredibly strong to resist being 106. Which of the following is a correct statement
crushed by this external pressure. about pressure?
(A) The SI unit of pressure is the Newton.
103. What is the direct effect of warm air rising? (B) Pressure is the same as force.
(A) It causes the air to become denser. (C) A larger area of application results in a larger
(B) It creates a region of low pressure at the pressure for the same force.
surface where it rose from. (D) Pressure is force distributed over a specific
(C) It stops the rotation of the Earth. area.
(D) It creates a region of high pressure at the
surface.

Ans
page 176 Class 8th Science Foundation

(D) Pressure is force distributed over a specific By removing juice and some air with the straw, you
area. lower the pressure inside the box. The constant,
This statement accurately defines the concept. higher atmospheric pressure on the outside then
Pressure is not just the force itself, but how that pushes on the walls of the box, causing it to
force is spread out. A force can be large, but collapse inward.
if spread over a huge area, the pressure can be
small, and vice versa. 110. Match the term with its correct definition or
description from the chapter.
107. How does the pressure exerted by a gas differ
from the pressure exerted by a solid? Column A Column B
(A) A gas exerts pressure only upwards, while a 1 Low-pressure A The SI unit for
solid exerts it downwards. area pressure.
(B) A gas exerts pressure in all directions,
while a solid typically exerts pressure only 2 Pascal B A region created
downwards. when warm, moist
(C) A solid exerts more pressure than a gas. air rises, into which
(D) A gas does not exert pressure. cooler, high-pressure


Ans air rushes.
(B) A gas exerts pressure in all directions, while 3 Wind C A metallic rod
a solid typically exerts pressure only downwards. Circulation installed on buildings
The particles of a gas are in constant, random to protect them from
motion, colliding with all surfaces of their lightning strikes.
container. This results in pressure being exerted 4 Lightning D The continuous
equally in all directions. A solid object at rest on Conductor process of warm air
a surface primarily exerts a downward pressure rising and cool air
due to its weight. rushing in to take its
108. The force of gravity acting on an object is also place. Options
known as its: Options
(A) Mass (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(B) Pressure (b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
(C) Density (c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(D) Weight (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C


Ans

Ans
(D) Weight (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
Weight is specifically defined as the force exerted A low-pressure area is created when warm air
on an object due to gravity. While related to rises. Pascal is the SI unit of pressure. Wind
mass, it is a force and is measured in newtons. circulation is the continuous movement of air due
to heating and cooling. A lightning conductor is a
109. When drinking from a juice box with a straw, the safety device for buildings.
box sometimes collapses inward. This is because:
(A) Sucking on the straw reduces the internal 111. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
pressure, and atmospheric pressure crushes a land breeze?
the box. (A) It is a result of a high-pressure area forming
(B) The juice chemically reacts with the box over the land.
material. (B) It blows from the sea to the land.
(C) The juice is pushing the walls outward. (C) It occurs during the night.
(D) The straw pokes a hole that lets air in. (D) It is caused by the land cooling faster than
the sea.


Ans


Ans
(A) Sucking on the straw reduces the internal
pressure, and atmospheric pressure crushes the (B) It blows from the sea to the land.
box.
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

A land breeze, as its name implies, blows from the 115. What is the primary difference in the cause of a
land to the sea. The opposite, a sea breeze, blows tsunami and a storm surge?
from the sea to the land. (A) A tsunami is a small wave, while a storm
surge is a very large wave.
112. Why is a camel’s feet broad and flat? (B) A tsunami is caused by an underwater
(A) To distribute its weight over a larger area, earthquake or landslide, while a storm surge
reducing the pressure so it doesn’t sink in the is caused by the winds of a cyclone.
sand. (C) There is no difference; they are the same
(B) To help it run faster on hard surfaces. thing.
(C) To increase the pressure on the sand for (D) A tsunami is caused by wind, while a storm
better grip. surge is caused by an earthquake.
(D) To help it store water more effectively.


Ans


Ans
(B) A tsunami is caused by an underwater
(A) To distribute its weight over a larger area, earthquake or landslide, while a storm surge is
reducing the pressure so it doesn’t sink in the caused by the winds of a cyclone.
sand. Although both are large, destructive ocean waves,
This is a biological adaptation that uses the their origins are completely different. A storm
principle of pressure. The camel’s large weight surge is a meteorological event, directly caused by
(force) is spread out over the large area of its feet. the weather system of a cyclone. A tsunami is a
This creates a low pressure on the loose sand, geological event, caused by a sudden displacement
preventing the camel from sinking. of a large volume of water.
113. The vertical movement of warm air and the 116. Which of the following is NOT a safe place to be
horizontal movement of cool air that replaces it is during a lightning storm?
a process known as: (A) In a large building away from windows.
(A) Convection (B) In a swimming pool.
(B) Evaporation (C) In a low-lying ditch or valley.
(C) Radiation (D) Inside a car with windows rolled up.
(D) Conduction


Ans


Ans
(B) In a swimming pool.
(A) Convection Water is a good conductor of electricity. If
Convection is the transfer of heat through the lightning strikes the pool or the ground nearby,
movement of fluids (liquids or gases). The process the electrical charge can spread through the water,
described—warm, less dense fluid rising and making being in a pool extremely dangerous
cool, denser fluid sinking to take its place—is the during a thunderstorm.
definition of a convection current, which drives
winds and breezes. 117. Army tanks use wide tracks instead of wheels to
move over soft ground. The primary purpose of
114. Lightning is to thunderstorm as storm surge is to these tracks is to:
______. (A) Increase the speed of the tank on paved roads.
(A) cyclone (B) Reduce the pressure on the ground to prevent
(B) calm weather sinking.
(C) sea breeze (C) Make the tank look more intimidating to the
(D) land breeze enemy.


Ans (D) Increase the friction for better grip during
turns.
(A) cyclone
The analogy links a specific phenomenon

Ans
to the larger weather event it is associated (B) Reduce the pressure on the ground to prevent
with. Lightning is a characteristic feature of a sinking.
thunderstorm. A storm surge is a characteristic A tank is extremely heavy. The wide, continuous
and dangerous feature of a cyclone. tracks provide a very large surface area to
page 178 Class 8th Science Foundation

distribute this immense weight. This results in a 121. Which of the following is NOT a direct result of
relatively low pressure on the ground, allowing wind pressure?
the tank to travel over soft or muddy terrain (A) Clothes fluttering on a line.
without getting stuck. (B) An apple falling from a tree due to gravity.
(C) Trees swaying in a storm.
118. What is the direct effect of a very large pressure (D) Leaves swirling on the ground.
difference between two regions in the atmosphere?
(A) An increase in atmospheric temperature.

Ans
(B) High-speed winds. (B) An apple falling from a tree due to gravity.
(C) The formation of a land breeze. An apple falls because of the force of gravity, a
(D) Calm, clear weather. non-contact force. The other three examples are


Ans all direct results of the force exerted by moving
air (wind pressure) on the objects.
(B) High-speed winds.
The speed of wind is directly proportional to the 122. When you inflate a balloon, the air inside exerts
pressure gradient (the difference in pressure over pressure on the balloon’s inner walls. What exerts
a distance). A small pressure difference creates pressure on the outer walls of the balloon?
a gentle breeze, while a very large pressure (A) The atmosphere.
difference creates a strong force that drives high- (B) Nothing.
speed winds. (C) Gravity.
(D) The air from your lungs.
119. The weight of an air column over an area of
15 cm×15 cm is roughly equal to the weight of an

Ans
object with a mass of: (A) The atmosphere.
(A) 225 kg The balloon exists within the Earth’s atmosphere.
(B) 100 kg The air outside the balloon is at atmospheric
(C) 50 kg pressure and exerts a force on all surfaces,
(D) 10 kg including the outer surface of the balloon, pushing


Ans inward. The balloon is inflated when the internal
pressure is greater than this external atmospheric
(A) 225 kg pressure.
The chapter provides this specific example to give
an idea of the magnitude of atmospheric pressure. 123. An area of low pressure is created when:
It states that the force over this area is “nearly (A) It starts to rain heavily.
equal to the force of gravity on an object of mass (B) Warm, less dense air rises.
225 kg.” (C) Cool, dense air sinks.
(D) The air stops moving.
120. The pressure in a liquid ______ with depth,
and the pressure of the atmosphere ______

Ans
with altitude. (B) Warm, less dense air rises.
(A) decreases, decreases Pressure is related to the weight of the air
(B) increases, decreases column. When air is heated, it becomes less dense
(C) decreases, increases and rises. This movement of air away from the
(D) increases, increases surface means there is less air left in that column,


Ans resulting in a region of lower pressure.

(B) increases, decreases 124. In some parts of India, thunderstorms are called
These are two key principles of fluid pressure. ‘Kalboishakhi’. This indicates that:
As you go deeper into a liquid, the weight of (A) Local cultures have specific names for regional
the column above you increases, so the pressure weather patterns.
increases. As you go higher in the atmosphere, the (B) They are a global phenomenon with a single
column of air above you decreases, so the pressure name.
decreases. (C) These storms only occur in the winter season.
(D) They are harmless and welcomed by everyone.
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Ans (D) The liquid gets heavier as it goes up the

(A) Local cultures have specific names for regional straw.
weather patterns.

Ans
The chapter’s “A step further” box on
thunderstorms highlights that these localized (A) The atmospheric pressure is not strong
storms have different names in different regions of enough to push the liquid up that high.
India (Kalboishakhi, Bordoisila, Mango showers), Sucking on a straw works by letting atmospheric
showing the connection between local weather, pressure do the work of pushing the liquid up.
culture, and language. However, atmospheric pressure can only support
a column of a liquid up to a certain maximum
125. How does a liquid’s pressure on the side walls of a height (about 10 meters for water). Beyond that
container change with depth? height, even a perfect vacuum in the straw won’t
(A) It is greatest at the top and least at the be able to lift the liquid any further.
bottom.
(B) It only acts on the bottom, not the sides. 128. Which statement about the relationship between
(C) It is greatest at the bottom and least at the pressure, force, and area is incorrect?
top. (A) If the area is constant, increasing the force
(D) It is constant at all depths. increases the pressure.
(B) If the force is constant, decreasing the area


Ans decreases the pressure.
(C) It is greatest at the bottom and least at the (C) Pressure = Force / Area.
top. (D) If the force is constant, increasing the area
Just like the downward pressure, the sideways decreases the pressure.
pressure exerted by a liquid also increases with

Ans
depth. This is because the pressure at any point
in a fluid acts equally in all directions. Therefore, (B) If the force is constant, decreasing the area
at a greater depth, the sideways pressure is also decreases the pressure.
greater. This statement is the opposite of the correct
relationship. According to the formula P = F/A,
126. Which of the following is a correct statement pressure and area are inversely proportional. If
about cyclones? the force (numerator) is constant, decreasing the
(A) They are small, localized storms that last for area (denominator) will increase the pressure.
a few minutes.
(B) The center of a cyclone has very high pressure. 129. Lightning is a form of which type of electricity?
(C) The rotation of the Earth is a key factor in (A) Magnetic electricity
their formation. (B) Static electricity
(D) They form over cold, dry land. (C) Current electricity
(D) Chemical electricity


Ans


Ans
(C) The rotation of the Earth is a key factor in
their formation. (B) Static electricity
The Earth’s rotation causes the air rushing The lightning is caused by the buildup and
towards the low-pressure center to spin, which is separation of static electric charges within clouds
the defining characteristic of a cyclone’s structure. due to friction. It is a massive, sudden discharge
The other statements are all incorrect descriptions of this stationary charge.
of a cyclone.
130. Why are the foundations of skyscrapers spread
127. If you use a very long straw to drink from a glass, out over a large area?
you will find it much harder to do so. This is (A) To reduce the pressure on the ground and
because: prevent the building from sinking.
(A) The atmospheric pressure is not strong (B) To provide more space for parking.
enough to push the liquid up that high. (C) To increase the building’s weight.
(B) The taste of the drink changes in a long straw. (D) To make the building taller.
(C) The straw is too narrow to function properly.

Ans
page 180 Class 8th Science Foundation

(A) To reduce the pressure on the ground and (A) Lying down on thin ice instead of standing on
prevent the building from sinking. it.
A skyscraper is incredibly heavy, exerting an (B) Using a sharp point on a nail.
immense downward force. To ensure the ground (C) Using wide tires on a tractor for muddy fields.
can support this force, the foundation is made very (D) Using broad straps on a bag.
wide. This large area distributes the building’s


Ans
weight, significantly reducing the pressure to a
level the ground can safely bear. (B) Using a sharp point on a nail.
A sharp point is designed to increase pressure
131. What is the primary role of moisture (water by concentrating the force onto a very small
vapour) in the formation of a storm? area. The other three options are all methods of
(A) The water droplets create friction, which increasing the area over which a force is applied
generates wind. in order to reduce the pressure.
(B) The moisture makes the air heavier, causing
it to sink. 134. A storm accompanied by strong winds and rain is
(C) The moisture blocks sunlight, cooling the simply called a:
ground and stopping the storm. (A) Storm
(D) When the moisture condenses, it releases a (B) Cyclone
large amount of heat, which fuels the storm. (C) Thunderstorm
(D) Breeze


Ans


Ans
(D) When the moisture condenses, it releases a
large amount of heat, which fuels the storm. (A) Storm
The energy engine of storms and cyclones is The chapter provides a basic definition before
latent heat. When water vapor condenses into moving on to more specific types. It states, “The
liquid water droplets to form clouds, it releases strong winds accompanied by rain is called a
the heat energy that was originally absorbed storm.”
during evaporation. This released heat warms the
135. When a doctor gives an injection, they use a
surrounding air, making it rise even faster and
needle with a very sharp point. This is to:
strengthening the storm.
(A) Sterilize the skin surface.
132. What is the main difference between the pressure (B) Create a very high pressure to easily pierce
inside an inflated bicycle tire and the atmospheric the skin.
pressure outside? (C) Make the injection less painful by using less
(A) The pressures are exactly equal. force.
(B) The pressure inside is much higher than the (D) Ensure the medicine flows faster.
pressure outside.

Ans
(C) The pressure inside is lower than the pressure
(B) Create a very high pressure to easily pierce
outside.
the skin.
(D) The pressure inside is a liquid pressure, while
The sharp, pointed tip of the needle has an
the pressure outside is a gas pressure.
extremely small surface area. This allows the


Ans gentle force applied by the doctor to be converted
(B) The pressure inside is much higher than the into a very high pressure, which is necessary to
pressure outside. puncture the skin with minimal tissue damage.
A tire is inflated to be firm and support weight.
136. What is the direct cause of the charge buildup in
This is achieved by pumping air in to create an
a thundercloud?
internal pressure that is significantly higher than
(A) The rotation of the Earth.
the external atmospheric pressure. This high
(B) High pressure inside the cloud.
internal pressure pushes outwards on the tire
(C) Sunlight shining on the cloud.
walls.
(D) Friction between moving water droplets and
133. Which of the following is NOT a good way to ice crystals.
reduce pressure?

Ans
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

(D) Friction between moving water droplets and 140. The pressure exerted by the air inside an inflated
ice crystals. balloon acts in which direction?
The strong vertical winds in a storm cloud cause (A) Only sideways
water and ice particles to collide vigorously. This (B) In all directions
rubbing action acts like friction, stripping electrons (C) Only upwards
and leading to the buildup and separation of (D) Only downwards
static electric charges.


Ans
137. If air had no weight, what would be the (B) In all directions
consequence? The chapter states that the air being filled inside
(A) There would be no atmospheric pressure. a balloon exerts pressure on its walls, causing it
(B) There would be no clouds. to expand in all directions. This is because the gas
(C) We would be unable to breathe. particles are moving randomly and colliding with
(D) The Earth would stop rotating. every part of the balloon’s inner surface.


Ans 141. A person is walking on a frozen lake. They are
(A) There would be no atmospheric pressure. advised to lie down and crawl if they hear the ice
Atmospheric pressure is fundamentally caused by cracking. This is because:
the weight of the column of air above a certain (A) Lying down distributes their weight over a
area. If air had no mass and therefore no weight, larger area, reducing the pressure on the ice.
it would not exert this downward force, and (B) It is warmer closer to the ice.
atmospheric pressure would not exist. (C) Lying down makes them a smaller target for
the wind.
138. The process of wind formation starts with (D) Crawling is faster than walking.
______, which leads to a difference in
______, causing air to move.

Ans
(A) rain, humidity (A) Lying down distributes their weight over a
(B) uneven heating, pressure larger area, reducing the pressure on the ice.
(C) high altitude, temperature The person’s weight is a force that could break
(D) cooling, density the ice. By lying down, they increase the area


Ans over which this force is applied. This significantly
reduces the pressure at any single point on the
(B) uneven heating, pressure ice, making it less likely to fracture completely.
This summarizes the entire process. It begins
with uneven heating of the Earth’s surface. This
heating creates temperature differences in the air,
which in turn create pressure differences. The
142. Why do coastal areas experience more moderate
pressure difference is the final driver that causes
the air to move as wind. temperatures than inland areas?
(A) Because the atmospheric pressure is always
139. Which of these is NOT an effect of a cyclone? lower on the coast.
(A) Damage from high-speed winds. (B) Because there is more rainfall on the coast.
(B) The formation of an extremely high-pressure (C) Because the land heats and cools more slowly
zone. than water.
(C) Flooding from heavy rain. (D) Because the water heats and cools more
(D) Coastal flooding from a storm surge. slowly than land, and the breezes moderate
the temperature.


Ans


Ans
(B) The formation of an extremely high-pressure
zone. (D) Because the water heats and cools more
A cyclone is, by definition, an intense low-pressure slowly than land, and the breezes moderate the
system. Its destructive winds and weather are all temperature.
driven by the massive difference between the low Water has a high specific heat capacity, meaning
pressure at its center and the higher pressure it resists changes in temperature. During the day,
surrounding it. the cool sea breeze keeps the coast from getting
page 182 Class 8th Science Foundation

too hot. At night, the warm land breeze (or the 146. The force exerted by air on a unit area of a surface
warmth from the water) keeps it from getting too is known as:
cold, leading to a more moderate climate. (A) Air temperature
(B) Air pressure
143. In a cyclone, the area of lowest pressure is (C) Air density
called the ______, while in a thunderstorm, (D) Wind speed
______ and thunder are present.
(A) core, clouds

Ans
(B) eye, lightning (B) Air pressure
(C) center, wind This is the fundamental definition. Just like any
(D) wall, rain fluid, air exerts a force on surfaces it is in contact


Ans with. The measure of this force per unit of area is
called air pressure, or atmospheric pressure.
(B) eye, lightning
The chapter provides these specific definitions. 147. Why do you need to make holes in the lid of a can
The calm, low-pressure center of a cyclone is if you want to pour a liquid out of it smoothly?
known as the eye. A thunderstorm is defined as (A) To allow air to enter the can and equalize the
a storm that includes the phenomena of lightning pressure.
and thunder. (B) To reduce friction.
(C) To make the liquid lighter.
144. Which of the following is a correct statement (D) To let heat escape.
regarding liquid pressure?
(A) It acts on the bottom and sides of the

Ans
container. (A) To allow air to enter the can and equalize the
(B) It is weaker than the pressure exerted by a pressure.
solid of the same weight. As liquid pours out, the space above it tries to
(C) It acts only in a downward direction. form a vacuum (a low-pressure area). Atmospheric
(D) It is independent of the depth of the liquid. pressure pushing on the liquid from the outside


Ans can then stop the flow. A second hole allows air to
enter the can, maintaining the internal pressure
(A) It acts on the bottom and sides of the and allowing the liquid to pour smoothly.
container.
The activities in the chapter demonstrate that a 148. What would happen to the pressure at the
liquid exerts pressure not only on the bottom of bottom of a water tank if the tank were filled with
its container (due to its weight) but also on the a denser liquid, like honey, to the same height?
side walls, as shown by water spurting out from (A) The pressure would become zero.
holes in the side of a bottle. (B) The pressure would decrease.
(C) The pressure would stay the same.
145. Which of the following is NOT a safety precaution (D) The pressure would increase.
during a lightning storm?
(A) Using an umbrella with a metallic rod.

Ans
(B) Staying inside a vehicle. (D) The pressure would increase.
(C) Minimizing contact with the ground by Liquid pressure depends on both depth and the
crouching. density of the liquid (P = rgh). Since honey is
(D) Getting out of the water if you are swimming. denser than water, a column of honey of the same


Ans height would weigh more and therefore exert a
greater pressure at the bottom.
(A) Using an umbrella with a metallic rod.
Metal is an excellent conductor of electricity. 149. The winds in a cyclone revolve around a center of:
Holding a metallic rod, like the one in an (A) High temperature
umbrella, high in the air during a thunderstorm (B) Low pressure
increases the risk of it being struck by lightning (C) High pressure
and channeling the current through the person (D) Low humidity
holding it.


Ans
Pagesmith CH 06 : Pressure, Winds, Storms and Cyclones

(B) Low pressure The wind is the movement of air from a high-
A cyclone is fundamentally a low-pressure system. pressure area to a low-pressure area. The
It is the extremely low pressure at the center that conditions described (high pressure over the sea,
creates the strong pressure gradient, causing low pressure over the land) are the precise setup
winds from the surrounding high-pressure areas that drives the on-shore wind known as a sea
to rush inwards and rotate. breeze.

150. Which of the following statements about forces 153. The greater the difference in ______ between
and pressure is incorrect? two regions, the ______ the winds will blow.
(A) Liquids exert pressure only at the bottom of (A) humidity, weaker
the container. (B) pressure, faster
(B) A force can change the state of motion of an (C) altitude, stronger
object. (D) temperature, slower
(C) The SI unit of pressure is Pascal.


Ans
(D) Pressure is the force acting on a unit area.
(B) pressure, faster


Ans There is the direct relationship between the
(A) Liquids exert pressure only at the bottom of pressure gradient and wind speed. A small
the container. pressure difference results in a light breeze, while
Activity 6.2 with the bottle and holes demonstrates a large pressure difference creates the strong force
that liquids exert pressure not only downwards that drives high-speed winds.
but also sideways on the walls of the container.
Pressure in a fluid acts in all directions. 154. Which of the following correctly describes how a
lightning conductor works?
151. A firefighter holds a hose that is ejecting water (A) It provides a safe, conductive path for
at high speed. The firefighter has to brace lightning to travel to the ground.
themselves to avoid being pushed backward. This (B) It absorbs the electrical energy of a lightning
is an example of: strike and stores it.
(A) The principle of liquid pressure increasing (C) It prevents lightning from forming above the
with depth. building.
(B) Newton’s third law of motion (action- (D) It creates a high-pressure zone around the
reaction). building that repels lightning.
(C) The formation of a cyclone.


Ans
(D) Bernoulli’s principle.
(A) It provides a safe, conductive path for


Ans lightning to travel to the ground.
(B) Newton’s third law of motion (action- A lightning conductor is designed to be a
reaction). preferential target for a lightning strike. Its
As the hose exerts a strong forward force on the purpose is not to prevent the strike but to control
water to push it out, the water simultaneously it by channeling the massive current safely through
exerts an equal and opposite backward force on a metal rod into the earth, thereby protecting the
the hose (and the firefighter). This is a classic building from damage.
example of an action-reaction pair of forces.
155. Which statement about the eye of a cyclone is
152. During the day at the beach, the air over the land incorrect?
is warmer and has lower pressure, while the air (A) The winds in the eye are very strong.
over the sea is cooler and has higher pressure. (B) It is an area of low pressure.
This pressure difference directly causes: (C) It is the calm center of the storm.
(A) A cyclone (D) It can sometimes be clear of clouds.
(B) A sea breeze


Ans
(C) A land breeze
(D) A thunderstorm (A) The winds in the eye are very strong.
The eye is a region of relative calm. The strongest


Ans and most destructive winds in a cyclone are
(B) A sea breeze
page 184 Class 8th Science Foundation

found in the eyewall, the ring of thunderstorms can then develop into powerful storms and
immediately surrounding the eye. cyclones.

156. A vacuum cleaner works by using a fan to create

*************

an area of ______ inside the machine, which
allows the higher ______ to push dirt and
dust into it.
(A) low pressure, atmospheric pressure
(B) high pressure, internal pressure
(C) high friction, gravitational force
(D) low temperature, external temperature


Ans
(A) low pressure, atmospheric pressure
A vacuum cleaner doesn’t truly “suck.” The fan
blows air out of the canister, creating a region
of low pressure inside. The normal, higher
atmospheric pressure on the outside then rushes
into this low-pressure area, carrying dust and
debris along with it.

157. What is the main difference in the state of water

particles involved in lightning formation?
(A) Both liquid water droplets and solid ice
particles are involved.
(B) Only liquid water droplets are involved.
(C) Only gaseous water vapour is involved.
(D) Only solid ice particles are involved.


Ans
(A) Both liquid water droplets and solid ice
particles are involved.
The charge separation occurs due to the rubbing
of both water droplets and ice particles within the
strong updrafts and downdrafts of a thundercloud.
The different phases of water play a crucial role
in this process.

158. The overall theme connecting pressure, winds,

storms, and cyclones is that they are all driven
by:
(A) Human activities like pollution.
(B) The Earth’s magnetic field.
(C) The gravitational pull of the Sun and Moon.
(D) Differences in temperature and pressure in
the atmosphere.


Ans
(D) Differences in temperature and pressure in
the atmosphere.
It shows how temperature differences (from the
sun’s uneven heating) lead to pressure differences,
which in turn drive winds. These winds, under
specific conditions of temperature and moisture,
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

CHAPTER 7
Particulate Nature of Matter

SUMMAR

1. The Fundamental Idea : Matter is

Particulate

1.1 Matter is Made of Tiny Particles

All matter, whether it’s a solid like chalk or a
liquid like water, is composed of a very large
number of extremely small particles. These basic
units are called constituent particles. These Some solid objects
particles are so small they cannot be seen even
with an ordinary microscope. When a substance 2. Particle Arrangement : The particles in solids
like sugar dissolves in water, it breaks down are tightly packed, and the interparticle
into its constituent particles, which then spread attractions are very strong.
throughout the water.

1.2 Characteristics of Particles

The behavior of matter is determined by two key
properties of its particles:
1. Interparticle Spaces : There are spaces
between the constituent particles of matter. (a) Solid
When sugar dissolves, its particles occupy
these spaces between the water particles. 3. Particle Movement : Due to strong attractions,
particles in a solid are held in fixed positions
2. Interparticle Attractions : The particles
and can only vibrate or oscillate. They cannot
of matter are held together by forces of
move freely past one another.
attraction. The strength of these forces
determines the physical state of the substance
(solid, liquid, or gas).

2. The Three States of Matter

2.1 The Solid State

1. Properties : Solids have a definite shape and
a definite volume.
(b) Particles with increased vibrations
page 186 Class 8th Science Foundation

4. Melting : When a solid is heated, its particles 3. Comparing the States of Matter
vibrate more vigorously. At a specific
temperature, called the melting point, the 3.1 Interparticle Spacing and Compressibility
particles break free from their fixed positions,
Gases have large interparticle spaces, which is why
and the solid turns into a liquid.
they are highly compressible. Applying pressure
forces the particles closer together.
Liquids and solids have very small interparticle
spaces and are considered incompressible.
2.2 The Liquid State
3.2 Movement of Particles
1. Properties : Liquids have a definite volume
but no fixed shape; they take the shape of the The constituent particles of matter are in
container they are in. constant, random motion. This motion can be
2. Particle Arrangement : The interparticle observed when a colored substance like potassium
attractions are weaker than in solids, but permanganate spreads through still water, or
still strong enough to keep the particles close when the fragrance of an incense stick spreads
together. The particles are less tightly packed across a room. The moving particles of the water
than in solids. or air collide with and spread the particles of the
other substance.
3. Particle Movement : Particles in a liquid are
free to move and slide past one another within
a limited space.

3.3 Effect of Temperature on Particle Movement

1. Heating matter increases the energy of its
particles, causing them to move faster.
2. This is why substances dissolve and spread
more quickly in hot water than in cold water.

4. Summary of Properties
(c) Liquid
Property Solid Liquid Gas
4. Boiling : When a liquid is heated to its boiling
point, the particles gain enough energy to Interparticle Minimum Slightly Maximum
Spacing more
overcome the attractive forces and escape
than in
into the gaseous state.
solids
5. Evaporation : The process of a liquid turning
into vapor can also happen slowly from the Interparticle Maximum Weaker Minimum
surface at any temperature below the boiling Attraction than in (negligible)
point. solids

Particle Closely Loosely Particles

2.3 The Gaseous State
Packing packed packed are free
1. Properties : Gases have neither a fixed shape
nor a fixed volume. They expand to fill the Particle Vibrate Move Move
Movement in fixed within a freely in all
entire container they are in.
positions limited available
2. Particle Arrangement : The particles in a space space
gas are very far apart, and the interparticle
attractions are negligible(almost zero). Shape Fixed No fixed No fixed
3. Particle Movement : Gas particles move &Volume shape, fixed shape, shape,
freely, rapidly, and randomly in all available volume fixed no fixed
volume volume
space.
4. Fluids : Because both liquids and gases can
flow, they are classified as fluids.
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO tiny constituent particles fit into these available
interparticle spaces between the water particles,
which is why the total volume doesn’t increase
1. What is the basic, smallest unit that makes up a by much.
larger piece of a substance called?
4. What is the term for the attractive forces that
(A) A constituent particle
(B) An element hold the constituent particles of matter together?
(C) A speck (A) Magnetic forces
(D) A molecule (B) Frictional forces
(C) Gravitational forces


Ans (D) Interparticle attractions
(A) A constituent particle

Ans
All matter, like a piece of chalk or a grain of sugar,
is composed of a vast number of extremely small, (D) Interparticle attractions
fundamental units. These basic building blocks The constituent particles of any substance are
of a substance are referred to as its constituent held together by forces of attraction acting
particles. between them. These forces are specifically called
interparticle attractions, and their strength is a
2. When sugar is dissolved in water, the sugar key factor in determining the physical state (solid,
crystals disappear, but the water tastes sweet. liquid, or gas) of the substance.
What does this observation suggest about the
5. In which state of matter are the interparticle
nature of sugar?
(A) The sugar melts into a colorless liquid. attractions the strongest?
(B) Sugar is made of extremely small particles (A) Solid
that spread out in the water. (B) Gas
(C) The water particles themselves become sweet. (C) Plasma
(D) Sugar chemically reacts with water to form a (D) Liquid
new sweet substance.

Ans


Ans (A) Solid
(B) Sugar is made of extremely small particles In the solid state, particles are packed very closely
that spread out in the water. together. This proximity results in very strong
The disappearance of the visible crystals combined interparticle forces of attraction, which lock the
with the presence of taste throughout the water particles into fixed positions and give solids their
indicates that the sugar has broken down into definite shape and volume.
its constituent particles. These particles are too 6. The image shows three boxes representing the
small to be seen but are distributed among the arrangement of particles. Box A shows particles
water particles, giving the solution its sweet taste. neatly arranged and tightly packed. Box B shows
3. Which characteristic of particles explains why particles close but randomly arranged. Box C
sugar can dissolve in water without the water shows particles far apart and moving randomly.
level rising significantly? Which box represents the solid state?
(A) Particles are extremely small. (A) Box A
(B) Particles attract each other. (B) Box B
(C) There are spaces between the particles of (C) Both A and B
water (interparticle spaces). (D) Box C
(D) Particles are in constant motion.

Ans


Ans (A) Box A
(C) There are spaces between the particles of The solid state is characterized by particles that
water (interparticle spaces). are held in fixed positions by strong attractive
The particles in a liquid are not packed perfectly forces. This results in a highly ordered, tightly
together; there are small gaps or spaces between packed arrangement, as depicted in Box A, where
them. When a solute like sugar dissolves, its particles can only vibrate around their fixed
locations.
page 188 Class 8th Science Foundation

7. Why do solids have a definite shape and volume? (A) Liquid particles have weaker bonds and can
(A) Their constituent particles are significantly move, while solid particles are in fixed positions.
larger than those in other states of matter. In liquids, the interparticle forces are weaker than
(B) Their structure contains large, empty in solids. This allows the particles to break free
interparticle spaces, making them rigid. from fixed positions and slide past one another.
(C) Their particles are locked in fixed positions This freedom of movement enables the liquid to
by very strong interparticle forces. flow and conform to the shape of its container.
(D) Their particles are in constant, high-
speed translational motion throughout the 10. Which of the following statements correctly
substance. describes the properties of a liquid?
(A) It has a definite shape and a definite volume.


Ans (B) It has a definite volume but no definite shape.
(C) Their particles are locked in fixed positions (C) It has no definite shape and no definite
by very strong interparticle forces. volume.
The strong interparticle attractions in solids lock (D) It has a definite shape but no definite volume.
the particles into a rigid structure. The particles

Ans
cannot move past one another, so the overall shape
and volume of the solid do not change easily. (B) It has a definite volume but no definite shape.
Liquids flow and take the shape of their container
8. What is the melting point of a substance? because their particles can move around. However,
(A) The temperature at which its particles stop the particles are still held closely together by
moving completely. attractive forces, so they occupy a fixed amount
(B) The minimum temperature at which a solid of space, giving the liquid a definite volume.
melts to become a liquid.
(C) The temperature at which a liquid boils and 11. The temperature at which a liquid boils and turns
becomes a gas. into a gas at atmospheric pressure is called its:
(D) The temperature at which it turns from a gas (A) Boiling point
to a liquid. (B) Freezing point
(C) Condensation point


Ans (D) Melting point
(B) The minimum temperature at which a solid

Ans
melts to become a liquid.
The melting point is a specific temperature for a (A) Boiling point
crystalline solid. At this temperature, the particles The boiling point is a characteristic property of
gain enough energy from heating to overcome the a liquid. It is the specific temperature at which
strong interparticle forces holding them in a fixed the liquid’s vapor pressure equals the surrounding
structure, allowing the substance to transition atmospheric pressure, allowing the liquid to
into the liquid state. rapidly change into the gaseous state throughout
its bulk, not just at the surface.
9. Why do liquids take the shape of the container
they are in, but solids do not? 12. What is the main difference between boiling and
(A) Liquid particles have weaker bonds and evaporation?
can move, while solid particles are in fixed (A) Boiling is a cooling process, while evaporation
positions. is a heating process.
(B) The force of gravity is inherently stronger (B) Evaporation produces steam, while boiling
within a solid’s structure than within a produces water vapor.
liquid’s. (C) Boiling happens at the surface only, while
(C) The individual constituent particles that evaporation happens throughout the liquid.
make up solids are fundamentally smaller (D) Evaporation happens at any temperature,
than those in liquids. while boiling happens at a specific
(D) Liquids are always less dense than their solid temperature.
counterparts, which is a property that allows

Ans
them to flow.
(D) Evaporation happens at any temperature,


Ans while boiling happens at a specific temperature.
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

Evaporation is a surface phenomenon that can

Ans

occur at any temperature below the boiling point. (D) Diffusion
Boiling is a bulk phenomenon that occurs at a Diffusion is the net movement of particles from an
fixed temperature (the boiling point), where area of higher concentration to an area of lower
bubbles of vapor form throughout the liquid. concentration due to their constant, random
motion. The spreading of the permanganate
13. Why do gases have no fixed shape or volume? particles throughout the water is a classic example
(A) Because they are made of a different type of of diffusion in a liquid.
matter than solids and liquids.
(B) Because their particles are held tightly in 16. Why does the fragrance of a burning incense stick
fixed positions. spread across an entire room?
(C) Because their particles are very heavy and fall (A) The heat from the stick causes the air to
to the bottom. expand, carrying the smell.
(D) Because the attractive forces between their (B) The smoke particles are pushed by air
particles are negligible and they move freely. currents.


Ans (C) The particles of the fragrance and the air are
in constant, random motion.
(D) Because the attractive forces between their (D) The fragrance particles are lighter than air
particles are negligible and they move freely. and float upwards.
In the gaseous state, particles have enough
energy to completely overcome the interparticle

Ans
attractions. They are far apart and move (C) The particles of the fragrance and the air are
randomly and rapidly in all directions, causing in constant, random motion.
the gas to expand and fill the entire volume and The fragrant particles released from the incense
shape of any container it is in. stick mix with the air. Both the fragrance particles
and the air particles are constantly moving and
14. In Activity 7.6, a gas inside a syringe can be easily colliding with each other. This random motion
compressed, but water cannot. This demonstrates causes the fragrance particles to spread out
that: (diffuse) from their source until they are evenly
(A) The particles in a liquid have no spaces distributed throughout the room.
between them.
(B) The syringe is faulty when used with water. 17. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
(C) The interparticle spaces in a gas are much the particles of matter?
larger than in a liquid. (A) They are visible to the naked eye.
(D) The particles in a gas are much larger than in (B) They are extremely small.
a liquid. (C) They are in continuous motion.


Ans (D) They have spaces between them.

(C) The interparticle spaces in a gas are much

Ans

larger than in a liquid. (A) They are visible to the naked eye.
Compressibility is directly related to the space A key concept of the particulate nature of matter
between particles. Gases have large interparticle is that the constituent particles (atoms, molecules)
spaces, so the particles can be easily pushed closer are incredibly tiny. They are so small that they
together. In liquids, the particles are already cannot be seen even with an ordinary microscope,
close together with minimal space, making them let alone the naked eye.
practically incompressible.
18. In the ______ state, particles are closely
15. When a crystal of potassium permanganate packed and only vibrate, while in the ______
is dropped into water, the pink color spreads state, particles are far apart and move freely.
throughout the water. This process is known as: (A) solid, gas
(A) Sublimation (B) liquid, gas
(B) Condensation (C) gas, liquid
(C) Melting (D) liquid, solid
(D) Diffusion


Ans
page 190 Class 8th Science Foundation

(A) solid, gas represent the gaseous state, where particles have
Solids have the most ordered structure with large spaces between them and move randomly.
tightly packed, vibrating particles. Gases have the
least ordered structure with particles that are far 21. Which ancient Indian philosopher first proposed
apart and moving randomly and freely. the idea of “Parmanu” (atom) as the tiny,
indivisible particle of matter?
19. Figure shows magnified schematic pictures of (A) Acharya Kanad
the three states of matter. Which diagram (a, (B) Charaka
b, or c) represents the state with the maximum (C) Aryabhata
interparticle spacing? (D) Susruta


Ans
(A) Acharya Kanad
The “Our scientific heritage” section of the
chapter specifically credits Acharya Kanad with
being the first to speak about the concept of a
“Parmanu.” He described it as a tiny, eternal, and
indivisible particle that makes up all matter.

22. If you increase the temperature of a gas in a sealed

container, what happens to its particles?
(A) They move slower and collide less often.
(B) They stick together to form a liquid.
(C) They get larger in size.
(D) They move faster and collide more often and
more forcefully with the walls.
(A) Diagram (a) - Solid

Ans
(B) Diagram (b) - Liquid
(D) They move faster and collide more often and
(C) Diagram (c) - Gas
more forcefully with the walls.
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic


Ans energy of particles. Increasing the temperature
(C) Diagram (c) - Gas gives the gas particles more energy, causing them
Diagram (c) depicts particles that are far apart to move at higher speeds. This leads to more
from each other with large empty spaces between frequent and more energetic collisions with each
them. This arrangement is characteristic of other and the container walls, which increases the
the gaseous state, which has the maximum gas pressure.
interparticle spacing and weakest interparticle 23. When you wash oily clothes with soap and water,
forces. the soap particles help remove the oil. This
20. A crowd in a packed stadium is to a solid as people demonstrates that:
walking freely in a large park are to a ______. (A) Only hot water can clean clothes.
(A) gas (B) Soap is a solid and does not dissolve.
(B) crystal (C) Soap particles can interact with both oil and
(C) liquid water.
(D) solid (D) Oil dissolves in water.

Ans

Ans

(A) gas (C) Soap particles can interact with both oil and
The analogy compares human behavior to water.
particle behavior. A packed stadium represents Soap particles have a unique structure that allows
the solid state, where individuals (particles) are one end to attach to oil particles and the other
in fixed positions and can only move slightly. end to attach to water particles. This allows the
People walking freely and far apart in a large park soap to act as a bridge, lifting the oil off the fabric
and allowing it to be washed away by the water.
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

24. What is the main difference in the interparticle 27. You can easily pass your hand through the air,
spaces between solids and gases? but you cannot pass it through a solid wooden
(A) The spaces are minimal in solids and table. This is because:
maximum in gases. (A) The air particles are very far apart, while the
(B) The spaces are equal in both states. wood particles are tightly packed.
(C) The spaces are maximum in solids and (B) Your hand is stronger than air but weaker
minimal in gases. than wood.
(D) Solids have no spaces, while gases have some (C) The air is a liquid, but the wood is a solid.
spaces. (D) The wood is heavier than the air.


Ans

Ans
(A) The spaces are minimal in solids and (A) The air particles are very far apart, while the
maximum in gases. wood particles are tightly packed.
In solids, particles are tightly packed, leaving very This illustrates the difference in particle
little empty space. In gases, particles are very arrangement. Air is a gas, and its particles are
far apart, resulting in large interparticle spaces, spread far apart, offering little resistance. Wood
which is why gases are highly compressible. is a solid with particles locked in a rigid, dense
structure by strong forces, preventing your hand
25. The process of a solid turning directly into a gas from passing through.
without passing through the liquid state is called:
(A) Sublimation 28. Which statement accurately describes the
(B) Condensation particles in a liquid?
(C) Boiling (A) They are close together but can slide past one
(D) Melting another.
(B) They are far apart and move randomly to fill


Ans
any volume.
(A) Sublimation (C) They have no attractive forces between them.
The example of iodine vapor forming from solid (D) They are in fixed positions and only vibrate.
iodine alludes to this process. Sublimation is the
phase transition of a substance directly from the

Ans
solid to the gas state, without passing through the (A) They are close together but can slide past one
intermediate liquid phase. another.
This is the key characteristic of the liquid state.
The particles are still held in close proximity by
attractive forces (giving a definite volume), but
26. Why does diffusion happen faster in gases than these forces are not strong enough to lock them
in liquids? into a fixed lattice, allowing them to move and
(A) Because there are no attractive forces between flow.
liquid particles.
(B) Because gas particles move faster and have 29. The process of a solid turning into a liquid is
more space between them. called ______, and the process of a liquid
(C) Because gas particles are heavier than liquid turning into a solid is called ______.
particles. (A) freezing, boiling
(D) Because gas particles are stationary. (B) evaporation, melting
(C) boiling, condensation


Ans (D) melting, freezing
(B) Because gas particles move faster and have

Ans
more space between them.
Diffusion relies on the random motion of particles. (D) melting, freezing
In gases, the particles move much more rapidly and These are the standard terms for these phase
have vast empty spaces to move into, allowing for transitions. Melting is the transition from solid to
very quick mixing. In liquids, particles are more liquid upon heating. Freezing (or solidification) is
constrained by attractions and have less space, so the reverse process, the transition from liquid to
they diffuse more slowly. solid upon cooling.
page 192 Class 8th Science Foundation

30. Which of the following is NOT a property of the 33. Vibration is to a solid particle as random
gaseous state? movement is to a ______.
(A) Highly compressible (A) stationary particle
(B) No fixed volume (B) liquid particle
(C) Particles move freely (C) gas particle
(D) Definite shape (D) crystal particle


Ans


Ans
(D) Definite shape
(C) gas particle
Gases do not have a definite shape; they always
The analogy compares the type of motion
take the shape of the container they occupy.
characteristic of particles in different states. In
A definite shape is a characteristic property of
solids, particles are restricted to vibrating in fixed
the solid state, where particles are held in fixed
positions. In gases, particles are completely free
positions.
to move randomly throughout their container.
31. Figure shows the transition of a substance from
34. Which of the following is NOT a property of the
solid to liquid upon heating. What is happening
solid state?
in diagram (b) compared to diagram (a)?
(A) Strong interparticle forces
(B) High compressibility
(C) Definite shape
(D) Definite volume


Ans
(B) High compressibility
Solids are virtually incompressible because their
(A) The particles are vibrating more vigorously. particles are already packed very tightly together
(B) The particles are getting smaller. with minimal empty space between them. High
(C) The particles are moving farther apart to compressibility is a characteristic property of
become a gas. gases.
(D) The number of particles is increasing.
35. A drop of food coloring is added to a glass of


Ans
water. After several hours, without stirring, the
(A) The particles are vibrating more vigorously. entire glass of water is uniformly colored. This is
Diagram (a) shows particles in a solid, vibrating evidence that:
in fixed positions. Diagram (b) illustrates the (A) The glass itself is colored.
effect of heating this solid; the particles have
(B) The water and food coloring particles are in
absorbed energy and are now vibrating much
constant motion.
more vigorously about their fixed positions, just
before melting. (C) Food coloring is denser than water.
(D) A chemical reaction has occurred.
32. What happens to the interparticle forces when a
solid melts into a liquid?

Ans
(A) They do not change. (B) The water and food coloring particles are in
(B) They become weaker. constant motion.
(C) They disappear completely. This is an example of diffusion. The random,
(D) They become much stronger. continuous movement of the water molecules


Ans and the food coloring particles causes them to
intermingle over time. This movement spreads the
(B) They become weaker. color particles from their initial high concentration
Melting involves adding energy to the solid. This until they are evenly distributed throughout the
energy allows the particles to overcome some of water.
the strong attractive forces that hold them in a
rigid lattice. The forces become weaker, allowing
the particles to move more freely as a liquid.
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

36. The two properties that classify liquids and gases Solids, particularly crystalline solids, are
together as ‘fluids’ are their ability to: characterized by a regular, repeating, three-
(A) Flow and not retain a fixed shape. dimensional arrangement of particles called a
(B) Be compressed and expand. crystal lattice. Liquids lack this long-range order;
(C) Have strong and weak interparticle forces. their particles are arranged randomly and can
(D) Have a definite volume and shape. change positions.


Ans 39. Which of the following is NOT a true statement
(A) Flow and not retain a fixed shape. about the particles of matter?
The term ‘fluid’ applies to any substance whose (A) The spaces between particles in a solid are
particles can move past one another, allowing filled with air.
it to flow and take the shape of its container. (B) All matter is composed of small particles.
Both liquids and gases exhibit these properties, (C) The particles in hot water move faster than in
distinguishing them from solids. cold water.
(D) Particles of a gas have negligible forces of
37. Why can matter exist in different states (solid, attraction between them.
liquid, gas)?
(A) Because of differences in the size of the

Ans
constituent particles. (A) The spaces between particles in a solid are
(B) Because of differences in the color of the filled with air.
substances. The interparticle spaces, whether in a solid, liquid,
(C) Because of differences in the strength of or gas, are empty voids. They do not contain air
interparticle attractions and the energy of the or any other substance. They are simply the gaps
particles. between the constituent particles of the matter
(D) Because some substances are natural and itself.
others are artificial.
40. Match the fundamental properties of matter’s


Ans particles with their correct descriptions.
(C) Because of differences in the strength of
interparticle attractions and the energy of the Column A Column B
particles. 1 Interparticle A Explains why the
The chapter’s central theme is that the state of Spacing fragrance of an
matter is determined by the balance between two incense stick spreads
competing factors: the attractive forces trying across a room.
to hold particles together and the kinetic energy 2 Interparticle B The extremely small,
(related to temperature) of the particles trying to Attraction basic building blocks
make them move apart. that make up a larger
38. How does the arrangement of particles in a liquid piece of a substance.
compare to that in a solid? 3 Constant C The empty spaces
(A) Both have the same fixed, ordered pattern of Motion of between the
particles. Particles constituent particles
(B) Liquid particles are more ordered and tightly of a substance.
packed. 4 Constituent D The forces that
(C) Liquid particles are less ordered and can Particles hold the particles
move, while solid particles are in a fixed, of matter together,
ordered pattern. which are strongest
(D) Both have the same random arrangement of in solids.
particles.
Options


Ans (a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
(C) Liquid particles are less ordered and can (b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
move, while solid particles are in a fixed, ordered (c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
pattern. (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
page 194 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans 44. The smell of hot food reaches you from a distance,
(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B but to get the smell of cold food you have to go
Interparticle spacing refers to the empty gaps close. This is because:
between particles. Interparticle attraction is the (A) Your sense of smell works better in warm air.
force holding particles together. The constant (B) The particles of fragrance from hot food have
motion of particles causes substances to mix and more kinetic energy and diffuse faster.
spread. Constituent particles are the basic units (C) Hot food has a stronger smell than cold food.
of matter. (D) Cold food does not release any fragrance
41. A substance is found to be easily compressible particles.
and expands to fill any container it is placed in.

Ans
What state of matter is it in?
(B) The particles of fragrance from hot food have
(A) Gas
more kinetic energy and diffuse faster.
(B) Liquid
The rate of diffusion increases with temperature.
(C) It is impossible to tell.
The particles of vapor from hot food have higher
(D) Solid
kinetic energy, so they move and spread through


Ans the air much more quickly than the slower-moving
(A) Gas particles from cold food.
These are the two defining properties of the
45. What are the two main characteristics of particles
gaseous state. High compressibility is due to the
of matter that determine its physical state?
large spaces between particles, and the ability
(A) Their shape and texture.
to fill any container is due to the free, random
(B) The interparticle spaces and interparticle
motion of particles and negligible interparticle
attractions.
attractions.
(C) Their color and size.
42. What happens to the kinetic energy of particles (D) Their mass and weight.
when a substance is heated?

Ans
(A) It decreases.
(B) The interparticle spaces and interparticle
(B) It increases.
attractions.
(C) It stays the same.
The states of matter based on the particulate
(D) It is converted into potential energy.
model. The key differentiating factors are how far


Ans apart the particles are (interparticle spaces) and
(B) It increases. how strongly they pull on each other (interparticle
Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic attractions).
energy of the particles in a substance. When you
46. If you pour a box of marbles into a jar, they take
add heat, you are adding energy, which causes the
the shape of the jar, similar to a liquid. Why are
particles to move or vibrate more vigorously, thus
the marbles still considered a collection of solids?
increasing their kinetic energy.
(A) Because each individual marble retains its
43. What is the process called when a gas turns into own fixed shape and volume.
a liquid? (B) Because the marbles are heavy.
(A) Melting (C) Because there is no water involved.
(B) Condensation (D) Because the marbles can be compressed.
(C) Evaporation
(D) Freezing

Ans

Ans (A) Because each individual marble retains its

own fixed shape and volume.
(B) Condensation A liquid takes the shape of its container because
Condensation is the phase change from the gaseous its constituent particles can flow. A pile of marbles
state to the liquid state. It typically occurs when does so because the individual solid objects are
a gas is cooled, causing its particles to slow down simply rearranging themselves. Each marble itself
and the interparticle attractions to become strong is a solid with a definite shape and volume.
enough to hold them together as a liquid.
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

47. In liquids, the interparticle forces are strong particles, and there is a limit to how far a substance
enough to give them a definite ______, but can be divided (the constituent particle).
weak enough to prevent them from having a
definite ______. 50. Strong attractions are to a solid as ______
(A) shape, volume attractions are to a gas.
(B) color, temperature (A) negligible
(C) mass, weight (B) very strong
(D) volume, shape (C) repulsive
(D) moderate


Ans


Ans
(D) volume, shape
The forces in a liquid keep the particles close (A) negligible
together, so the liquid occupies a fixed amount of The analogy compares the strength of interparticle
space (definite volume). However, the forces are forces in different states. The solid state is defined
not strong enough to lock the particles in place, by very strong attractions between particles.
so they can slide past each other, meaning the The gaseous state is defined by the fact that the
liquid has no definite shape. attractions between particles are extremely weak,
or negligible.
48. Which statement accurately describes the
compressibility of the states of matter? 51. Match the state of matter with its defining
(A) Gases are highly compressible, while solids physical properties.
and liquids are not. Column A Column B
(B) All three states are equally compressible.
(C) Solids are highly compressible, while gases 1 Solid A Has a definite volume
are not. but takes the shape of
(D) Liquids are highly compressible, while solids its container because
are not. its particles can move
within a limited space.


Ans
2 Liquid B A classification for both
(A) Gases are highly compressible, while solids liquids and gases, as
and liquids are not. their particles are not in
Compressibility depends on the amount of fixed positions and can
empty space between particles. Gases have flow.
large interparticle spaces and are therefore easy
to compress. Solids and liquids have particles 3 Gas C Has a definite shape
that are already close together, making them and volume because
practically incompressible. its particles are tightly
packed and held in fixed
49. Which of the following is NOT true about the positions.
particulate nature of matter? 4 Fluid D Has no definite shape
(A) The particles of matter are in constant or volume because
motion. its particles are free
(B) Matter is continuous and can be divided to move and fill any
infinitely. available space.
(C) There are forces of attraction between the
particles. Options
(D) Matter is made of tiny particles. (a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
(b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D


Ans (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
(B) Matter is continuous and can be divided (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
infinitely.

Ans
The particulate theory is the opposite of the
continuous theory. It states that matter is not (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
continuous but is made up of discrete, tiny Solids have a fixed shape and volume due to
strong particle attractions. Liquids have a fixed
page 196 Class 8th Science Foundation

volume but take the container’s shape. Gases fill A physical change alters the form or appearance
any container, having no fixed shape or volume. of a substance but not its chemical identity.
Fluids are substances that can flow. Grinding chalk breaks the large piece into smaller
grains, but each grain is still made of the same
52. A block of wood and a block of iron of the exact fundamental chalk particles.
same size and shape are placed in water. The
wood floats and the iron sinks. This is because: 55. What is the main difference between the particle
(A) The wood block absorbs water. motion in a liquid and a gas?
(B) The iron block is magnetic. (A) Liquid particles vibrate, while gas particles
(C) Wood is a solid and iron is a liquid. are stationary.
(D) The iron block is denser than water, while the (B) There is no difference in their motion.
wood block is less dense than water. (C) Liquid particles are restricted to a limited
space, while gas particles move freely in all


Ans
available space.
(D) The iron block is denser than water, while the (D) Liquid particles move in straight lines, while
wood block is less dense than water. gas particles move in circles.
Density (mass per unit volume) is a key factor
in flotation. Since the volumes are the same,

Ans
the denser iron has more mass packed into that (C) Liquid particles are restricted to a limited
volume, making it heavier than the buoyant force, space, while gas particles move freely in all
so it sinks. The less dense wood is lighter than the available space.
buoyant force, so it floats. While particles in both states are in motion,
their freedom is different. Liquid particles are
53. What is the relationship between the temperature constrained by intermolecular forces and the
of a liquid and the rate of evaporation? liquid’s surface, keeping them within a definite
(A) Temperature has no effect on the rate of volume. Gas particles have overcome these forces
evaporation. and expand to fill their entire container.
(B) Evaporation only occurs at the boiling point.
(C) Higher temperature leads to a faster rate of 56. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
evaporation. the liquid state?
(D) Higher temperature leads to a slower rate of (A) It is highly compressible.
evaporation. (B) It has a definite volume.
(C) It takes the shape of its container.


Ans
(D) Particles can slide past one another.
(C) Higher temperature leads to a faster rate of
evaporation.

Ans
Evaporation occurs when particles at the surface (A) It is highly compressible.
of a liquid gain enough kinetic energy to escape Liquids, like solids, are considered nearly
into the gas phase. At a higher temperature, more incompressible. Their particles are already
particles have this required escape energy, so the in close contact, so there is very little empty
rate of evaporation increases. space to be reduced by applying pressure. High
compressibility is a hallmark of gases.
54. What happens to the particles of a substance
during a physical change, like grinding chalk? 57. When a solid is heated, its particles ______
(A) They change into particles of a new substance. more vigorously and at the melting point, they
(B) They get larger in size. overcome the ______ forces.
(C) The particles are destroyed. (A) vibrate, attractive
(D) The substance is broken down into smaller (B) shrink, gravitational
pieces, but the constituent particles remain (C) contract, repulsive
the same. (D) expand, magnetic


Ans

Ans
(D) The substance is broken down into smaller (A) vibrate, attractive
pieces, but the constituent particles remain the Heating adds kinetic energy to the particles in a
same. solid, causing them to vibrate more strongly in
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

their fixed positions. The melting point is reached of the water column results in a proportional
when these vibrations become energetic enough increase in pressure.
to overcome the attractive forces that hold them
in a rigid lattice. 61. What is the primary difference in the energy of
particles between a solid and a gas of the same
58. Why does a gas exert pressure on the walls of its substance?
container? (A) The particles of the solid have much more
(A) Because the gas is very heavy. kinetic energy.
(B) Because of the gravitational pull between the (B) The particles of the gas have no kinetic energy.
particles and the walls. (C) The particles of the gas have much more
(C) The particles are constantly colliding with kinetic energy.
the walls. (D) Both have the same amount of kinetic energy.
(D) The particles are held together by strong


Ans
attractive forces.
(C) The particles of the gas have much more


Ans kinetic energy.
(C) The particles are constantly colliding with the The state of matter is directly related to the
walls. thermal (kinetic) energy of its particles. To
Gas pressure is the result of the cumulative transition from a solid to a liquid and then to
effect of countless tiny forces. The individual gas a gas, energy must be added. Therefore, the
particles are in constant, random motion, and particles in the gaseous state have the highest
they repeatedly collide with the inner surfaces of kinetic energy, causing them to move rapidly.
the container. Each collision exerts a small push,
and the total effect of these pushes is the pressure. 62. Match the particle behavior with the corresponding
state of matter or phenomenon.
59. In the summary table, what is the description for
the “Packing of particles” in a liquid? Column A Column B
(A) A little loosely packed than in solids 1 Particles in a A This process
(B) No packing at all Solid demonstrates that
(C) Closely packed there are empty spaces
(D) Particles are free between water particles


Ans for sugar particles to
occupy.
(A) A little loosely packed than in solids
It describes the packing of particles in a liquid as 2 Particles in a B Particles are far
“a little loosely packed than in solids,” indicating Liquid apart with negligible
they are still close but not in a rigid, fixed attraction, moving
structure. randomly to fill the
entire container.
60. A diver going deep into the ocean experiences 3 Particles in a C Particles are loosely
increasing pressure. This is because: Gas packed and can move
(A) The diver’s body expands at greater depths. and slide past one
(B) The water gets colder at greater depths. another within the
(C) There is less salt in the water at greater volume of the liquid.
depths.
(D) The weight of the water column above the 4 Dissolving D Particles are closely
diver increases with depth. Sugar in packed and can only
Water vibrate about their


Ans fixed positions. Options
(D) The weight of the water column above the Options
diver increases with depth. (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
This is a direct application of the principle of (b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
liquid pressure. As the diver descends, the height (c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
(and therefore the weight) of the water directly (d) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
above them increases. This increasing weight
page 198 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans two elements are liquid at room temperature—

(b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A mercury, which is a metal and bromine, which is
Solid particles are tightly packed and vibrate in a non-metal.”
fixed positions. Liquid particles are loosely packed
66. Which of the following statements about
and can move past each other. Gas particles
are far apart and move freely. Dissolving sugar interparticle forces is incorrect?
demonstrates the existence of interparticle spaces (A) They are repulsive in nature.
in liquids. (B) They are strongest in solids.
(C) They are weakest (negligible) in gases.
63. If there were no spaces between the particles (D) They are responsible for holding matter
of water, what would happen when you try to together.
dissolve salt in it?

Ans
(A) The water would turn into a solid.
(B) The salt would dissolve much faster. (A) They are repulsive in nature.
The interparticle forces are “attractive in nature.”
(C) The salt would not dissolve at all.
It is this attraction that holds the particles of
(D) A chemical reaction would occur. a substance together. While repulsive forces do


Ans exist at very close distances, the dominant force
determining the state of matter is attraction.
(C) The salt would not dissolve at all.
Dissolving, in this context, involves the solute 67. When you open a bottle of soda, you see bubbles
particles occupying the interparticle spaces of rising to the surface. This happens because:
the solvent. If the water particles were perfectly (A) A chemical reaction is producing a new gas.
packed with no empty spaces, there would be (B) The sugar in the soda is turning into a gas.
no room for the salt particles to fit in, and the (C) The soda is boiling.
process of dissolution could not occur. (D) The dissolved gas (carbon dioxide) is coming
out of the solution due to a decrease in
64. A substance is found to have a fixed volume but
pressure.
can be poured from one container to another,
taking the shape of the new container. This

Ans
substance is a: (D) The dissolved gas (carbon dioxide) is coming
(A) Solid out of the solution due to a decrease in pressure.
(B) Mixture Soda is carbonated by dissolving carbon dioxide
(C) Gas gas in the liquid under high pressure. When you
(D) Liquid open the bottle, you release the pressure. The


Ans solubility of the gas decreases, and it comes out of
the solution as bubbles.
(D) Liquid
These are the two defining macroscopic properties 68. Why is it important to use a spatula and not your
of a liquid. It has a definite volume (it occupies hands to handle potassium permanganate?
a fixed amount of space), but it lacks a definite (A) Because it can stain your skin and may be an
shape and will flow to conform to the shape of its irritant.
container. (B) Because it is very hot.
(C) Because it is very expensive.
65. Which two elements are liquid at room
(D) Because it will dissolve if you touch it.
temperature?
(A) Iron and Copper

Ans
(B) Mercury and Bromine (A) Because it can stain your skin and may be
(C) Oxygen and Nitrogen an irritant.
(D) Gold and Silver The “Safety first” box in Activity 7.8 warns not


Ans to touch potassium permanganate with hands.
This is a standard laboratory safety precaution
(B) Mercury and Bromine
because it is a strong oxidizing agent and a dark
The “A step further” box on elements and states
purple dye that will deeply stain the skin.
of matter explicitly lists these two. It states, “Only
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

69. An incense stick is to the diffusion of gases as a The fluids as substances that can flow and do
drop of ink is to the ______. not have a fixed shape. This includes both liquids
(A) diffusion of solids (like water) and gases (like air and oxygen). An
(B) melting of solids iron nail is a solid; it has a fixed shape and cannot
(C) diffusion of liquids flow.
(D) boiling of liquids
73. A ______ has a definite volume but takes the


Ans shape of its container, while a ______ has
(C) diffusion of liquids neither a definite volume nor a definite shape.
The analogy relates a common example to the (A) liquid, gas
scientific process it demonstrates. The smell of (B) gas, solid
an incense stick spreading is a classic example of (C) solid, liquid
diffusion in gases. A drop of ink or food coloring (D) gas, liquid
spreading through a glass of water is a classic

Ans
example of diffusion in liquids.
(A) liquid, gas
70. The process by which the particles of two different A liquid has a fixed volume but is not rigid, so
types of matter intermix on their own is called: it takes the shape of its container. A gas has
(A) Diffusion particles that are free to move and expand, so it
(B) Solidification has neither a fixed volume nor a fixed shape.
(C) Compression
(D) Evaporation 74. What must be overcome for a solid to melt?
(A) The pressure of the surrounding atmosphere.


Ans (B) The gravitational force acting on the particles.
(A) Diffusion (C) The motion of the particles.
This process with both potassium permanganate (D) The interparticle forces of attraction.
in water and incense smoke in air. Diffusion is

Ans
the spontaneous mixing of particles of different
substances due to their inherent, constant, and (D) The interparticle forces of attraction.
random motion. The particles in a solid are held in a rigid structure
by strong attractive forces. Melting occurs when
71. How do the particles of a solid primarily move? the particles are given enough thermal energy (by
(A) They slide past one another. heating) to vibrate so vigorously that they break
(B) They move randomly in all directions. free from these forces and can move around as a
(C) They vibrate about their fixed positions. liquid.
(D) They do not move at all.


Ans
(C) They vibrate about their fixed positions.
75. What happens to the rate of diffusion as the
The strong interparticle forces in a solid prevent
temperature increases?
the particles from changing their location.
(A) It decreases.
However, they are not completely motionless.
(B) It remains the same.
They possess thermal energy, which causes them
(C) It stops completely.
to constantly vibrate or oscillate around their
(D) It increases.
fixed points in the lattice structure.


Ans
72. Which of the following is NOT a fluid?
(A) An iron nail (D) It increases.
(B) Air The “Think like a scientist” box on diffusion
(C) Water demonstrates this with potassium permanganate
(D) Oxygen gas in hot and cold water. Higher temperature means
the particles have more kinetic energy and move


Ans faster. This faster random motion leads to a
(A) An iron nail quicker rate of mixing, or diffusion.
page 200 Class 8th Science Foundation

76. LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) is stored in 78. Which statement about the particulate nature of
cylinders as a liquid but comes out as a gas. This matter is false?
is possible because gases are: (A) The particles in a liquid can slide over one
(A) Highly reactive another.
(B) Not made of particles (B) There are empty spaces between the particles
(C) Highly compressible of matter.
(D) Very soluble (C) The particles in a gas are far apart and move


Ans randomly.
(C) Highly compressible (D) The particles in a solid are stationary and
Gases can be turned into liquids by applying high have no motion.
pressure. Because gas particles are very far apart,

Ans
they can be forced much closer together under
pressure until they become a liquid. This allows (D) The particles in a solid are stationary and
a large amount of the substance to be stored in a have no motion.
relatively small cylinder. The particles in a solid are not completely
stationary. They are held in fixed positions, but
77. Match the process of changing state with its they constantly vibrate or oscillate around these
correct description. positions. This vibrational motion is a form of
kinetic energy.
Column A Column B
79. You observe that a substance does not change its
1 Melting A The rapid conversion of a
liquid to a gas throughout shape or volume when moved from one container
the bulk of the liquid at a to another. You can conclude that the substance
specific temperature. is a:
(A) Liquid
2 Boiling B The energy (heat) that (B) Solid
causes particles to (C) Fluid
vibrate and move more (D) Gas
vigorously.


Ans
3 Evaporation C The slow conversion of (B) Solid
a liquid to a gas that A definite shape and a definite volume are the
occurs only at the surface two key macroscopic properties that define the
and at any temperature. solid state of matter. Liquids and gases (fluids) do
4 Thermal D The process where a solid not have a definite shape.
Energy turns into a liquid upon
80. Why is it important that the particles of matter
heating.
are in constant motion?
Options (A) It is the reason why matter has mass.
(a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D (B) It explains why solids are rigid.
(b) 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C (C) It explains why objects fall due to gravity.
(c) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B (D) It explains phenomena like diffusion and
(d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A dissolving.


Ans

Ans
(c) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B (D) It explains phenomena like diffusion and
Melting is the transition from solid to liquid. dissolving.
Boiling is the rapid liquid-to-gas conversion at the The idea of constant particle motion is fundamental
boiling point. Evaporation is a slower, surface- to explaining many processes. It is the random
level conversion. Thermal energy is the heat movement of solvent and solute particles that
energy that drives these changes. allows dissolving to occur. It is also the reason
substances mix on their own (diffusion), like the
spread of a smell.
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

81. The fine powder of chalk obtained by grinding 84. If the interparticle forces of attraction did not
consists of: exist, what would all matter be like?
(A) A large number of smaller chalk particles. (A) All matter would be in the gaseous state.
(B) A new chemical substance. (B) The state of matter would not change.
(C) A mixture of chalk and air. (C) All matter would be in the solid state.
(D) Liquid chalk. (D) All matter would be in the liquid state.


Ans

Ans
(A) A large number of smaller chalk particles. (A) All matter would be in the gaseous state.
Activity 7.1 demonstrates that grinding is a The interparticle forces are what hold particles
physical change. The large chalk stick is simply together to form liquids and solids. If these
broken down into smaller and smaller pieces, but attractive forces were absent, all particles would
each tiny speck is still the same substance, chalk. be free to move independently and as far apart as
possible, which is the definition of a gas.
82. What is the main difference between the
interparticle forces in a liquid compared to a 85. Heating a substance increases the ______
solid? energy of its particles, causing them to move
(A) They are repulsive in a liquid and attractive ______.
in a solid. (A) magnetic, in circles
(B) They are non-existent in a liquid. (B) chemical, randomly
(C) They are slightly weaker in a liquid, allowing (C) kinetic, faster
particles to move. (D) potential, slower
(D) They are much stronger in a liquid.


Ans


Ans (C) kinetic, faster
(C) They are slightly weaker in a liquid, allowing Adding heat increases the thermal energy of a
particles to move. substance. This energy manifests as increased
The transition from solid to liquid. The forces are kinetic energy of the constituent particles,
still strong enough in a liquid to keep the particles meaning they vibrate more vigorously or move
close together (maintaining a fixed volume), but from place to place at a higher speed.
they are weaker than in a solid, which allows for
the fluidity and lack of a fixed shape. 86. Which of the following is a true statement about
the properties of gases?
(A) The particles of a gas are held in fixed
positions.
(B) Gases have a definite shape.
83. Why is a gas cylinder for cooking always stored (C) Gases have a definite volume.
upright and in a well-ventilated area? (D) Gases are highly compressible.
(A) To keep it cool in the shade.
(B) To prevent it from rolling away.

Ans
(C) To make it look neat. (D) Gases are highly compressible.
(D) Because the gas inside is heavier than air Due to the large interparticle spaces, the
and would leak downwards, so ventilation is particles of a gas can be easily forced closer
needed to disperse it safely. together by applying external pressure. This


Ans high compressibility is a key characteristic that
distinguishes gases from solids and liquids.
(D) Because the gas inside is heavier than air and
would leak downwards, so ventilation is needed to 87. Which of the following is NOT an example of
disperse it safely. diffusion?
LPG is denser than air. If there is a leak, the gas (A) A drop of ink spreading in a glass of water.
will not rise and disperse but will sink and collect (B) A block of wood floating on water.
at low levels, creating a serious fire or explosion (C) The smell of perfume spreading through a
hazard. Good ventilation at a low level is a critical room.
safety measure to prevent this accumulation. (D) Sugar dissolving in tea after stirring.
page 202 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans the tiny salt particles are filling the pre-existing

(B) A block of wood floating on water. empty spaces between the water molecules.
Diffusion is the intermixing of particles due to
91. How does the motion of particles in a solid differ
their random motion. The first three examples
all involve particles of one substance spreading from their motion in a liquid?
out and mixing with another. Floating is a (A) Solid particles vibrate in fixed positions;
phenomenon related to density and buoyancy, not liquid particles can slide past each other.
the intermixing of particles. (B) Solid particles move in straight lines; liquid
particles move in circles.
88. The change of state from solid to liquid is called: (C) Both have identical types of motion.
(A) Condensation (D) Solid particles are completely still; liquid
(B) Evaporation particles vibrate.
(C) Boiling
(D) Melting or fusion

Ans


Ans (A) Solid particles vibrate in fixed positions;
liquid particles can slide past each other.
(D) Melting or fusion
This is the key difference in particle dynamics
Melting is the common term for the solid-to-liquid
between the two states. The strong forces in solids
phase transition. Fusion is another scientific term
restrict particles to only vibrating. The weaker
for the same process.
forces in liquids allow particles to break free from
89. A beaker of water is left in a room, and over these fixed positions and move relative to each
several days, the water level slowly goes down. other.
This process is called:
92. The properties of matter depend on the
(A) Condensation
arrangement of its constituent ______, which
(B) Freezing
are held together by ______ forces.
(C) Boiling
(A) gases, frictional
(D) Evaporation
(B) particles, interparticle


Ans
(C) solids, magnetic
(D) Evaporation (D) liquids, gravitational
Evaporation is the process by which a liquid turns
into a gas at a temperature below its boiling

Ans
point. It happens at the surface of the liquid as (B) particles, interparticle
individual particles gain enough energy to escape, All macroscopic properties of matter (like its
which is why the water disappears slowly over state, density, etc.) are determined by the
time. microscopic arrangement and interaction of its
fundamental constituent particles, which are
90. The fact that you can add a significant amount of
bound by interparticle attractive forces.
salt to water before the volume starts to increase
is evidence for: 93. Which of the following is NOT a property of
(A) The high density of salt. liquids?
(B) A chemical reaction between salt and water. (A) Their particles are in constant motion.
(C) The existence of interparticle spaces in the (B) They have a definite volume.
water. (C) They are fluids.
(D) The fact that salt particles are very large. (D) They have a definite shape.


Ans

Ans
(C) The existence of interparticle spaces in the (D) They have a definite shape.
water. A definite shape is a property of solids. Liquids
If water were a continuous medium with no gaps, are defined by their ability to flow and take the
adding any amount of salt would immediately shape of whatever container they are in, meaning
increase the total volume. The fact that the they do not have a definite shape of their own.
volume does not change much initially shows that
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

94. In which state of matter is the interparticle 97. A brick wall is to bricks as a sugar cube is to
spacing at its maximum? ______.
(A) In all states, it is the same. (A) sugar’s constituent particles (molecules)
(B) Gas (B) solid particles
(C) Solid (C) sweet particles
(D) Liquid (D) water particles


Ans

Ans
(B) Gas (A) sugar’s constituent particles (molecules)
In the gaseous state, particles have high kinetic The analogy relates a large-scale object to its
energy and negligible attractive forces, allowing fundamental building blocks. A wall is made of
them to spread out as far as possible. This results many individual bricks. Similarly, a sugar cube
in very large average distances, or maximum is a large crystal made up of a huge number of
interparticle spacing, between them. its smallest individual units, which are sugar
molecules.
95. When you pump air into a flat tyre, the tyre
inflates. This is possible because: 98. Which of the following statements about the
(A) The rubber of the tyre expands when touched states of matter is false?
by the pump. (A) Liquids have a definite shape.
(B) Air is a solid. (B) Particles in all three states are in motion.
(C) Air is a gas and can be compressed and forced (C) Gases have the largest interparticle spaces.
into the tyre. (D) Solids have the strongest interparticle forces.
(D) Air is a liquid.


Ans


Ans (A) Liquids have a definite shape.
(C) Air is a gas and can be compressed and forced Liquids are characterized by their lack of a
into the tyre. definite shape; they flow to assume the shape of
Air is a gas, which means it has no fixed volume their container. A definite shape is the defining
and is highly compressible. A pump works by characteristic of a solid.
compressing a volume of air from the atmosphere
and forcing it into the confined space of the 99. The movement of particles in a solid is best
tyre, increasing the amount of gas and thus the described as:
pressure inside. (A) Free and random
(B) Sliding past one another
96. On a cold day, you can see your breath. This is (C) Vibration about a fixed position
because: (D) No movement at all
(A) Your breath is a type of smoke.


Ans
(B) The water vapor in your warm breath
condenses into tiny liquid water droplets in (C) Vibration about a fixed position
the cold air. Due to strong interparticle forces, particles
(C) The carbon dioxide in your breath freezes in a solid are not free to move from place to
into a solid. place. Their motion is restricted to oscillating
(D) Your lungs produce a special gas only when it or vibrating around their fixed locations in the
is cold. solid’s structure.

Ans 100. If you have a mixture of sand and sugar, what

(B) The water vapor in your warm breath property of sugar could you use to separate it
condenses into tiny liquid water droplets in the from the sand?
cold air. (A) Its solubility in water
Your breath is warm and contains a lot of invisible (B) Its solid state
water vapor (a gas). When you exhale into cold (C) Its color
air, this warm vapor cools down rapidly, causing (D) Its density
it to change state into tiny, visible droplets of

Ans
liquid water, which appear as a small cloud.
(A) Its solubility in water
page 204 Class 8th Science Foundation

Sugar dissolves in water, but sand does not. You (B) All matter is composed of tiny, constantly
could add water to the mixture to dissolve the moving particles.
sugar, then filter out the insoluble sand. Finally, This statement captures two of the key tenets of
you could evaporate the water to recover the solid the particulate theory introduced : that matter
sugar. is made of particles and that these particles are
always in motion (vibrating, sliding, or moving
101. How does the effect of temperature on the freely).
solubility of gases in water differ from its effect
on most solids? 104. Match the scientific term with its correct definition
(A) The solubility of gases increases with or property.
temperature, while for most solids it decreases.
(B) The solubility of gases decreases with Column A Column B
temperature, while for most solids it increases. 1 Compressibility A An ancient Indian
(C) Temperature has no effect on either. philosopher who
(D) The solubility of both increases with proposed the idea of
temperature.
2 Melting Point B The minimum


Ans temperature at which
(B) The solubility of gases decreases with a solid becomes a
temperature, while for most solids it increases. liquid.
For most solid solutes like sugar or salt, increasing 3 Boiling Point C The temperature at
the temperature of the water allows more of it which a liquid starts
to dissolve. For gaseous solutes like oxygen, to boil and turn into
increasing the temperature gives the gas particles vapour.
more energy to escape the liquid, thus decreasing
their solubility. 4 Acharya Kanad D A property of matter,
which is very high in
102. Why are solids and liquids difficult to compress? gases because of the
(A) Because they are always at a low temperature. large spaces between
(B) Because their particles are too heavy. their particles.
(C) Because their particles have very little empty
Options
space between them.
(a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
(D) Because their particles have no attractive
forces. (b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
(c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C


Ans
(d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
(C) Because their particles have very little empty
space between them.

Ans
Compression involves reducing the volume by (a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
forcing particles closer together. In solids and Gases are highly compressible due to large
liquids, the particles are already in close contact. interparticle spaces. The melting point is the
There is very little interparticle space to be temperature for solid-to-liquid transition. The
reduced, so they resist compression. boiling point is for liquid-to-gas transition.
Acharya Kanad conceptualized the atom.
103. Which of the following statements is a correct
description of the particulate model of matter? 105. The interparticle attractions are ______ in ice
(A) The particles of matter are stationary. (solid) and ______ in water vapour (gas).
(B) All matter is composed of tiny, constantly (A) weak, strong
moving particles. (B) strong, negligible
(C) Matter is continuous and can be divided (C) negligible, strong
endlessly. (D) strong, weak
(D) There are no spaces between the particles of


Ans
matter.
(B) strong, negligible


Ans
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

Ice is the solid state of water, characterized by 109. What is the primary reason that a drop of honey
strong attractive forces that hold the particles in diffuses much more slowly in water than a drop
a fixed crystal lattice. Water vapour is the gaseous of ink?
state, where the particles have high energy and (A) Honey is lighter than water.
the attractive forces between them are negligible. (B) Ink particles are larger than honey particles.
(C) The interparticle forces in honey are much
106. Which of the following is NOT an example of stronger, making it more viscous and slowing
matter? down particle movement.
(A) A piece of chalk (D) Honey is not a liquid.
(B) The air in a balloon
(C) A feeling of happiness

Ans
(D) A glass of water (C) The interparticle forces in honey are much


Ans stronger, making it more viscous and slowing
down particle movement.
(C) A feeling of happiness Honey is very viscous (thick and slow-flowing).
Matter is anything that has mass and occupies This is due to strong attractive forces between
space. Chalk, air, and water all have mass and its molecules. These strong forces resist the free
volume. A feeling or emotion like happiness does movement and mixing of its particles with water
not have mass or volume and is therefore not particles, resulting in a much slower rate of
matter. diffusion compared to the less viscous ink.
107. The ability of a substance’s particles to move 110. What is the main difference between the particles
freely and mix with the particles of another of ice and the particles of liquid water?
substance is central to the process of: (A) The particles in ice are stationary, while in
(A) Diffusion water they move.
(B) Freezing (B) The particles themselves are different
(C) Compression chemical substances.
(D) Melting (C) The particles in ice are arranged in a fixed,


Ans orderly pattern, while in water they are
arranged randomly.
(A) Diffusion
(D) The particles in ice are smaller than in water.
Diffusion is the direct result of the constant,
random motion of particles. This motion causes

Ans
particles of different substances to intermingle (C) The particles in ice are arranged in a fixed,
over time until they are evenly mixed. orderly pattern, while in water they are arranged
randomly.
108. A pressure cooker cooks food faster than an open
Both ice and water are made of H2O molecules.
pot because:
The difference is their arrangement and motion.
(A) The food particles move faster under pressure.
In the solid state (ice), the particles are locked
(B) The metal of the cooker is a better conductor
into a regular crystal lattice. In the liquid state,
of heat.
this long-range order is lost, and the particles can
(C) It uses a special type of heat. move past each other.
(D) The pressure inside increases the boiling point
of water. 111. Which of the following is NOT a property of
solids?


Ans (A) They have a definite volume.
(D) The pressure inside increases the boiling (B) They can flow.
point of water. (C) Their particles are closely packed.
By trapping the steam, a pressure cooker increases (D) They have a definite shape.
the atmospheric pressure inside. Under higher

Ans
pressure, water boils at a temperature higher
than 100°C. Cooking the food at this higher (B) They can flow.
temperature significantly reduces the cooking The ability to flow is the defining characteristic of
time. a fluid (a liquid or a gas). Solids are rigid because
page 206 Class 8th Science Foundation

their particles are held in fixed positions and 115. Boiling is to 100°C (for water) as melting is to
cannot flow. ______.
(A) any temperature
112. What happens to the particle arrangement when (B) 50°C
a liquid freezes into a solid? (C) 0°C
(A) The particles move farther apart and become (D) -10°C
disordered.
(B) The particles are destroyed.

Ans
(C) The particles slow down and arrange (C) 0°C
themselves into a more ordered, fixed pattern. The analogy relates a phase change to its specific
(D) The particles start moving much faster. temperature point for water. The boiling point


Ans of water is 100°C. The melting point of ice (solid
water) is 0°C.
(C) The particles slow down and arrange
themselves into a more ordered, fixed pattern. 116. The three states of matter are solid, liquid, and
Freezing is the process of removing thermal ______, and their properties are determined
energy. As particles lose energy, they slow down. by the motion and ______ of their particles.
The interparticle attractions become dominant, (A) fluid, mass
pulling the particles into a stable, ordered, and (B) plasma, color
fixed structure, which is the solid state. (C) vapor, size
(D) gas, attraction
113. If you want to dissolve sugar in water as quickly
as possible, you should:

Ans
(A) Use a very small amount of water. (D) gas, attraction
(B) Use hot water and stir continuously. The three common states of matter are solid,
(C) Use a large block of sugar instead of granules. liquid, and gas. It explains all their macroscopic
(D) Use cold water and not stir. properties based on the two key microscopic


Ans factors the motion (kinetic energy) of their
particles and the attractive forces between them.
(B) Use hot water and stir continuously.
Dissolving is a process that depends on particle 117. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
motion. Using hot water increases the kinetic fluid?
energy of the water particles, making them collide (A) A wooden block
with the sugar more frequently and energetically. (B) Milk
Stirring physically moves the particles around, (C) Air
further speeding up the mixing process. (D) Water

114. Why is it incorrect to say that the particles of a

Ans

solid have “no movement”? (A) A wooden block
(A) Because they slowly diffuse through the solid. A fluid is a substance that can flow and take the
(B) Because they are actually moving at the shape of its container. Water, air, and milk all
speed of light. have this property. A wooden block is a solid; it is
(C) Because they can slide past each other. rigid and has a fixed shape.
(D) Because they are constantly vibrating in their 118. The interparticle attractions in liquids are:
fixed positions. (A) Repulsive.


Ans (B) Stronger than in solids.
(C) Slightly weaker than in solids.
(D) Because they are constantly vibrating in their
(D) Negligible.
fixed positions.
Even though the particles in a solid are locked in

Ans
a lattice, they still possess thermal energy. This (C) Slightly weaker than in solids.
energy causes them to have kinetic energy in the The forces are strongest in solids. In liquids, they
form of constant vibrations or oscillations around are still significant (keeping the volume constant)
their equilibrium positions. but are weaker than in solids, allowing for flow.
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

119. When you spray air freshener in one corner of a 122. Which statement about the particulate model of
room, the smell soon spreads everywhere. This is matter is false?
an example of: (A) The particles of a gas have very strong
(A) Evaporation of a solid attractive forces.
(B) Diffusion in gases (B) All matter is made of particles.
(C) Sublimation (C) The particles have spaces between them.
(D) Condensation (D) The particles are always moving.


Ans

Ans
(B) Diffusion in gases (A) The particles of a gas have very strong
The air freshener particles are released as a gas attractive forces.
or fine aerosol. These particles, along with the A defining characteristic of the gaseous state is
air particles in the room, are in constant random that the attractive forces between its particles
motion. This motion causes the freshener particles are extremely weak or negligible. This is why gas
to spread out from the corner until they are evenly particles can move freely and are far apart from
distributed throughout the room’s air. each other.

120. If you could see the individual particles of a 123. Solids have a definite shape because their particles
melting ice cube, what would you observe? are held in ______ positions, while liquids
(A) The particles would stop moving completely. flow because their particles can ______ past
(B) The particles themselves would be melting one another.
and changing shape. (A) fixed, slide
(C) The particles would be breaking apart into (B) circular, rotate
smaller pieces. (C) random, vibrate
(D) moving, stick
(D) The particles, which were vibrating in fixed
positions, would start to break free and slide

Ans
past one another. (A) fixed, slide


Ans This statement accurately contrasts the particle
behavior in solids and liquids. The rigid structure
(D) The particles, which were vibrating in fixed of solids comes from particles being locked into
positions, would start to break free and slide past fixed positions. The fluidity of liquids comes from
one another. the ability of their particles to break from these
Melting is a change in the arrangement and fixed positions and move relative to each other.
motion of particles, not a change in the particles
themselves. The added heat energy increases the
vibrations until the particles can overcome the
forces holding them in a rigid lattice and begin to
124. What property of gases allows a large amount of
move more freely, characteristic of a liquid.
air to be stored in a small scuba diving tank?
121. How does the density of a substance generally (A) Gases are lightweight.
change when it is heated? (B) Gases are highly compressible.
(A) It becomes zero. (C) Gases have no fixed shape.
(B) It stays the same. (D) Gases are invisible.
(C) It decreases.

Ans
(D) It increases.
(B) Gases are highly compressible.


Ans Scuba tanks store breathing air for divers. To
(C) It decreases. store enough air for a dive in a portable tank,
Heating a substance causes its particles to move the air must be forced into it under very high
farther apart, which increases its volume. Since pressure. This is possible because gases are highly
density is mass divided by volume, and the mass compressible, meaning a large volume of gas at
stays constant while the volume increases, the normal pressure can be squeezed into a small
density generally decreases. volume.
page 208 Class 8th Science Foundation

125. When you add a spoonful of sand to a glass of 128. Which of the following does NOT describe a
water and stir, the sand settles at the bottom. property of the particles in a liquid?
This is because: (A) They have interparticle spaces.
(A) The water particles repel the sand particles. (B) They are in constant motion.
(B) Sand is a solid. (C) They are held in fixed positions and can only
(C) The sand reacts chemically with the glass. vibrate.
(D) They have weaker attractive forces than solids.
(D) Sand is insoluble in water, and its particles
are too large and heavy to remain suspended.

Ans

Ans (C) They are held in fixed positions and can only
vibrate.
(D) Sand is insoluble in water, and its particles This statement describes the particles in a solid.
are too large and heavy to remain suspended. The defining characteristic of a liquid is that its
For a substance to dissolve, its particles must be particles are not held in fixed positions; they have
small enough to fit into the interparticle spaces enough energy to slide past one another.
of the solvent, and there must be sufficient
attraction between solute and solvent particles. 129. The process of making tea involves adding tea
Sand is insoluble, meaning these conditions are leaves to hot water, which then becomes colored
not met, so it simply sinks. and flavored. This happens primarily due to:
(A) Diffusion of soluble compounds from the tea
126. What are the two states of matter that are leaves into the hot water.
classified as fluids? (B) A chemical reaction that creates a new liquid.
(A) Solids and Liquids (C) Melting of the tea leaves.
(B) Solids and Plasma (D) The tea leaves evaporating.
(C) Liquids and Gases


Ans
(D) Solids and Gases
(A) Diffusion of soluble compounds from the tea


Ans leaves into the hot water.
(C) Liquids and Gases The hot water causes the flavor and color
The chapter defines fluids as substances that can compounds (solutes) within the tea leaves to
flow. Because the particles in both liquids and dissolve and then mix with the water. The
gases are not locked in fixed positions and can spreading of these compounds throughout the
move relative to each other, both states exhibit water is the process of diffusion, which happens
the property of fluidity. much faster in hot water.

127. Which of the following is a true statement 130. How does the particulate model explain why
regarding the states of matter? liquids and gases can take the shape of their
(A) Solids are the only state with a definite container?
volume. (A) Their particles are not held in fixed positions
and are free to move.
(B) The particles in a solid do not move at all.
(B) Their particles are larger than the container.
(C) Gases are the only state that is compressible. (C) Their particles have no mass.
(D) Liquids have stronger interparticle forces (D) Their particles are strongly attracted to the
than gases. container walls.


Ans

Ans
(D) Liquids have stronger interparticle forces (A) Their particles are not held in fixed positions
than gases. and are free to move.
The chapter describes a clear hierarchy of The ability to change shape requires that the
interparticle forces: strongest in solids, weaker constituent particles can rearrange themselves. In
in liquids, and negligible in gases. Therefore, the both liquids and gases, the interparticle forces are
forces in liquids are indeed stronger than those in weak enough to allow the particles to move from
gases, which is why liquids have a definite volume their original positions and flow, thus conforming
while gases do not. to the shape of any container.
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

131. The particles of a ______ are arranged in a (C) Deposition

regular pattern, while the particles of a ______ While not explicitly defined in the chapter, this
are randomly arranged but still close together. is the correct term for the gas-to-solid phase
(A) gas, liquid transition, the reverse of sublimation. An example
(B) solid, liquid is the formation of frost from water vapor on a
(C) gas, solid cold surface.
(D) liquid, solid
135. Why is it easier to stir a liquid than to push your


Ans finger through a solid block?
(B) solid, liquid (A) The solid block is heavier than the liquid.
Crystalline solids are defined by their orderly, (B) The liquid has no particles.
repeating arrangement of particles (a crystal (C) The interparticle forces in the liquid are
lattice). Liquids lack this long-range order; their weaker, allowing particles to be moved aside
particles are close together but are arranged in a easily.
disordered, random fashion. (D) The liquid is warmer than the solid.

132. Melting point is to solid-liquid transition as

Ans

______ is to liquid-gas transition. (C) The interparticle forces in the liquid are
(A) boiling point weaker, allowing particles to be moved aside
(B) freezing point easily.
(C) diffusion point Stirring involves moving particles out of the way.
(D) condensation point In a liquid, the weaker attractive forces allow its
particles to be easily displaced and to flow around


Ans
the spoon. In a solid, the strong forces lock the
(A) boiling point particles in place, resisting any attempt to push
The analogy links a specific temperature point to through them.
the phase change that occurs there. The melting
point is the temperature for the solid-to-liquid 136. The fact that matter is composed of particles, not
transition. The boiling point is the temperature a continuous substance, is known as the:
for the liquid-to-gas transition. (A) Law of Conservation of Mass
(B) Atomic Theory
133. Which of the following is NOT an example of a (C) Theory of Relativity
physical change? (D) Particulate Nature of Matter
(A) Dissolving sugar in water.
(B) Grinding a piece of chalk.

Ans
(C) Melting an ice cube. (D) Particulate Nature of Matter
(D) Burning a piece of paper. It is the theory that explains that all matter
is made up of discrete, tiny particles, and the


Ans
properties of matter depend on the properties and
(D) Burning a piece of paper. interactions of these particles.
Burning (combustion) is a chemical change. The
paper reacts with oxygen to form new substances 137. What is the most significant difference between
like ash, carbon dioxide, and water vapor. The the particle arrangement in a liquid and a gas?
other three options are physical changes, as the (A) The particles in a liquid are stationary, while
chemical identity of the chalk, sugar, and water in a gas they are moving.
does not change. (B) The particles in a liquid are larger than in a
gas.
134. The process of a gas changing directly into a solid (C) The particles in a liquid are close together,
is known as: while in a gas they are very far apart.
(A) Condensation (D) The particles in a liquid are ordered, while in
(B) Sublimation a gas they are random.
(C) Deposition
(D) Freezing

Ans
(C) The particles in a liquid are close together,


Ans
while in a gas they are very far apart.
page 210 Class 8th Science Foundation

This is the key structural difference. The proximity (A) Evaporation

of particles in a liquid results in a fixed volume (B) Melting
and incompressibility. The large separation of (C) Sublimation
particles in a gas results in no fixed volume and (D) Condensation
high compressibility.


Ans
138. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of (C) Sublimation
the solid state? The solid air freshener is turning directly into
(A) Interparticle forces are very strong. a gas (the fragrance) without first becoming a
(B) Particles vibrate about fixed positions. liquid. This direct transition from the solid state
(C) It has a definite volume. to the gaseous state is called sublimation.
(D) It takes the shape of its container.
142. The three states of matter—solid, liquid, and


Ans gas—are determined by a balance between the
particles’ kinetic energy and:
(D) It takes the shape of its container.
(A) The gravitational force.
Taking the shape of the container is a characteristic
(B) The interparticle forces of attraction.
of fluids (liquids and gases). Solids are rigid and
(C) Their chemical properties.
maintain their own definite shape regardless of
(D) Their size and shape.
the container they are in.


Ans
139. When you heat a liquid, its particles move
(B) The interparticle forces of attraction.
______, and the rate of ______ increases.
The kinetic energy (related to temperature) tends
(A) faster, evaporation
to make particles fly apart. The interparticle
(B) slower, freezing
attractive forces tend to hold them together.
(C) closer, condensation
The dominant factor determines whether the
(D) in circles, boiling
substance is a solid, liquid, or gas.


Ans
143. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(A) faster, evaporation
(A) The particles in a liquid are less ordered than
Heating a liquid increases the kinetic energy of
in a solid.
its particles, making them move faster. As more
(B) Gases cannot be contained in a closed vessel.
particles at the surface gain enough energy to
(C) The smell of a flower is an example of a solid
escape, the rate of evaporation (the process of
diffusing.
turning into a gas from the surface) increases.
(D) All solids melt at 0°C.
140. What does the term “interparticle spaces” refer

Ans
to?
(A) The particles in a liquid are less ordered than
(A) The speed at which the particles move.
in a solid.
(B) The empty spaces or gaps between the
Crystalline solids have a highly ordered, repeating
particles.
structure. When a substance melts into a liquid,
(C) The size of the particles themselves.
this long-range order is lost, and the particles
(D) The forces between the particles.
adopt a more random, disordered arrangement,


Ans which is a key difference between the two states.
(B) The empty spaces or gaps between the
144. Which statement about dissolving sugar in water
particles.
is false?
This term is uses to describe the fact that matter
(A) The sugar particles chemically bond with the
is not perfectly packed. There are voids or
water particles to form a new substance.
empty spaces between the individual constituent
(B) The sugar breaks down into its constituent
particles of a substance.
particles.
141. A solid air freshener block slowly disappears over (C) The sugar and water particles are in constant
time, making the room smell pleasant. This is an motion.
example of: (D) The sugar particles occupy the interparticle
spaces of the water.
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

Ans This is the standard definition of the liquid state.

(A) The sugar particles chemically bond with the The particles are close enough to occupy a fixed
water particles to form a new substance. volume, but they can move around, allowing the
Dissolving is a physical change, not a chemical liquid to take the shape of its container.
one. The sugar particles simply mix with the water
148. Tightly packed is to solid as ______ is to gas.
particles. No new substance is formed, which is
why you can get the sugar back by evaporating (A) orderly arranged
the water. (B) very far apart
(C) vibrating
145. Why does a steel ship float, but a small steel ball (D) loosely packed
bearing sinks?

Ans
(A) The water is denser under the ship.
(B) The ship is hollow, giving it a large volume (B) very far apart
and low average density. The analogy compares the characteristic particle
(C) The ship is magnetic, and the ball bearing is spacing in different states. Solids are defined by
not. their tightly packed particles. Gases are defined
(D) The ball bearing is heavier than the ship. by their particles being very far apart with large
empty spaces between them.


Ans
149. Which of these is NOT evidence for the particulate
(B) The ship is hollow, giving it a large volume
and low average density. nature of matter?
A solid steel ball is denser than water and sinks. (A) A rock having a definite shape.
A ship is shaped to displace a huge volume of (B) A sugar cube dissolving in water.
water. Its total mass divided by its total volume (C) A gas being easily compressed.
(including the air inside) gives it an average (D) The smell of perfume spreading across a
density less than water, allowing it to float. room.


Ans
146. When a liquid is heated in an open container,
what happens to the particles at the surface? (A) A rock having a definite shape.
(A) They sink to the bottom of the container. The definite shape of a rock is a macroscopic
property. While it can be explained by the
(B) They freeze into a solid.
particulate model (tightly packed particles), it
(C) They gain enough kinetic energy to escape as
is not direct evidence for it in the same way as
a gas.
dissolving, diffusion, and compression are, as
(D) They stop moving. these phenomena are very difficult to explain


Ans without the idea of mobile particles and the
spaces between them.
(C) They gain enough kinetic energy to escape
as a gas. 150. In a ______, particles are free to move
This describes the process of evaporation. Heating throughout the container, whereas in a ______,
increases the energy of all particles. The particles particles can slide past each other but remain
at the surface, which are less constrained than close.
those in the bulk, can use this extra energy to (A) gas, liquid
overcome the attractive forces of their neighbors (B) solid, gas
and escape into the air as vapor. (C) solid, liquid
(D) liquid, gas
147. The state of matter with a definite volume but no
definite shape is:

Ans
(A) Liquid (A) gas, liquid
(B) Solid This statement accurately describes the freedom of
(C) Plasma particle motion in gases and liquids. Gas particles
(D) Gas have complete freedom of movement within their


Ans container. Liquid particles have a more restricted
freedom, allowing them to move relative to each
(A) Liquid other but keeping them within a cohesive volume.
page 212 Class 8th Science Foundation

151. If you stir a cup of tea after adding sugar, the (B) In the solid state, they are completely
sugar dissolves faster. The stirring helps by: motionless.
(A) Increasing the movement of particles and Even at very low temperatures, particles in a solid
bringing fresh solvent in contact with the are not completely still. They possess thermal
sugar. energy and are constantly vibrating about their
(B) Chemically changing the sugar into a more fixed positions in the crystal lattice.
soluble form.
154. When water boils in a kettle, the steam (water
(C) Increasing the temperature of the tea.
vapor) that comes out fills the entire kitchen.
(D) Making the sugar particles smaller. This demonstrates that gases:


Ans (A) Are colder than liquids.
(B) Have a definite volume.
(A) Increasing the movement of particles and
bringing fresh solvent in contact with the sugar. (C) Have no definite volume and expand to fill
Stirring is a mechanical action that speeds up available space.
the natural process of diffusion. It moves the (D) Are very dense.
sugar particles and the water around, quickly

Ans
distributing the dissolved sugar away from the
crystal surfaces and allowing unsaturated water (C) Have no definite volume and expand to fill
to come into contact with them, thus accelerating available space.
the dissolving process. The water vapor (a gas) does not stay confined
to a small volume above the kettle. Its particles
152. What is the primary difference in the response to move freely and rapidly, spreading out (diffusing)
pressure between a gas and a solid? until they have occupied the entire volume of the
(A) A gas is highly compressible, while a solid is kitchen, demonstrating a key property of gases.
nearly incompressible.
155. The conversion of a liquid to a solid is called
(B) A solid changes shape under pressure, while a
gas does not. freezing. What must happen to the kinetic energy
of the particles for this to occur?
(C) A gas expands under pressure, while a solid
(A) It must be converted to light energy.
contracts.
(B) It must remain constant.
(D) Pressure has no effect on either.
(C) It must decrease.


Ans (D) It must increase.
(A) A gas is highly compressible, while a solid is

Ans
nearly incompressible.
This highlights a major difference in their physical (C) It must decrease.
properties, directly linked to their particulate Freezing involves removing heat from a liquid.
structure. The large interparticle spaces in gases This removal of energy causes the particles to
allow their volume to be easily reduced by pressure. slow down, meaning their average kinetic energy
The tightly packed nature of solids means their decreases. Eventually, they move slowly enough
volume changes very little under pressure. for the interparticle attractions to lock them into
a fixed, solid structure.

156. What happens to the volume of a gas if it is

transferred from a small container to a large
153. Which of the following statements about particles container?
is incorrect? (A) It decreases.
(A) They are in constant, random motion. (B) It becomes zero.
(B) In the solid state, they are completely (C) It increases to fill the entire large container.
motionless.
(D) It stays the same as the small container’s
(C) They are held together by attractive forces.
volume.
(D) They are too small to be seen with a naked
eye.

Ans


Ans (C) It increases to fill the entire large container.
Pagesmith CH 07 : Particulate Nature of Matter

A defining property of a gas is that it has no

fixed volume. The particles will move freely and
spread out until they are uniformly distributed
throughout the entire volume of the new, larger
container.

*************
page 214 Class 8th Science Foundation

CHAPTER 8
Nature of Matter: Elements,
Compounds and Mixtures

SUMMAR The individual components cannot be seen

separately. Example : Sugar dissolved in
water, or air.
1. Mixtures

1.1 Definition and Properties of Mixtures

A mixture is formed when two or more substances
(called components) are physically mixed together.
Key properties of a mixture:
1. The components do not react chemically with
each other.
2. Each component retains its own individual
properties.
3. The components can usually be separated by
physical methods. Uniform mixture of sugar and water

1.2 Types of Mixtures Alloys are a special type of uniform mixture,

usually of two or more metals. Examples include
Mixtures can be classified into two main types:
stainless steel, brass, and bronze.
1. Non-uniform Mixtures : In these mixtures, the
different components are unevenly mixed and 1.3 Air : A Gaseous Mixture
can often be seen separately with the naked
Air is a uniform mixture of several gases. Its main
eye. Example : A sprout salad, where you can
components are nitrogen (~78%), oxygen (~21%),
see the individual pieces of gram, chickpeas,
argon, carbon dioxide, and water vapor.
and tomatoes.
Air also contains suspended dust particles, which
are considered pollutants as they are not an
integral part of its composition.

2. Pure Substances

2.1 Definition of a Pure Substance

In science, a pure substance is a type of matter
that consists of only one type of particle. It cannot
Sprout salad be separated into other kinds of matter by any
physical process.
2. Uniform Mixtures : In these mixtures, the Examples like milk or ghee, often labeled ‘pure’,
components are evenly distributed, and are scientifically considered mixtures because
the mixture appears the same throughout.
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

they contain more than one substance (e.g., milk (a flammable gas) and oxygen (a gas that
contains water, fats, proteins). supports combustion).
2. The components of a compound cannot be
separated by physical methods. They can
only be broken down by chemical reactions
(e.g., passing electricity through water breaks
it down into hydrogen and oxygen).

3.3 Key Differences Between Mixtures and Compounds

Property Mixture Compound

1. Formation Components Elements
Some consumable items
are just combine
physically chemically to
3. Types of Pure Substances mixed. No form a new
chemical substance.
Pure substances are further divided into elements
reaction
and compounds.
occurs.
3.1 Elements 2. Properties Components The new
An element is the simplest form of a pure retain their substance has
substance that cannot be broken down further individual properties
into simpler substances by chemical means. They properties. entirely
are the fundamental building blocks of all matter. different
1. Particles : Each element is made up of from its
identical particles called atoms. Atoms of constituent
different elements are different from each elements.
other.
3. Ratio of Components Elements are
2. Classification : Elements can be classified
Components can be combined in a
into metals(e.g., iron, gold), non-metals(e.g.,
mixed in fixed ratio by
oxygen, carbon), and metalloids(e.g., silicon).
any ratio. mass.
3.2 Compounds
4. Separation Components Components
A compound is a pure substance formed when can be can only be
two or more elements combine chemically in a separated separated
fixed ratio. by physical by chemical
methods reactions.
(e.g., using a
magnet).

4. Minerals
Minerals are naturally occurring, solid substances
found on Earth that have a fixed chemical
Depiction of molecules of water
composition. Most minerals are compounds, made
Properties: up of more than one element (e.g., quartz, calcite).
1. The properties of a compound are completely Some minerals, called native minerals, are pure
different from the properties of its constituent elements(e.g., gold, silver, copper).
elements. For example, water (a liquid that
extinguishes fire) is made from hydrogen
page 216 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans
(D) A non-uniform mixture
In a non-uniform mixture, the different
components can be easily seen and distinguished
from one another. Since you can see the individual
sprouts, chickpeas, and tomatoes in the salad, it
is a non-uniform mixture.

3. A solution of salt dissolved in water is clear, and

the salt cannot be seen separately. What type of
mixture is this?
(A) An element
(B) A non-uniform mixture
(C) A uniform mixture
(D) A compound


Ans
(C) A uniform mixture
A uniform mixture is one where the components
Some minerals
are evenly distributed throughout, and they
cannot be distinguished from each other even
with a microscope. In a salt solution, the salt
particles are spread evenly among the water


MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO particles, creating a mixture that looks the same
throughout.
1. What is a mixture? 4. What is an alloy?
(A) A substance formed when two or more (A) A non-metallic element, such as carbon or
elements are chemically combined in a fixed sulfur, that is capable of conducting electricity
ratio by mass. under certain conditions.
(B) A single pure substance that consists of only (B) A new chemical substance that is formed
one type of particle and cannot be physically when different types of metals undergo an
separated. oxidation reaction with the air.
(C) Two or more substances mixed together, (C) A uniform mixture of two or more metals, or
where each retains its own properties. a metal and a non-metal.
(D) A fundamental substance that cannot be broken (D) A pure elemental substance that exhibits
down into simpler parts by any chemical means. a range of metallic properties, including


Ans conductivity and malleability.
(C) Two or more substances mixed together,

Ans
where each retains its own properties. (C) A uniform mixture of two or more metals, or
A mixture is a physical combination of two or more a metal and a non-metal.
substances that are not chemically bonded. The An alloy is a special type of uniform mixture created
individual components in the mixture maintain by melting and mixing two or more metals, or a
their original chemical identities and properties. metal with a non-metal. The resulting material,
For example, in a salt and sand mixture, the salt like stainless steel or brass, has properties that are
is still salty and the sand is still sandy. different from its individual components.
2. A sprout salad containing visible pieces of green 5. Brass is an alloy made from a mixture of which
gram, chickpeas, and tomato is an example of two metals?
what type of mixture? (A) Iron and Carbon
(A) A compound (B) Copper and Tin
(B) A pure substance (C) Aluminium and Magnesium
(C) A uniform mixture (D) Copper and Zinc
(D) A non-uniform mixture
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

Ans 8. In science, what is the definition of a “pure

(D) Copper and Zinc substance”?
Brass is a uniform mixture, or alloy, formed from (A) Any uniform mixture, such as seawater, where
the metals copper and zinc. It is often used for the different components are not visibly
decorative items and musical instruments. distinct from one another.
(B) A substance that is considered unadulterated
6. Why is air considered a mixture and not a
by other materials and is therefore completely
compound?
safe to eat or drink.
(A) Because the gases in air (like oxygen and
(C) Any substance that has been physically
nitrogen) retain their individual properties.
cleaned in a laboratory setting to remove all
(B) Because the different gases that are present in
visible dirt and impurities.
the air are visible and can be seen separately
from one another. (D) A substance that consists of only one type of
(C) Because air is officially classified as a single particle and cannot be separated by physical
pure substance consisting of only one uniform means.
type of molecule.

Ans
(D) Because air can be easily converted from its
normal gaseous to a liquid state through a (D) A substance that consists of only one type
process of cooling. of particle and cannot be separated by physical
means.


Ans The scientific definition of “pure” is very strict.
(A) Because the gases in air (like oxygen and It means the substance is not a mixture and is
nitrogen) retain their individual properties. composed of only a single type of constituent
A key characteristic of a mixture is that its particle (either atoms of one element or molecules
components do not lose their identities. In air, of one compound). It cannot be broken down
oxygen still supports combustion and respiration, further by physical methods like filtering or
and nitrogen is still relatively unreactive. Since evaporation.
they are not chemically bonded into a new
9. In the experiment shown in figure, a burning candle
substance, air is a mixture.
brought to the mouth of a test tube produces a
7. In Activity 8.1, what causes the clear lime water ‘pop’ sound. This indicates the presence of which
(calcium hydroxide solution) to turn milky when gas?
exposed to air?
(A) Water evaporating from the solution, which
increases the concentration of the dissolved
calcium hydroxide.
(B) Carbon dioxide from the air reacting to form
insoluble calcium carbonate.
(C) Oxygen from the surrounding air dissolving
in the lime water and causing a significant
chemical reaction to occur.
(D) Dust particles and other particulate matter
from the air physically settling into the (A) Hydrogen
solution and making it cloudy. (B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon dioxide


Ans (D) Nitrogen
(B) Carbon dioxide from the air reacting to form

Ans
insoluble calcium carbonate.
The reaction between calcium hydroxide (lime (A) Hydrogen
water) and carbon dioxide produces calcium The ‘pop’ sound test is the characteristic chemical
carbonate, a white solid that is insoluble in test for hydrogen gas. When a flame is introduced
water. The formation of these tiny white particles to a mixture of hydrogen and air, the hydrogen
suspended in the water gives it a milky or cloudy combusts rapidly, creating a small explosion that
appearance, serving as a test for carbon dioxide. produces the distinctive sound.
page 218 Class 8th Science Foundation

10. According to the scientific definition, which of the

Ans

following is a pure substance? (D) Oxygen
(A) Soil The test for oxygen is that it supports combustion.
(B) Sugar (sucrose) While it doesn’t burn itself, it allows other things
(C) Milk to burn more vigorously. Bringing a glowing splint
(D) Air or a burning candle near pure oxygen will cause


Ans the flame to reignite or burn much more brightly.

(B) Sugar (sucrose) 14. What is an element?

Milk, air, and soil are all mixtures of various (A) A substance that cannot be broken down into
different substances. Sugar, however, is a single simpler substances by chemical means.
compound (sucrose) made of identical molecules. (B) A uniform mixture of two or more different
Therefore, in a scientific context, sugar is types of metals, also known as an alloy.
considered a pure substance. (C) The smallest individual particle of a substance
that can exist independently.
11. What two gases are produced when an electric
current is passed through water? (D) A substance made of two or more different
(A) Hydrogen and Carbon Dioxide types of atoms that are chemically bonded
(B) Nitrogen and Oxygen together.
(C) Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

Ans
(D) Hydrogen and Oxygen
(A) A substance that cannot be broken down into


Ans simpler substances by chemical means.
(D) Hydrogen and Oxygen An element is the most basic form of a pure
The process of passing an electric current through substance. It consists of only one type of atom.
water is called electrolysis, which is a chemical Because it is already in its simplest form, it cannot
change. Activity 8.3 demonstrates that this be decomposed into other substances through any
process breaks down water, which is a compound, chemical reaction.
into its constituent elements: hydrogen gas and
15. What is the main difference between an element
oxygen gas.
and a compound?
12. During the electrolysis of water, a gas is collected (A) An element is a pure substance, while a
that burns with a ‘pop’ sound when a flame is compound is always classified as a type of
brought near. What gas is this? mixture.
(A) Oxygen (B) An element is a solid at room temperature,
(B) Nitrogen while a compound is always a liquid at room
(C) Hydrogen temperature.
(D) Carbon Dioxide (C) An element is made of one type of atom, while
a compound is made of two or more types of


Ans
atoms chemically bonded.
(C) Hydrogen (D) An element can be broken down into simpler
The ‘pop’ test is the characteristic chemical test substances, while a compound is fundamental
for hydrogen gas. Hydrogen is highly flammable, and cannot be broken down.
and when a small amount of it mixes with oxygen
from the air and is ignited, it combusts rapidly,

Ans
producing a distinctive squeaky pop sound. (C) An element is made of one type of atom,
while a compound is made of two or more types
13. In the electrolysis of water, the other gas collected
of atoms chemically bonded.
makes a burning candle glow brighter. What gas
This is the fundamental distinction. An element
is this?
(like pure iron) consists of only iron atoms. A
(A) Hydrogen
compound (like water) consists of molecules
(B) Water Vapour
where atoms of different elements (hydrogen and
(C) Carbon Monoxide
oxygen) are joined together by chemical bonds in
(D) Oxygen
a fixed ratio.
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

16. What is the term for a stable particle formed This experiment (Activity 8.4) is a decomposition
when two or more atoms of an element combine? reaction. The sugar breaks down into simpler
(A) An ion substances: carbon (the black solid) and water.
(B) A mixture Since water itself is made of hydrogen and oxygen,
(C) A molecule this proves that the original sugar was a single
(D) A compound compound containing all three of these elements.


Ans 19. In Activity 8.5, Sample A is a mixture of iron
(C) A molecule filings and sulfur powder. How can the iron be
The atoms of most elements do not exist separated from the sulfur?
independently. They combine to form more stable (A) By carefully filtering the mixture through a
units. When two or more atoms (either of the fine mesh screen.
same element, like in O2, or different elements, (B) By dissolving the entire mixture in a large
like in H2O) are chemically bonded, the resulting volume of water.
particle is called a molecule. (C) By using a magnet.
(D) By heating the mixture until it turns into a
17. Which of the following statements about black solid mass.
compounds is incorrect?
(A) The properties of a compound are the same

Ans
as its constituent elements. (C) By using a magnet.
(B) The components are present in a fixed ratio In a mixture, the components retain their physical
by mass. properties. Iron is magnetic, while sulfur is not.
(C) They are formed from two or more elements Therefore, a magnet can be used to attract and
combined chemically. pull the iron filings out of the mixture, leaving
the sulfur powder behind. This is a physical
(D) The components of a compound cannot be
separation method.
separated by physical methods.


Ans 20. In the electrolysis of water experiment as shown
in the figure, gas bubbles are collected in two test
(A) The properties of a compound are the same tubes. One tube collects twice the volume of gas
as its constituent elements. as the other. The gas with the larger volume is
A key characteristic of a compound is that it is ______.
a new substance with its own unique properties,
which are different from the properties of the
elements that formed it. For example, water (a
liquid that extinguishes fire) is very different from
hydrogen (a flammable gas) and oxygen (a gas
that supports combustion).

18. When sugar is heated strongly, it turns into a

black solid and releases water vapor. This shows
that sugar is:
(A) A compound made of carbon, hydrogen, and (A) Oxygen
oxygen. (B) Hydrogen
(B) A mixture of solid carbon particles and liquid (C) Carbon dioxide
water. (D) Air
(C) An element that changes color upon heating.

Ans
(D) A non-uniform mixture that separates with (B) Hydrogen
heat. The chemical formula for water is H2O, meaning
each molecule has two hydrogen atoms for every


Ans
one oxygen atom. When water is decomposed by
(A) A compound made of carbon, hydrogen, and electrolysis, this 2:1 ratio is maintained, producing
oxygen. twice the volume of hydrogen gas compared to
oxygen gas.
page 220 Class 8th Science Foundation

21. In Activity 8.5, why does a magnet have no (C) A non-uniform mixture of several different
effect on Sample B (the black mass formed after types of rocks and soil.
heating)? (D) Man-made crystalline substances that are
(A) Because the sulfur powder has melted and used in construction and industry.
coated the iron, hiding it from the magnet’s


Ans
field.
(B) Because a new compound, iron sulfide, was (A) Natural, solid substances found on Earth
formed which is not magnetic. with a fixed chemical composition.
(C) Because the heating process demagnetized The chapter defines minerals as naturally
the iron filings, making them permanently occurring, solid materials that make up rocks. A
non-magnetic. key characteristic is that they are pure substances
(D) Because the entire mixture became too hot (either elements or compounds) and thus have a
for the magnet to function correctly when definite chemical composition.
brought near.
24. In figure, a magnet is brought near Sample


Ans A (mixture) and Sample B (compound). The
(B) Because a new compound, iron sulfide, was magnet only affects Sample A. This is because
formed which is not magnetic. ______.
Heating the mixture caused a chemical reaction
between the iron and sulfur, forming a new
substance called iron sulfide. This compound
has its own set of properties, which are different
from those of iron and sulfur. One of these new
properties is that it is not attracted to a magnet.

22. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to Sample (a) Sample A

A (the mixture), hydrogen gas is produced. When
it is added to Sample B (the compound), hydrogen
sulfide gas (rotten egg smell) is produced. What
does this demonstrate?
(A) That mixtures and compounds are different
substances with different chemical properties.
(B) That both Sample A and Sample B are
identical in their chemical composition.
(C) That dilute hydrochloric acid is not a reliable
(b) Sample B
chemical to use for identification tests.
(D) That mixtures and compounds always react (A) Sample B is not made of iron
in the exact same way with acids. (B) Sample A contains unreacted iron which is


Ans still magnetic
(C) Sample B has become an even stronger
(A) That a mixture and a compound are different
magnet
substances with different chemical properties.
(D) Sample A has an electric charge
The production of two completely different gases
upon reaction with the same acid is clear evidence

Ans
that Sample A and Sample B are chemically (B) Sample A contains unreacted iron which is
distinct. In Sample A, only the iron reacts. In still magnetic
Sample B, the new substance, iron sulfide, In Sample A, the iron filings are merely mixed
undergoes a different chemical reaction. with sulfur and retain their individual properties,
23. What are minerals? including magnetism. In Sample B, the iron has
(A) Natural, solid substances found on Earth chemically reacted to form iron sulfide, a new
with a fixed chemical composition. substance that is not magnetic.
(B) Any type of substance that can be found by
digging in the Earth’s crust.
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

25. Gold and silver can be found in their pure form

Ans
in nature. In this context, they are referred to as: (C) A new substance with new properties is
(A) Compound minerals. formed.
(B) Rocks. The formation of a new substance with entirely
(C) Native minerals or native elements. new properties is the defining characteristic of a
(D) Alloys. chemical change, which creates a compound. In a


Ans mixture, which is a physical combination, no new
substance is formed.
(C) Native minerals or native elements.
Most minerals are compounds. However, when 29. What is the term used in ancient Indian texts for
a mineral is composed of a single, pure element, a mixture of two or more metals, also known as
it is called a native mineral or a native element. an alloy?
Gold, silver, copper, and carbon (as diamond or (A) Kamsya
graphite) are examples. (B) Mishraloha
(C) Tamra
26. A rock is a ______ of different minerals, while (D) Parmanu
a mineral is a ______ substance.
(A) compound, pure

Ans
(B) pure, mixture (B) Mishraloha
(C) mixture, pure The “Our scientific heritage” section on alloys
(D) element, compound mentions that “Mishraloha was the name given


Ans to the mixture of two or more metals that had
properties distinct from its constituent metals.”
(C) mixture, pure
Rocks are generally non-uniform mixtures 30. Which of the following can be classified as matter?
composed of grains of two or more different (A) A thought
minerals. Each of those individual minerals, (B) The air in a room
however, is a pure substance with a specific (C) The light from a lamp
chemical formula. (D) The heat from a fire
27. A sprout salad is to a non-uniform mixture as

Ans
stainless steel is to a(n) ______.
(B) The air in a room
(A) pure element
Matter is defined as anything that has mass
(B) uniform mixture (alloy)
and occupies space. Air is a mixture of gases; it
(C) compound
has mass (an inflated balloon is heavier than a
(D) non-uniform mixture
deflated one) and it occupies space (it fills the


Ans room). Thoughts, heat, and light are forms of
(B) uniform mixture (alloy) energy, not matter.
The analogy compares two examples based on
31. What is the primary difference between dissolving
their classification. A sprout salad is given as a
sugar in water and heating iron with sulfur?
classic example of a non-uniform mixture where
(A) Dissolving is a chemical change, while heating
components are visible. Stainless steel is given as a
is only a physical change.
classic example of a uniform mixture (specifically
(B) Both processes result in the formation of a
an alloy) where the components are not visible.
brand new compound.
28. Which of the following is NOT a property of a (C) Both processes result in the formation of a
mixture? simple physical mixture.
(A) The components can be mixed in any ratio. (D) Dissolving forms a mixture, while heating can
(B) The components can be separated by physical form a compound.
means.
(C) A new substance with new properties is

Ans
formed. (D) Dissolving forms a mixture, while heating can
(D) The components retain their individual form a compound.
properties.
page 222 Class 8th Science Foundation

Dissolving sugar in water is a physical change Iron is an element, and water and carbon dioxide
that creates a uniform mixture (a solution); the are compounds. All three are pure substances.
sugar can be recovered by evaporating the water. Seawater, however, is a mixture of water, various
Heating iron and sulfur together causes a chemical dissolved salts (like sodium chloride), and other
reaction, forming a new substance (iron sulfide) substances.
with different properties, which is a compound.
35. A ______ is made of only one type of atom,
32. Why are elements considered the “building while a ______ is made of two or more types
blocks” of all matter? of atoms chemically bonded.
(A) Because all other substances (compounds (A) compound, element
and mixtures) are ultimately made from (B) mixture, element
combinations of elements. (C) mixture, compound
(B) Because they are the largest and most (D) element, compound
complex components of all existing matter.

Ans
(C) Because they are only found in solid form,
(D) element, compound
like blocks used for building.
An element is defined by consisting of only a
(D) Because they can be very easily broken down
single type of atom. A compound is defined by
into many smaller and simpler parts.
being formed from the chemical combination of


Ans atoms of different elements.
(A) Because all other substances (compounds and 36. If you have a mixture of sand and salt, what
mixtures) are ultimately made from combinations would be the best first step to separate them?
of elements. (A) Add water to the mixture to dissolve the salt.
Elements are the simplest pure substances. Every (B) Use a powerful magnet to try to remove the
compound is formed by the chemical combination salt crystals.
of two or more elements. Every mixture is (C) Heat the mixture until the solid sand
a physical combination of elements and/or completely melts.
compounds. Therefore, all matter can be traced (D) Use a pair of tweezers to pick out the sand
back to the fundamental elements. grains one by one.
33. The gas that makes up about 78% of the air and

Ans
does not take part in combustion is: (A) Add water to the mixture to dissolve the salt.
(A) Oxygen This separation relies on the different physical
(B) Nitrogen properties of the components. Salt is soluble in
(C) Carbon Dioxide water, while sand is not. By adding water, the
(D) Argon salt will dissolve, forming a solution. The sand


Ans can then be separated from the salt solution by
filtration.
(B) Nitrogen
The chapter, in its section about air as a mixture, 37. What is the primary reason why the properties
explicitly states that “Nitrogen, which constitutes of water are different from the properties of
about 78% of the air, does not take part in hydrogen and oxygen?
combustion.” This highlights that it retains its (A) Because water is a liquid, while both hydrogen
chemical property within the mixture. and oxygen are gases at room temperature.
(B) Because water contains significantly more
34. Which of the following is NOT a pure substance?
particles than either hydrogen or oxygen
(A) Iron (Fe)
alone.
(B) Water (H2O)
(C) Because in water, the hydrogen and oxygen
(C) Seawater
atoms are chemically bonded to form new
(D) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
molecules.


Ans (D) Because water is a physical mixture of
(C) Seawater hydrogen and oxygen, not a true chemical
compound.
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

Ans 40. Graphene aerogel, described as the lightest

(C) Because in water, the hydrogen and oxygen material on Earth, is made from which element?
atoms are chemically bonded to form new (A) Carbon
molecules. (B) Silicon
The formation of a compound involves a chemical (C) Hydrogen
reaction that creates entirely new particles (D) Aluminium
(molecules) with their own unique structure and

Ans
properties. The properties of a water molecule
are determined by how the hydrogen and oxygen (A) Carbon
atoms are bonded together, not by the properties The “A step further” box about ‘wonder’
of the individual, separate elements. materials explicitly states that graphene aerogel
“is made from carbon.” It highlights this material
38. Which of the following statements about mixtures as an innovative mixture with unique properties.
and compounds is correct?
(A) The components of a compound retain their 41. A chef makes a salad dressing by shaking oil
original physical and chemical properties. and vinegar together. After a while, the oil and
vinegar separate into layers. This dressing is a:
(B) Compounds can be separated into their
(A) Uniform mixture
components by simple physical means, while
(B) Compound
mixtures cannot.
(C) Non-uniform mixture
(C) Mixtures have a fixed composition by mass,
(D) Element
while the composition of compounds can vary.
(D) Energy is usually released or absorbed when a

Ans
compound is formed, but not for a mixture. (C) Non-uniform mixture
Since the components (oil and vinegar) do not


Ans
stay mixed and separate into visible layers, they
(D) Energy is usually released or absorbed when a are not evenly distributed. This is the definition
compound is formed, but not for a mixture. of a non-uniform mixture.
The formation of a compound is a chemical
reaction that involves the breaking and forming 42. The process of electrolysis is used to break down
of chemical bonds, which is always accompanied water into hydrogen and oxygen. This shows that
by an energy change (heat, light, etc.). Simply electrolysis is a:
mixing substances physically does not typically (A) Magnetic process
involve a significant energy change. (B) Physical process
(C) Natural process that happens on its own
39. The term ‘unadulterated’ in common usage means (D) Chemical process
that a product is:


Ans
(A) A compound with a fixed ratio of constituent
elements. (D) Chemical process
(B) Free from cheaper or poor-quality substances Electrolysis uses electrical energy to cause a
that have been added. chemical reaction (decomposition) that breaks
the chemical bonds in water molecules, forming
(C) Scientifically pure and consists of only one
new substances (hydrogen and oxygen). Since
type of molecule.
new substances are formed and chemical bonds
(D) An element that cannot be broken down into
are broken, it is a chemical process, not a physical
simpler substances.
one.


Ans
43. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
(B) Free from cheaper or poor-quality substances an element?
that have been added. (A) It can be broken down into simpler substances
In everyday language, a “pure” product like by heating.
pure ghee is one that has not been adulterated, (B) It is made up of only one kind of atom.
meaning nothing has been added to it to reduce (C) It is a pure substance.
its quality or increase its quantity dishonestly. (D) It is a building block of all matter.
page 224 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans The characteristic test for carbon dioxide gas

(A) It can be broken down into simpler substances is bubbling it through a solution of calcium
by heating. hydroxide (lime water). The formation of a
The definition of an element is that it cannot white, milky precipitate of calcium carbonate is a
be broken down into simpler substances by any positive result for CO2.
chemical means, including heating. If a substance
47. If you mix iron filings and sulfur powder, you get
breaks down upon heating (like sugar), it is a
compound, not an element. a mixture. If you heat this mixture, you get iron
sulfide, a compound. This shows that a chemical
44. How does the scientific view of milk differ from reaction requires:
the label “Pure Milk” on a carton? (A) A liquid solvent to be present.
(A) There is no difference in the scientific and (B) An input of energy (like heat)
common views of milk. (C) A powerful magnetic field.
(B) Science considers it a compound, while the (D) A physical change to happen first.
label considers it to be an element.

Ans
(C) Science considers it a non-uniform mixture,
while the label considers it a uniform mixture. (B) An input of energy (like heat)
(D) Science considers it a mixture of water, fats, The iron and sulfur do not react at room
proteins etc., while the label means it is temperature; they just form a mixture. The
unadulterated. application of heat provides the necessary
activation energy for the chemical reaction


Ans to occur, leading to the formation of the new
(D) Science considers it a mixture of water, compound, iron sulfide.
fats, proteins etc., while the label means it is
48. Atom is to element as ______ is to compound.
unadulterated.
Scientifically, milk is a complex mixture (a (A) molecule
colloid). The commercial label “Pure Milk” (B) matter
simply means that nothing extra, like water or (C) mixture
other substances, has been added to it. (D) substance


Ans
45. What are the two main classes of elements?
(A) Metals and Non-metals (A) molecule
(B) Uniform and Non-uniform The analogy relates a substance to its smallest
(C) Solids and Liquids constituent particle. The smallest particle of an
(D) Pure and Impure element that retains the properties of that element
is an atom. The smallest particle of a compound


Ans that retains the properties of that compound is a
(A) Metals and Non-metals molecule.
After defining elements, the chapter introduces
their primary classification based on properties. It
states, “Elements can be classified into metals and
non-metals,” and also mentions the intermediate 49. A substance with a fixed chemical composition,
category of metalloids. like quartz or calcite, found naturally in the Earth
is called a(n):
46. What property of carbon dioxide is used to test
(A) Rock
for its presence?
(B) Mixture
(A) It is heavier than the surrounding air.
(C) Mineral
(B) It extinguishes a lit flame.
(D) Alloy
(C) It reacts with lime water to form a milky
precipitate.

Ans
(D) It is a completely colorless and odorless gas. (C) Mineral


Ans Minerals are the naturally occurring, solid, pure
substances (mostly compounds) that are the
(C) It reacts with lime water to form a milky
building blocks of rocks.
precipitate.
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

50. Which of the following is NOT a mixture? (C) Sodium and Chlorine
(A) Water (H2O) The name “sodium chloride” itself reveals its
(B) Air constituent elements. it uses as an example of a
(C) Soil compound formed from the soft metal sodium
(D) Brass and the hazardous gas chlorine.


Ans 54. The fact that oxygen in the air can be used for
(A) Water (H2O) breathing while the air as a whole cannot be
Water is a compound, a pure substance formed by “breathed in” to sustain life demonstrates what
the chemical bonding of hydrogen and oxygen in principle about mixtures?
a fixed ratio. Air, brass (an alloy), and soil are all (A) All components of a mixture must be gases.
examples of mixtures, where different substances (B) The components of a mixture retain their
are physically combined. individual properties.
(C) Mixtures are difficult to separate into their
51. What is a key difference in composition between original components.
a mixture and a compound? (D) Mixtures are always uniform in their
(A) A mixture has a fixed composition by mass, composition.
while a compound does not.
(B) A compound has a fixed composition by

Ans
mass, while a mixture does not. (B) The components of a mixture retain their
(C) Both have a fixed composition by mass. individual properties.
(D) Neither has a fixed composition by mass. Our bodies are specifically adapted to use oxygen.
The other gases in the air, like nitrogen, are


Ans
mostly inert to us. The fact that the oxygen in the
(B) A compound has a fixed composition by mass, air mixture still functions as oxygen proves that it
while a mixture does not. has not been chemically changed and has retained
This is a defining difference. In a compound like its essential life-supporting property.
water, the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen is always
fixed. In a mixture like salt water, you can dissolve 55. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
a little salt or a lot of salt; the composition can a compound?
vary. (A) Its properties are an average of its constituent
elements.
52. A jeweller has a piece of gold that is a native (B) It is a pure substance.
mineral. This means the piece of gold is: (C) It is formed through a chemical reaction.
(A) A compound containing gold and other (D) It has a fixed composition by mass.
elements.
(B) An element.

Ans
(C) An alloy of gold. (A) Its properties are an average of its constituent
(D) A mixture of gold and sand. elements.
The properties of a compound are entirely new


Ans
and unique, not an average of the components.
(B) An element. For example, sodium (explosive in water) and
A native mineral as a mineral that is a pure chlorine (a poison gas) combine to form harmless,
element. Therefore, if the gold is a native mineral, edible table salt.
it consists only of gold atoms and is classified as
an element. 56. An element cannot be broken down by ______
means, and a compound cannot be separated by
53. What two elements make up the compound ______ means.
sodium chloride (common salt)? (A) magnetic, electrical
(A) Silver and Chlorine (B) heating, cooling
(B) Sulfur and Chlorine (C) physical, chemical
(C) Sodium and Chlorine (D) chemical, physical
(D) Sodium and Carbon


Ans


Ans
(D) chemical, physical
page 226 Class 8th Science Foundation

An element is the simplest form and cannot be 60. What is the term for elements like silicon that
broken down further by chemical reactions. A have properties intermediate between those of
compound is chemically bonded, so it cannot be metals and non-metals?
separated by simple physical methods; it requires (A) Metalloids
a chemical reaction. (B) Minerals
(C) Alloys
57. A word is to letters as a compound is to ______. (D) Compounds
(A) substances
(B) elements

Ans
(C) mixtures (A) Metalloids
(D) matter While classifying elements into metals and non-


Ans metals, introduces this third category. Metalloids
are elements that exhibit some properties of
(B) elements metals and some properties of non-metals.
The analogy compares the building blocks of two
different systems. Words are formed by combining 61. How does a pure substance differ from a mixture?
different letters in a specific arrangement. (A) A pure substance is made of only one type of
Compounds are formed by chemically combining particle, while a mixture contains two or more.
different elements in a specific ratio. Letters are (B) A pure substance is always a natural material,
the basic units of words, just as elements are the while a mixture is always man-made.
basic units of compounds. (C) A pure substance can be separated by physical
means, while a mixture cannot.
58. Which process demonstrates a chemical change (D) A pure substance is always a solid, while a
resulting in a compound? mixture is always a liquid.
(A) Using a magnet to separate iron filings from
sand.

Ans
(B) Mixing sand and water together in a beaker. (A) A pure substance is made of only one type of
(C) Dissolving salt in a glass of water. particle, while a mixture contains two or more.
(D) Heating a mixture of iron and sulfur until it This is the fundamental difference at the
glows. particulate level. A pure substance, like pure


Ans water, consists only of identical water molecules.
A mixture, like salt water, contains at least two
(D) Heating a mixture of iron and sulfur until it different types of particles (water molecules and
glows. sodium/chloride ions).
Heating the iron and sulfur provides the energy
for a chemical reaction to occur, forming a new 62. Which statement about the electrolysis of water
substance, iron sulfide, with completely different is false?
properties. The other options are all physical (A) It is a chemical change.
changes or physical separation methods. (B) It requires electrical energy to occur.
(C) It demonstrates that water is an element.
59. If you have a sealed container of air, the different (D) It produces hydrogen and oxygen gas.
gases (nitrogen, oxygen, etc.) do not separate into
layers. This indicates that air is a:

Ans
(A) Solid (C) It demonstrates that water is an element.
(B) Uniform mixture The experiment demonstrates the exact opposite.
(C) Compound Since water can be broken down into two simpler
(D) Non-uniform mixture substances (hydrogen and oxygen), it proves that


Ans water is a compound, not an element.

(B) Uniform mixture 63. Talcum powder is made from the mineral talc.
In a uniform mixture, the components are evenly This means that talcum powder is primarily:
distributed and do not separate on their own. (A) An alloy.
The fact that the gases in air remain thoroughly (B) A pure compound.
mixed demonstrates that it is a uniform mixture (C) A mixture of various rocks.
(specifically, a solution of gases in gas). (D) A pure element.
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

Ans 67. Which of the following is NOT a mixture?

(B) A pure compound. (A) Oxygen gas (O2)
The most minerals, like talc, are compounds. (B) Stainless steel
Therefore, talcum powder, which is processed from (C) Aerated water (soda)
this mineral, is composed of a single compound (D) Seawater
(hydrated magnesium silicate).

Ans
64. The individual substances that make up a mixture (A) Oxygen gas (O2)
are called its: Oxygen gas is an element. Although its particles
(A) Elements are molecules made of two atoms (O2), all the
(B) Components particles are identical. It is a pure substance.
(C) Particles The other options are all mixtures: soda (gas in
(D) Compounds liquid), seawater (solid in liquid), and stainless
steel (solid in solid alloy).


Ans
(B) Components 68. What is the main difference between a molecule
The term “components” as the individual of an element and a molecule of a compound?
substances that are physically combined to create (A) A molecule of a compound is not a stable
a mixture. For example, in a sprout salad, the particle, whereas a molecule of an element is.
sprouts, tomatoes, and onions are the components. (B) A molecule of an element is always significantly
larger than a molecule of a compound.
65. The ancient Indian art form ‘Dhokra art’ uses (C) There is no fundamental difference; both
alloys like brass and bronze. Bronze is a mixture types of molecules are essentially the same.
of: (D) A molecule of an element contains atoms of
(A) Copper and Tin only one type; a molecule of a compound
(B) Aluminium and Copper contains atoms of different types.
(C) Iron and Nickel
(D) Copper and Zinc

Ans
(D) A molecule of an element contains atoms of


Ans
only one type; a molecule of a compound contains
(A) Copper and Tin atoms of different types.
The ‘Our scientific heritage’ box on alloys A molecule of an element, like oxygen (O2), is
explicitly states that “bronze, a mixture of copper formed when atoms of the same element bond.
and tin,” is an example of an alloy. A molecule of a compound, like water (H2O), is
formed when atoms of different elements bond
66. Why are the properties of iron sulfide completely
together.
different from those of iron and sulfur?
(A) Because the heating process simply changed 69. Which statement accurately describes the
the color of the mixture. components of a mixture?
(B) Because the iron and sulfur particles are just (A) They are always in a fixed ratio by mass.
loosely mixed together. (B) They can be separated by chemical means
(C) Because it is a mixture, not a pure substance only.
with its own properties. (C) They lose their original properties when
(D) Because during the chemical reaction, the mixed.
atoms rearranged to form a new substance. (D) They can be separated by physical means.


Ans

Ans
(D) Because during the chemical reaction, the (D) They can be separated by physical means.
atoms rearranged to form a new substance. Since the components in a mixture are not
A chemical reaction involves the breaking of old chemically bonded, they can be separated using
bonds and the formation of new ones. The iron and methods that rely on their different physical
sulfur atoms are no longer separate but are bonded properties, such as magnetism, filtration,
together in a new arrangement, forming iron sulfide evaporation, or distillation. This is a key feature
molecules. This new molecular structure is what that distinguishes mixtures from compounds.
gives the compound its unique properties.
page 228 Class 8th Science Foundation

70. A substance is a yellow solid. It is a pure substance Baking soda (sodium bicarbonate, NaHCO3)
and cannot be broken down by any chemical is a compound, made of four different elements
reaction. This substance is a(n): chemically bonded together.
(A) Alloy
74. Cement is made from minerals like calcite and
(B) Mixture
quartz. This means cement is a:
(C) Element
(A) Mixture
(D) Compound (B) Native mineral


Ans (C) Pure compound
(D) Pure element
(C) Element
The key information is that it is a pure substance

Ans
that cannot be broken down chemically. This is (A) Mixture
the definition of an element. Sulfur is an example The cement is made from several different minerals
of an element that fits this description. (which are themselves compounds). Since it is a
combination of multiple substances, cement is a
71. Water is to compound as air is to ______.
mixture.
(A) pure substance
(B) element 75. How do atoms and molecules relate to each other?
(C) solid (A) Atoms are made of molecules.
(D) mixture (B) They are two different words for the same


Ans thing.
(D) mixture (C) Atoms are the basic units of elements;
The analogy classifies substances. Water (H2O) is molecules are formed when atoms bond
a classic example of a compound, where elements together.
are chemically bonded in a fixed ratio. Air is a (D) Molecules are the building blocks of elements,
classic example of a mixture, where different gases and atoms are the building blocks of
are physically combined and not in a fixed ratio. compounds.

72. When you mix oil and water, they form two

Ans
separate layers. This shows that oil and water (C) Atoms are the basic units of elements;
form a: molecules are formed when atoms bond together.
(A) Solution The atom is the fundamental particle of an
(B) Non-uniform mixture element. A molecule is a more complex particle
(C) Compound formed when two or more atoms (of the same or
(D) Uniform mixture different elements) are joined by chemical bonds.


Ans 76. Most minerals found on Earth are ______, but
(B) Non-uniform mixture a few, like gold, exist as native ______.
Since the components do not mix evenly and (A) compounds, elements
remain as distinct, visible layers, it is a non- (B) rocks, mixtures
uniform mixture. The oil is immiscible with the (C) elements, alloys
water. (D) mixtures, compounds
73. Which of the following is NOT an element?

Ans
(A) Carbon
(A) compounds, elements
(B) Baking Soda
The composition of minerals states that the
(C) Gold
majority of minerals are compounds, consisting
(D) Sulfur
of multiple elements bonded together. However,


Ans it also notes that some rare minerals are found as
(B) Baking Soda pure, uncombined elements.
Gold, carbon, and sulfur are all elements,
meaning they are made of only one type of atom.
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

77. If you had a sample of a pure substance, how could magnetic property is a key indicator that a new
you determine if it is an element or a compound? compound has been formed.
(A) By attempting to break it down using
chemical means like heating or electrolysis. 80. The chemical process of breaking down a
(B) By dissolving it in water to see if it forms a compound using electricity is called:
solution. (A) Evaporation
(C) By checking if it is a solid, liquid, or gas at (B) Electrolysis
room temperature. (C) Filtration
(D) By trying to separate it using physical (D) Sublimation
methods like filtration.

Ans


Ans (B) Electrolysis
(A) By attempting to break it down using The activity of breaking down water uses an
chemical means like heating or electrolysis. electric current. This specific method of using
Since both are pure substances, physical methods electricity to drive a chemical decomposition
won’t separate them. The key difference is their reaction is known as electrolysis.
response to chemical change. If the substance
81. Which of the following everyday items is a non-
can be decomposed into two or more simpler
uniform mixture?
substances, it is a compound. If it cannot be
(A) A glass of clean water.
broken down, it is an element.
(B) A steel spoon.
78. Which statement about alloys is correct? (C) A bowl of vegetable soup with chunks of
(A) They are non-uniform mixtures with visible vegetables.
components. (D) A teaspoon of sugar.
(B) They are compounds with a fixed and definite

Ans
chemical formula.
(C) A bowl of vegetable soup with chunks of
(C) They can be separated into their components
vegetables.
using a magnet.
In the vegetable soup, you can clearly see the
(D) They are uniform mixtures, often with
different components—the liquid broth, pieces of
properties superior to their components.
carrot, peas, etc. Since the components are not


Ans evenly distributed and are visually distinguishable,
(D) They are uniform mixtures, often with it is a non-uniform mixture.
properties superior to their components.
82. Iron sulfide is to compound as ______ is to
Alloys are defined as uniform mixtures. A major
mixture.
reason for making alloys is to create materials with
(A) salt
enhanced properties, such as stainless steel being
(B) oxygen
stronger and more rust-resistant than pure iron.
(C) iron + sulfur (unheated)
79. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic (D) water
of the compound iron sulfide formed in the

Ans
experiment?
(C) iron + sulfur (unheated)
(A) It is a new compound.
The analogy compares a compound to a mixture
(B) It is attracted by a magnet.
using the main example from the chapter. Iron
(C) It has properties different from iron and
sulfide (Sample B) is the compound formed by
sulfur.
a chemical reaction. The unheated combination
(D) It is a black mass.
of iron and sulfur (Sample A) is the physical


Ans mixture.
(B) It is attracted by a magnet.
83. Which of the following is NOT a pure substance?
The experiment explicitly demonstrates that after
(A) Carbon
the chemical reaction, the new substance formed,
(B) Iron sulfide
iron sulfide, is not attracted by a magnet, unlike
(C) Baking powder
the original iron in the mixture. This change in
(D) Glucose
page 230 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (A) They form a new substance.

(C) Baking powder (B) They can no longer be separated.
The baking powder as a solid-solid mixture, (C) They retain their individual properties.
typically containing baking soda and a weak acid (D) They change their chemical composition.
like tartaric acid. Glucose and iron sulfide are

Ans
compounds, and carbon is an element; all three
are pure substances. (C) They retain their individual properties.
This is a defining characteristic of a mixture.
84. What is the most fundamental difference between Because no chemical reaction occurs, the
a physical change and a chemical change? individual substances that make up the mixture
(A) Physical changes are always reversible, while do not change their fundamental nature. Iron in
chemical changes are never reversible. a mixture is still magnetic; sugar in a mixture is
(B) Physical changes involve heat energy, while still sweet.
chemical changes always involve light energy.
(C) Physical changes happen to mixtures, while 87. Why can the components of a compound not
chemical changes only happen to elements. be separated by physical means like filtration or
(D) Physical changes alter the appearance, while magnetism?
chemical changes form a new substance. (A) Because the components are held together by
strong chemical bonds.


Ans
(B) Because the components are too small to be
(D) Physical changes alter the appearance, while seen, even with a microscope.
chemical changes form a new substance. (C) Because physical separation methods only
This is the core distinction. In a physical work on liquid substances.
change (like melting ice or dissolving sugar), (D) Because the components of a compound have
the substance’s molecules remain the same. In a the exact same physical properties.
chemical change (like burning wood or reacting
iron with sulfur), the original molecules are

Ans
broken apart and rearranged to form entirely new (A) Because the components are held together by
molecules with different properties. strong chemical bonds.
In a compound, the constituent atoms are
85. A student is given a clear liquid. How could they
chemically bonded to form stable molecules.
determine if it is a pure substance (like water) or
These bonds are strong and cannot be broken by
a uniform mixture (like salt water)?
simple physical methods. Breaking them requires
(A) By tasting it to check for sweetness or
a chemical reaction that provides enough energy
saltiness.
to overcome the bond strength.
(B) By trying to separate components using a
physical process like evaporation.
(C) By looking at its color, as all pure substances
are colorless.
(D) By adding more water to see if it becomes 88. Which of the following statements about elements
more diluted. is false?
(A) Most elements are gases at room temperature.


Ans
(B) Each element is made up of identical atoms.
(B) By trying to separate components using a
(C) There are 118 known elements.
physical process like evaporation.
If the liquid is a uniform mixture like salt water, (D) Mercury is a metal that is liquid at room
evaporating the water will leave the dissolved temperature.
salt behind. If the liquid is a pure substance like

Ans
distilled water, evaporation will leave nothing
behind. This physical separation method can (A) Most elements are gases at room temperature.
distinguish between the two. It says, “most of them exist in a solid state” and
“Eleven elements exist in a gaseous state at room
86. What happens to the components of a mixture temperature.” Therefore, the statement that most
after they have been mixed? elements are gases is false.
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

89. What does the ‘fixed ratio’ in the definition of a

Ans

compound refer to? (B) Aluminium
(A) The ratio of the mass of the elements. Steel is an alloy (mixture). Chalk (calcium
(B) The ratio of the volume of the elements. carbonate) and water are compounds. Aluminium
(C) The ratio of the time it takes for them to is a substance made up of only aluminium atoms,
react. making it an element.
(D) The ratio of the temperature at which they
combine. 93. What is the purpose of the ‘A step further’ boxes?
(A) To provide safety warnings for the


Ans experimental activities.
(A) The ratio of the mass of the elements. (B) To summarize the main points and key
The law of definite proportions states that a takeaways of each section.
chemical compound always contains its component (C) To introduce additional, more advanced, or
elements in a fixed ratio by mass. For example, in interesting related information.
water, the mass of oxygen is always approximately (D) To provide a list of questions and problems
8 times the mass of hydrogen. for the final exam.

90. Uniform mixtures are also known as ______,

Ans

while non-uniform mixtures are also known as (C) To introduce additional, more advanced, or
______. interesting related information.
(A) compounds, elements The content of these boxes (e.g., about alloys,
(B) homogeneous, heterogeneous states of elements, graphene aerogel) goes beyond
(C) pure, impure the core curriculum points. They are designed
(D) solutions, suspensions to add depth and spark further curiosity by


Ans providing extra details, examples, or connections
to advanced topics.
(B) homogeneous, heterogeneous
While not explicitly used in this chapter, these 94. Which of the following is NOT a mixture?
are the standard scientific terms. A uniform (A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
mixture is homogeneous (meaning it has the (B) Poha
same composition throughout). A non-uniform (C) Air
mixture is heterogeneous (meaning it has different (D) A solution of sugar in water
compositions in different parts).


Ans
91. In the reaction Calcium hydroxide + Carbon (A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
dioxide ® Calcium carbonate + Water, which Poha, sugar, water, and air are all listed or
substance is the insoluble white solid that makes described as mixtures. Carbon monoxide is a
the solution milky? compound, a pure substance formed from the
(A) Water chemical bonding of carbon and oxygen atoms.
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Calcium hydroxide
(D) Calcium carbonate


Ans 95. What is the key difference between the scientific
meaning of ‘pure’ and the common meaning?
(D) Calcium carbonate
(A) There is no difference; the meanings are
The product, calcium carbonate, is a white solid
identical.
that does not dissolve well in water. Its formation
(B) The scientific meaning refers to a single
as fine, suspended particles is what causes the
substance, while the common meaning refers
clear limewater to become cloudy or milky.
to being unadulterated.
92. Which of the following materials is an element? (C) The scientific meaning applies only to solids,
(A) Steel while the common meaning applies to liquids.
(B) Aluminium (D) The common meaning refers to color, while
(C) Chalk the scientific meaning refers to taste.
(D) Water
page 232 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (B) The differences between physical changes and

(B) The scientific meaning refers to a single chemical changes.
substance, while the common meaning refers to Dissolving sugar is a physical change (a mixture
being unadulterated. is formed). Electrolysis of water and heating
Scientifically, pure means composed of only of sugar are chemical changes (compounds are
one type of element or compound. In everyday decomposed). Together, these activities illustrate
language, pure means nothing undesirable has the fundamental difference between physically
been added (e.g., “pure milk” means no water has mixing substances and chemically breaking them
been added, even though milk itself is a mixture). down.

96. How many elements are known to exist in a liquid 99. Which of the following is NOT a property of an
state at room temperature? element?
(A) Eleven (A) It is a pure substance.
(B) Five (B) It can be broken down into compounds.
(C) Two (C) It is made of atoms.
(D) One (D) It can be a metal or a non-metal.


Ans


Ans
(C) Two
(B) It can be broken down into compounds.
The “A step further” box on the states of elements
This statement reverses the relationship.
explicitly states, “Only two elements are liquid
Compounds are made from elements. Elements
at room temperature—mercury, which is a metal
are the fundamental building blocks and cannot
and bromine, which is a non-metal.”
be broken down into simpler substances like
97. A substance is heated and breaks down into compounds.
two different simpler substances. The original
100. A ______ mixture, like soil in water, has
substance was a(n):
components that are easily visible, while a
(A) Alloy
______ mixture, like air, appears the same
(B) Mixture
throughout.
(C) Element
(A) uniform, non-uniform
(D) Compound
(B) pure, impure


Ans (C) compound, elemental
(D) Compound (D) non-uniform, uniform
The ability to be broken down (decomposed)

Ans
by chemical means (like heating) into simpler
(D) non-uniform, uniform
substances is the defining characteristic of a
A non-uniform mixture is one where the different
compound. An element cannot be broken down
parts are visible. A uniform mixture is one where
further, and a mixture would be separated, not
the components are so evenly mixed that the
decomposed.
substance has a consistent appearance.
98. What do the experiments with sugar dissolving,
101. Which of the following correctly describes what
water electrolysis, and heating sugar all collectively
happens when iron and sulfur are mixed (without
demonstrate?
heating)?
(A) That matter can exist in three different
(A) A physical mixture is formed, and the iron
states: solid, liquid, and gas.
retains its magnetic property.
(B) The differences between physical changes and (B) A new compound, iron sulfide, is formed
chemical changes. immediately upon contact.
(C) That all matter is composed of the exact (C) The sulfur dissolves completely in the iron to
same fundamental particles. form a uniform solution.
(D) That only liquid substances can be broken (D) The iron and sulfur particles chemically bond
down into simpler components. together without any energy input.


Ans

Ans
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

(A) A physical mixture is formed, and the iron 105. Why is it incorrect for a scientist to call a carton
retains its magnetic property. of milk “pure”?
Simply mixing the two powders results in a (A) Because the carton itself is not made of a
physical mixture. No chemical reaction occurs. pure material.
Therefore, the iron particles remain as elemental (B) Because milk is a non-uniform mixture with
iron and are still attracted to a magnet, allowing visible components.
for their physical separation. (C) Because the milk may have expired and is no
longer fresh.
102. Bronze is to alloy as ______ is to compound.
(A) Sand (D) Because milk is a mixture of water, fats,
(B) Lemonade proteins, and other substances.
(C) Air

Ans
(D) Sugar
(D) Because milk is a mixture of water, fats,


Ans proteins, and other substances.
(D) Sugar In scientific terms, a pure substance consists
The analogy asks for an example that fits the of only one type of molecule or atom. Milk is
given category. Bronze is a specific example of an a complex mixture containing many different
alloy (a type of uniform mixture). Sugar (sucrose) types of molecules. Therefore, despite being
is a specific example of a compound (a pure unadulterated, it is not scientifically pure.
substance).
106. A student has a mixture of small pebbles and fine
103. Matter is defined as anything that: sand. Which physical separation technique would
(A) Has mass and occupies space. be most effective?
(B) Can be found on the planet Earth. (A) Dissolving in water
(C) Can be seen with the naked eye. (B) Magnetism
(D) Is a pure substance with a fixed composition. (C) Sieving


Ans (D) Evaporation
(A) Has mass and occupies space.

Ans
This is the fundamental scientific definition of
(C) Sieving
matter. To be classified as matter, a substance
Sieving is a technique used to separate a mixture
must have these two essential properties: mass (a
of solid particles of different sizes. By using a
measure of the amount of “stuff”) and volume
sieve with a mesh size that is larger than the sand
(the amount of space it takes up).
grains but smaller than the pebbles, the sand will
104. When an electric current is passed through water pass through while the pebbles are retained.
containing a few drops of sulfuric acid, what is the
107. An element is made up of identical particles
approximate ratio of the volume of hydrogen gas
called ______, and a compound is made up of
produced to the volume of oxygen gas produced?
identical particles called ______.
(A) 2:1
(A) mixtures, solutions
(B) 1:1
(B) electrons, protons
(C) 1:2
(D) 3:1 (C) atoms, molecules
(D) molecules, atoms


Ans
(A) 2:1

Ans
The chemical formula for water is H2O, meaning (C) atoms, molecules
each molecule has two hydrogen atoms for every The smallest unit of an element is the atom. All
one oxygen atom. During electrolysis, this ratio atoms of a particular element are identical. The
is reflected in the volumes of the gases produced. smallest unit of a compound is the molecule,
Activity 8.3 shows that the volume of gas which is a specific combination of atoms from
collected above one terminal (hydrogen) is double different elements. All molecules of a particular
the volume collected above the other (oxygen). compound are identical.
page 234 Class 8th Science Foundation

108. Which of the following is NOT an example of a 111. Which of the following statements about the
uniform mixture? properties of matter is incorrect?
(A) Seawater (A) An element cannot be broken down into
(B) A mixture of sand and iron filings simpler substances.
(C) Air (B) A mixture has properties that are an average
(D) Brass of its components.
(C) The components of a compound can be


Ans
separated by physical methods.
(B) A mixture of sand and iron filings (D) A compound has properties different from its
In a mixture of sand and iron filings, you can constituent elements.
typically see the individual specks of sand and
iron. The components are not evenly distributed

Ans
on a microscopic level. It is a classic example of a (C) The components of a compound can be
non-uniform mixture. separated by physical methods.
The components of a compound are held together
109. What is the main difference between an atom of by chemical bonds and can only be separated by
iron and an atom of sulfur? a chemical reaction (a chemical method), such
(A) The iron atom is magnetic, but the sulfur as electrolysis. Physical methods are used to
atom is not. separate mixtures.
(B) They are different types of atoms with
different properties. 112. When iron filings react with dilute hydrochloric
(C) The iron atom is a solid, but the sulfur atom acid, what gas is produced?
is a liquid. (A) Hydrogen
(D) There is no difference; all atoms are the same. (B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon Dioxide


Ans
(D) Hydrogen Sulfide
(B) They are different types of atoms with
different properties.

Ans
The definition of an element is that it is made (A) Hydrogen
of a unique type of atom. An iron atom has a A metal like iron reacting with an acid like HCl
different structure (number of protons, neutrons, produces a salt (iron chloride) and hydrogen gas,
electrons) and different chemical properties from which is identified by its ability to burn with a
a sulfur atom. “pop” sound.

110. Why is the process of making an alloy, like brass, 113. You are given a grey metallic solid. Which of
considered a physical change, even though the the following observations would prove that it
properties change? is a mixture (like stainless steel) and not a pure
(A) Because it can be easily reversed by cooling it element?
down. (A) It is shiny and malleable.
(B) Because the change in properties is not (B) It does not react with water.
permanent. (C) It is a good conductor of electricity.
(C) Because no new chemical bonds are formed (D) When melted and cooled slowly, different
between the copper and zinc atoms. components start to solidify at different
(D) Because the process involves only non- temperatures.
metallic substances.


Ans


Ans (D) When melted and cooled slowly, different
(C) Because no new chemical bonds are formed components start to solidify at different
between the copper and zinc atoms. temperatures.
In an alloy, the atoms of the different metals Pure substances have sharp, fixed melting/
are intermingled in a solid solution but are not freezing points. A mixture, like an alloy, typically
chemically bonded to form molecules of a new melts and freezes over a range of temperatures,
compound. Because it’s a physical mixture, it’s as its different components solidify at different
classified as a mixture, not a compound. points. This is a key way to distinguish them.
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

114. What does the term “fixed ratio” in a compound or more of these different minerals are aggregated
imply? together, making rocks mixtures.
(A) The compound can only exist in the solid
state. 117. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
mixture found in everyday life?
(B) The compound always contains the same
(A) Bronze
elements in the same proportion by mass.
(B) Pure table salt (sodium chloride)
(C) You can only make a small amount of the
(C) Soil
compound at a time.
(D) Lemonade
(D) The elements must be mixed for a fixed
amount of time.

Ans
(B) Pure table salt (sodium chloride)


Ans
Lemonade (sugar, lemon juice, water), soil
(B) The compound always contains the same (minerals, organic matter, air), and bronze (alloy
elements in the same proportion by mass. of copper and tin) are all mixtures. Pure table salt
This is the Law of Definite Proportions. Any is a compound, sodium chloride, and is therefore a
sample of a pure compound, regardless of its pure substance, not a mixture.
source or size, will always have the exact same
ratio of its constituent elements. For example, 118. A scientist wants to separate a mixture of salt and
water is always 88.9% oxygen and 11.1% hydrogen naphthalene (mothballs). Naphthalene sublimes
by mass. (turns directly from solid to gas) when heated,
while salt does not. What would be an effective
115. When sugar is heated, it decomposes into separation technique?
______ and ______, showing it is a (A) Heating the mixture gently
compound. (B) Using a magnet
(A) salt, carbon dioxide (C) Filtration
(B) elements, mixtures (D) Dissolving in water
(C) carbon, water


Ans
(D) oxygen, hydrogen
(A) Heating the mixture gently


Ans
This technique takes advantage of the different
(C) carbon, water physical properties. By gently heating the
Activity 8.4 demonstrates the decomposition of mixture, the naphthalene will turn into a gas,
sugar. The observation of a black solid residue leaving the solid salt behind. The naphthalene gas
(carbon) and droplets of a clear liquid (water) on can then be collected and cooled to turn it back
the sides of the test tube proves that the original into a solid.
sugar compound contained these components.
119. Why are alloys like stainless steel often more
116. What is the primary difference between a rock useful than their primary component, iron?
and a mineral? (A) Because they are much cheaper to produce
(A) Rocks are hard, while minerals are soft. than pure iron.
(B) A rock is a mixture of minerals, while a (B) Because they have improved properties, such
mineral is a pure substance (element or as resistance to rust.
compound). (C) Because they are not classified as metals.
(C) Rocks are man-made, while minerals are
(D) Because they are significantly lighter than
natural.
pure iron.
(D) A rock is a pure substance, while a mineral is
a mixture.

Ans


Ans (B) Because they have improved properties, such
(B) A rock is a mixture of minerals, while a mineral as resistance to rust.
is a pure substance (element or compound). The purpose of making an alloy is to create a
Minerals are the pure chemical building blocks. material with more desirable characteristics than
Rocks are the larger structures formed when one the pure metals. Stainless steel is a prime example;
adding chromium and nickel to iron creates a
page 236 Class 8th Science Foundation

mixture that is much stronger and significantly 123. Which of the following is NOT a property of
more resistant to corrosion (rusting). Sample B (iron sulfide) from the experiment?
(A) Its components (iron and sulfur) retain their
120. When iron sulfide (Sample B) reacts with dilute original properties.
hydrochloric acid, what is the characteristic smell (B) It is a black mass.
of the gas produced?
(C) It is not attracted by a magnet.
(A) No smell
(B) Pungent, sharp smell (D) It is a new compound.
(C) Rotten egg-like odor

Ans
(D) Sweet, fruity smell
(A) Its components (iron and sulfur) retain their


Ans original properties.
(C) Rotten egg-like odor This is the defining difference between a compound
The gas produced is hydrogen sulfide (H2S), which and a mixture. In the compound iron sulfide, a
is well-known for its distinctive and unpleasant new substance has been formed, and the original
smell of rotten eggs. properties of elemental iron (like being magnetic)
and sulfur are lost.
121. Which of the following statements correctly
distinguishes between elements and compounds? 124. The air we exhale contains carbon dioxide. If you
(A) Elements are mixtures, while compounds are bubble your exhaled breath through lime water,
pure substances. what will you observe?
(B) Elements can be separated physically, while (A) The lime water will turn blue.
compounds cannot. (B) The lime water will turn milky.
(C) Elements are the simplest pure substances, (C) Nothing will happen.
while compounds are pure substances made (D) The lime water will become hot.
of two or more elements.

Ans
(D) Elements are made of molecules, while
(B) The lime water will turn milky.
compounds are made of atoms.
This is an application of the chemical test for


Ans carbon dioxide. The carbon dioxide in your breath
(C) Elements are the simplest pure substances, will react with the calcium hydroxide in the
while compounds are pure substances made of lime water to form insoluble calcium carbonate,
two or more elements. causing the clear solution to become cloudy or
This statement accurately captures the milky.
relationship between the two types of pure
125. Is a molecule of water (H2O) a mixture of hydrogen
substances. Elements are the fundamental
and oxygen?
building blocks. Compounds are more complex
(A) Yes, because it can be separated into hydrogen
pure substances that are formed when these
and oxygen.
building blocks combine chemically.
(B) Yes, because it contains both hydrogen and
122. Filtration is to separating sand from water as oxygen.
______ is to separating iron from sulfur. (C) No, because water is an element, not a
(A) dissolving mixture or compound.
(B) sieving (D) No, because hydrogen and oxygen are
(C) magnetism chemically bonded to form a new, pure
(D) heating substance.


Ans

Ans
(C) magnetism (D) No, because hydrogen and oxygen are
The analogy links a mixture to the physical chemically bonded to form a new, pure substance.
separation technique best suited for it. Filtration A mixture involves physical combination. In a
separates an insoluble solid from a liquid. water molecule, the atoms are joined by strong
Magnetism is the ideal technique to separate a chemical bonds. This creates a single type of
magnetic solid (iron) from a non-magnetic solid particle with its own unique properties, which is
(sulfur).
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

the definition of a compound (a pure substance), 129. Seawater is a mixture. If you boil a beaker of
not a mixture. seawater until all the water is gone, what will be
left behind?
126. The scientific word for a substance consisting of (A) Pure hydrogen and oxygen gas
only one type of particle is a ______, which (B) Sand and pebbles
can be either an element or a ______.
(C) A white solid residue (salt)
(A) atom, molecule
(B) pure substance, compound (D) Nothing
(C) mixture, solution

Ans
(D) solid, liquid
(C) A white solid residue (salt)


Ans Seawater is a solution of salts dissolved in
(B) pure substance, compound water. Boiling the water is a physical separation
The broadest category for substances made of a technique called evaporation. The water turns
single type of particle is “pure substance.” This into steam and escapes, but the dissolved solids
category is then subdivided into the two types: (the salts) do not evaporate and are left behind
elements and compounds. as a solid residue.

127. Which of the following is an example of a native 130. Why is the scientific classification of matter
mineral? (element, compound, mixture) useful?
(A) Mica (A) It helps in organizing substances based on
(B) Quartz (SiO2) their fundamental composition and properties.
(C) Gold (Au) (B) It complicates our understanding of everyday
(D) Calcite (CaCO3) materials.


Ans (C) It helps in determining the price of a
substance.
(C) Gold (Au) (D) It is only useful for passing exams.
The native minerals as those that are pure
elements. Quartz and calcite are compounds.

Ans
Gold is an element (Au) that can be found in its (A) It helps in organizing substances based on
pure, native form in nature. their fundamental composition and properties.
Classification is a fundamental tool in science. By
128. Which statement about the differences between
grouping substances into these categories, we can
Sample A (mixture) and Sample B (compound)
understand their nature, predict their behavior
is incorrect?
in reactions, and devise methods to separate
(A) Both Sample A and Sample B produce
or synthesize them. It provides a systematic
hydrogen gas when reacting with acid.
framework for studying matter.
(B) Sample A is formed by physical mixing;
Sample B is formed by a chemical reaction 131. A substance that can be broken down into
with heat. elements by chemical reactions is called a(n):
(C) Sample A’s components can be separated by (A) Atom
a magnet; Sample B’s cannot. (B) Element
(D) Sample A is a non-uniform mixture; Sample (C) Compound
B is a uniform compound. (D) Mixture


Ans

Ans
(A) Both Sample A and Sample B produce (C) Compound
hydrogen gas when reacting with acid. This is the reverse of the definition of an element.
The experiment shows that they produce different Since a compound is made of two or more
gases. Sample A produces hydrogen gas (from the elements chemically bonded together, it can be
iron). Sample B produces hydrogen sulfide gas decomposed back into those simpler elemental
(from the iron sulfide). This difference in chemical substances through a chemical reaction.
reactivity is key evidence that they are different
substances.
page 238 Class 8th Science Foundation

132. Heating is to iron sulfide (compound) as stirring (D) Non-uniform mixture

is to ______ (mixture).


Ans
(A) iron
(B) salt water (C) Compound
(C) water The process of heating caused the substance to
(D) salt break down (decompose) into two entirely new,
simpler substances (a liquid and a gas). This is a


Ans chemical change, which proves that the original
(B) salt water red powder was a compound. (This describes the
The analogy links a process to the type of decomposition of mercury(II) oxide).
substance it creates. Heating iron and sulfur
causes a chemical reaction to form a compound. 136. When you make lemonade, you mix sugar,
Stirring salt and water causes a physical change lemon juice, and water. Why is this considered
to form a mixture (a solution). a mixture?
(A) Because a new chemical substance called
133. A baker mixing flour and sugar is to a mixture “lemonade” is formed.
as a chemist reacting sodium and chlorine is to a (B) Because it is a liquid.
______. (C) Because the sugar remains sweet, the lemon
(A) solution remains sour, and they can be separated.
(B) physical change (D) Because the components are chemically
(C) element bonded.
(D) compound


Ans


Ans (C) Because the sugar remains sweet, the lemon
(D) compound remains sour, and they can be separated.
The analogy compares a physical process to a In the lemonade, the components retain their
chemical one. Mixing flour and sugar is a physical properties (taste) and are not chemically altered.
combination that creates a mixture. Reacting It’s theoretically possible to separate them again
sodium and chlorine is a chemical combination (e.g., by evaporating the water to recover the
that creates a new substance, the compound sugar and lemon solids). This is characteristic of
sodium chloride. a mixture.

134. What is the main difference between an element 137. Which of these is NOT a property of Sample A
and an alloy? (the iron-sulfur mixture)?
(A) Both are types of compounds. (A) It reacts with acid to produce a gas with a
(B) An element is a mixture, while an alloy is a rotten egg smell.
pure substance. (B) The components retain their individual
(C) An element is a pure substance, while an alloy properties.
is a mixture. (C) The iron in it is attracted to a magnet.
(D) Both are types of non-uniform mixtures. (D) It is a non-uniform mixture.


Ans

Ans
(C) An element is a pure substance, while an alloy (A) It reacts with acid to produce a gas with a
is a mixture. rotten egg smell.
An element (like pure copper) is a pure substance The experiment shows that Sample A reacts with
made of one type of atom. An alloy (like brass) is acid to produce hydrogen gas (from the iron). The
a uniform mixture of two or more elements (like gas with the rotten egg smell (hydrogen sulfide)
copper and zinc). is produced only from Sample B, the compound.

135. A sample of red powder is heated. It produces a 138. Stainless steel is a(n) ______ that contains
silvery liquid and a colorless gas. The original red iron and ______, making it resistant to rust.
powder was a(n): (A) element, carbon
(A) Uniform mixture (B) compound, oxygen
(B) Element (C) mixture, water
(C) Compound (D) alloy, chromium
Pagesmith CH 08 : Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

Ans bonded together, it is still a form of the pure

(D) alloy, chromium element oxygen.
The stainless steel as an alloy, which is a type
142. How is air different from the compound carbon
of uniform mixture. It mentions that it contains
iron, nickel, chromium, and carbon. Chromium is dioxide (CO2)?
the key element that provides its characteristic (A) Air has a variable composition, while carbon
resistance to rust. dioxide has a fixed composition.
(B) Air is a pure substance, while carbon dioxide
139. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of is a mixture.
a non-uniform mixture? (C) Air is a gas, while carbon dioxide is a solid.
(A) It appears the same throughout, even under a (D) Air supports combustion, while carbon
microscope. dioxide does not.
(B) The components are not evenly distributed.
(C) A sprout salad is a good example.

Ans
(D) The components are often visible to the naked (A) Air has a variable composition, while carbon
eye. dioxide has a fixed composition.


Ans Air is a mixture, and the amount of its components
(like water vapor) can vary from place to place.
(A) It appears the same throughout, even under
Carbon dioxide is a compound, and the ratio of
a microscope.
carbon to oxygen is always fixed. This difference
This statement describes a uniform mixture. The
in composition (variable vs. fixed) is a key
defining feature of a non-uniform mixture is that
distinction between mixtures and compounds.
its composition is not consistent; you can see
different parts with different properties. 143. Which of the following is NOT a physical process
used for separation?
140. Which statement accurately describes the
(A) Filtration
relationship between rocks and minerals?
(A) Rocks and minerals are two names for the (B) Electrolysis
same thing. (C) Evaporation
(B) Rocks and minerals are both elements. (D) Using a magnet
(C) Rocks are mixtures of one or more minerals.


Ans
(D) Minerals are mixtures of rocks.
(B) Electrolysis


Ans
Filtration, evaporation, and magnetism are all
(C) Rocks are mixtures of one or more minerals. physical methods that separate components based
The minerals as the pure substances (elements or on their physical properties without changing
compounds) that are the fundamental building their chemical nature. Electrolysis is a chemical
blocks. Rocks are then described as aggregates or process that uses electricity to break chemical
mixtures of these mineral grains. bonds and decompose a compound.

141. Why does a molecule of oxygen (O2) represent an 144. Bronze, an alloy mentioned in ancient Indian
element, not a compound? texts, is known as Kamsya and is made of Copper
(A) Because both atoms are of the same type and what other element?
(oxygen). (A) Tin
(B) Because it is made of two atoms. (B) Iron
(C) Because it is a gas. (C) Zinc
(D) Because it can be easily broken down. (D) Carbon


Ans

Ans
(A) Because both atoms are of the same type (A) Tin
(oxygen). The “Our scientific heritage” box explicitly states,
The definition of a compound requires that it “Bronze, also known as Kamsya, is an alloy made
be made of atoms of different elements. Since up of Copper (Tamra, 4 parts) and Tin (Vanga,
an oxygen molecule contains only oxygen atoms 1 part)...”
page 240 Class 8th Science Foundation

145. When you add sand to water and stir, you create 148. A single water molecule (H2O) is to a compound
a: as a single ______ is to an element.
(A) Non-uniform mixture (A) air particle
(B) Element (B) salt crystal
(C) Uniform mixture (C) water drop
(D) Compound (D) oxygen atom (O)


Ans

Ans
(A) Non-uniform mixture (D) oxygen atom (O)
The sand does not dissolve in the water. While The analogy links a substance type to its most
stirring, it may be suspended, but if left to stand, basic representative particle. The smallest
it will settle at the bottom. The components are particle that represents the compound water is a
not evenly distributed and are clearly visible, single water molecule. The smallest particle that
making it a non-uniform mixture. represents the element oxygen is a single oxygen
atom.
146. What is the key difference between how components
exist in a mixture versus a compound? 149. Why is it important to perform Activity 8.5
(A) In a mixture they are bonded chemically; in a (heating iron and sulfur) in a well-ventilated area?
compound they are mixed physically. (A) To allow oxygen from the air to help the
(B) In a mixture they are always solids; in a reaction.
compound they are always liquids. (B) To make it easier to see the color change.
(C) In a mixture they are mixed physically; in a (C) Because the reaction may produce gases that
compound they are bonded chemically. should not be inhaled.
(D) There is no difference in how they exist. (D) To prevent the mixture from getting too hot.


Ans

Ans
(C) In a mixture they are mixed physically; in a (C) Because the reaction may produce gases that
compound they are bonded chemically. should not be inhaled.
This is the core distinction. Mixtures involve a The safety instructions for this activity and
simple physical blending of substances without similar chemical reactions often specify good
the formation of chemical bonds. Compounds ventilation. When sulfur is heated, it can produce
involve a chemical reaction where atoms form sulfur dioxide gas, which is a respiratory irritant.
strong chemical bonds to create entirely new Performing the experiment in a well-ventilated
molecules. area or fume hood ensures these gases are safely
dispersed.
147. A scientist takes a grey powder and divides it in
two. Half is mixed with water, and the powder 150. What are the three main categories used to
settles at the bottom. The other half is heated, classify all matter?
and it burns, producing a gas. The grey powder is (A) Elements, Compounds, Mixtures
most likely a(n): (B) Metals, Non-metals, Metalloids
(A) Uniform mixture (C) Solids, Liquids, Gases
(B) Compound (D) Rocks, Minerals, Soils
(C) Element


Ans
(D) Solution
(A) Elements, Compounds, Mixtures


Ans All matter can be fundamentally categorized
(C) Element based on its chemical composition as either a pure
The substance does not dissolve (insoluble) and substance (which is then subdivided into elements
undergoes a chemical reaction (burning) to form and compounds) or a mixture.
a new substance (a gas, likely an oxide). This
behavior, being a single substance that reacts to

*************
form something more complex, is characteristic of
an element (like powdered zinc or magnesium).
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

CHAPTER 9
The Amazing World of Solutes,
Solvents and Solutions

SUMMAR 1. Unsaturated Solution : A solution in which

more solute can still be dissolved at a given
temperature.
2. Saturated Solution : A solution that has
1. Solutions : Uniform Mixtures reached its limit and cannot dissolve any
more solute at that particular temperature.
1.1 Solutes, Solvents and Solutions Any extra solute added will settle at the
1. A solutionis a uniform mixture where two or bottom.
more substances are mixed so evenly that they 3. Concentration refers to the amount of solute
cannot be distinguished from one another. present in a solution.
2. The substance that dissolves is called the 4. A dilute solution has a relatively small
solute. amount of solute.
3. The substance that does the dissolving is 5. A concentrated solution has a relatively large
called the solvent. amount of solute.

2.2 Solubility
Solubility is the maximum amount of a solute
that can dissolve in a fixed quantity of a solvent
at a specific temperature.

2.3 Effect of Temperature on Solubility

1. Solids in Liquids : For most solid solutes,
solubility increases as the temperature of the
solvent increases. This means you can dissolve
Magnified schematic picture of a solute evenly distributed
more solid in a hot liquid than in a cold one.
in a solvent
2. Gases in Liquids : The solubility of gases in
4. The basic formula is : Solute + Solvent ® liquids generally decreases as the temperature
Solution. increases. This is why cold water can hold
5. In a solution of two liquids, the one present in more dissolved oxygen than warm water,
the larger amount is the solvent. which is essential for aquatic life.
6. Solutions can also be gaseous. Air is a solution
where nitrogen is the solvent and other gases 3. Density : A Key Property of Matter
like oxygen are the solutes.
3.1 What is Density?
2. Solubility and Concentration Density is defined as the mass of a substance per
unit volume. The formula for density is:
2.1 Saturated and Unsaturated Solutions
Density = Mass
Volume
page 242 Class 8th Science Foundation

The SI unit for density is kilograms per cubic

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO
metre ( kg/m3 ). Other common units are
grams per millilitre ( g/mL) or grams per cubic
centimetre ( g/cm3 ). 1. What is a solution?
(A) A mixture where the individual components
3.2 Floating and Sinking are not evenly distributed and can be seen
Whether an object floats or sinks in a liquid is separately.
related to its density compared to the liquid’s (B) A pure substance that cannot be broken down
density. into simpler parts by any chemical means.
1. An object that is less dense than water (like (C) A specific type of liquid that has the capability
oil or a wooden log) will float. of dissolving other substances.
2. An object that is more dense than water (like (D) A uniform mixture of two or more substances.
an iron rod) will sink.


Ans
3. Ice float on water because it is less dense.
When water freezes, its particles arrange in a (D) A uniform mixture of two or more substances.
structure that takes up more space, increasing A solution is a specific type of mixture where the
its volume and decreasing its density. components are so evenly distributed that the
mixture appears the same throughout. It is also
3.3 How Temperature and Pressure Affect Density known as a homogeneous or uniform mixture, like
1. Temperature : Generally, when a substance salt completely dissolved in water.
is heated, its volume increases while its
2. In a sugar-water solution, what is the sugar
mass stays the same, causing its density to
component called?
decrease. This is why hot air is less dense and
(A) Solute
rises.
(B) Mixture
2. Pressure : For gases, increasing pressure
(C) Solvent
pushes the particles closer together, decreasing
(D) Solution
the volume and increasing the density.
For liquids and solids, which are nearly

Ans
incompressible, pressure has a very small (A) Solute
effect on density. The solute is the substance that gets dissolved
in another substance to form a solution. In this
4. Measuring Mass and Volume to Find case, sugar is the solid that dissolves in the liquid
Density water, so sugar is the solute.
To calculate the density of an object, you need to
3. Air is a gaseous solution. Which gas is considered
measure its mass and volume.
the solvent?
4.1 Measuring Mass (A) Carbon dioxide, because it is an important
greenhouse gas that traps heat.
Mass is the amount of matter in an object. (B) Oxygen, because it is the most essential gas
It is measured using an instrument called a for animal life and respiration.
balance(e.g., a digital weighing balance). (C) Argon, because it is a noble gas and is
4.2 Measuring Volume therefore completely inert in the mixture.
(D) Nitrogen, because it is present in the largest
Volume is the amount of space an object occupies. amount.
For Liquids : Volume is measured using a
measuring cylinder. For Regularly Shaped Solids

Ans
: Volume can be calculated with a formula. For a (D) Nitrogen, because it is present in the largest
cuboid : Volume = length × width × height. amount.
For Irregularly Shaped Solids : Volume is measured In a solution of gases or liquids, the component
using the water displacement method. The object present in the greatest quantity is generally
is submerged in a measuring cylinder filled with considered the solvent. Since air is approximately
water, and the rise in the water level is equal to 78% nitrogen, nitrogen is the solvent, while
the object’s volume. oxygen and other gases are the solutes.
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

4. What is a saturated solution? 6. A glass of lemonade has a small amount of sugar

(A) A solution in which a greater amount of solute dissolved in it, and more sugar could still be
can still be dissolved at a given temperature. dissolved. What type of solution is this?
(B) A solution that has been heated to its boiling (A) A saturated solution
point, causing rapid evaporation of the (B) A non-uniform mixture
solvent. (C) A concentrated solution
(C) A solution in which no more solute can be (D) An unsaturated solution
dissolved at a given temperature.

Ans
(D) A solution that contains only a very small (D) An unsaturated solution
amount of dissolved solute compared to the An unsaturated solution is one that contains
solvent. less solute than its maximum capacity at a


Ans given temperature. Since more sugar can still be
dissolved, the solution has not yet reached its
(C) A solution in which no more solute can be
saturation point.
dissolved at a given temperature.
A solution becomes saturated when it has reached 7. What generally happens to the solubility of most
its limit of dissolving a solute at a particular solid substances in water as the temperature
temperature. If any more solute is added, it will increases?
not dissolve and will typically settle at the bottom (A) It decreases.
of the container. (B) It becomes zero.
(C) It increases.
5. When reading the volume of water in a measuring
(D) It stays the same.
cylinder as shown in figure, where should your
eye level be?

Ans
(C) It increases.
For most solid solutes like salt, sugar, or baking
soda, increasing the temperature of the solvent
(water) allows more of the solid to dissolve. This
is because the higher temperature provides more
energy to break apart the solute particles and mix
them with the solvent particles.

8. What happens to a solution that is saturated at

20°C when it is heated to 50°C?
Measuring the reading (A) Some of the solute comes out of the solution.
(B) It becomes an unsaturated solution.
(A) Positioned at an angle above the curved (C) The solvent evaporates completely.
surface (meniscus). (D) It remains a saturated solution.
(B) Positioned at an angle below the curved
surface (meniscus).

Ans
(C) At the same level as the bottom of the curved (B) It becomes an unsaturated solution.
surface (meniscus). Since the solubility of most solids increases with
(D) It does not matter where your eye level is temperature, a solution that was saturated at a
positioned for a reading. lower temperature will be able to dissolve more
solute at a higher temperature. Therefore, upon


Ans heating, it becomes unsaturated.
(C) At the same level as the bottom of the curved
9. What happens to the solubility of gases in water
surface (meniscus).
as the temperature increases?
To avoid parallax error and get an accurate
(A) It remains unchanged.
reading, your eye must be positioned directly
(B) It generally increases.
level with the surface of the liquid. For water and
(C) It generally decreases.
other colorless liquids, the reading is taken from
(D) It depends on the pressure.
the bottom of the curved meniscus.
page 244 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans

Ans
(C) It generally decreases. (A) kilogram per cubic metre (kg/m³)
Unlike most solids, the solubility of gases in liquids The International System of Units (SI) uses base
has an inverse relationship with temperature. As units for calculations. The SI unit for mass is the
water gets warmer, the dissolved gas particles gain kilogram (kg) and for volume is the cubic metre
more energy and escape from the solution more (m³). Therefore, the SI derived unit for density is
easily, meaning less gas can remain dissolved. kilograms per cubic metre (kg/m³).

10. Why is it important for aquatic life that cold 13. An iron block and a wooden block have the exact
water can hold more dissolved oxygen than warm same volume. Why is the iron block much heavier?
water? (A) Because iron has a significantly higher density,
(A) Because cold water inhibits the excessive meaning more mass is packed into the same
growth of algae and aquatic plants that can volume.
deplete nutrients. (B) Because the Earth’s gravitational force pulls
(B) It makes the water significantly less dense, more strongly on iron atoms than on wood
which makes it much easier for the fish to fibers.
swim and conserve energy. (C) Because the porous structure of the wooden
(C) Because fish are cold-blooded animals and block means it contains a large amount of
their metabolism functions more efficiently in trapped air.
cold environments. (D) Because iron is a metal, and all metals are
(D) It ensures that there is sufficient oxygen inherently heavier than all types of wood.
available for fish and other organisms to


Ans
breathe.
(A) Because iron has a significantly higher


Ans density, meaning more mass is packed into the
(D) It ensures that there is sufficient oxygen same volume.
available for fish and other organisms to breathe. Density is mass per volume. Since both blocks
Aquatic animals rely on the oxygen dissolved have the same volume, the one with the higher
in water for respiration. Since cold water has a density (iron) will have more mass packed into
higher capacity to dissolve oxygen, it provides a that same amount of space, making it heavier.
richer oxygen environment, which is crucial for
supporting a healthy aquatic ecosystem, especially 14. What is the term for the amount of matter present
in deeper, colder waters. in an object?
(A) Mass
11. What is density? (B) Weight
(A) The mass per unit volume of a substance. (C) Volume
(B) The amount of space an object occupies. (D) Density
(C) The total mass of an object.


Ans
(D) The heaviness of an object compared to
water. (A) Mass
Mass is the intrinsic property of an object that


Ans measures the quantity of matter it contains. It is
(A) The mass per unit volume of a substance. a measure of an object’s inertia and is constant
Density is a fundamental physical property of regardless of the object’s location.
matter that describes how tightly packed the
matter is within a given space. It is calculated by 15. What is the term for the amount of space an
dividing the mass of a substance by the volume object occupies?
it occupies. (A) Density
(B) Volume
12. What is the SI unit of density? (C) Mass
(A) kilogram per cubic metre (kg/m³) (D) Weight
(B) kilogram per litre (kg/L)


Ans
(C) gram per millilitre (g/mL)
(D) gram per centimetre (g/cm) (B) Volume
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

Volume is the measure of the three-dimensional 19. A student observes a measuring cylinder like the
space enclosed by a closed surface. It quantifies one in figure. The marks are from 0 to 100 mL.
how much space an object or substance takes up. There are 10 small divisions between the 10 mL
mark and the 20 mL mark. What is the smallest
16. What instrument is commonly used in a laboratory volume the cylinder can accurately measure (its
to measure the volume of a liquid accurately? least count)?
(A) A measuring cylinder
(B) A weighing balance
(C) A beaker
(D) A thermometer


Ans
(A) A measuring cylinder
A measuring cylinder is a piece of laboratory
equipment specifically designed and calibrated
with markings on its side to measure the volume
of a liquid with a reasonable degree of accuracy.

17. How is the volume of an irregularly shaped

solid, like a stone, determined using a measuring
cylinder?
(A) By weighing the stone on a balance and
dividing its mass by its known density.
(B) By measuring the length, width, and height of
the stone with a ruler and multiplying them.
(C) By using the water displacement method.
(A) 1 mL
(D) By placing it in an empty measuring cylinder
(B) 10 mL
and observing the space it occupies.
(C) 5 mL


Ans (D) 2 mL
(C) By using the water displacement method.

Ans
The stone is submerged in a known volume of
(A) 1 mL
water in a measuring cylinder. The stone displaces
The volume difference between the two major
a volume of water equal to its own volume, causing
marks is 20 mL – 10 mL = 10 mL. Since there are
the water level to rise. The volume of the stone is
10 small divisions within this range, the value of
the difference between the final and initial water
one small division is 10 mL / 10 divisions = 1 mL.
levels.
20. A measuring cylinder initially contains 50 mL of
18. In a salt-water solution, what is the water
water. After an irregular object is submerged in
component called?
it, the water level rises to 75 mL. What is the
(A) Element
volume of the object?
(B) Solute
(A) 25 cm³
(C) Solvent
(B) 50 cm³
(D) Mixture
(C) 125 cm³


Ans (D) 75 cm³
(C) Solvent


Ans
The solvent is the substance in which the solute
dissolves; it is typically the component present (A) 25 cm³
in the largest amount. In this example, water is The volume of the object is equal to the volume
the liquid that dissolves the salt, so water is the of water it displaces. This is found by subtracting
solvent. the initial volume from the final volume: 75 mL
- 50 mL = 25 mL. Since 1 mL is equivalent to
1 cm³, the object’s volume is 25 cm³.
page 246 Class 8th Science Foundation

21. An object has a mass of 100 g and a volume of 24. Water has a special property related to its
20 cm³. What is its density? density. At what temperature is the density of
(A) 0.2 g/cm³ water highest?
(B) 120 g/cm³ (A) 25°C
(C) 5 g/cm³ (B) 4°C
(D) 2000 g/cm³ (C) 0°C
(D) 100°C


Ans


Ans
(C) 5 g/cm³
(B) 4°C
Density is calculated by the formula Density =
Unlike most substances that become denser as
Mass / Volume. In this case, Density = 100 g /
they cool, water is densest at 4°C. As it cools
20 cm³. This simplifies to 5 g/cm³.
further from 4°C to 0°C, it expands and becomes
22. What generally happens to the density of a less dense. This anomalous behavior is why ice
substance when it is heated? floats.
(A) It decreases because the volume increases
25. What is the direct reason why ice floats on water?
while the mass stays constant.
(A) Because the surface tension of water is strong
(B) It becomes zero because the substance turns enough to hold the ice up.
into a gas. (B) Because ice is less dense than liquid water.
(C) It increases because the mass increases with (C) Because ice is a solid, and all solids are known
heat. to float on their own liquids.
(D) It stays the same because mass and volume (D) Because ice contains a large amount of
are constant. trapped air bubbles which make it buoyant.


Ans

Ans
(A) It decreases because the volume increases (B) Because ice is less dense than liquid water.
while the mass stays constant. An object floats in a liquid if its density is less
Heating a substance gives its particles more than the liquid’s density. Due to the way water
energy, causing them to move farther apart. molecules arrange themselves when they freeze,
This results in the substance expanding, so its ice is about 9% less dense than liquid water. This
volume increases. Since density is mass divided by lower density causes it to float.
volume, an increase in volume with no change in
mass leads to a decrease in density. 26. What is meant by the “relative density” of a
substance?
23. Why does a hot air balloon rise? (A) The density of a substance at different
(A) The balloon’s fabric is designed to be lighter temperatures and pressures.
than air, which pulls it upwards. (B) How dense a substance feels when held in
(B) The fire inside the balloon’s basket produces your hand.
an upward thrust that pushes it up. (C) The mass of the substance relative to its total
(C) The hot air inside the balloon is less dense volume.
than the cooler, surrounding air. (D) The density of a substance compared to the
density of water.
(D) The balloon is pulled up into the sky by the
Earth’s upper magnetic field.

Ans

Ans (D) The density of a substance compared to the

density of water.
(C) The hot air inside the balloon is less dense Relative density is a ratio that compares the
than the cooler, surrounding air. density of a substance to the density of a standard
Heating the air inside the balloon causes it to reference substance, which is usually water. It is
expand and become less dense. According to a dimensionless number that tells you how many
the principle of buoyancy, the cooler, denser air times denser the substance is than water.
outside exerts an upward force on the less dense
balloon, causing it to rise.
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

27. Which of the following statements about mass into the core, the materials become progressively
and weight is incorrect? denser due to composition and immense pressure
(A) The SI unit of mass is the newton.
(B) Weight is the force of gravity on an object. 30. A solution with a small amount of solute is
(C) Mass is the amount of matter in an object. described as ______, while a solution with a
(D) An object’s mass is constant, but its weight large amount of solute is described as ______.
can change. (A) dilute, concentrated
(B) uniform, non-uniform


Ans
(C) saturated, unsaturated
(A) The SI unit of mass is the newton. (D) solvent, solute
The SI unit of mass is the kilogram (kg). The
newton (N) is the SI unit of force, which includes

Ans
weight. (A) dilute, concentrated
Dilute and concentrated are relative terms used
28. In a solution of soda water, the carbon dioxide gas to describe the concentration of a solution. A
is the ______ and the water is the ______. dilute solution has a low ratio of solute to solvent,
(A) solution, mixture while a concentrated solution has a high ratio of
(B) solute, solvent solute to solvent.
(C) gas, liquid
(D) solvent, solute 31. A student adds salt to a glass of water and stirs.
After a while, some salt remains undissolved at


Ans
the bottom. This means the solution is:
(B) solute, solvent (A) Unsaturated
Soda water is a solution of a gas in a liquid. (B) A compound
The carbon dioxide gas is the substance that is (C) Saturated
dissolved, making it the solute. The water is the (D) Dilute
liquid in which the gas dissolves, making it the
solvent.

Ans
(C) Saturated
29. In the diagram of the Earth’s layers , the density The presence of undissolved solute at the bottom
of the different layers increases as we move indicates that the solvent (water) has reached its
towards the center. The outermost, lightest layer maximum capacity to dissolve the solute (salt)
is called the ______. at that particular temperature. Therefore, the
solution is saturated.

32. Which of the following is NOT true about density?

(A) It is calculated as mass divided by volume.
(B) It is independent of the shape or size of an
object.
(C) The SI unit is kg/m³.
(D) It is independent of temperature.


Ans
(D) It is independent of temperature.
(A) Outer core The density is dependent on temperature. For
(B) Inner core most substances, heating causes expansion
(C) Crust (increased volume), which leads to a decrease in
(D) Mantle density.


Ans
33. Mass is to kilogram as volume is to ______.
(C) Crust (A) newton
The Earth is structured in layers based on density. (B) cubic metre
The crust is the outermost and least dense layer. (C) gram
(D) pascal
As one moves deeper through the mantle and
page 248 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans 37. The amount of solute in a solution determines its

(B) cubic metre ______, and the maximum amount that can
The analogy relates a physical quantity to its SI dissolve is its ______.
unit. The SI unit for mass is the kilogram (kg). (A) mass, volume
The SI unit for volume is the cubic metre (m³). (B) concentration, solubility
(C) density, weight
34. A bottle of cooking oil is labeled “Volume: 1 litre, (D) solubility, concentration
Weight: 910 g”. What does this tell you about the
density of the oil compared to water?

Ans
(A) The oil is less dense than water. (B) concentration, solubility
(B) It is impossible to tell from the information Concentration is a general term for the amount
provided. of solute present (e.g., dilute or concentrated).
(C) The oil has the same density as water. Solubility is a specific, quantitative term for the
(D) The oil is denser than water. maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved
under certain conditions.


Ans
(A) The oil is less dense than water. 38. What is the effect of increasing pressure on the
One litre of water has a mass of approximately density of a gas?
1000 g (or 1 kg). Since one litre of this oil has a (A) It decreases the density.
mass of only 910 g, the oil has less mass for the (B) It has no effect on the density.
same volume. Therefore, the oil is less dense than (C) It turns the gas into a solid.
water. (D) It increases the density.

35. To accurately measure 70 mL of water, which

Ans

measuring cylinder would be the best choice for a (D) It increases the density.
single measurement with good precision? Increasing pressure on a gas forces its particles
(A) A 100 mL measuring cylinder. closer together, which reduces its volume. Since
(B) A 50 mL measuring cylinder. density is mass divided by volume, decreasing the
(C) A 10 mL measuring cylinder. volume while keeping the mass constant results in
(D) A 500 mL measuring cylinder. an increase in density.


Ans 39. A raw egg sinks in a glass of tap water. How can
(A) A 100 mL measuring cylinder. you make the same egg float?
The 50 mL and 10 mL cylinders are too small to (A) By adding a large amount of salt to the water.
measure 70 mL in one go. The 500 mL cylinder (B) By shaking the glass vigorously.
can measure it, but its markings are farther apart, (C) By heating the water to its boiling point.
leading to less precision. The 100 mL cylinder (D) By using a larger glass with more water.
is the smallest one that can hold the required

Ans
volume, offering the best accuracy.
(A) By adding a large amount of salt to the water.
36. Which of the following is NOT a good example Dissolving salt in water increases the density of
of a solution? the water. An object floats if it is less dense than
(A) A mixture of sand and water the liquid it is in. By adding enough salt, you can
(B) Air make the density of the salt water greater than
(C) A brass doorknob the density of the egg, causing the egg to float.
(D) Seawater
40. The “tare” or “reset” button on a digital weighing


Ans balance is used to:
(A) A mixture of sand and water (A) Set the reading to zero.
A solution is a uniform mixture. In a mixture of (B) Convert the reading from grams to kilograms.
sand and water, the sand does not dissolve and (C) Measure the volume of the object.
settles at the bottom, making it a non-uniform (D) Switch the balance off.
mixture, not a solution. The other options are all

Ans
examples of uniform mixtures (solutions).
(A) Set the reading to zero.
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

The tare function is used to ignore the weight of For the most accurate measurement, you should
a container. After placing the container on the choose the smallest graduated cylinder that can
balance, pressing “tare” resets the display to zero, contain the entire volume. A smaller cylinder
so that when the substance is added, the balance has finer gradations (a smaller least count),
shows only the mass of the substance itself. which reduces measurement error and increases
precision.
41. Why does a ship made of steel float, while a lump
of steel of the same mass sinks? 43. Which of the following is a correct statement
(A) The ship is an alloy, not pure steel, which about solutions?
makes it less dense. (A) A saturated solution can dissolve an unlimited
(B) The paint on the ship is buoyant and helps it amount of solute.
float. (B) All solutions are liquids.
(C) The ocean water is much denser than the (C) In a solution, the solute undergoes a chemical
water in a pond. change.
(D) The ship has a hollow shape that displaces a
(D) Air is an example of a gaseous solution.
large volume of water.


Ans


Ans
(D) Air is an example of a gaseous solution.
(D) The ship has a hollow shape that displaces a
The uses air as an example to show that solutions
large volume of water.
are not limited to liquids. Air is a uniform mixture
Floating depends on the buoyant force, which
of different gases, with nitrogen acting as the
equals the weight of the water displaced. The lump
solvent and other gases as solutes.
of steel is compact and displaces little water. The
ship’s hollow hull allows it to displace a massive 44. Which of these factors has a negligible effect on
volume of water, generating a buoyant force large the density of solids and liquids?
enough to support its weight. (A) Pressure
(B) Volume
42. A student needs to measure exactly 25 mL of
(C) Mass
a liquid. Looking at the measuring cylinders in
(D) Temperature
figure, which one would provide the most accurate
measurement?

Ans
(A) Pressure
While pressure significantly affects the density
of gases, its effect on solids and liquids is
negligible because they are nearly incompressible.
Temperature, however, does affect their density
by causing expansion or contraction.

45. Who is the renowned Indian scientist mentioned

for her work in developing anti-epileptic and anti-
malarial drugs by extracting compounds from
medicinal plants?
(A) Homi Bhabha
(B) C.V. Raman
(C) Asima Chatterjee
(D) Janaki Ammal
(A) The 250 mL cylinder

Ans
(B) The 100 mL cylinder (C) Asima Chatterjee
(C) The 25 mL cylinder It specifically mentions her extensive use of
(D) The 50 mL cylinder solvents and solutions to extract and isolate


Ans important compounds from medicinal plants,
(C) The 25 mL cylinder leading to the development of these drugs.
page 250 Class 8th Science Foundation

46. A block of wood has a volume of 500 cm³ and a 49. Match the basic terms of a solution with their
mass of 400 g. What is its density? correct definitions.
(A) 0.8 g/cm³
(B) 100 g/cm³ Column A Column B
(C) 1.25 g/cm³ 1 Solute A The substance that does
(D) 900 g/cm³ the dissolving, usually


Ans present in a larger
amount.
(A) 0.8 g/cm³
Density = Mass / Volume. 2 Solvent B A mixture where
So, Density = 400 g / 500 cm³ = 4/5 g/cm³ = 0.8 components are not
g/cm³. Since this is less than the density of water evenly distributed, such
(1 g/cm³), the wood will float. as sand in water.

47. If a solution is described as “concentrated,” it 3 Solution C The substance that

means that: gets dissolved, which
(A) It is a saturated solution. is usually present in a
(B) It has a large amount of solute relative to the smaller amount.
solvent. 4 Non-uniform D A uniform mixture
(C) It has a small amount of solute relative to the Mixture formed when one
solvent. substance dissolves
(D) It cannot dissolve any more solute. completely into another.


Ans Options
(B) It has a large amount of solute relative to the (a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
solvent. (b) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
“Concentrated” and “dilute” are relative terms. (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
A concentrated solution is one that has a high (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
proportion of solute. It may or may not be

Ans
saturated; it’s possible it could still dissolve more
solute. (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
A solute is the substance that dissolves in a solvent
48. What is the main difference between a solute and to form a uniform mixture called a solution. A
a solvent? non-uniform mixture has components that are
(A) The solute determines the color of the not evenly distributed.
solution, while the solvent determines the
50. You are making sugar syrup (chashni) and add
taste.
so much sugar to a small amount of water that it
(B) The solute is always a solid, and the solvent
forms a very thick syrup. In this case:
is always a liquid.
(A) Sugar is the solvent and water is the solute.
(C) The solute is present in a larger amount, and (B) It is no longer a solution.
the solvent is in a smaller amount. (C) Water is still considered the solvent and sugar
(D) The solute is the substance that gets dissolved, is the solute.
while the solvent is the substance that does (D) Both are solutes.
the dissolving.


Ans


Ans (C) Water is still considered the solvent and sugar
(D) The solute is the substance that gets dissolved, is the solute.
while the solvent is the substance that does the Even when the solid solute (sugar) is present in a
dissolving. much larger amount than the liquid (water), by
This is the fundamental definition of the roles of convention, the liquid is still referred to as the
the two components in a solution. The solvent is solvent.
the medium, and the solute is the substance that
is dispersed within that medium.
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

51. What is the term for the curved surface of a liquid A weighing balance is the correct instrument
in a narrow container like a measuring cylinder? for measuring mass. A measuring cylinder is for
(A) The meniscus volume, a thermometer is for temperature, and a
(B) The volume ruler is for length.
(C) The level
(D) The waterline 55. Why are the layers of the Earth (crust, mantle,
core) arranged by density?


Ans (A) The densest materials sank to the center
(A) The meniscus when the Earth was molten.
The chapter’s instructions on how to measure (B) The magnetic field sorted the materials by
volume with a measuring cylinder specifically density.
identify this curved upper surface of the liquid as (C) The lighter materials were pushed to the
the meniscus. For accurate reading, the eye must center by pressure.
be level with the bottom of this curve. (D) It is a random arrangement.

52. Which of the following is NOT an example of a

Ans

non-uniform mixture? (A) The densest materials sank to the center
(A) A glass of clear apple juice when the Earth was molten.
(B) A bowl of cereal with milk When the Earth was young and molten, gravity
(C) A handful of soil caused the materials to separate based on their
(D) A glass of orange juice with pulp density in a process called differentiation. The
heaviest, densest materials, like iron and nickel,


Ans
sank to form the core, while the lighter, less dense
(A) A glass of clear apple juice materials floated to the top to form the crust.
In soil, orange juice with pulp, and cereal, you can
see the different components. They are not evenly 56. An unpeeled orange floats in water, but a peeled
distributed, making them non-uniform mixtures. orange sinks. What does this suggest?
Clear apple juice is a solution of sugar, flavor (A) Peeling the orange makes it heavier.
compounds, and water; it is a uniform mixture. (B) The peel is less dense than water and contains
trapped air, making the whole orange float.
53. What does the term “solubility” refer to? (C) The water becomes denser after the orange is
(A) The maximum amount of a solute that can peeled.
dissolve in a solvent at a specific temperature. (D) The orange fruit itself is denser than water.
(B) The temperature at which a solute dissolves.
(C) The color of the resulting solution.

Ans
(D) The speed at which a solute dissolves. (B) The peel is less dense than water and contains
trapped air, making the whole orange float.


Ans
The orange peel is porous and traps many small
(A) The maximum amount of a solute that can pockets of air. This trapped air increases the
dissolve in a solvent at a specific temperature. overall volume of the unpeeled orange without
Solubility is a quantitative measure of how much significantly increasing its mass, lowering its
solute can be held by a solvent before the solution average density to be less than water. Removing
becomes saturated. It is a specific value for a the peel removes this buoyancy, and the denser
given solute-solvent pair at a given temperature. fruit sinks.
54. To measure the mass of an object, you would use 57. To find the density of an object, you must measure
a: its ______ and its ______.
(A) Ruler (A) mass, volume
(B) Weighing balance (B) solubility, concentration
(C) Measuring cylinder (C) temperature, weight
(D) Thermometer (D) color, shape


Ans

Ans
(B) Weighing balance (A) mass, volume
page 252 Class 8th Science Foundation

The formula for density is Density = Mass / The volume of a cuboid is calculated as length ×
Volume. Therefore, to calculate the density of any width × height. So, Volume = 10 cm × 5 cm × 4
object, these are the two fundamental quantities cm = 200 cm³.
that must be measured.
61. A boat is loaded with heavy cargo. What must
58. What is a key difference between mass and happen for it to continue floating?
density? (A) The density of the water must decrease.
(A) Mass is the amount of matter, while density (B) The boat must rise higher in the water.
is how tightly packed that matter is. (C) The mass of the boat must decrease.
(B) There is no difference. (D) The boat must sink lower in the water to
(C) Mass depends on volume, while density does displace more water.
not.


Ans
(D) Mass is measured in kg, while density is
measured in meters. (D) The boat must sink lower in the water to
displace more water.


Ans Adding cargo increases the total weight of the
(A) Mass is the amount of matter, while density boat. To float, the upward buoyant force must
is how tightly packed that matter is. increase to match this new, higher weight. To
Mass is an extensive property that tells you the increase the buoyant force, the boat must displace
total amount of “stuff.” Density is an intensive more water, which it does by sinking deeper into
property that describes the concentration of that the water.
“stuff.” A large, light object (like a pillow) can
have the same mass as a small, heavy object (like 62. Match the type of solution with its correct
a rock), but their densities will be very different. description.

59. Which statement about measuring the volume of Column A Column B

a liquid is incorrect? 1 Saturated A A solution containing a
(A) A measuring cylinder is a common tool for Solution relatively small amount
this purpose. of dissolved solute.
(B) Your eye should be level with the surface of
the liquid for an accurate reading. 2 Unsaturated B A solution containing a
(C) You should read the volume at the bottom of Solution relatively large amount
the meniscus for water. of dissolved solute.
(D) The volume of a liquid changes depending on 3 Dilute C A solution in which more
the shape of the container it’s in. Solution solute can be dissolved


Ans at a given temperature.
(D) The volume of a liquid changes depending on 4 Concentrated D A solution in which
the shape of the container it’s in. Solution no more solute can be
Liquids have a definite volume. While their shape dissolved at a given
changes to match the container, the amount temperature.
of space they occupy (their volume) remains
Options
constant.
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
60. What is the volume of a cuboid-shaped box with (b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
a length of 10 cm, a width of 5 cm, and a height (c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
of 4 cm? (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(A) 200 cm³

Ans
(B) 19 cm³
(C) 40 cm³ (b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
(D) 50 cm³ A saturated solution cannot dissolve more solute,
while an unsaturated solution can. Dilute and


Ans concentrated are relative terms describing the
(A) 200 cm³ amount of solute in a solution.
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

63. You have two solutions of salt water, Solution A

Ans

and Solution B. Solution A tastes much saltier (A) 1 g/mL
than Solution B. What can you conclude? The mass of 1 mL of water is close to 1 g at room
(A) Solution A is unsaturated. temperature. Since density is mass/volume, this
(B) Solution B is hotter than Solution A. gives a density of 1 g / 1 mL, or 1 g/mL (which is
(C) Solution A is more concentrated than Solution equivalent to 1 g/cm³).
B.
(D) Solution B is saturated. 67. A doctor prescribes a “dilute” solution of a
medicine. This means the patient should take a


Ans solution with:
(C) Solution A is more concentrated than Solution (A) A small amount of medicine and a large
B. amount of water.
The salty taste is due to the dissolved salt (the (B) A large amount of medicine and a small
solute). A saltier taste indicates that there is a amount of water.
higher proportion of salt to water. Therefore, (C) The maximum possible amount of dissolved
Solution A has a higher concentration than medicine.
Solution B. (D) The medicine in its solid, undissolved form.

64. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of

Ans

a solution? (A) A small amount of medicine and a large
(A) The components are not chemically bonded. amount of water.
(B) The components are not visible separately. A dilute solution is one with a low concentration.
(C) It is a uniform mixture. This means it has a low ratio of solute (the
(D) The solute can be separated from the solvent medicine) to the solvent (usually water).
by filtration.
68. What is a key difference between a mixture of


Ans sawdust and water and a mixture of sugar and
(D) The solute can be separated from the solvent water?
by filtration. (A) Sawdust and water is a non-uniform mixture;
In a true solution, the solute particles are sugar and water is a uniform mixture
individual molecules or ions that are smaller than (solution).
the pores of a filter paper. Therefore, a dissolved (B) Sawdust is a solute; sugar is a solvent.
solute cannot be separated from the solvent by (C) Sawdust makes the water hot; sugar makes it
simple filtration. cold.
(D) Sawdust and water is uniform; sugar and
65. ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution) is a uniform water is non-uniform.
mixture of salt, sugar, and water. In this solution,
what are the salt and sugar?

Ans
(A) Precipitates (A) Sawdust and water is a non-uniform mixture;
(B) Solutions sugar and water is a uniform mixture (solution).
(C) Solvents Sawdust does not dissolve in water and its
(D) Solutes particles are visible, making it a non-uniform


Ans mixture. Sugar dissolves completely and becomes
invisible, with its particles evenly distributed,
(D) Solutes making it a uniform mixture or solution.
ORS is a solution where water is the solvent. The
solid substances that are dissolved in the water, in 69. An object with a density of 0.9 g/cm³ is placed
this case salt and sugar, are the solutes. in water (density 1.0 g/cm³). What will happen?
(A) The object will dissolve.
66. What is the approximate density of water at room (B) The object will sink.
temperature? (C) The object will float.
(A) 1 g/mL (D) The object will remain suspended in the
(B) 4 g/mL middle.
(C) 10 g/mL
(D) 0.1 g/mL

Ans
page 254 Class 8th Science Foundation

(C) The object will float. will appear to align with a different mark on the
An object will float in a fluid if its density is less scale. Viewing it at eye level ensures an accurate
than the density of the fluid. Since 0.9 g/cm³ is reading.
less than 1.0 g/cm³, the object will float on the
water. 73. Match the concept of solubility with its
corresponding characteristic.
70. An unsaturated solution can dissolve ______
solute, while a saturated solution can dissolve Column A Column B
______ solute at that temperature. 1 Solubility A The solubility of
(A) no more, more this state of matter
(B) only solid, only liquid in a liquid generally
(C) more, no more increases as the
(D) less, much less temperature rises.


Ans 2 Solid Solute B The reason aquatic
(C) more, no more animals survive better
An unsaturated solution is, by definition, one that in cold water, which
has the capacity to dissolve additional solute. A holds more dissolved
saturated solution has reached its capacity and oxygen.
cannot dissolve any more solute. 3 Gaseous Solute C The maximum amount
of a solute that can
71. Which statement about the layers of the Earth is be dissolved in a
incorrect? fixed quantity of a
(A) The density of the layers decreases as you solvent at a particular
move towards the center. temperature.
(B) The crust is the outermost and least dense
layer. 4 Aquatic Life D The solubility of
(C) The layers are arranged with the densest at this state of matter
the center. in a liquid generally
(D) The inner core is believed to be solid. decreases as the
temperature rises.


Ans
Options
(A) The density of the layers decreases as you (a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
move towards the center. (b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
Due to gravitational differentiation, the density of (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
the Earth’s layers increases as you move from the (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
light crust towards the very dense core.


Ans
72. Why is it important to read the liquid level in (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
a measuring cylinder with your eye at the same Solubility is the maximum amount of solute
level as the meniscus? that can dissolve at a specific temperature.
(A) To see if the liquid is hot or cold. The solubility of most solids increases with
(B) To prevent the liquid from spilling over the temperature, while that of gases decreases.
top. Aquatic life depends on the higher solubility of
(C) To check if the liquid is a solution or a oxygen in colder water.
mixture.
(D) To avoid an error in the reading due to 74. Which two factors primarily affect the density of
parallax. a gas?
(A) Its temperature and pressure.


Ans
(B) Its color and smell.
(D) To avoid an error in the reading due to (C) Its solubility and concentration.
parallax. (D) Its mass and shape.
Parallax is an apparent shift in the position of


Ans
an object when viewed from different angles. If
you look at the meniscus from above or below, it (A) Its temperature and pressure.
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

The density of a gas is highly dependent on both (D) Alcohol and water
temperature (heating causes expansion and lowers


Ans
density) and pressure (increasing pressure causes
compression and raises density). (C) Salt and water
A saline solution is a sterile, uniform mixture of
75. What is the purpose of the water displacement sodium chloride (salt) dissolved in water, prepared
method? at a specific concentration to be compatible with
(A) To calculate the temperature of the water. body fluids. It is a classic example of a solute-
(B) To measure the mass of an irregular solid. solvent solution used in medicine.
(C) To measure the volume of an irregular solid.
(D) To determine if a solid is soluble in water. 79. To find the relative density of a substance, you
would divide its density by the density of:


Ans (A) Water
(C) To measure the volume of an irregular solid. (B) Air
It is difficult to measure the volume of an object (C) Oil
with an irregular shape using a ruler. The water (D) Iron
displacement method provides a simple and


Ans
accurate way to find its volume by measuring the
volume of water it pushes aside when submerged. (A) Water
The relative density as a comparison to a
76. Saturated is to maximum solute as dilute is to standard. For solids and liquids, that standard
______. reference substance is water.
(A) high temperature
(B) minimum solvent 80. Why can pressure have a significant effect on the
(C) undissolved solid density of a gas but a negligible effect on a solid?
(D) small amount of solute (A) Because gases are always in a container, while
solids are not.


Ans (B) Because gas particles are lighter than solid
(D) small amount of solute particles.
The analogy relates a term describing a solution (C) Because gas particles have large spaces
to its meaning in terms of solute amount. A between them, while solid particles are
saturated solution contains the maximum possible already tightly packed.
amount of solute. A dilute solution contains a (D) Because solids are hotter than gases.
relatively small amount of solute.


Ans
77. Which of the following is NOT a good example of (C) Because gas particles have large spaces
a uniform mixture (solution)? between them, while solid particles are already
(A) A cup of black coffee (no grounds). tightly packed.
(B) A piece of granite rock. Pressure affects density by changing the volume.
(C) The air in a room. It is easy to reduce the volume of a gas by
(D) A glass of tap water (contains dissolved squeezing its particles into the large empty spaces.
minerals). In a solid, the particles are already touching, so


Ans applying pressure cannot significantly reduce the
volume.
(B) A piece of granite rock.
Granite is a rock, which is a non-uniform mixture 81. If a solution has a high concentration, it means
of different minerals. You can clearly see different it has:
colored crystals (like quartz, feldspar, mica) (A) A high amount of solute per unit of solvent or
within the rock, so its composition is not uniform. solution.
(B) A high amount of solvent per unit of solute.
78. In a hospital, a saline solution is given intravenously. (C) A high temperature.
This solution is a carefully prepared mixture of: (D) A high volume.
(A) Oil and water
(B) Sugar and water

Ans
(C) Salt and water
page 256 Class 8th Science Foundation

(A) A high amount of solute per unit of solvent A digital balance contains a sensor that measures
or solution. the downward force (weight) and then uses the
Concentration is a measure of the amount of local value of gravity to calculate and display
dissolved substance (solute) in a given amount of the the corresponding mass. A traditional two-
mixture (solution or solvent). A high concentration pan balance works by physically balancing the
means a large quantity of solute is present. unknown object against a set of known masses.

82. To calculate an object’s density, you divide its 85. The process of making ‘Chashni’ (sugar syrup)
______ by its ______. involves dissolving a large amount of ______
(A) density, mass in a small amount of ______.
(B) mass, volume (A) water, salt
(C) volume, mass (B) water, sugar
(D) weight, mass (C) salt, water
(D) sugar, water


Ans
(B) mass, volume

Ans
The definition of density is the ratio of an object’s (D) sugar, water
mass to the volume it occupies. This example to illustrate an exception to the
“larger amount is the solvent” rule. Chashni is
83. Which statement about the properties of solutions made by dissolving a large quantity of solid sugar
is incorrect? (solute) in a smaller quantity of liquid water
(A) The solubility of gases decreases with (solvent).
temperature.
(B) The solubility of most solids increases with 86. What happens to the volume reading in a
temperature. measuring cylinder when you submerge a solid
(C) A solution is a uniform mixture. object that floats?
(D) A saturated solution is always a concentrated (A) The reading shows the total volume of the
solution. object.
(B) The volume reading does not change.


Ans
(C) The reading shows the volume of the part of
(D) A saturated solution is always a concentrated the object that is submerged.
solution. (D) The volume reading goes down.
A substance can be saturated but still be
considered dilute if its overall solubility is very

Ans
low. For example, a saturated solution of calcium (C) The reading shows the volume of the part of
hydroxide is saturated (can’t dissolve more), but the object that is submerged.
because its solubility is low, the solution is still A floating object displaces a volume of water that
very dilute. has a weight equal to the object’s own weight.
Since it is not fully submerged, the water level
84. How does a digital balance measure mass will only rise an amount corresponding to the
compared to a two-pan balance? volume of the object that is below the waterline.
(A) A digital balance measures weight and
converts it to mass, while a two-pan balance 87. Which of the following is NOT a good example
directly compares masses. of a solute?
(B) A digital balance uses a sliding weight, while (A) Sugar in tea.
a two-pan balance uses electricity. (B) Salt in seawater.
(C) A digital balance measures volume, while a (C) Water in a salt solution.
two-pan balance measures mass. (D) Carbon dioxide in soda.
(D) A digital balance is less accurate than a two-


Ans
pan balance.
(C) Water in a salt solution.


Ans In a salt solution, the water is the substance that
(A) A digital balance measures weight and does the dissolving; it is the solvent. The salt is
converts it to mass, while a two-pan balance the substance that gets dissolved; it is the solute.
directly compares masses.
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

88. Match the physical property or measurement tool

Ans

with its definition. (A) Understanding how elements combine to
create compounds and mixtures.
Column A Column B The chapter links fundamental chemistry to real-
1 Density A The amount of matter in world innovation. It states that “chemists study
an object, measured with how elements combine to create compounds”
a balance. to invent medicines and that “engineers and
2 Mass B An instrument used to material scientists rely on their understanding of
measure the volume of a compounds and mixtures to design materials with
liquid or an irregular solid. unique properties.”

3 Volume C The space occupied by an 91. A block of material has a mass of 80 g and a
object. volume of 100 cm³. If placed in water (density 1.0
4 Measuring D The mass of a substance g/cm³), it will:
Cylinder per unit volume. (A) Dissolve
(B) Sink
Options : (C) Float
(a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D (D) Remain suspended
(b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
(c) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B

Ans
(d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B (C) Float


Ans First, calculate the density of the block: Density
= Mass / Volume = 80 g / 100 cm³ = 0.8 g/cm³.
(d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B Since the block’s density (0.8 g/cm³) is less than
Density is mass per unit volume. Mass is the the density of water (1.0 g/cm³), it will float.
amount of matter. Volume is the space occupied.
A measuring cylinder is used to measure volume. 92. Why must you be careful when using a heating
device in Activity 9.2?
89. If relative density is a ratio of two densities, why (A) Because heating a solution makes it explosive.
does it have no units? (B) Because the thermometer might break in hot
(A) Because it is not a scientific quantity. water.
(B) Because it is always a very small number. (C) Because hot glassware can cause burns.
(C) Because the unit is “relative.” (D) Because heat can make the solute disappear
(D) Because the units in the numerator and the permanently.
denominator cancel each other out.


Ans


Ans
(C) Because hot glassware can cause burns.
(D) Because the units in the numerator and the The “Safety first” box for this activity warns to be
denominator cancel each other out. careful with the heating device. This is a standard
Relative density is calculated as (Density of laboratory safety precaution, as the beaker, stand,
substance) / (Density of water). For example, (g/ and the liquid itself will become hot and can cause
cm³) / (g/cm³). The units in the top and bottom skin burns if touched improperly.
of the fraction are the same, so they cancel,
leaving a dimensionless number. 93. A solution that contains a small amount of solute
is ______, while a solution that has dissolved
90. What is the key to innovation in fields like the maximum amount of solute is ______.
medicine and material science? (A) unsaturated, concentrated
(A) Understanding how elements combine to (B) saturated, dilute
create compounds and mixtures. (C) concentrated, unsaturated
(B) The ability to measure mass and volume (D) dilute, saturated
accurately.
(C) Understanding the concept of density.

Ans
(D) Knowing the history of ancient scientific (D) dilute, saturated
practices. “Dilute” refers to a low concentration of solute.
“Saturated” refers to the state where the
page 258 Class 8th Science Foundation

maximum possible amount of solute has been 97. If you dissolve 10 g of salt in 100 mL of water, the
dissolved at that temperature. mass of the resulting solution will be:
(A) Less than 100 g
94. Which statement about the density of water is (B) 10 g
incorrect? (C) Approximately 110 g
(A) Its density increases as it cools from 4°C to (D) 100 g
0°C.
(B) Ice is less dense than liquid water.

Ans
(C) It is densest at 4°C. (C) Approximately 110 g
(D) Its density is approximately 1 g/cm³. This demonstrates the conservation of mass. The


Ans mass of a solution is the sum of the masses of the
solute and the solvent. Assuming 100 mL of water
(A) Its density increases as it cools from 4°C to has a mass of 100 g, the total mass will be 100 g
0°C. (water) + 10 g (salt) = 110 g.
This describes the anomalous expansion of water.
As water cools from 4°C down to its freezing 98. Which of the following is NOT a unit of density?
point of 0°C, it actually expands and its density (A) g/cm³
decreases. This is why ice floats. (B) N/m²
(C) g/mL
95. What is the main difference between a mixture (D) kg/m³
and a solution?
(A) A solution is a specific type of uniform

Ans
mixture. (B) N/m²
(B) All mixtures are solutions, but not all N/m² (newtons per square meter), or the Pascal,
solutions are mixtures. is the unit of pressure (Force/Area). The other
(C) A mixture is non-uniform, while a solution is three are all valid units of density (Mass/Volume).
uniform.
(D) A mixture is a physical combination, while a 99. Match the principle or method with its correct
solution is a chemical combination. application or description.

Ans Column A Column B

(A) A solution is a specific type of uniform 1 Floating A A method used to
mixture. Object find the volume of an
“Mixture” is a broad category. “Solution” is a irregularly shaped solid.
more specific term for a mixture that is uniform or
homogeneous, where the solute is fully dissolved 2 Sinking B An object that is denser
and the components are not distinguishable. Object than the liquid it is
placed in.
96. An ancient raft made of bamboo floats well
3 Water C This process causes a
because:
Displacement substance’s volume to
(A) The rope used to tie the logs is buoyant.
increase and its density
(B) Bamboo is hollow and has a low overall
to decrease.
density.
(C) The shape of the raft repels water. 4 Effect of D An object that is less
(D) Bamboo is a type of metal. heating on dense than the liquid it
density is placed in.


Ans
Options
(B) Bamboo is hollow and has a low overall
(a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
density.
(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
The bamboo’s structure, being light and hollow
(c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
(containing air), gives it a very low average
(d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
density. This density is much less than that of
water, causing it to float easily and making it an

Ans
ideal material for building rafts. (a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

An object floats if it is less dense than the liquid. It two spoons of salt is more concentrated than
sinks if it is denser. Water displacement measures one with one spoon, but it is more dilute than a
the volume of irregular objects. Heating generally solution with four spoons. The terms are used for
decreases a substance’s density. comparison.

100. How can the volume of a regular solid like a dice 103. A substance with a high density has a large amount
be calculated? of ______ packed into a small ______.
(A) By dissolving it in water. (A) volume, mass
(B) By using the water displacement method. (B) weight, density
(C) By measuring its mass on a balance. (C) mass, volume
(D) By multiplying its length, width, and height. (D) solute, solvent


Ans

Ans
(D) By multiplying its length, width, and height. (C) mass, volume
For objects with a regular geometric shape like a A high-density material is one where a lot of
cuboid (which includes a dice), the volume can be matter (mass) is concentrated in a given amount
calculated directly by measuring its dimensions of space (volume).
and using the formula V = l × w × h.
104. Which statement accurately describes the use of
101. To make a hot, saturated solution of sugar in solvents in traditional Indian medicine?
water, and then have sugar crystals form as it (A) Solvents were only used to clean medical
cools, you should: instruments.
(A) Add more water as it cools. (B) A variety of solvents, including water, oils,
(B) Keep stirring the solution as it cools. and ghee, were used.
(C) Dissolve as much sugar as possible in hot (C) Traditional medicine did not involve dissolving
water and then let it cool undisturbed. substances.
(D) Add salt to the solution. (D) Only water was ever used as a solvent.


Ans

Ans
(C) Dissolve as much sugar as possible in hot (B) A variety of solvents, including water, oils,
water and then let it cool undisturbed. and ghee, were used.
The solubility of sugar is much higher in hot The “Our scientific heritage” box explicitly states
water than in cold water. By creating a saturated that in systems like Ayurveda, in addition to
solution at a high temperature and then cooling water, “oils, ghee, milk, and other substances”
it, the solution becomes supersaturated. The were also used as solvents to prepare drug
excess sugar that can no longer stay dissolved will formulations.
then crystallize out.
105. Which of the following is NOT a good example of
102. Why does the chapter emphasize that “dilute” a non-uniform mixture?
and “concentrated” are relative terms? (A) A bowl of mixed nuts.
(A) Because the concentration of a solution is (B) Muddy water.
constantly changing. (C) A solid gold ring.
(B) Because only saturated solutions have a fixed (D) A slice of fruitcake.
concentration.


Ans
(C) Because they are not scientific terms.
(D) Because a solution can be dilute compared to (C) A solid gold ring.
one solution, but concentrated compared to A solid gold ring (if it’s pure gold) is an element,
another. a pure substance. If it’s a gold alloy (like 18k
gold), it is a uniform mixture. In either case, it


Ans is not a non-uniform mixture where you can see
(D) Because a solution can be dilute compared different components. The other options are all
to one solution, but concentrated compared to non-uniform.
another.
There is no strict dividing line between dilute
and concentrated. For example, a solution with
page 260 Class 8th Science Foundation

106. A helium balloon floats in air. This is because: (A) Thermometer

(A) The helium gas inside the balloon is less dense (B) Balance
than the surrounding air. (C) Funnel
(B) The balloon is pulled up by the sun. (D) Measuring cylinder
(C) Helium has no mass.


Ans
(D) The rubber of the balloon repels the air.
(B) Balance


Ans “The instrument used to measure the mass of an
(A) The helium gas inside the balloon is less dense object is known as a balance” and shows a digital
than the surrounding air. weighing balance as an example.
This is an example of buoyancy in a gas. The
principle is the same as in liquids. The helium 110. Which statement about solutions is incorrect?
gas is significantly less dense than the mixture (A) They are uniform mixtures.
of nitrogen and oxygen that makes up air. The (B) The components of a solution do not
denser air exerts an upward buoyant force that chemically react.
is greater than the weight of the balloon, causing (C) All solutions are formed by dissolving a solid
it to rise. in a liquid.
(D) Air is a gaseous solution.
107. If the density of an object is exactly the same as


Ans
the density of the fluid it is placed in, what will
happen? (C) All solutions are formed by dissolving a solid
(A) The object will dissolve. in a liquid.
(B) The object will sink to the bottom. Air is a gas-in-gas solution, and soda water is a
gas-in-liquid solution. Solutions can be formed
(C) The object will float on the surface.
from any combination of states of matter.
(D) The object will remain suspended wherever it
is placed within the fluid. 111. For most solids, solubility ______ with an


Ans increase in temperature, while for gases, solubility
______ with an increase in temperature.
(D) The object will remain suspended wherever it (A) decreases, increases
is placed within the fluid. (B) increases, increases
In this case of neutral buoyancy, the downward (C) decreases, decreases
force of the object’s weight is exactly balanced (D) increases, decreases
by the upward buoyant force. With no net force,
the object will not rise or sink but will stay at the

Ans
level it is placed. (D) increases, decreases
This question tests the understanding of the
108. What is the term for a solution that contains less opposing effects of temperature on the solubility
solute than it is capable of dissolving at a certain of solids and gases in a liquid. Heating helps more
temperature? solid dissolve, but it causes more gas to escape
(A) Unsaturated from the solution.
(B) Concentrated
(C) Saturated 112. Why does a packet of oil labeled “1 litre” have a
(D) Supersaturated weight of only about 910 grams, while 1 litre of


Ans water weighs 1000 grams?
(A) Because some of the oil evaporated from the
(A) Unsaturated packet.
This is the specific definition provided in the (B) Because the oil is more valuable than water.
chapter. An unsaturated solution has not yet (C) Because oil is less dense than water.
reached its limit for dissolving a solute, meaning (D) Because the measurement on the packet is
that more solute can be added and it will still incorrect.
dissolve.


Ans
109. The instrument used to measure the mass of an (C) Because oil is less dense than water.
object is a:
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

Density is mass/volume. Since the volume is the Oil and water do not mix; they separate into
same (1 litre), the substance with less mass (910 g distinct layers. This makes the mixture non-
oil vs 1000 g water) must have a lower density. uniform, as its composition is different in different
parts. The other three are all examples of uniform
113. To calculate the density of a small, irregularly mixtures (solutions/alloys).
shaped pebble, what two measurements would
you need to make? 116. What is the formula for calculating density?
(A) Its temperature and its color. (A) Density = Mass + Volume
(B) Its weight and its solubility. (B) Density = Volume / Mass
(C) Its length and width. (C) Density = Mass × Volume
(D) Its mass using a balance, and its volume using (D) Density = Mass / Volume
water displacement.


Ans


Ans (D) Density = Mass / Volume
(D) Its mass using a balance, and its volume using Density is the ratio of the mass of a substance to
water displacement. the volume it occupies.
To find density, you need mass and volume. The
mass would be measured with a balance. Since 117. In a solution formed by mixing two liquids, how is
the pebble is irregularly shaped, its volume would the solute generally identified?
be determined by the water displacement method (A) It is the liquid present in the smaller amount.
using a measuring cylinder. (B) It is the liquid that is more colorful.
(C) It is the liquid that is denser.
114. What is the primary difference between a dilute
(D) It is the liquid that is added first.
solution and an unsaturated solution?
(A) “Dilute” applies to liquids, while

Ans
“unsaturated” applies to solids.
(A) It is the liquid present in the smaller amount.
(B) “Dilute” is a relative term for low
The chapter provides this convention for liquid-
concentration, while “unsaturated” means it
liquid solutions. When it’s not clear which liquid
can still dissolve more solute.
is dissolving the other, the one present in the
(C) A dilute solution is always unsaturated, and
lesser quantity is designated as the solute, and
an unsaturated solution is always dilute.
the one in the greater quantity is the solvent.
(D) There is no difference; the terms mean the
same thing.


Ans
(B) “Dilute” is a relative term for low 118. The Dead Sea has a very high salt concentration.
concentration, while “unsaturated” means it can Why is it very easy for people to float in the Dead
still dissolve more solute. Sea?
The terms describe different aspects. A solution (A) Because the gravity is weaker there.
can be dilute but saturated (if the solute has very (B) Because the water is very warm.
low solubility). A solution can be concentrated (C) Because there are no fish to pull people down.
but still unsaturated (if the solute is very soluble).
(D) Because the high concentration of dissolved
“Dilute/Concentrated” is a comparison, while
salt makes the water very dense.
“Saturated/Unsaturated” is about reaching a
limit.

Ans

115. Which of the following is NOT an example of a (D) Because the high concentration of dissolved
uniform mixture? salt makes the water very dense.
(A) Oil and water Dissolving a large amount of salt significantly
(B) Sugar dissolved in water increases the density of the water. The human
(C) Brass body, which would normally sink or just barely
(D) Air float in fresh water, is much less dense than this
highly saline water, causing people to float very


Ans easily.
(A) Oil and water
page 262 Class 8th Science Foundation

119. Why does the process of measuring the volume substance formed chemically.
of a solid by displacement require the solid to be (D) A mixture cannot be separated, while a
fully submerged? compound can.
(A) To increase the temperature of the water.


Ans
(B) To ensure the solid gets clean.
(C) To ensure that the volume of water displaced (C) A mixture has visible parts and is a physical
is equal to the total volume of the object. blend; a compound is a uniform, new substance
(D) Because the method only works for objects formed chemically.
that sink. This captures the key differences. A non-uniform
mixture is heterogeneous with physically blended


Ans components. A compound is homogeneous
(C) To ensure that the volume of water displaced (uniform at the molecular level) and is a
is equal to the total volume of the object. completely new substance created through a
An object displaces a volume of fluid equal to the chemical reaction.
volume of the part of the object that is submerged.
To measure the total volume of the object, the 123. A solid object has a mass of 150 g and a volume
entire object must be under the water level. of 120 cm³. Will it sink or float in water?
(A) It will float.
120. The ______ is the substance being dissolved, (B) It will remain suspended.
and a ______ solution has reached its (C) It will sink.
maximum capacity for dissolving it. (D) It will dissolve.
(A) solute, saturated


Ans
(B) solvent, unsaturated
(C) solute, concentrated (C) It will sink.
(D) solvent, dilute First, calculate the object’s density: Density =
150 g / 120 cm³ = 1.25 g/cm³. The density of


Ans water is 1.0 g/cm³. Since the object’s density is
(A) solute, saturated greater than the density of water, it will sink.
The solute is the substance that gets dissolved.
A saturated solution is one that has dissolved 124. What does the formation of a solution involve at
the maximum possible amount of that solute at a the particle level?
given temperature. (A) The particles of the solvent are destroyed.
(B) The particles of the solute are converted into
121. Hot air is to low density as cold air is to ______. solvent particles.
(A) high temperature (C) The particles of the solute fit into the spaces
(B) low mass between the particles of the solvent.
(C) low pressure (D) The particles of the solute chemically react
(D) high density with the particles of the solvent.


Ans

Ans
(D) high density (C) The particles of the solute fit into the spaces
The analogy relates temperature to density for a between the particles of the solvent.
gas like air. The heating air causes it to expand Dissolving is a physical process of mixing at the
and become less dense. The opposite is also true: molecular or ionic level. The solute breaks down
cooling air causes it to contract and become more into its individual particles, which then disperse
dense. and occupy the interparticle spaces within the
solvent.
122. What is the main difference between a non-
uniform mixture and a compound? 125. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
(A) A mixture is always a solid, while a compound solution?
is always a liquid. (A) A bowl of fruit salad.
(B) A mixture has a fixed ratio of components, (B) Air.
while a compound does not. (C) A glass of ORS.
(C) A mixture has visible parts and is a physical (D) Sugar syrup (Chashni).
blend; a compound is a uniform, new
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

Ans (A) Pressure has a large effect on the density of a

(A) A bowl of fruit salad. gas and a very small effect on a liquid.
A solution is a uniform mixture. A fruit salad Gases are highly compressible due to the large
is a non-uniform mixture, as you can clearly spaces between their particles, so pressure
see the individual pieces of different fruits. The significantly increases their density. Liquids are
other three are all examples of uniform mixtures nearly incompressible because their particles are
(solutions). already close together, so pressure has a negligible
effect on their density.
126. When measuring the volume of water in a
measuring cylinder, you should read the scale at 129. If two objects have the same mass, but object A
the: has a larger volume than object B, which object
(A) Bottom of the meniscus. has the higher density?
(B) Top of the meniscus. (A) It depends on their shape.
(C) Widest part of the meniscus. (B) They have the same density.
(D) Average point between the top and bottom. (C) Object A
(D) Object B


Ans


Ans
(A) Bottom of the meniscus.
For water and most transparent liquids that wet (D) Object B
the glass, the standard convention is to read the Density = Mass / Volume. If the mass (numerator)
measurement from the bottom of the curved is the same for both, the object with the smaller
meniscus. volume (denominator) will have the higher
density. Therefore, object B is denser.
127. You have a saturated salt solution at 60°C. What
will most likely happen if you cool it down to 130. Which of the following statements about solvents
20°C? is incorrect?
(A) Nothing will change. (A) The solvent is the substance that gets
(B) More salt will be able to dissolve in it. dissolved.
(C) The solution will turn into a gas. (B) The solvent is usually the component present
(D) Some of the dissolved salt will crystallize and in the largest amount.
become solid again. (C) In a gas-in-liquid solution, the liquid is the
solvent.


Ans
(D) Water is a common solvent.
(D) Some of the dissolved salt will crystallize and


Ans
become solid again.
The solubility of salt decreases as the temperature (A) The solvent is the substance that gets
drops. A solution that was saturated at a high dissolved.
temperature will be supersaturated at a lower The solvent is the substance that does the
temperature, meaning it holds more dissolved dissolving. The substance that gets dissolved is
solute than it should. This excess solute will the solute.
typically precipitate or crystallize out of the
131. Why do deep-sea fish sometimes die when brought
solution.
quickly to the surface?
128. What is the primary difference in how pressure (A) The change in temperature is too great.
affects the density of a gas versus a liquid? (B) They are not used to the sunlight.
(A) Pressure has a large effect on the density of a (C) The rapid decrease in pressure causes dissolved
gas and a very small effect on a liquid. gases in their blood to form bubbles.
(B) Pressure has a very small effect on the density (D) There is too much oxygen at the surface.
of a gas and a large effect on a liquid.

Ans
(C) Pressure increases the density of a liquid but
decreases the density of a gas. (C) The rapid decrease in pressure causes dissolved
(D) Pressure does not affect the density of either. gases in their blood to form bubbles.
The solubility of gases increases with pressure.


Ans At great depths, high pressure forces a lot of gas
to dissolve in the fish’s blood. When brought to
page 264 Class 8th Science Foundation

the surface quickly, the pressure drops, the gases (D) It allows you to ignore the mass of the
come out of solution as bubbles (like opening container and measure only the mass of the
a soda bottle), causing a condition called “the liquid.
bends,” which can be fatal.


Ans
132. A solution is a ______ mixture, and a solute is (D) It allows you to ignore the mass of the
the substance that gets ______. container and measure only the mass of the liquid.
(A) uniform, dissolved To find the mass of a liquid, you must pour it into
(B) non-uniform, dissolved a container. The tare function allows you to place
(C) saturated, heated the empty container on the balance and reset the
(D) dilute, concentrated display to zero. Then, when you add the liquid,


Ans the reading shown is solely the mass of the liquid
itself, not the combined mass.
(A) uniform, dissolved
A solution is, by definition, a uniform (or 136. The two main types of mixtures are:
homogeneous) mixture. The solute is, by (A) Solute and solvent
definition, the component that is dissolved in the (B) Saturated and unsaturated
solvent. (C) Uniform and non-uniform
(D) Dilute and concentrated
133. Which of the following is NOT a good example
of a solution?

Ans
(A) Brass (C) Uniform and non-uniform
(B) Clear tea The chapter begins by classifying all mixtures into
(C) Air these two broad categories based on the visibility
(D) A solid chunk of granite and distribution of their components.


Ans 137. A block of wax (density ~0.9 g/cm³) is placed in
(D) A solid chunk of granite a tub of mercury (density ~13.6 g/cm³). What
A solution must be a uniform mixture. Granite will happen?
is a rock composed of different, visible mineral (A) The wax will sink.
crystals, making it a classic example of a non- (B) The wax will float.
uniform (heterogeneous) mixture. The others are (C) The wax will dissolve.
all uniform mixtures (solutions). (D) The wax will react chemically with the
mercury.
134. The amount of matter in an object is its ______,
while the space it occupies is its ______.

Ans
(A) mass, volume (B) The wax will float.
(B) weight, density An object floats if its density is less than the
(C) volume, mass density of the fluid it is placed in. Since the
(D) density, weight density of wax (0.9 g/cm³) is much, much less


Ans than the density of mercury (13.6 g/cm³), the wax
will float very high on the surface of the mercury.
(A) mass, volume
These are the fundamental definitions of two key 138. What is the main difference between a saturated
physical properties. Mass quantifies the amount solution and a concentrated solution?
of “stuff,” and volume quantifies the amount of (A) A saturated solution is a non-uniform mixture,
space that “stuff” takes up. while a concentrated solution is uniform.
(B) A saturated solution is a specific limit, while a
135. Why is the “tare” function on a digital balance concentrated solution is a relative description
useful for measuring the mass of a liquid? of a large amount of solute.
(A) It converts the liquid’s volume into mass. (C) A saturated solution is always dilute, while a
(B) It helps to cool the liquid down before concentrated solution is always saturated.
measuring. (D) There is no difference.
(C) It allows you to measure the mass of the
container first.

Ans
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

(B) A saturated solution is a specific limit, while 142. A wooden log has a mass of 200 kg and a volume
a concentrated solution is a relative description of of 0.25 m³. Its density is 800 kg/m³. Will it float
a large amount of solute. in water (density 1000 kg/m³)?
“Saturated” is a technical term meaning the (A) No, because its density is greater than water’s
solution has reached its maximum dissolving density.
capacity. “Concentrated” is a qualitative term (B) Yes, because it is made of wood.
simply meaning there is a lot of solute. A solution (C) No, because it is too heavy.
can be concentrated but still unsaturated if the (D) Yes, because its density is less than water’s
solute is highly soluble. density.

139. Which of the following does NOT describe a

Ans

solution? (D) Yes, because its density is less than water’s
(A) It is a uniform mixture. density.
(B) The components are not chemically bonded. The condition for floating is that the object’s
(C) The components are visible as separate average density must be less than the fluid’s
particles. density. Since the log’s density (800 kg/m³) is less
(D) The components can be separated by physical than the density of water (1000 kg/m³), it will
means like evaporation. float.


Ans 143. What is the purpose of the initial step of placing a
(C) The components are visible as separate watch glass on a digital balance and then pressing
particles. the ‘tare’ button?
A defining characteristic of a solution is that the (A) To subtract the mass of the watch glass so
solute particles are so small and well-dispersed that the balance will only show the mass of
that they are not visible. The mixture appears as the substance added to it.
a single phase. If particles are visible, it is a non- (B) To measure the mass of the watch glass.
uniform mixture. (C) To warm up the balance before use.
(D) To ensure the balance is calibrated correctly
140. Mass is measured using a ______, and the for glass.
volume of an irregular solid can be measured
using the ______ method.

Ans
(A) balance, water displacement (A) To subtract the mass of the watch glass so
(B) thermometer, heating that the balance will only show the mass of the
(C) beaker, filtration substance added to it.
(D) ruler, estimation This process, called taring, zeroes the balance


Ans with the container already on it. It’s a convenient
way to directly measure the mass of the contents
(A) balance, water displacement without having to manually subtract the
A balance is used for mass, and the water container’s mass later.
displacement method with a measuring cylinder
is used for the volume of an irregular solid. 144. Which statement about the relationship between
temperature and solubility is incorrect?
141. What are the two factors on which the density of (A) A saturated solution can become unsaturated
a substance depends? if its temperature is increased.
(A) Mass and weight (B) The solubility of all substances increases with
(B) Shape and size temperature.
(C) Solute and solvent (C) Cold ocean water in the arctic can hold more
(D) Temperature and pressure dissolved oxygen than warm tropical water.


Ans (D) Heating a glass of water generally allows you
to dissolve more sugar in it.
(D) Temperature and pressure
While density is independent of the object’s

Ans
size or shape, it is dependent on temperature (B) The solubility of all substances increases with
and pressure, with pressure being particularly temperature.
significant for gases.
page 266 Class 8th Science Foundation

This is an overgeneralization. for most solids, Solubility is a characteristic property of a

solubility increases with temperature. However, substance. Different substances have vastly
it also clearly states that for gases, solubility different solubilities. For example, a huge amount
decreases with temperature. Therefore, it is not of sugar can dissolve in water, while only a tiny
true for all substances. amount of calcium carbonate will dissolve.

145. A student makes three solutions: 148. Which of the following is NOT a unit of volume?
(A) 10 g of salt in 100 mL of water, (A) litre (L)
(B) 20 g of salt in 100 mL of water, and (B) millilitre (mL)
(C) 5 g of salt in 100 mL of water. (C) cubic metre (m³)
Which solution is the most concentrated? (D) kilogram (kg)
(A) Solution B


Ans
(B) All are equally concentrated.
(C) Solution A (D) kilogram (kg)
(D) Solution C The kilogram (kg) is the SI unit of mass. The
other three—cubic metre, litre, and millilitre—


Ans are all standard units used to measure volume.
(A) Solution B
Concentration refers to the amount of solute 149. A solution is formed when a ______ dissolves
in a given amount of solvent. Since the amount in a ______.
of solvent (100 mL of water) is the same for all (A) mixture, pure substance
three, the solution with the most solute (20 g of (B) solvent, solute
salt) will be the most concentrated. (C) liquid, solid
(D) solute, solvent
146. Why is it important for the Earth that ice is less


Ans
dense than water?
(A) It proves that water is a unique compound. (D) solute, solvent
(B) It makes glaciers move faster. The solute is the substance that gets dissolved,
(C) It makes ice easier to melt. and it dissolves into the solvent, which is the
(D) It allows ice to form a protective layer on dissolving medium.
top of lakes and oceans, insulating the liquid
150. When using a digital balance as shown in the
water below.
activity, what should the initial reading be before


Ans placing any object on it?
(D) It allows ice to form a protective layer on top (A) The maximum capacity of the balance.
of lakes and oceans, insulating the liquid water (B) Zero.
below. (C) 1.000 g
If ice were denser, it would sink, and lakes would (D) The current room temperature.
freeze from the bottom up, killing all aquatic life.

Ans
Because it floats, it creates an insulating cap that
(B) Zero.
allows life to survive underneath during winter.
The first step in using any measuring instrument
147. Which of the following statements about solubility is to ensure it starts at the correct zero point.
is false? The activity instructs the user to check that the
(A) All substances have the same solubility in display shows a zero reading, and if not, to press
water. the tare button to set it to zero for an accurate
(B) A substance with high solubility will form a measurement.
saturated solution quickly.
151. If a chef wants to make a very sweet sugar syrup
(C) It is the maximum amount of solute that can
quickly, what two things should they do?
be dissolved.
(A) Use a non-stick pan and do not stir.
(D) It is affected by temperature.
(B) Use cold water and very little sugar.


Ans (C) Use hot water and add a large amount of
(A) All substances have the same solubility in sugar while stirring.
water. (D) Use cold water and stir vigorously.
Pagesmith CH 09 : The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents and Solutions

Ans (D) Both will expand to fill the container.

(C) Use hot water and add a large amount of

Ans
sugar while stirring.
To make a sweet (concentrated) syrup, a large (C) The gas will expand to fill the container, while
amount of sugar is needed. To make it dissolve the solid will keep its own shape and volume.
quickly, two factors are key: increasing the A gas has neither a fixed shape nor a fixed
temperature (using hot water) and agitating the volume, so it will expand to occupy the entire
mixture (stirring). new container. A solid has both a fixed shape and
a fixed volume, so it will not change when moved
152. The fact that you can make either a very dilute or to a new container.
a very concentrated salt solution shows that the
components in a mixture: 155. To find the density of a liquid, what two
(A) Can be combined in variable ratios. instruments would you need?
(B) Are difficult to separate. (A) A balance to find its mass and a measuring
(C) Undergo a chemical reaction. cylinder to find its volume.
(D) Have a fixed ratio by mass. (B) A barometer and a hydrometer.
(C) A stopwatch and a beaker.


Ans (D) A thermometer and a ruler.
(A) Can be combined in variable ratios.

Ans
This is a key difference between mixtures and
compounds. You can vary the proportions of (A) A balance to find its mass and a measuring
salt and water to make solutions of different cylinder to find its volume.
concentrations. Compounds, in contrast, always The formula for density is Mass/Volume. To
have a fixed ratio of their constituent elements. calculate the density of a liquid, you need to
measure its mass (using a balance, after taring
153. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the container) and its volume (using a measuring
a saturated solution? cylinder).
(A) Adding more solute to it will result in
undissolved solid. 156. Why is an ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution) a
(B) It is always a very thick and syrupy liquid. good example of a solution?
(C) It can be made by dissolving a solute in a (A) Because it is a non-uniform mixture of solids
solvent. and a liquid.
(D) It holds the maximum amount of solute at a (B) Because it is a pure compound.
given temperature. (C) Because it is used as a medicine.
(D) Because it is a uniform mixture where the


Ans salt and sugar are completely dissolved and
(B) It is always a very thick and syrupy liquid. evenly distributed in the water.
A saturated solution can be thick if the solute is

Ans
very soluble (like sugar). However, if a substance
has low solubility, its saturated solution can (D) Because it is a uniform mixture where the
still be a thin, watery liquid. “Saturated” refers salt and sugar are completely dissolved and evenly
to reaching a limit, not to the thickness of the distributed in the water.
solution. It is a solution because the solutes (salt and sugar)
dissolve fully in the solvent (water) to create a
154. What is the main difference in how a solid and homogeneous or uniform mixture, which is why
a gas respond to being placed in a new, larger every sip tastes the same.
container?
(A) The solid will expand to fill the container,

*************
while the gas will not.
(B) Both will keep their original shape and
volume.
(C) The gas will expand to fill the container,
while the solid will keep its own shape and
volume.
page 268 Class 8th Science Foundation

CHAPTER 10
Light : Mirrors and Lenses

SUMMAR (ii) By dentists to get an enlarged view of

teeth.

1. Spherical Mirrors
Spherical mirrors are curved mirrors shaped like a
part of a hollow sphere.
1. Concave Mirror : The reflecting surface is
curved inwards, like the inside of a spoon.
2. Convex Mirror : The reflecting surface is
curved outwards(bulges out), like the back of
a spoon.

Use of concave mirror (a) As a reflector of a torch;

(b) By a dentist

(iii) In reflecting telescopes.

2. Convex Mirrors are used:

(a) Concave mirror; (b) Its representation
(a) Convex mirror ; (b) Its representation
(i) As side-view mirrors on vehicles because
they provide a wider field of view and
always show an erect image.
1.1 Image Formation by Spherical Mirrors
1. Concave Mirror:
(i) When an object is placed close to the
mirror, the image formed is erect(upright)
and enlarged(magnified).
(ii) When the object is moved farther away,
the image becomes inverted(upside down)
and can be either enlarged or smaller
depending on the distance.
2. Convex Mirror : The image formed is always
erect and diminished(smaller than the object),
regardless of the object’s distance.
Side-view mirror
1.2 Uses of Concave and Convex Mirrors
(ii) As security mirrors in large stores and at
1. Concave Mirrors are used: sharp road bends for safety.
(i) As reflectors in torches and vehicle
headlights to create a strong, parallel
beam of light.
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

2. Lenses
A lens is a piece of transparent material, like
glass, with at least one curved surface. Light
passes through a lens instead of reflecting off it.

2.1 Types of Lens

The lens is classified in the following types :
1. Convex Lens : It is thicker in the middle and
thinner at the edges.

Road safety mirror

1.3 Key Terms related to reflection

1. Incident Ray : The ray of light that strikes
the mirror.
2. Reflected Ray : The ray of light that bounces (a) A convex lens; (b) Its representation
back from the mirror.
2. Concave Lens : It is thinner in the middle and
3. Normal : An imaginary line drawn
thicker at the edges.
perpendicular (at 90°) to the mirror’s surface
at the point where the incident ray hits.
4. Angle of Incidence (+i ) : The angle between
the incident ray and the normal.
5. Angle of Reflection (+r ) : The angle between
the reflected ray and the normal.

1.4 Law of reflection

(a) A concave lens; (b) Its representation
The two laws of reflection are:
1. The angle of incidence is always equal to the
angle of reflection (+i = +r ). 2.2 Image Formation by Lenses
1. Convex Lens : When an object is close, it
forms an erect and enlarged image (this is
how a magnifying glass works). As the object
moves farther away, the image becomes
inverted.
2. Concave Lens : It always forms an erect and
diminished image.
Angle of incidence and angle of reflection
2.3 Action of Lenses on Light
2. The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the 1. A convex lens is also known as a converging
normal all lie in the same plane. lens because it brings parallel rays of light
These laws apply to all types of mirrors, including together to a point.
plane, concave, and convex mirrors. 2. A concave lens is also known as a diverging
1.5 Reflection of Parallel Rays by Mirrors lens because it spreads parallel rays of light
out.
1. A concave mirror causes parallel rays of light
to come together, or converge. 2.4 Uses of Lenses
2. A convex mirror causes parallel rays of light Lenses are used in many optical instruments,
to spread out, or diverge. including:
3. Because concave mirrors can focus light 1. Eyeglasses to correct vision.
to a single point, they are used in solar 2. Cameras, microscopes, and telescopes.
concentrators to generate heat. 3. The human eye itself contains a convex lens.
page 270 Class 8th Science Foundation

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO 4. The outer, bulging surface of a shiny spoon acts
like which type of mirror?
(A) A focusing mirror
1. What type of mirror has a reflecting surface that (B) A plane mirror
bulges or curves outwards? (C) A concave mirror
(A) Concave mirror (D) A convex mirror
(B) Plane mirror

Ans
(C) Convex mirror
(D) Spherical mirror (D) The outer surface of a spoon bulges outwards,
making it act like a convex mirror.


Ans The back or outer surface of a spoon bulges
(C) A convex mirror is a type of spherical mirror outwards. This shape makes it a convex reflecting
where the reflective surface is on the outer, surface. It typically forms an erect and diminished
bulging side. (smaller) image of your face.
A convex mirror is a spherical mirror where the
5. What are the characteristics of an image formed
reflective surface is on the outer, bulging side.
This outward curve causes it to diverge parallel by a convex mirror?
light rays, providing a wider field of view. (A) It is always the same size as the object being
reflected.
2. What type of mirror has a reflecting surface that (B) It is always erect and diminished (smaller) in
curves inwards? size.
(A) Polished mirror (C) It can be either erect or inverted depending
(B) Convex mirror on the object’s distance.
(C) Plane mirror (D) It is always inverted and enlarged in its overall
(D) Concave mirror size.


Ans

Ans
(D) A concave mirror is a spherical mirror with (B) It is always erect and diminished (smaller)
an inwardly curved reflecting surface. in size.
A concave mirror is a spherical mirror where the Regardless of the object’s distance, a convex
reflective surface is on the inner, hollowed-out mirror always produces an image that is upright
side, like the inside of a bowl or a spoon. This (erect) and smaller than the actual object. This is
inward curve causes it to reflect light in a specific why they are used as side-view mirrors in vehicles.
converging manner.
6. What type of mirror is used by dentists to get an
3. Why are convex mirrors used as side-view mirrors enlarged view of teeth?
in vehicles? (A) A combination of plane and convex mirrors to
(A) Because they are less expensive to manufacture achieve magnification.
than plane mirrors of the same size. (B) A plane mirror to see a true-to-size reflection
(B) Because they show an inverted image of the of the teeth.
traffic, which is required by safety regulations. (C) A convex mirror to see a wider area inside the
(C) Because they provide a wider field of view of patient’s mouth.
the traffic behind. (D) A concave mirror to produce a magnified,
(D) Because they form an enlarged image, making upright image of the tooth.
it easier to see distant cars.

Ans


Ans (D) A concave mirror to produce a magnified,
(C) Because they provide a wider field of view of upright image of the tooth.
the traffic behind. To see a magnified view of a tooth, a dentist
The outward curve of a convex mirror allows it needs a mirror that can produce an enlarged
to reflect light from a much larger area than a image. A concave mirror provides an erect and
flat mirror of the same size. This gives the driver enlarged image when held very close to the object
a wider panoramic view of the road and traffic (the tooth), making it the ideal tool for dental
behind, which is a critical safety feature. examinations.
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

7. The inner, shiny surface of a new steel spoon acts 10. What is the ‘angle of incidence’ ?
like which type of mirror? (A) The angle measured between the incoming
(A) A concave mirror incident ray and the normal line.
(B) A plane mirror (B) The angle measured between the reflected ray
(C) A transparent mirror and the surface of the mirror.
(D) A convex mirror (C) The complete angle measured between the
incident ray and the reflected ray.


Ans
(D) The angle measured between the incident ray
(A) The inner surface of a spoon is curved inwards, and the surface of the mirror itself.
which makes it act like a concave mirror.
The inner surface of a spoon is curved inwards,

Ans
similar to a cave. This shape makes it a concave (A) The angle measured between the incoming
reflecting surface. When you look into it, you may incident ray and the normal line.
see an inverted or an enlarged image, depending By scientific convention, the angle of incidence
on the distance. (denoted as ‘i’) is always measured from the
incoming light ray to the normal line, not to the
8. When you hold a concave mirror very close to surface of the mirror itself.
your face, what kind of image do you see?
(A) Erect and smaller 11. What is the second law of reflection?
(B) Inverted and smaller (A) The incident ray is always much brighter than
(C) Erect and enlarged the reflected ray or the normal.
(D) Inverted and enlarged (B) The reflection of light only occurs on perfectly
flat and polished surfaces.


Ans
(C) The normal line divides the mirror surface
(C) When an object is placed very close to a into two equal and symmetrical halves.
concave mirror, it forms an erect and enlarged (D) The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the
image. normal all lie in the same plane.
A concave mirror acts as a magnifier when the
object is placed very close to it (within its focal

Ans
length). This property is why it is used by dentists (D) The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the
and as a shaving or makeup mirror, as it provides normal all lie in the same plane.
an enlarged, upright view. This law describes the spatial orientation of
the rays. It means that the incoming ray, the
9. In the context of reflection, what is the ‘normal’ ? perpendicular line (normal), and the outgoing ray
(A) The initial ray of light that travels from a all lie on a single, flat, two-dimensional surface,
light source and strikes the mirror’s surface. like a sheet of paper.
(B) A line drawn perpendicular (at 90°) to the
surface of the mirror at the point of incidence. 12. A light ray is incident on a mirror and gets
(C) The specific coordinate point on the mirror’s reflected by it . The angle made by the incident
surface where the incident light makes ray with the normal to the mirror is 40°. What
contact. is the angle made by the reflected ray with the
(D) The outgoing ray of light that has bounced mirror?
off the reflective surface of the mirror.


Ans
(B) A line drawn perpendicular (at 90°) to the
surface of the mirror at the point of incidence.
The normal is an imaginary construction line used
as a reference to measure the angles of incidence
and reflection. It is always drawn at a right angle
to the reflecting surface at the exact point where
the incident ray strikes. (A) 40° (B) 50°
(C) 45° (D) 60°


Ans
page 272 Class 8th Science Foundation

(B) 50° (D) They converge, which means they come

According to the law of reflection, the angle together at a single point.
of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. The inward curve of a concave mirror causes it
Therefore, the angle of reflection is 40°. The to reflect parallel light rays inward so that they
normal is at an angle of 90° to the mirror’s meet, or converge, at a single point called the
surface. Thus, the angle made by the reflected ray focal point. This focusing property is why it’s also
with the mirror is 90° – 40° = 50°. called a converging mirror.

13. What is the first law of reflection? 16. What happens to parallel rays of light after they
(A) The angle of incidence is always greater than reflect from a convex mirror?
the angle of reflection. (A) They converge (come together at a point).
(B) The sum of the incident and reflected angles (B) They pass through the mirror to the other
always equals ninety degrees. side.
(C) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of (C) They remain parallel to their original path.
reflection. (D) They diverge (spread out).
(D) The incident ray and the corresponding

Ans
reflected ray are always parallel.
(D) They diverge (spread out).


Ans The outward curve of a convex mirror causes it to
(C) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle reflect parallel light rays outwards, making them
of reflection. spread apart as if they were coming from a point
This is a fundamental law governing how light behind the mirror. This spreading effect is called
reflects off any smooth surface. It states that the divergence.
angle at which a ray of light strikes a surface is
17. Which device uses a concave mirror to concentrate
exactly equal to the angle at which it reflects off
sunlight and generate heat, as shown in the
that surface, with both angles measured relative
activity?
to the normal.
(A) A magnifying glass, which uses a lens to focus
14. If a ray of light strikes a plane mirror at an angle light for magnification.
of incidence of 30°, what will be the angle of (B) A solar concentrator or solar furnace, which
reflection? focuses solar energy.
(A) 90° (C) A side-view mirror, which provides a wide
(B) 60° view of the surroundings.
(C) 0° (D) A solar panel, which converts sunlight directly
(D) 30° into electrical energy.


Ans

Ans

(D) 30° (B) A solar concentrator or solar furnace, which

According to the first law of reflection, the focuses solar energy.
angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of The activity demonstrates that a concave mirror
reflection. Therefore, if the incident angle is 30°, can converge parallel rays of sunlight onto a
the reflected angle must also be 30°. single spot, concentrating the sun’s energy. This
principle is used in solar concentrators to create
15. What happens to parallel rays of light after they high temperatures for cooking, heating water, or
reflect from a concave mirror? industrial processes.
(A) They are completely absorbed by the reflective
surface of the mirror. 18. What is a lens?
(B) They diverge, which means they spread out (A) Any type of object that is capable of forming
away from a common point. a visible image.
(C) They remain parallel to each other after (B) A device that generates its own light through
reflecting from the surface. a chemical process.
(D) They converge, which means they come (C) A piece of transparent material, like glass or
together at a single point. plastic, with curved surfaces.
(D) A piece of polished, shiny metal that is


Ans designed to reflect light.
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

Ans characteristic optical property of a convex lens

(C) A piece of transparent material, like glass or when the object is placed within its focal length.
plastic, with curved surfaces.
22. What are the characteristics of an image seen
A lens is an optical device that works by
refraction (bending light) rather than reflection. through a concave lens?
Its key feature is that it is made of a transparent (A) It is always inverted and enlarged in size.
material and has at least one, and usually two, (B) It is always erect and diminished (smaller).
curved surfaces. (C) It can be either erect or inverted depending
on distance.
19. A lens that is thicker at the middle and thinner at (D) It is always erect and enlarged in its total
the edges is called a: size.
(A) Convex lens

Ans
(B) Concave lens
(C) Plane lens (B) It is always erect and diminished (smaller).
(D) Diverging lens Regardless of the object’s position, a single
concave lens always produces a virtual, upright


Ans (erect), and smaller (diminished) image of the
(A) A convex lens is characterized by being thicker object.
in the center and thinner at its edges.
23. In a museum, a woman walks towards a large
This is the physical definition of a convex lens.
This characteristic shape, bulging outwards in the convex mirror (Figure). She will see that :
middle, is what causes it to converge parallel light
rays.

20. A lens that is thinner at the middle and thicker at

the edges is called a:
(A) Magnifying lens
(B) Converging lens
(C) Concave lens
(D) Convex lens


Ans
(C) A concave lens is designed to be thinner in its
center and thicker at its edges.
(A) her erect image keeps decreasing in size.
This is the physical definition of a concave lens.
(B) her inverted image keeps decreasing in size.
This shape, caving inwards in the middle, is what
(C) her inverted image keeps increasing in size and
causes it to diverge parallel light rays that pass
eventually it becomes erect and magnified.
through it.
(D) her erect image keeps increasing in size.
21. A magnifying glass is an example of which type

Ans
of lens?
(D) her erect image keeps increasing in size.
(A) Convex lens
A convex mirror always forms an erect and
(B) A combination of concave and convex lenses
diminished image. As the object moves farther away
used together.
from a convex mirror, the image size decreases.
(C) A simple piece of plane glass with no
Conversely, as the woman (object) moves towards
curvature.
the mirror, her erect image will increase in size.
(D) A concave lens designed to make objects
appear smaller. 24. What does a convex lens do to a parallel beam of


Ans light that passes through it?
(A) It lets the light pass through without changing
(A) A magnifying glass is a common application
its direction at all.
of a simple convex lens.
(B) It converges the light to a point.
A magnifying glass produces an enlarged,
(C) It reflects the light back towards the source.
upright image of a close-up object. This is the
(D) It diverges the light, causing it to spread out.
page 274 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans 28. Which statement about the image formed by a

(B) It converges the light to a point. plane mirror is incorrect?
Because of its shape, a convex lens bends parallel (A) The image is inverted.
light rays inward as they pass through. This (B) The image is the same size as the object.
causes the rays to come together, or converge, at (C) The image shows lateral inversion.
a focal point on the other side of the lens. This is (D) The image is erect.
why it is called a converging lens.

Ans
25. What does a concave lens do to a parallel beam of (A) The image is inverted.
light that passes through it? An image in a standard flat (plane) mirror is
(A) It converges the light to a single point. always upright or erect; you do not appear upside
(B) It completely absorbs all of the light energy. down. Inversion (turning upside down) is a
(C) It has no noticeable effect on the direction of property of images formed by concave mirrors or
the light. convex lenses under certain conditions.
(D) It diverges (spreads out) the light. 29. The human eye contains which type of lens?


Ans (A) A concave lens that diverges incoming light.
(B) No lens, as it contains a mirror to reflect
(D) It diverges (spreads out) the light. light.
The shape of a concave lens causes it to bend (C) A plano-concave lens for wide-angle vision.
parallel light rays outward as they pass through. (D) A convex lens that focuses light onto the
This makes the rays spread apart as if they were retina.
coming from a focal point on the same side as the
light source. It is a diverging lens.

Ans
(D) A convex lens that focuses light onto the
26. Which of the following devices does NOT use a
retina.
lens as a key component?
“Even our eye has a convex lens inside it.” This
(A) A microscope for viewing tiny objects.
natural convex lens focuses light from the outside
(B) A camera for capturing photographs. world onto the retina at the back of the eye,
(C) A torch reflector for creating a beam. allowing us to see.
(D) A telescope for viewing distant stars.
30. In figure, note that O stands for object, M for


Ans mirror, and I for image. Which of the following
(C) A torch reflector for creating a beam. statements is true?
Cameras, telescopes, and microscopes all use
lenses to form images by refracting light. A
torch reflector is a concave mirror that works by
reflecting light from the bulb into a parallel beam.

27. A concave mirror ______ parallel light rays,

and a convex lens also ______ parallel light
rays.
(A) diverges, converges
(B) converges, diverges
(C) converges, converges
(D) diverges, diverges


Ans (A) Figure (a) indicates a plane mirror and Figure
(b) indicates a concave mirror.
(C) converges, converges (B) Figure (a) indicates a convex mirror and
Both a concave mirror and a convex lens have Figure (b) indicates a concave mirror.
the property of focusing parallel light rays to a (C) Figure (a) indicates a concave mirror and
point. The concave mirror does this by reflection, Figure (b) indicates a convex mirror.
and the convex lens does it by refraction, but the (D) Figure (a) indicates a plane mirror and Figure
overall effect on the rays is convergence for both. (b) indicates a convex mirror.
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

Ans The analogy relates the type of mirror to its effect

(D) Figure (a) indicates a plane mirror and Figure on parallel light rays. A concave mirror converges
(b) indicates a convex mirror. light. A convex mirror does the opposite; it
In Figure (a), the image (I) is erect, of the same diverges or spreads out parallel light rays.
size as the object (O), and is formed as far behind
34. What is the main difference between an image
the mirror as the object is in front of it. These are
the characteristics of an image formed by a plane seen in a mirror and an image seen through a
mirror. In Figure (b), the image (I) is erect but lens?
diminished (smaller) than the object (O), which (A) Mirror images are always real; lens images are
is characteristic of an image formed by a convex always virtual.
mirror. (B) Mirrors are typically constructed from glass;
lenses are usually made from plastic.
31. If a ray of light hits a mirror along the normal, (C) Mirror images are formed by reflection; lens
what is the angle of reflection? images are formed by refraction.
(A) 45° (D) There is no fundamental physical difference
(B) 90° between how they are formed.
(C) 180°

Ans
(D) 0°
(C) Mirror images are formed by reflection; lens


Ans images are formed by refraction.
(D) 0° This is the fundamental physical difference.
The angle of incidence is the angle between the Mirrors have an opaque, reflective coating and
incident ray and the normal. If the ray travels form images by bouncing light off their surface
along the normal, this angle is 0°. According to (reflection). Lenses are transparent and form
the law of reflection (i = r), the angle of reflection images by bending light as it passes through them
must also be 0°, meaning the ray reflects straight (refraction).
back along the path it came.
35. Which of the following statements about convex
32. A boy wants to project an image of the sun onto lenses is false?
a piece of paper to burn it. Which of the following (A) They are thicker in the middle than at the
would work? edges.
(A) A convex lens (B) They always form a diminished image.
(B) A flat piece of glass (C) They are also known as converging lenses.
(C) A convex mirror (D) They can form an inverted image.
(D) A plane mirror

Ans


Ans (B) They always form a diminished image.
(A) A convex lens can be used to focus sunlight A convex lens can form various types of images.
and burn paper. When an object is close, it forms an enlarged
To burn paper, sunlight must be concentrated to image (magnifying glass). When the object is
a small, bright spot. A convex lens is a converging far, it can form a diminished, inverted image.
lens that can take the parallel rays from the sun The statement that it always forms a diminished
and focus them onto a single point, creating image is incorrect.
intense heat.
36. Which type of mirror is used for surveillance in
33. Concave mirror is to converging as ______ is big stores to monitor a large area?
to diverging. (A) A series of small, interconnected plane
(A) convex lens mirrors.
(B) plane mirror (B) A concave mirror to magnify specific sections
(C) convex mirror of the store.
(D) magnifying glass (C) A standard plane mirror angled from the
ceiling.


Ans
(D) A convex mirror to provide a wide-angle view.
(C) convex mirror


Ans
page 276 Class 8th Science Foundation

(D) A convex mirror to provide a wide-angle view. 39. The headlights of a car use a concave mirror
The convex mirrors explicitly states, “Convex behind the bulb. What is the purpose of this
mirrors are also installed in big stores to monitor mirror?
a large area to deter thefts.” This is because their (A) To collect the light from the bulb and reflect
diverging nature provides a wide field of view. it forward as a strong, parallel beam.
(B) To create a magnified image of the bulb
37. What does “lateral inversion” mean in the context filament for better illumination.
of a mirror image? (C) To diverge the light in all directions for
(A) The image appears to be upside down relative maximum visibility.
to the object. (D) To protect the sensitive bulb from breaking
(B) The image is significantly smaller in size than due to road vibrations.
the object.


Ans
(C) The left and right sides of the image appear
to be swapped. (A) To collect the light from the bulb and reflect
(D) The image appears blurry and out of focus it forward as a strong, parallel beam.
compared to the object. If a light source is placed at the focal point of
a concave mirror, the mirror will reflect the


Ans diverging rays from the source into a parallel
(C) The left and right sides of the image appear beam. This is used in headlights and torches to
to be swapped. project a powerful, focused beam of light onto the
Lateral inversion is the effect seen in a plane road ahead.
mirror where the image appears to be a left-right
40. Which of the following is a correct statement
reversal of the object. For example, if you raise
about the laws of reflection?
your right hand, your mirror image appears to
(A) They apply to all types of mirrors, including
raise its left hand.
plane and spherical.
38. As shown in figure what happens to parallel (B) They apply only to spherical mirrors, not to
beams of light after they reflect from a concave plane mirrors.
mirror? (C) They do not apply to any real mirrors, only
theoretical ones.
(D) They apply only to perfectly flat plane
mirrors.


Ans
(A) They apply to all types of mirrors, including
plane and spherical.
The laws of reflection are fundamental principles
of optics. “The laws of reflection are valid for all
kinds of mirrors—plane and spherical.” Even on a
curved surface, each individual ray of light reflects
(A) They converge (come together). locally according to these laws.
(B) They remain parallel.
41. A convex lens is a ______ lens, while a concave
(C) They diverge (spread out).
lens is a ______ lens.
(D) They are absorbed.
(A) diverging, converging


Ans (B) converging, diverging
(C) reflecting, refracting
(A) They converge (come together).
(D) magnifying, diminishing
A concave mirror’s inward-curving surface is also
known as a converging mirror. It causes parallel

Ans
rays of light to reflect and meet at a single point, (B) converging, diverging
called the focal point. A convex lens brings light rays together, so it is a
converging lens. A concave lens spreads light rays
apart, so it is a diverging lens.
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

42. When an object is moved far away from a concave thinking the object is farther away than its actual
mirror, its image becomes inverted and smaller. distance, so the warning is required for safety.
This is similar to the image formed by a:
(A) Convex mirror, which forms an erect and 45. When a parallel beam of light passes through a
diminished image. thin, flat, transparent glass plate, what happens
(B) Plane mirror, which forms an image of the to the beam?
same size. (A) It is reflected back toward the source.
(C) Concave lens, which also forms an erect and (B) It diverges as if from a single point.
diminished image. (C) It passes through largely unchanged.
(D) Convex lens with a distant object, which (D) It converges to a single focus point.
forms an inverted and smaller image.

Ans


Ans (C) It passes through largely unchanged.
(D) Convex lens with a distant object, which Activity 10.10 uses a flat glass plate as a control.
forms an inverted and smaller image. Since its surfaces are flat and parallel, it does not
A convex lens and a concave mirror have similar have a net converging or diverging effect on a
imaging properties. Both are converging systems. parallel beam of light. The beam passes straight
When an object is placed far away from either a through.
concave mirror or a convex lens, they both form a
46. What is the main difference between a real image
real, inverted, and diminished image.
and a virtual image?
43. Which statement about the image formed by a (A) A real image can be projected onto a screen,
concave lens is incorrect? while a virtual image cannot.
(A) It is always erect. (B) A real image is always colored, while a virtual
(B) It is always diminished. image is always black and white.
(C) It is seen by looking through the lens. (C) A real image is always erect, while a virtual
(D) It is always inverted. image is always inverted.
(D) A real image is formed by lenses, while a


Ans virtual image is formed by mirrors.
(D) It is always inverted.

Ans
A single concave lens, by its diverging nature,
can only form virtual, upright (erect) images. An (A) A real image can be projected onto a screen,
inverted image is a characteristic of converging while a virtual image cannot.
systems like a convex lens or a concave mirror A real image is formed where light rays actually
under certain conditions. converge and cross. This means a screen placed at
that location will be illuminated, and the image
44. The warning “Objects in mirror are closer than can be seen on it. A virtual image is formed where
they appear” is written on convex side-view light rays only appear to diverge from; they don’t
mirrors because: actually cross there, so it cannot be projected.
(A) The curvature of the mirror bends and
distorts the perception of depth and distance. 47. Why can a concave mirror or a convex lens be
(B) The light travels a slightly longer path when used as a solar concentrator, but a convex mirror
reflecting from the curved surface. or a concave lens cannot?
(C) It forms a diminished image, making objects (A) Because convex mirrors and concave lenses
seem smaller and more distant than they are. are more expensive to manufacture for this
(D) It forms an enlarged and virtual image, which purpose.
makes judging the actual distance difficult. (B) Because concave mirrors and convex lenses
are converging, while the others are diverging.


Ans (C) Because convex mirrors and concave lenses
(C) It forms a diminished image, making objects are not made from the right type of glass.
seem smaller and more distant than they are. (D) Because convex mirrors and concave lenses
Our brains judge distance partly based on an absorb all the incident sunlight instead of
object’s apparent size. A convex mirror makes focusing it.
objects look smaller. This can trick our brain into

Ans
page 278 Class 8th Science Foundation

(B) Because concave mirrors and convex lenses 51. Concave is to converging as convex is to
are converging, while the others are diverging. ______.
To concentrate sunlight, you need an optical (A) reflecting
device that brings parallel rays of light together (B) plane
at a single point. Concave mirrors and convex (C) refracting
lenses are converging systems that do exactly (D) diverging
this. Convex mirrors and concave lenses do the


Ans
opposite; they spread the light out (diverge it).
(D) diverging
48. Which of the following is NOT an application of The analogy relates the shape of a mirror or lens
lenses? to its primary optical effect. Concave mirrors and
(A) Microscopes convex lenses are converging. Convex mirrors and
(B) Eyeglasses concave lenses are diverging.
(C) Cameras
(D) Reflectors in car headlights 52. If you look at your reflection in a large, polished
metal ball, what kind of image will you see?


Ans (A) An erect and diminished image.
(D) Reflectors in car headlights (B) An inverted and diminished image.
Reflectors in car headlights are concave mirrors, (C) An inverted and enlarged image.
which use reflection to direct light. Lenses, which (D) An erect and enlarged image.
are used in eyeglasses, microscopes, and cameras,


Ans
work by refraction (bending light as it passes
through). (A) An erect and diminished image.
A large polished metal ball has an outward-
49. Light is represented by straight lines with arrows curving, reflective surface. This makes it a convex
called ______, and reflection is governed by mirror. A convex mirror always forms an upright
laws that relate the angle of incidence to the angle (erect) and smaller (diminished) image of the
of ______. object.
(A) beams, refraction
(B) waves, normal 53. In the diagram for identifying mirrors , how can
(C) photons, surface you distinguish a concave mirror from a convex
(D) rays, reflection one by its side view?

Ans
(D) rays, reflection
The “ray” as a way to represent the path of light.
It then explains the laws of reflection, which state
that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle Identifying concave and convex mirrors from their side
of reflection. view

50. The angle between a reflected ray and the normal (A) The concave mirror’s main reflecting surface
is called the: is completely flat.
(A) Angle of reflection (B) The convex surface curves inwards; the
(B) Angle of incidence concave one curves outwards.
(C) Critical angle (C) Both of the mirrors have the exact same
(D) Angle of refraction appearance in side view.


Ans (D) The concave surface curves inwards; the
convex one curves outwards.
(A) Angle of reflection
The angle of reflection (r) is the angle measured

Ans
from the outgoing, reflected light ray to the (D) The concave surface curves inwards; the
normal line at the point of reflection. convex one curves outwards.
The very definition of these mirrors is based on
the curvature of their reflecting surface. A side
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

view clearly shows this curvature. A concave 57. The phenomenon of light bouncing off a surface
surface is hollowed out or curved inwards, while a is called:
convex surface bulges outwards. (A) Refraction
(B) Absorption
54. A security mirror at a sharp corner in a parking (C) Reflection
garage allows drivers to see around the bend. (D) Dispersion
What type of mirror is used for this purpose?
(A) A transparent mirror

Ans
(B) A concave mirror (C) The process of light bouncing off a surface is
(C) A plane mirror known as reflection.
(D) A convex mirror Reflection is the specific term for the change in


Ans direction of a wavefront at an interface between
two different media so that the wavefront returns
(D) A convex mirror is used as a security mirror into the medium from which it originated. In
to see around corners. simpler terms, it is light bouncing off a surface
To see around a corner, a wide field of view is like a mirror.
necessary. Convex mirrors are used for this
purpose because their diverging nature allows 58. Why is the “image” seen through a concave lens
them to capture a much wider area than a flat always virtual?
mirror, making them ideal as road safety and (A) Because the lens is thicker at the edges and
surveillance mirrors. thinner in the middle.
(B) Because the image formed by the lens is
55. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of the always smaller than the object.
image formed by a concave lens?
(C) Because the light rays passing through the
(A) The image is erect.
lens are diverged and never actually cross.
(B) The image can be projected onto a screen.
(C) The image is virtual. (D) Because the lens is made from a special type
(D) The image is diminished. of optically transparent glass.

Ans

Ans

(B) The image can be projected onto a screen. (C) Because the light rays passing through the
A concave lens always forms a virtual image. lens are diverged and never actually cross.
A virtual image is one where the light rays An image is formed where light rays meet or
only appear to diverge from a point; they don’t appear to meet. A concave lens spreads light rays
actually cross there. Only real images, where light out (diverges them). These diverged rays will
rays physically converge, can be projected onto a never actually intersect on the other side of the
screen. lens. Our brain traces them back to an imaginary
point of origin, creating a virtual image.
56. What happens when parallel rays of light are
incident on a plane mirror? 59. A reflecting telescope uses a large concave mirror
(A) The reflected rays converge to a focal point. as its main objective. What is the purpose of this
(B) The reflected rays remain parallel to each mirror?
other. (A) To provide a wide and panoramic field of view
(C) The reflected rays form a real, inverted image. of the night sky.
(D) The reflected rays diverge as if from a point. (B) To collect and focus a large amount of faint
light from distant stars.


Ans (C) To directly magnify the image of the celestial
(B) The reflected rays remain parallel to each object being viewed.
other. (D) To make the telescope lighter and therefore
A plane mirror does not alter the convergence easier to carry and set up.
or divergence of light. Each parallel ray strikes

Ans
the flat surface and reflects off at an equal angle,
resulting in a set of reflected rays that are still (B) To collect and focus a large amount of faint
parallel to one another. light from distant stars.
page 280 Class 8th Science Foundation

The power of a telescope to see faint objects with it and becomes invisible, proving it stays in
depends on its light-gathering ability. A large the original plane.
concave mirror has a big surface area that can
collect a lot of light from a distant star and focus 62. A ______ is a piece of transparent material
it to a point, creating a bright image that can with curved surfaces, and the bending of light as
then be magnified by an eyepiece. it passes through is called ______.
(A) prism, dispersion
60. Which of the following statements about convex (B) mirror, reflection
mirrors is false? (C) filter, absorption
(A) They are used as side-view mirrors in cars. (D) lens, refraction
(B) They are also known as diverging mirrors.


Ans
(C) The image they form is always erect and
diminished. (D) lens, refraction
(D) They can form a real, inverted image. A lens is a transparent optical device. The
physical phenomenon responsible for its function


Ans is refraction, which is the bending of light as it
(D) They can form a real, inverted image. passes from one medium (air) into another (glass
A single convex mirror always produces a virtual, or plastic).
erect, and diminished image. It diverges light
rays, so they never physically converge to form a 63. What is the main difference between a concave
real image. mirror and a concave lens?
(A) Both are identical in function, differing only
61. In the experiment shown in figure, where a beam in name.
is passed through an extended paper sheet, what (B) The mirror refracts light and diverges it; the
does the fact that the reflected beam disappears lens reflects light and converges it.
when the paper is bent demonstrate? (C) The mirror reflects light and converges it; the
lens refracts light and diverges it.
(D) Both converge light, but one uses reflection
and the other uses refraction.


Ans
(C) The mirror reflects light and converges it; the
lens refracts light and diverges it.
Although both are “concave” in shape, their
optical effects are opposite because one reflects
and one refracts. A concave mirror is a converging
mirror. A concave lens is a diverging lens.

(A) The angle of incidence is not equal to the 64. Which of the following correctly describes what
angle of reflection. happens when a parallel beam of light passes
(B) Light is not able to travel through any piece through a convex lens?
of bent paper. (A) The rays are absorbed and converted entirely
(C) The mirror will stop reflecting light when the into heat energy.
paper is bent. (B) The rays reflect back parallel to the original
(D) The incident ray, normal, and reflected ray lie direction.
in the same plane. (C) The rays converge to a focal point on the
other side of the lens.


Ans
(D) The rays diverge as if from a point located
(D) The incident ray, normal, and reflected ray lie behind the lens.
in the same plane.
When the paper is flat, it represents a single plane,

Ans
and the reflected ray is visible on it. Bending (C) The rays converge to a focal point on the
the paper moves that part of the surface into a other side of the lens.
different plane. The reflected ray does not bend A convex lens is a converging lens. Its shape
causes it to bend parallel rays of light inward so
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

they meet at a single point, the principal focus or 68. A slide projector uses a lens to cast a large,
focal point. inverted image onto a screen. What type of lens is
used in a projector?
65. If you want to create a beam of parallel light using (A) A diverging lens
a light bulb and a mirror, what kind of mirror (B) A flat piece of glass
should you use and where should you place the (C) A concave lens
bulb? (D) A convex lens
(A) A concave mirror, with the bulb placed at its
focal point.

Ans
(B) A plane mirror, with the bulb placed directly (D) A convex lens is used in a projector to form a
in front of it. large, inverted image.
(C) A convex mirror, with the bulb placed To project an image onto a screen, the image
anywhere in front of it. must be real. Only a convex (converging) lens
(D) A concave mirror, with the bulb placed very can form a real image. By placing the slide just
far away from the mirror. outside the focal point, a convex lens can produce


Ans a real, inverted, and magnified image on a distant
screen.
(A) A concave mirror, with the bulb placed at its
focal point. 69. Why does your reflection in a calm lake look just
This is the principle behind a searchlight or torch like your reflection in a large, flat mirror?
reflector. A concave mirror converges parallel rays (A) Because the water in the lake is perfectly
to its focal point. By the principle of reversibility, transparent to the bottom.
if you place a light source at the focal point, (B) Because the calm surface of the water acts as
the mirror will reflect the diverging rays into a a large, smooth, plane reflector.
parallel beam. (C) Because the depth of the lake helps to focus
the reflected image.
66. Which of the following is NOT an application of
(D) Because the lower temperature of the water
a convex mirror?
makes it more reflective.
(A) Side-view mirror on a motorcycle.
(B) Dental mirror for examining teeth.

Ans
(C) Surveillance mirror in a large shop. (B) Because the calm surface of the water acts as
(D) Road safety mirror at a blind corner. a large, smooth, plane reflector.


Ans For a clear image to be formed by reflection, the
reflecting surface must be smooth. The surface
(B) Dental mirror for examining teeth.
of calm water is extremely flat on a large scale,
A dental mirror is used to get a magnified view of
so it behaves just like a plane mirror, following
teeth. This is a function of a concave mirror when
the laws of reflection to produce a clear, virtual
held close to the object. Convex mirrors always
image.
produce diminished (smaller) images.
70. A ______ mirror can form an inverted image,
67. The angle of incidence is defined as the angle
and a ______ lens can also form an inverted
between the incident ray and what line?
image.
(A) The reflected ray
(A) convex, convex
(B) A line parallel to the incident ray
(B) plane, concave
(C) The mirror surface
(C) convex, concave
(D) The normal
(D) concave, convex


Ans


Ans
(D) The normal is the line used as a reference for
(D) concave, convex
measuring the angle of incidence.
Inversion is a property of converging optical
All angles of reflection relative to the normal,
systems when the object is beyond the focal
which is the line drawn perpendicular to the
point. Both a concave mirror (converging mirror)
mirror surface at the point of incidence. The angle
and a convex lens (converging lens) are capable of
of incidence is specifically the angle between this
forming real, inverted images.
normal and the incoming light ray.
page 282 Class 8th Science Foundation

71. Which statement about lenses is false? (D) Magnification

(A) A concave lens is a converging lens.


Ans
(B) They form images by refracting light.
(C) A magnifying glass is a convex lens. (C) Lateral inversion is the term for the left-right
(D) Lenses are used in cameras and telescopes. reversal of an image in a mirror.
“Lateral” refers to the sides. Lateral inversion


Ans is the apparent left-right swapping of an image
(A) A concave lens is a converging lens. formed by a plane mirror.
A concave lens is a diverging lens. Its shape causes
it to spread parallel light rays apart. A convex 75. If you want to identify an unknown mirror, you
lens is the type that is a converging lens. place your face close to it. The image is erect and
smaller than your face. The mirror is:
72. Figure shows three images of a pen cap in three (A) Convex
different mirrors. The image that is erect and (B) Concave
larger than the object (ii) must have been formed (C) Cannot be determined
by which mirror? (D) Plane


Ans
(A) The mirror is convex, as this is the only type
that forms an erect and smaller image.
These are the unique characteristics of an image
formed by a convex mirror. A convex mirror is
the only type that will produce an image that is
both erect and diminished in size, regardless of
(A) Plane mirror the object’s distance.
(B) Convex mirror
(C) Concave mirror 76. What is the relationship between the angle of
(D) It is impossible to tell. incidence (i) and the angle of reflection (r) ?


Ans (A) i < r
(B) i > r
(C) Concave mirror (C) i + r = 90°
Only a concave mirror can produce an image that (D) i = r
is both erect (upright) and magnified. This occurs
when the object is placed very close to the mirror,

Ans
within its focal length. (D) i = r
This is the first law of reflection. For any reflection
73. Reflection is to a mirror as ______ is to a lens. from a smooth surface, the angle of the incoming
(A) dispersion ray relative to the normal is always exactly equal
(B) refraction to the angle of the outgoing ray relative to the
(C) inversion normal.
(D) absorption
77. Which of the following cannot be done by a single


Ans
convex lens?
(B) refraction (A) Form a real, inverted image.
The analogy relates an optical device to the (B) Converge a parallel beam of light.
fundamental physical process it uses to manipulate (C) Form a virtual, erect, and enlarged image.
light. Mirrors work by the principle of reflection. (D) Form a virtual, erect, and diminished image.
Lenses work by the principle of refraction.


Ans
74. What is the term for the phenomenon where the (D) Form a virtual, erect, and diminished image.
left side of an object appears as the right side in A convex lens can form real inverted images
its mirror image? and a virtual enlarged image (when used as a
(A) Inversion magnifier). However, a single convex lens cannot
(B) Diminution form a virtual and diminished image. That is the
(C) Lateral inversion characteristic of a concave lens.
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

78. In a reflecting telescope, a large ______ mirror (A) They would reflect back as a single, perfectly
is used to collect light, while in a refracting parallel beam.
telescope, a large ______ lens is used. (B) They would pass directly through the mirror
(A) concave, convex to the other side.
(B) convex, concave (C) They would be reflected in many different
(C) convex, convex directions (diffuse reflection).
(D) plane, concave (D) They would all be absorbed by the rough
surface of the mirror.


Ans
(A) concave, convex

Ans
Reflecting telescopes use a primary concave mirror (C) They would be reflected in many different
to gather and focus light. Refracting telescopes, directions (diffuse reflection).
the other main type, use a primary convex lens A rough surface can be thought of as many tiny
(the objective lens) to do the same. surfaces pointing in random directions. While
each individual ray still obeys the law of reflection
79. Which of the following statements about a concave on its tiny patch, the different orientations of the
lens is true? normal cause the parallel incident rays to scatter
(A) It is thicker in the middle section than at its or reflect diffusely in all directions.
edges.
(B) It always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished 82. What is the term for a ray of light that falls on
image. a mirror?
(C) It converges parallel rays of light to a single (A) Refracted ray
point. (B) Normal ray
(D) It can be used to burn a hole in paper with (C) Reflected ray
sunlight. (D) Incident ray


Ans

Ans
(B) It always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished (D) The term for a ray of light that falls on a
image. mirror is the incident ray.
This statement accurately describes the image- This is the standard terminology used in optics.
forming properties of a single concave lens. The incoming ray of light that strikes the reflecting
Regardless of the object’s position, the image will or refracting surface is called the incident ray.
always have these three characteristics.
83. Which of the following is NOT an application of
80. You are given a lens that forms an inverted image concave mirrors?
of a distant tree. What type of lens is it? (A) Side-view mirror on a car
(A) It could be either concave or convex, (B) Dentist’s mirror
depending on the distance. (C) Reflector in a car headlight
(B) A piece of plane glass, which inverts images (D) Shaving mirror
at a distance.


Ans
(C) A concave lens, which is known for inverting
distant objects. (A) Side-view mirror on a car
(D) A convex lens, which is capable of forming A side-view mirror on a car is a convex mirror,
real, inverted images. used to provide a wide field of view. The other
three are all common applications of concave


Ans mirrors, which are used for their ability to magnify
(D) A convex lens, which is capable of forming or to create a parallel beam of light.
real, inverted images.
Only a converging lens can form a real, inverted 84. A convex lens is also known as a:
image. A convex lens is a converging lens. A (A) Reflecting lens
concave lens always forms an erect image. (B) Converging lens
(C) Diverging lens
81. If the surface of a mirror was very rough instead (D) Plane lens
of smooth, what would happen to parallel rays of


Ans
light hitting it?
page 284 Class 8th Science Foundation

(B) A convex lens is also known as a converging 2 Convex (b) It forms an image
lens. mirror which is always erect
A convex lens has the property of bending parallel and diminished in size.
light rays inward so that they meet at a focal
point. This action is called convergence, so a 3 Convex lens (c) Object placed behind
convex lens is also known as a converging lens. it may appear inverted
at some distance.
85. What is the key difference between how a concave 4 Concave lens (d) Object placed behind
mirror and a plane mirror form an image of a it always appears
nearby object? diminished in size.
(A) The concave mirror shows lateral inversion,
while the plane mirror does not. Options :
(B) The concave mirror forms a real image, while (a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
the plane mirror forms a virtual image. (b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
(C) The concave mirror forms an enlarged image, (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
while the plane mirror forms an image of the (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
same size.

Ans
(D) The concave mirror forms an inverted image,
(c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
while the plane mirror forms an erect image.
A concave mirror curves inwards, while a convex


Ans mirror bulges outwards. A concave lens is thinner
(C) The concave mirror forms an enlarged image, in the middle, whereas a convex lens is thicker in
while the plane mirror forms an image of the same the middle.
size. 88. When you see your image “in” a plane mirror,
For a nearby object, a concave mirror acts as a the image appears to be behind the mirror. This
magnifier, producing an enlarged image. A plane is because:
mirror always produces a virtual image that is (A) It is an optical illusion that is not based on
exactly the same size as the object. scientific principles.
86. To correct nearsightedness (myopia), where (B) The mirror is slightly transparent, allowing
distant objects are blurry, an eyeglass lens is some light to pass through.
needed to spread the light out before it enters the (C) The light rays actually travel behind the
eye. What type of lens would be used? mirror to form a real image there.
(A) A magnifying lens (D) Your brain traces the diverging reflected rays
(B) A plane glass lens back to an imaginary point of origin behind
(C) A convex lens the mirror.
(D) A concave lens

Ans


Ans (D) Your brain traces the diverging reflected rays
(D) A concave lens is used in eyeglasses to correct back to an imaginary point of origin behind the
nearsightedness. mirror.
Nearsightedness occurs when the eye focuses light The image in a plane mirror is virtual. The light
in front of the retina. A diverging lens is needed rays from the object reflect off the mirror and
to spread the light rays out slightly so that the spread out. Your eye intercepts these diverging
eye’s lens can then focus them correctly onto the rays, and your brain interprets them as having
retina. A concave lens is a diverging lens. come in a straight line from a single point located
behind the mirror’s surface.
87. Match the type of mirror or lens with its defining
89. Which of the following is NOT a property of the
physical characteristic.
image formed by a convex mirror?
Column I Column II (A) It is virtual.
1 Concave (a) Spherical mirror with (B) It can be inverted.
mirror a reflecting surface (C) It is erect.
that curves inwards. (D) It is diminished.
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

Ans 93. A ray of light is reflected from a plane mirror. If

(B) It can be inverted. the mirror is rotated by an angle of 10°, by what
A key, defining characteristic of the image formed angle will the reflected ray rotate?
by a single convex mirror is that it is always erect (A) 5°
(upright). It can never form an inverted image. (B) 10°
(C) 0°
90. The laws of reflection state that the angle of (D) 20°
incidence equals the angle of reflection, and that
all three lines (incident ray, reflected ray, and

Ans
______) lie in the same ______. (D) 20°
(A) mirror, line When a plane mirror is rotated by an angle q, the
(B) normal, plane reflected ray rotates by an angle of 2q, relative to
(C) mirror, plane the incident ray’s direction. Therefore, rotating
(D) normal, angle the mirror by 10° will cause the reflected ray to
rotate by 2 × 10° = 20°.


Ans
(B) normal, plane 94. Which of these devices typically uses a combination
The first part is i=r. The second law specifies the of several lenses?
spatial relationship: the incident ray, the reflected (A) A simple torch
ray, and the normal line all lie together on a single (B) A shaving mirror
flat surface or plane. (C) A camera
(D) A magnifying glass
91. A dentist’s mirror is to a concave mirror as a
______ is to a convex mirror.

Ans
(A) car’s side-view mirror (C) A camera typically uses a combination of
(B) car’s headlight reflector several lenses.
(C) telescope’s main mirror A simple magnifying glass is a single convex lens. A
(D) magnifying glass camera lens, however, is a complex optical system
made of multiple individual lenses (elements)


Ans
arranged in groups. This combination is necessary
(A) car’s side-view mirror to correct for various optical aberrations and
The analogy links a specific application to the produce a sharp, high-quality image.
type of mirror used. A dentist’s mirror is a
common application of a concave mirror. A car’s 95. Which statement about the human eye is incorrect
side-view mirror is a common application of a based on the text?
convex mirror. (A) The lens in the eye can change its shape.
(B) The eye contains a concave mirror.
92. You want to create a device that spreads light (C) It contains a convex lens.
from a single bulb over a wide area. Which optical (D) The lens focuses light onto the back of the
component would be best? eye.
(A) A plane mirror
(B) A convex mirror

Ans
(C) A concave mirror (B) The eye contains a concave mirror.
(D) A convex lens The human eye is an optical system based on
refraction, not reflection. It contains a flexible


Ans
convex lens that focuses light. It does not contain
(B) A convex mirror is best for spreading light any kind of mirror.
over a wide area.
A convex mirror is a diverging mirror. It takes 96. If you are standing 2 meters in front of a large
light from a source and reflects it outwards, plane mirror, where does your image appear to
spreading it over a wide area. This is the opposite be?
of a concave mirror in a headlight, which is used (A) 2 meters behind the mirror.
to focus light. (B) 4 meters behind the mirror.
(C) At the surface of the mirror.
(D) 2 meters in front of the mirror.
page 286 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (D) Concave lens - Converging parallel rays of

(A) 2 meters behind the mirror. light
A key property of the image in a plane mirror

Ans
is that the image distance is equal to the object
distance. The virtual image is formed as far (A) Concave mirror - Can be used as a shaving
behind the mirror as the object is in front of it. mirror for magnification
A concave mirror produces a magnified, erect
97. What is the main difference in how a torch image when an object is held close to it, which is
reflector (concave mirror) and a magnifying glass exactly what is needed for a shaving or makeup
(convex lens) affect light? mirror. The other pairings are incorrect.
(A) The reflector diverges light, while the
magnifier converges it to a point. 100. Which of the following is NOT an application of
(B) Both use the principle of refraction to a convex lens?
successfully bend light rays. (A) The objective lens of a telescope
(C) The reflector is for viewing distant objects, (B) Eyeglasses for correcting farsightedness
while the magnifier is for viewing close objects. (C) A magnifying glass
(D) The reflector converges light by reflection, (D) Eyeglasses for correcting nearsightedness
while the magnifier converges light by

Ans
refraction.
(D) Eyeglasses for correcting nearsightedness


Ans Nearsightedness requires a diverging lens to
(D) The reflector converges light by reflection, spread light rays out before they enter the eye.
while the magnifier converges light by refraction. A concave lens is a diverging lens. A convex
While both can converge light, the physical lens is a converging lens and is used to correct
mechanism is different. The torch reflector is a farsightedness.
mirror and uses reflection (bouncing light off its
101. Spherical mirrors are a type of ______ mirror,
surface) to create a beam. The magnifying glass
and they can be either concave or ______.
is a lens and uses refraction (bending light as it
(A) plane, convex
passes through) to form an enlarged image.
(B) flat, diverging
98. In the introductory image, one boy’s reflection is (C) curved, convex
upside down. What kind of mirror must he be (D) lens, converging
looking at from a distance?

Ans
(A) A transparent mirror
(C) curved, convex
(B) A plane mirror
Spherical mirrors is used as a common type of
(C) A convex mirror
curved mirror. It then divides them into the two
(D) A concave mirror
main categories based on the direction of their


Ans curvature: concave (curved inwards) and convex
(D) A concave mirror is the only type that can (curved outwards).
produce an inverted image.
102. Magnifying glass is to convex lens as a security
A concave mirror is the only type of single mirror
mirror is to ______.
that can produce a real, inverted (upside down)
(A) convex mirror
image. This happens when the object is positioned
(B) concave lens
farther away from the mirror than its focal point.
(C) plane mirror
99. Which of the following correctly pairs an optical (D) concave mirror
device with its function?

Ans
(A) Concave mirror - Can be used as a shaving
(A) convex mirror
mirror for magnification
The analogy links a specific application to the
(B) Convex mirror - Forming an enlarged image
optical device used. A magnifying glass is a classic
of a nearby object
application of a convex lens. A security mirror
(C) Plane mirror - Can be used to focus sunlight
that provides a wide field of view is a classic
to a point
application of a convex mirror.
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

103. When light reflects from a surface, the direction Options

of the reflected ray depends on: (a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
(A) The color of the light and the temperature of (b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
the room. (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(B) The material of the mirror and the brightness (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
of the light.


Ans
(C) The direction of the incident ray and the
orientation of the surface. (a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
(D) The temperature of the room and the time of A convex mirror always creates an erect and
day. diminished image. A concave mirror can form
an inverted image at a distance. A plane mirror


Ans forms an erect, same-sized image. A convex lens
(C) The direction of the incident ray and the acts as a magnifier, producing an enlarged, erect
orientation of the surface. image when close.
The laws of reflection dictate the outcome. The
angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence, 106. Which statement about the normal in reflection
and both are measured relative to the normal. is incorrect?
Therefore, the final direction depends on the (A) It is parallel to the incident ray.
initial direction of the light and the angle of the (B) It is used to measure the angle of incidence
mirror surface at the point of impact. and reflection.
(C) It is an imaginary line.
104. To get a real, inverted, and diminished image of a (D) It is perpendicular to the mirror surface.
distant object, you could use:


Ans
(A) A plane mirror
(B) A concave lens (A) It is parallel to the incident ray.
(C) A convex mirror The normal is perpendicular to the surface. The
(D) A convex lens incident ray strikes the surface at some angle.
Except for the specific case where the angle of


Ans incidence is 90° (light grazing the surface), the
(D) A convex lens can produce a real, inverted, incident ray will never be parallel to the normal.
and diminished image.
A convex (converging) lens is capable of forming 107. Which two optical devices can be used to converge
a real, inverted image. When the object is distant parallel rays of light to a single point?
(far beyond its focal length), the image formed (A) Concave mirror and convex lens
is diminished (smaller), like the image formed on (B) Convex mirror and concave lens
the sensor of a camera. (C) Plane mirror and plane glass
(D) Concave mirror and concave lens
105. Match the optical device with the typical image


Ans
it forms.
(A) Concave mirror and convex lens
Column A Column B The ability to converge light is the defining
1 Convex Mirror A Can form an inverted characteristic of these two devices. A concave
image when the object mirror converges light by reflection, and a convex
is moved far away from lens converges light by refraction.
it.
108. The fact that you can see your reflection in a shiny
2 Concave B Forms an image that is metal spoon but not in a wooden spoon is because:
Mirror erect and of the same (A) The metal spoon has a smooth, polished
size as the object. surface that reflects light specularly.
3 Plane Mirror C Is always erect and (B) The wooden spoon is not curved in the same
diminished in size. way as the metal spoon.
(C) The wooden spoon completely absorbs all the
4 Convex D Is erect and enlarged,
light that hits it.
Lens (as a acting as a magnifier.
(D) The metal spoon is heavier and denser than
magnifier)
the wooden spoon.
page 288 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (D) convergence

(A) The metal spoon has a smooth, polished

Ans
surface that reflects light specularly.
To form a clear image, a surface must reflect light (A) refraction
in a regular, predictable way (specular reflection). The analogy links the optical device to the
A shiny, smooth surface like polished metal does primary physical principle it operates on. Mirrors
this well. A rough surface like wood scatters light work by reflecting light. Lenses work by refracting
in all directions (diffuse reflection) and does not (bending) light.
form a recognizable image.
113. If you want to see an enlarged and erect image of
109. What is the term for a ray of light that comes your own face, which device should you use?
back from a mirror after striking it? (A) A convex mirror
(A) Reflected ray (B) A plane mirror
(B) Incident ray (C) A concave lens
(C) Normal ray (D) A concave mirror held close to your face
(D) Refracted ray

Ans


Ans (D) A concave mirror held close to your face can
(A) The ray of light that comes back from a be used to see an enlarged and erect image.
mirror is called the reflected ray. A concave mirror is the only single optical device
This is the standard terminology for the ray of listed that can produce a magnified, upright
light that bounces off the reflecting surface. image. This is why it’s used as a makeup or
shaving mirror.
110. Which of the following is NOT an application of
a lens? 114. Why do the laws of reflection apply to curved
(A) Surveillance mirror in a store mirrors?
(B) Microscope (A) Because the laws do not actually apply to
(C) Camera curved mirrors.
(D) Eyeglasses (B) Because on a microscopic scale, any tiny point
on the curved surface can be treated as a flat


Ans surface.
(A) A surveillance mirror in a store is not an (C) Because curved mirrors are secretly made of
application of a lens. many tiny flat surfaces.
A surveillance mirror is a convex mirror used for (D) Because the light rays bend to match the
its wide field of view. Lenses are used in eyeglasses, curvature of the mirror.
microscopes, and cameras.

Ans
111. A convex lens is thicker in the ______, while a (B) Because on a microscopic scale, any tiny
concave lens is thicker at the ______. point on the curved surface can be treated as a
(A) edges, middle flat surface.
(B) bottom, top The laws of reflection describe how a single
(C) top, bottom ray of light interacts with a surface at a single
(D) middle, edges point. Even on a curve, you can consider an
infinitesimally small, flat tangent plane at the


Ans
point where the ray hits. The reflection at that
(D) middle, edges one point will follow the laws perfectly.
This describes the physical shapes of the two
main types of lenses. Convex lenses bulge out in 115. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
the middle. Concave lenses are indented in the the image formed by a plane mirror?
middle and flare out at the edges. (A) It is erect.
(B) It is the same distance behind the mirror as
112. Mirror is to reflection as lens is to ______. the object is in front.
(A) refraction (C) It is virtual.
(B) dispersion (D) It is enlarged.
(C) absorption
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

Ans

Ans
(D) It is enlarged. (B) A concave mirror is primarily used to gather
An image in a plane mirror is always the same light in reflecting telescopes.
size as the object. Enlargement (magnification) “A step further” section on concave mirrors
is a characteristic of concave mirrors and convex mentions that “Most modern telescopes are
lenses under certain conditions. reflecting telescope that use curved mirrors, with
the main mirror being a large concave mirror.”
116. What is a key difference between the image
formed by a magnifying glass (convex lens) and 119. The shiny, curved ball-shaped ornaments on
a concave lens? a Christmas tree reflect the entire room, but
(A) The magnifying glass image is diminished; everything looks smaller. These ornaments act as:
the concave lens image is enlarged. (A) Plane mirrors
(B) The magnifying glass image is enlarged; the (B) Lenses
concave lens image is diminished. (C) Concave mirrors
(C) The magnifying glass forms a real image; the (D) Convex mirrors
concave lens forms a virtual image.


Ans
(D) The magnifying glass image is inverted; the
concave lens image is erect. (D) The ornaments act as convex mirrors,
reflecting a wide view.


Ans The ornaments have a spherical, outward-curving
(B) The magnifying glass image is enlarged; the reflective surface. This makes them convex
concave lens image is diminished. mirrors. As a result, they provide a wide-angle
When used to view a nearby object, a convex lens view of the room and form erect, diminished
acts as a magnifier, producing an enlarged image. images of all the objects around them.
A concave lens always produces a diminished
(smaller) image of the object. 120. If you shine a laser pointer perpendicular to a
plane mirror, where does the reflected beam go?
117. Match the optical device with its action on a (A) It reflects at a 90-degree angle to the surface.
parallel beam of light. (B) It is completely absorbed by the mirror
surface.
Column A Column B (C) It reflects straight back along the same path.
1 Concave Mirror A A diverging lens. (D) It spreads out in all directions from the point
of impact.
2 Convex Mirror B A converging mirror.


Ans
3 Convex Lens C A diverging mirror.
(C) It reflects straight back along the same path.
4 Concave Lens D A converging lens. Shining the beam perpendicular to the mirror
Options means it is traveling along the normal. The
(a) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B angle of incidence is 0°. According to the law of
(b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D reflection, the angle of reflection must also be 0°,
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A meaning the beam reflects directly back upon
(d) 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C itself.


Ans 121. Which statement about the image formed by a
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A convex lens is false?
Concave mirrors and convex lenses are converging. (A) It is always smaller than the object.
Convex mirrors and concave lenses are diverging. (B) It can be real and inverted.
(C) It can be the same size as the object.
118. In reflecting telescopes, what type of mirror is (D) It can be virtual and erect.
primarily used to gather light?


Ans
(A) A series of plane mirrors
(B) Concave mirror (A) It is always smaller than the object.
(C) Plane mirror A convex lens is versatile. It can form diminished
(D) Convex mirror images (of distant objects), same-size images,
page 290 Class 8th Science Foundation

and enlarged images (both real and virtual). The 125. Match the term from the laws of reflection with
statement that it is always smaller is incorrect. its correct definition.

122. A convex mirror ______ light, and a concave Column A Column B

lens also ______ light.
1 Angle of A States that the incident
(A) converges, diverges
Incidence ray, reflected ray, and
(B) diverges, converges
the normal all lie in the
(C) converges, converges
same plane.
(D) diverges, diverges
2 First Law of B The ray of light that


Ans
Reflection strikes the surface of the
(D) diverges, diverges mirror.
Both a convex mirror and a concave lens have
the effect of spreading out parallel rays of light. 3 Incident Ray C The angle between the
They are both diverging optical components, one incoming light ray and
working by reflection and the other by refraction. the normal.
4 Second Law D States that the angle of
123. Eyeglasses, cameras, and microscopes are all
of Reflection incidence is always equal
common applications of:
to the angle of reflection.
(A) Concave mirrors
(B) Lenses Options
(C) Convex mirrors (a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
(D) Plane mirrors (b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
(c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D


Ans
(d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
(B) Eyeglasses, cameras, and microscopes are
common applications of lenses.

Ans
All three of these devices rely on the refractive (b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
properties of lenses to form images and perform The angle of incidence is the angle between the
their specific functions. incident ray and the normal. The first law of
reflection states this angle equals the angle of
124. A periscope uses two plane mirrors to allow reflection, while the second law states all three
someone to see over an obstacle. How must these components lie in the same plane.
mirrors be positioned?
(A) Both parallel to each other and at a 45-degree 126. Why can’t a convex mirror be used to start a fire
angle to the line of sight. with sunlight?
(B) Facing each other and parallel to the line of (A) It absorbs too much heat energy from the
sight. sun.
(C) Placed back to back at the top and bottom of (B) It diverges the sun’s rays, spreading them out
the tube. instead of concentrating them.
(D) At a 90-degree angle relative to one another (C) It only works with artificial light sources, not
inside the tube. with sunlight.
(D) It reflects the sunlight rather than allowing it


Ans
to pass through to a focal point.
(A) Both parallel to each other and at a 45-degree
angle to the line of sight.

Ans
In a simple periscope, light comes in horizontally, (B) It diverges the sun’s rays, spreading them out
hits the top mirror at 45°, and is reflected down instead of concentrating them.
vertically. It then hits the bottom mirror, which To start a fire, you need to concentrate solar
is also at 45°, and is reflected horizontally into energy onto a small point. A convex mirror is a
the viewer’s eye. The mirrors must be parallel to diverging mirror; it does the opposite. It takes
each other. the parallel rays of sunlight and spreads them out
over a larger area, reducing the intensity of the
heat.
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

127. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of 130. Which type of lens is also called a diverging lens?
an image formed by a concave mirror when the (A) Bifocal lens
object is placed far away? (B) Concave lens
(A) It is erect. (C) Convex lens
(B) It is diminished. (D) Magnifying lens
(C) It is inverted.


Ans
(D) It is real.
(B) A concave lens is also known as a diverging


Ans lens.
(A) It is erect. A concave lens spreads out, or diverges, parallel
When an object is placed far from a concave rays of light that pass through it. Therefore, it is
mirror (beyond its center of curvature), the image also known as a diverging lens.
formed is always real, inverted (upside down),
and diminished (smaller than the object). An 131. Which of the following is NOT a correct use of an
erect image is only formed when the object is very optical device?
close to the mirror. (A) Convex lens as a magnifying glass.
(B) Concave mirror as a reflector in a torch.
128. When you look at the text in a book through a (C) Convex mirror as a shaving mirror.
drop of water on a plastic sheet, the letters appear (D) Concave lens in eyeglasses to correct
larger. The water drop is acting as a: nearsightedness.
(A) Simple convex lens


Ans
(B) Concave lens
(C) Prism (C) A convex mirror is not suitable as a shaving
(D) Plane mirror mirror.
A shaving mirror needs to provide a magnified,


Ans erect image. This is a function of a concave mirror.
(A) The water drop acts as a simple convex lens, A convex mirror always produces a diminished
magnifying the text. (smaller) image, which would be unsuitable for
Due to surface tension, the water drop forms a shaving.
shape that is thicker in the middle and thinner
at the edges—the shape of a convex lens. This 132. In the law of reflection, the angle of incidence
simple lens then magnifies the text underneath it. is the angle between the incident ray and the
______, while the angle of reflection is between
129. If light traveled in curved paths instead of straight the reflected ray and the ______.
lines, what would be a major consequence for (A) normal, normal
mirrors and lenses? (B) mirror, normal
(A) Their behavior could not be predicted by (C) normal, mirror
simple geometric laws. (D) mirror, mirror
(B) They would all produce inverted images of


Ans
every object.
(C) Only convex mirrors and lenses would (A) normal, normal
continue to work as expected. Both angles are measured with respect to the same
(D) They would work much more efficiently at reference line. The normal (the line perpendicular
focusing light. to the surface) is used as the baseline for
measuring both the incoming angle of incidence


Ans and the outgoing angle of reflection.
(A) Their behavior could not be predicted by
simple geometric laws. 133. Car headlight is to concave mirror as camera is
The entire field of geometric optics, including the to ______.
laws of reflection and refraction and the way we (A) plane mirror
draw ray diagrams, is based on the principle that (B) concave lens
light travels in straight lines (rays). If this were (C) convex lens
not true, these simple and predictable rules would (D) convex mirror
not apply.

Ans
page 292 Class 8th Science Foundation

(C) convex lens A convex mirror is a diverging mirror. It causes

The analogy links a device to its primary optical parallel rays of light to spread out after reflection.
component. A car headlight uses a concave mirror Converging beams are produced by concave
to shape the light. A camera uses a convex lens mirrors.
(or a system of them) to focus light and form an
image on a sensor. 137. What is the primary difference between a concave
mirror and a convex lens in terms of image
134. To get the widest possible view of a room from a formation for a distant object?
single fixed position, which type of mirror should (A) The mirror forms a real image; the lens forms
you use? a virtual image.
(A) A large convex mirror (B) Both form a real, inverted image, but the
(B) A large concave mirror mirror’s image is on the same side as the
(C) A small plane mirror object, while the lens’s is on the opposite
(D) A large plane mirror side.


Ans (C) The mirror forms an erect image; the lens
forms an inverted image.
(A) A large convex mirror provides the widest
(D) There is no difference in the images they
field of view.
form.
Convex mirrors are known as wide-angle mirrors
because they diverge reflected light. This allows

Ans
them to capture a much larger field of view than a
(B) Both form a real, inverted image, but the
plane or concave mirror of the same size, making
mirror’s image is on the same side as the object,
them ideal for surveillance or comprehensive
while the lens’s is on the opposite side.
viewing.
Both are converging systems and form real,
135. A real image is formed when light rays physically inverted images of distant objects. However, a
______, while a virtual image is formed where mirror reflects light, so the image is formed in
they appear to ______. front of it. A lens refracts light, so the image is
(A) scatter, absorb formed on the side opposite the object.
(B) diverge, converge
138. A ray of light that travels along a straight line
(C) reflect, refract
with an arrow indicating its path is called a:
(D) converge, diverge
(A) Wave


Ans (B) Photon
(D) converge, diverge (C) Beam
This is the fundamental difference. A real image (D) Ray
is located at the point where light rays from an

Ans
object actually meet or converge. A virtual image
(D) The term for a line representing the path of
is located at the point from which diverging rays
light is a ray.
appear to have originated when traced backward
A ‘ray’ as the common way to represent the path
by the eye.
of light. It’s a straight line with an arrowhead to
136. Which statement about the reflection of a parallel show the direction of travel.
beam of light is incorrect?
139. The lenses in eyeglasses used to help a farsighted
(A) A convex mirror reflects it as a converging
person read a book are:
beam.
(A) Mirrors
(B) A plane mirror reflects it as a parallel beam.
(B) Concave lenses
(C) A convex mirror reflects it as a diverging
(C) Convex lenses
beam.
(D) Plane lenses
(D) A concave mirror reflects it as a converging
beam.

Ans


Ans (C) Convex lenses are used to correct
farsightedness.
(A) A convex mirror reflects it as a converging
beam.
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

Farsightedness means the eye cannot focus on 143. Torch reflector is to parallel beam as dentist’s
nearby objects. A converging lens is needed to mirror is to ______.
help the eye bend the light more strongly. A (A) diminished image
convex lens is a converging lens, effectively acting (B) wide view
like a magnifying glass for reading. (C) inverted image
(D) magnified image
140. Why do we see a “bright spot” when sunlight is
focused by a concave mirror?

Ans
(A) The mirror chemically creates new light at (D) magnified image
the focal point. The analogy links the application of a concave
(B) The mirror filters out all but the brightest mirror to its function in that context. In a torch,
colors of sunlight. it’s used to create a parallel beam. In a dentist’s
(C) The mirror cools the surrounding air, which office, it’s used to create a magnified, upright
makes the spot appear brighter in contrast. image for detailed examination.
(D) The mirror concentrates the light energy from
a large area into a very small area. 144. Match the real-world application with the type of
mirror or lens used.


Ans
(D) The mirror concentrates the light energy from Column A Column B
a large area into a very small area. 1 Dental Mirror A A convex lens used to
The mirror collects sunlight from its entire surface view an enlarged image
area and, due to its converging shape, reflects all of a nearby object.
that light onto a single small point (the focal 2 Vehicle Side- B A concave mirror used
point). This concentration of light energy is what view Mirror to get an enlarged, erect
makes the spot intensely bright and hot. image of teeth.
141. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of 3 Magnifying C A concave mirror used
the image seen in a car’s convex side-view mirror? Glass to direct light into a
(A) The image is inverted. strong, parallel beam.
(B) The image provides a wide field of view. 4 Torch D A convex mirror used
(C) The image is erect. Reflector to get a wide, erect,
(D) The image is smaller than the object. and diminished view of


Ans traffic.
(A) The image is inverted. Options
A critical safety feature of a side-view mirror (a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
is that the image must be upright (erect). An (b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
inverted image would be confusing and dangerous (c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
for a driver. Convex mirrors always produce erect (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
images.

Ans
142. A concave lens is thinner in the ______ and (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
causes parallel rays to ______. A dental mirror is a concave mirror for
(A) edges, converge magnification. A side-view mirror on vehicles
(B) middle, diverge is a convex mirror that offers a wide view. A
(C) middle, converge magnifying glass is a convex lens. The reflector in
(D) edges, diverge a torch is a concave mirror that helps focus light
into a beam.


Ans
(B) middle, diverge 145. Which two optical components are described as
This question combines the physical description “converging”?
of a concave lens with its optical function. It is (A) Convex mirror and Convex lens
physically thinner in the middle, and this shape (B) Concave mirror and Convex lens
causes it to spread out, or diverge, parallel light (C) Concave mirror and Concave lens
rays. (D) Convex mirror and Concave lens
page 294 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (A) The reflection process can be drawn flat on a

(B) Concave mirror and Convex lens piece of paper.
A concave mirror (converging mirror) and a This law describes the geometry of reflection. It
convex lens (converging lens) both have the means that the outgoing ray does not bend out
ability to take parallel rays of light and bring of the plane defined by the incoming ray and the
them together at a single point. normal. The entire event is two-dimensional and
can be represented accurately on a flat surface.
146. What is the main difference in the shape of a
convex lens and a concave lens? 149. Which of the following is NOT a use for a convex
(A) A convex lens is made of glass; a concave lens mirror?
is made of plastic. (A) Road safety mirror
(B) A convex lens is thicker in the middle; a (B) Surveillance mirror
concave lens is thinner in the middle. (C) Magnifying glass
(C) A convex lens is transparent; a concave lens is (D) Vehicle side-view mirror
opaque.

Ans
(D) A convex lens is thicker at the edges; a
concave lens is thicker in the middle. (C) A magnifying glass is not a use for a convex
mirror.


Ans A magnifying glass must produce an enlarged
(B) A convex lens is thicker in the middle; a image. Convex mirrors always produce diminished
concave lens is thinner in the middle. (smaller) images. Magnification is a property of
This is the fundamental physical difference that convex lenses or concave mirrors.
defines them. A convex lens bulges out in the
150. What is the primary difference in how you view
center, while a concave lens is indented or “caved
in” at the center. an image in a mirror versus through a lens?
(A) You look through a mirror; you look at the
147. When you stand far away from a very large surface of a lens.
concave mirror, like one in a science museum, (B) You look at the surface of a mirror; you look
your reflection is: through the body of a lens.
(A) The same size and erect (C) There is no difference in how you view them.
(B) Erect and smaller (D) Mirror images are always clear; lens images
(C) Inverted and smaller are always blurry.
(D) Erect and larger

Ans


Ans (B) You look at the surface of a mirror; you look
(C) Inverted and smaller through the body of a lens.
A concave mirror forms a real, inverted, and Mirrors are opaque and reflective; you see an
diminished image of an object that is placed far image formed by light bouncing off the front
away from it (specifically, beyond twice its focal surface. Lenses are transparent; you see an image
length). formed by light passing all the way through the
material.
148. The statement “The incident ray, the reflected
ray, and the normal all lie in the same plane” 151. When a parallel beam of light reflects from a
means that: concave mirror, the rays converge at a point. This
(A) The reflection process can be drawn flat on a point is called the:
piece of paper. (A) Pole
(B) All three of these lines are always parallel to (B) Center of curvature
each other. (C) Focal point
(C) The mirror itself must be perfectly flat for the (D) Normal point
law to apply.

Ans
(D) The light being reflected must be of a specific (C) The point where parallel rays converge is the
color or wavelength. focal point.


Ans The focal point (or principal focus) of a converging
mirror or lens is defined as the point where
Pagesmith CH 10 : Light : Mirrors and Lenses

incident parallel rays are brought to a focus after 155. A concave mirror can produce a ______ image
reflection or refraction. when the object is close, and an ______ image
when the object is far.
152. A person is using a simple camera to take a (A) inverted, erect
picture of a mountain. The lens in the camera is (B) real, virtual
forming an image that is: (C) diminished, enlarged
(A) Real, inverted, and diminished. (D) enlarged, inverted
(B) Virtual, erect, and diminished.
(C) Virtual, erect, and enlarged.

Ans
(D) Real, erect, and the same size. (D) enlarged, inverted


Ans When an object is placed close to it, it acts as
a magnifier, producing an enlarged, erect image.
(A) Real, inverted, and diminished. When the object is moved farther away, the image
A camera lens (a convex lens) must form a real becomes inverted.
image on the sensor or film. Since the mountain
is a very distant object, the image formed by 156. Real image is to a screen as a virtual image is to
the convex lens will be real, inverted, and much ______.
smaller (diminished) than the actual mountain. (A) a camera sensor
(B) the eye/brain
153. If the law of reflection was that the angle of (C) a piece of paper
reflection was always 90°, what would you see in (D) a projector
a mirror?
(A) A perfect, clear image of the object.

Ans
(B) A magnified image of the object. (B) the eye/brain
(C) Nothing, as all light would be reflected The analogy relates the type of image to how
parallel to the mirror surface. it is observed. A real image can be physically
(D) An inverted image of the object. projected onto a screen. A virtual image cannot


Ans be projected; it can only be seen when the eye
looks into the optical instrument, and the brain
(C) Nothing, as all light would be reflected interprets the diverging rays as an image.
parallel to the mirror surface.
If the angle of reflection (measured from the 157. The outline or boundary of a spherical mirror’s
normal) was always 90°, all reflected rays would surface is typically what shape?
travel parallel to the mirror’s surface, regardless (A) Circular
of the incident angle. These rays would never (B) Rectangular
reach your eye, so you would not be able to see a (C) Triangular
reflection. (D) Square

154. Which of the following statements about the

Ans

image formed by a convex lens is false? (A) The outline of a spherical mirror’s surface is
(A) It can be larger than the object. typically circular.
(B) It is always virtual. “The outline of the surface of the mirror is
(C) It can be smaller than the object. circular.” Spherical mirrors are typically cut
(D) It can be inverted. from a larger piece of ground glass, resulting in a


Ans circular perimeter.

(B) It is always virtual. 158. You are given a lens. To determine if it is convex
A convex lens is capable of forming both real and or concave without looking through it, you can
virtual images. It forms a virtual image only when feel its shape. A convex lens will feel:
the object is placed very close to it (inside the (A) Thicker in the middle than at the edges.
focal length), as in a magnifying glass. In most (B) Completely flat with no curvature.
other cases (like in a camera), it forms a real (C) Thinner in the middle than at the edges.
image. (D) Warm to the touch due to light absorption.


Ans
page 296 Class 8th Science Foundation

(A) A convex lens will feel thicker in the middle lens indented inwards (concave) refracts light
than at the edges. outwards (diverging).
This is the primary physical characteristic of a
convex lens. You can identify it by touch because

*************
it bulges outwards in the center.

159. The image formed by a plane mirror is laterally

inverted. This means that:
(A) The image is upside-down.
(B) The image’s left is the object’s right.
(C) The image is located behind the mirror’s
surface.
(D) The image is smaller than the object it
represents.


Ans
(B) The image’s left is the object’s right.
Lateral inversion refers specifically to the apparent
reversal of left and right between an object and
its image in a plane mirror.

160. Which of the following optical devices is a

diverging system?
(A) A solar cooker
(B) A concave mirror
(C) A convex lens
(D) A concave lens


Ans
(B) A concave mirror is a converging system, not
a diverging one.
A concave mirror is a converging system; it
focuses parallel light rays. A convex lens is also a
converging system. A concave lens is a diverging
system. A solar cooker uses a converging system
to work.

161. Which of the following is a correct statement

about the comparison between concave mirrors
and concave lenses?
(A) A concave mirror is diverging, while a concave
lens is converging.
(B) Both are diverging systems that spread light
out.
(C) A concave mirror is converging, while a
concave lens is diverging.
(D) Both are converging systems that focus light.


Ans
(C) A concave mirror is converging, while a
concave lens is diverging.
This statement accurately describes the function
of each device. A mirror curved inwards (concave)
reflects light to a focus point (converging). A
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

CHAPTER 11
Keeping Time with the Skies

SUMMAR

1. The Phases of the Moon

1.1 Why the Moon’s Appearance Changes

The Moon does not produce its own light; it
shines by reflecting sunlight. At any given time,
half of the Moon is illuminated by the Sun.
The phases of the Moon are the changing shapes
of the Moon’s bright portion that we see from
Earth.
Waxing (Shukla Paksha) and waning period (Krishna
These phases occur because as the Moon Paksha) of the Moon as viewed from the Earth
revolves around the Earth, we see different amounts
of its sunlit half. A common misconception is that
the phases are caused by the Earth’s shadow, but 2. Natural Cycles for Timekeeping
this is incorrect. The Earth’s shadow causes a Ancient civilizations used predictable, repeating
lunar eclipse, not the regular phases. cycles in the sky to measure time.

2.1 The Day

The basic unit of time, the day, is based on the
1.2 The Lunar Cycle : Waxing and Waning
Earth’s rotation on its axis. A mean solar day is
1. The full cycle of the Moon’s phases takes the average time it takes for the Sun to return to
about a month (approximately 29.5 days). its highest point in the sky, which is 24 hours.
2. Full Moon (Purnima) : Occurs when we see
the entire illuminated side of the Moon. 2.2 The Month
3. New Moon (Amavasya) : Occurs when the The concept of a month is based on the Moon’s
Moon is between the Earth and the Sun, so revolution around the Earth, which completes a
we cannot see its illuminated side. full cycle of phases in about 29.5 days.
4. Waning Period (Krishna Paksha) : The two-
week period after the full Moon when the 2.3 The Year
visible bright portion gets smaller. The concept of a year is based on the Earth’s
5. Waxing Period (Shukla Paksha) : The two- revolution around the Sun, which takes about
week period after the new Moon when the 365.25 days. This cycle also determines the
visible bright portion grows larger. seasons.
6. The Moon rises about 50 minutes later each
day due to its own motion around the Earth.
page 298 Class 8th Science Foundation

3. Types of Calendars launched into orbit. They are used for many
important purposes, including communication,
3.1 Lunar Calendars navigation, weather monitoring, disaster
management and scientific research.
These calendars are based on the Moon’s phases,
with a year consisting of 12 lunar months (about 5.2 India’s Space Program (ISRO)
354 days). Because a lunar year is shorter
than a solar year, these calendars do not stay The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)
synchronized with the seasons. has launched many satellites to support these
activities. Key missions include the Chandrayaan
3.2 Solar Calendars missions to the Moon, Mangalyaanto Mars, and
Aditya-L1to study the Sun.
1. These calendars are designed to match the
solar year (365.25 days) and stay aligned with
the seasons.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO

2. The Gregorian calendar, which is widely used
today, is a solar calendar.
3. To account for the extra quarter day each
year, a leap year with an extra day (February
1. What are the changing shapes of the bright
29th) is added every four years.
portion of the Moon as seen from Earth called?
3.3 Luni-solar Calendars (A) Tides of the Moon
(B) Phases of the Moon
1. These calendars, used in many parts of India,
are a hybrid system. (C) Eclipses of the Moon
2. They follow the lunar months but add an (D) Craters of the Moon
extra month (called Adhika Maasa) every two

Ans
to three years to ensure the calendar stays in
sync with the solar year and the seasons. (B) Phases of the Moon
The term “phases of the Moon” refers to the
3.4 The Indian National Calendar cyclical changes in the appearance of the Moon’s
illuminated portion that we observe from Earth
India’s official calendar is a solar calendar
over the course of about a month. These changes
that starts on March 22nd, the day after the
range from a full circle to complete invisibility.
spring equinox. It consists of 365 days and uses
traditional Indian month names. 2. What is the name for the day when the Moon
appears as a full bright circle in the sky?
(A) New Moon day (Amavasya)
(B) Gibbous Moon day
(C) Crescent Moon day
(D) Full Moon day (Purnima)


Ans
(D) Full Moon day (Purnima)
4. Calendars and Festivals The Full Moon day, known as Purnima in India,
Many Indian festivals are tied to lunar or luni- is the specific phase when the entire illuminated
solar calendars, so their dates change each year on hemisphere of the Moon is facing the Earth,
the Gregorian calendar. For example, Diwali falls making it appear as a complete, bright circle in
on the new Moon of Kartika, and Holi falls on the the night sky.
full Moon of Phalguna. 3. What is the name for the day when the illuminated
side of the Moon is not visible from Earth?
5. Artificial Satellites (A) Full Moon day (Purnima)
(B) Crescent Moon day
5.1 Definition and Purpose (C) New Moon day (Amavasya)
While the Moon is Earth’s natural satellite, (D) Solar Eclipse day
artificial satellites are human-made objects
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

Ans (D) Passing clouds in the atmosphere temporarily

(C) New Moon day (Amavasya) obscure parts of the Moon from view.
The New Moon day, or Amavasya, occurs when

Ans
the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun. From
our perspective, the side of the Moon facing us is (A) We see different amounts of the Moon’s sunlit
not illuminated by sunlight, making it invisible half as it revolves around the Earth.
in the sky. The Moon does not produce its own light; it
reflects sunlight. As the Moon orbits the Earth,
4. What is the “waxing period” of the Moon? our viewing angle of its illuminated hemisphere
(A) The period when the bright portion of the changes. The phases we see are simply the different
Moon decreases in size. portions of this sunlit half that are visible to us
(B) The period when the bright portion of the from Earth.
Moon increases in size.
(C) The specific period of time when a lunar 7. Which of the following is an incorrect explanation
eclipse is observed. for the phases of the Moon?
(D) The period of the lunar cycle when the Moon (A) Our perspective allows us to see only the
is not visible at all. sunlit part of the Moon that is facing us.
(B) The Earth’s shadow blocks the sunlight from


Ans
reaching the Moon.
(B) The period when the bright portion of the (C) The Moon is a celestial body that revolves
Moon increases in size. around the Earth in a regular orbit.
The waxing period, also known as Shukla Paksha (D) The light we see from the Moon is actually
in India, is the phase of the lunar cycle that occurs reflected light originating from the Sun.
after the New Moon. During this time, the visible
illuminated portion of the Moon gradually grows

Ans
larger each night until it becomes a Full Moon. (B) The Earth’s shadow blocks the sunlight from
reaching the Moon.
5. What is the “waning period” of the Moon?
The Earth’s shadow falling on the Moon is the
(A) The period when the bright portion of the
cause of a lunar eclipse, which is a rare event. The
Moon increases.
regular, nightly phases are due to our changing
(B) The period when the bright portion of the
perspective of the Moon’s sunlit side as it orbits
Moon decreases.
Earth.
(C) The two-week period centered on the Full
Moon. 8. In the activity using a ball to represent the Moon
(D) The period of the New Moon. and a lamp to represent the Sun, when would you


Ans observe the “full Moon” phase?
(A) When the ball is held to your side, at a
(B) The period when the bright portion of the
90-degree angle to the lamp.
Moon decreases.
The waning period, also known as Krishna Paksha (B) When the ball is between your head (Earth)
in India, is the phase of the lunar cycle following and the lamp (Sun).
the Full Moon. During this time, the amount of (C) When the ball is held opposite to the lamp,
the illuminated surface we can see from Earth with your head in between.
gets progressively smaller each night, leading up (D) When the ball is held directly above your
to the New Moon. head.

6. What is the primary cause of the phases of the

Ans

Moon? (C) When the ball is held opposite to the lamp,
(A) We see different amounts of the Moon’s sunlit with your head in between.
half as it revolves around the Earth. This position mimics the alignment for a Full
(B) The Earth’s shadow causes a lunar eclipse, Moon. The Sun (lamp) illuminates the entire
which is responsible for the different phases. face of the Moon (ball) that is visible from your
(C) The Moon itself produces its own light, which perspective (head/Earth), so you see a fully lit
systematically changes in brightness. circle.
page 300 Class 8th Science Foundation

9. In the diagram of the Moon’s phases (Figure), at (D) It rises at the same time every day.
position A, the entire illuminated portion of the


Ans
Moon faces Earth. What phase is this?
(C) 50 minutes
As the Earth completes one rotation in 24 hours,
the Moon has also moved forward in its orbit. The
Earth then has to rotate a little extra to “catch
up” to the Moon’s new position. This extra
rotation takes, on average, about 50 minutes.

12. Why don’t we have a solar eclipse every New

Moon and a lunar eclipse every Full Moon?
(A) The Earth’s shadow is not large enough to
cover the Moon most of the time.
(B) The Sun is too far away to be fully blocked by
the Moon on most occasions.
(C) The Moon’s orbit is slightly tilted with
(A) Full Moon respect to the Earth’s orbit around the Sun.
(B) New Moon (D) Eclipses can only happen during the daytime,
(C) Crescent Phase which limits their occurrence.
(D) Gibbous Phase


Ans


Ans
(C) The Moon’s orbit is slightly tilted with respect
(A) Full Moon to the Earth’s orbit around the Sun.
The diagram shows that at position A, the Earth For an eclipse to occur, the Sun, Earth, and Moon
is between the Sun and the Moon. From our must be perfectly aligned. Due to the tilt of the
perspective on Earth, we can see the entire half of Moon’s orbit, during most New and Full Moons,
the Moon that is lit by the Sun, which is the full the Moon passes slightly above or below the Sun-
Moon phase. Earth plane, so their shadows miss each other.
10. Why do we only ever see one side of the Moon 13. What natural cycle is the basis for the unit of a
from Earth? ‘day’ in our calendars?
(A) The Moon’s revolution around Earth is the (A) The rotation of the Earth on its own axis.
sole reason for this phenomenon. (B) The phases of the Moon.
(B) The “far side” of the Moon is always dark (C) The changing of the seasons.
and never receives any sunlight. (D) The revolution of the Earth around the Sun.
(C) The Earth’s gravity has pulled one side to


Ans
permanently face us without any rotation.
(D) The Moon rotates on its axis at the same rate (A) The rotation of the Earth on its own axis.
that it revolves around the Earth. The cycle of day and night is the most fundamental
unit of time for life on Earth. This cycle is caused


Ans
by the Earth spinning on its axis, which makes
(D) The Moon rotates on its axis at the same rate the Sun appear to rise and set approximately
that it revolves around the Earth. every 24 hours.
The Moon completes exactly one rotation on
its axis in the same amount of time it takes to 14. What natural cycle is the basis for the unit of a
complete one orbit around the Earth. This timing ‘month’ in our calendars?
keeps the same hemisphere constantly facing our (A) The time it takes for one season to change to
planet. the next.
(B) The revolution of the Moon around the Sun.
11. Approximately how much later does the Moon (C) The cycle of the Moon’s phases from one full
rise each day? Moon to the next.
(A) 24 hours (D) The time it takes for the Earth to rotate 30
(B) 10 minutes times.
(C) 50 minutes
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

Ans (B) A lunar calendar

(C) The cycle of the Moon’s phases from one full (C) A luni-solar calendar
Moon to the next. (D) A solar calendar
The word “month” itself is derived from the

Ans
word “moon”. Early civilizations used the easily
observable and regular cycle of the Moon’s phases, (D) A solar calendar
which takes about 29.5 days, as a primary way to The Gregorian calendar is designed to keep the
mark a longer period of time than a day. months and dates aligned with the solar year
and the seasons. Its system of months with 30
15. What natural cycle is the basis for the unit of a or 31 days and the inclusion of leap years are all
‘year’ in solar calendars? mechanisms to ensure it stays synchronized with
(A) The cycle of 12 complete lunar months. the Earth’s revolution around the Sun.
(B) The time it takes for the Sun to rotate on its
axis. 18. Why do we have leap years in the Gregorian
(C) The precise alignment of the planets in the calendar?
solar system. (A) To account for the fact that the Earth takes
(D) The revolution of the Earth around the Sun, approximately 365 and a quarter days to
corresponding to the cycle of seasons. orbit the Sun.
(B) To ensure that the New Year’s Day always


Ans falls on a Monday for scheduling purposes.
(D) The revolution of the Earth around the Sun, (C) To periodically add an extra month to the
corresponding to the cycle of seasons. calendar to align it with lunar cycles.
A solar year is defined by the time it takes for the (D) To make the average calendar year shorter to
Earth to complete one full orbit around the Sun. match the Earth’s slowing rotation.
This revolution is what causes the predictable

Ans
cycle of seasons, a crucial marker for agriculture
and ancient civilizations. (A) To account for the fact that the Earth takes
approximately 365 and a quarter days to orbit
16. What is the main problem with a purely lunar the Sun.
calendar (like one with 12 lunar months of 29.5 The Earth’s orbital period is not exactly 365
days)? days. By adding an extra day (February 29th)
(A) It is shorter than the solar year, causing the nearly every four years, the calendar compensates
seasons to drift through the months over for the accumulated extra quarter-days, keeping
time. the calendar dates aligned with the seasons over
(B) It is longer than the solar year, causing an the long term.
unnecessary lengthening of the year.
(C) It does not have any concept of weeks, making 19. What is a luni-solar calendar?
it difficult to use for planning. (A) A calendar where every month is exactly
(D) It is very difficult to observe the Moon every 30 days long to average out solar and lunar
single night to keep track. cycles.
(B) A calendar that is based on the Moon’s phases


Ans but adds an extra month every few years to
(A) It is shorter than the solar year, causing the align with the seasons.
seasons to drift through the months over time. (C) A calendar that is used exclusively for the
A year of 12 lunar months is about 354 days long. scientific purpose of predicting eclipses.
The solar year (cycle of seasons) is about 365 days (D) A type of calendar that only tracks the Sun’s
long. This 11-day difference accumulates each movement and ignores the Moon entirely.
year, meaning that festivals and months tied to

Ans
the lunar calendar will occur earlier and earlier in
the seasonal cycle. (B) A calendar that is based on the Moon’s phases
but adds an extra month every few years to align
17. The Gregorian calendar, which is widely used with the seasons.
today, is an example of what type of calendar? A luni-solar calendar is a hybrid system. It follows
(A) An astronomical calendar the Moon’s phases to define its months (like a
page 302 Class 8th Science Foundation

lunar calendar) but also periodically inserts an (A) Crescent

intercalary or extra month (Adhika Maasa) to The crescent phase occurs just after the New
prevent it from drifting too far from the solar year Moon (waxing crescent) and just before the New
and the seasons. Moon (waning crescent). It is characterized by the
Moon appearing as a thin, curved sliver of light.
20. In the Indian luni-solar calendars, what is the
name for the extra month added every few years 23. The Moon’s phase when more than half of it is
to align the calendar with the solar year? illuminated is called:
(A) Amavasya (A) Half Moon
(B) Purnima (B) Gibbous
(C) Shukla Paksha (C) Crescent
(D) Adhika Maasa (D) New Moon


Ans

Ans
(D) Adhika Maasa (B) Gibbous
To reconcile the 11-day difference between the The gibbous phase occurs between the Half Moon
lunar and solar years, an intercalary month, called and the Full Moon. It is defined as the period
“Adhika Maasa,” is added to the calendar every when the visible illuminated portion is clearly
two to three years. more than half but not yet a full circle.

21. Why do the dates of festivals like Diwali and 24. What are artificial satellites?
Eid-ul-Fitr change every year on the Gregorian (A) Natural rocks that have been captured into
(English) calendar? orbit around the Earth.
(A) Because these festivals are based on lunar or (B) Human-made objects launched into space to
luni-solar calendars which are not synchronized orbit the Earth or another celestial body.
with the solar Gregorian calendar. (C) Distant stars that happen to orbit the Earth
(B) Because the dates for these festivals are in a regular pattern.
chosen randomly by religious leaders each (D) Moons from other planets that have migrated
year. into Earth’s orbit over time.
(C) Because the inclusion of leap years in the


Ans
Gregorian calendar causes these festivals to
shift. (B) Human-made objects launched into space to
(D) Because the Earth’s orbit around the Sun orbit the Earth or another celestial body.
is slowing down, affecting the timing of all Artificial satellites are distinguished from natural
festivals. satellites (like our Moon) by the fact that they are
manufactured on Earth and launched into orbit by


Ans rockets for specific purposes like communication
(A) Because these festivals are based on lunar or or scientific research.
luni-solar calendars which are not synchronized
with the solar Gregorian calendar. 25. Which Indian Space Research Organisation
These festivals are fixed to specific phases of the (ISRO) mission makes scientific observations of
Moon in their respective calendars (e.g., Diwali stars and other celestial objects?
on the New Moon of Kartika). Since the lunar (A) Bhuvan
year is shorter than the solar year, these fixed (B) Cartosat
lunar dates correspond to different solar dates (C) AstroSat
each year. (D) Mangalyaan


Ans
22. The Moon’s phase when it appears as a thin sliver
of light is called: (C) AstroSat
(A) Crescent The chapter’s section on India’s space missions
(B) Gibbous explicitly mentions, “AstroSat, another ISRO
(C) New mission, makes scientific observations of stars and
(D) Full other celestial objects”. It functions as India’s
first multi-wavelength space observatory.


Ans
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

26. You see a point of light moving steadily and (C) lunar, solar
quickly across the night sky, not twinkling like a (D) tropical, sidereal
star. What are you most likely observing?


Ans
(A) An artificial satellite
(B) A meteor (B) mean solar, solar
(C) A distant galaxy The mean solar day as the average time for the
(D) A planet like Mars Sun to return to its highest point, which is based
on Earth’s rotation. It defines the solar year as


Ans the time for one cycle of seasons, which is based
(A) An artificial satellite on Earth’s revolution.
Stars appear fixed, and planets move very slowly
against the background stars. Meteors are very 29. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of
fast but burn out in seconds. A steady point artificial satellites ?
of light moving silently across the sky in a few (A) Weather monitoring
minutes is the characteristic appearance of an (B) Controlling the phases of the Moon
artificial satellite reflecting sunlight. (C) Scientific research
(D) Communication
27. The activity in figure uses a ball, a student, and a


Ans
lamp. What do these three components represent,
respectively? (B) Controlling the phases of the Moon
Artificial satellites have many uses, including
communication, navigation, weather forecasting,
and research. However, the phases of the Moon
are a natural phenomenon caused by the Moon’s
orbit around the Earth and cannot be controlled
by human-made objects.

30. On a Full Moon day, where is the Moon in the sky

relative to the Sun?
(A) Its position is random and unpredictable.
(B) Very close to the Sun.
(C) At a 90-degree angle to the Sun.
(D) Nearly opposite to the Sun.
(b) A student using a ball and stick to understand phases

Ans
of Moon; (c) The ball as seen by the student at different
positions (D) Nearly opposite to the Sun.
For us on Earth to see the entire sunlit face of the
(A) Sun, Moon, Earth Moon, the Earth must be positioned between the
(B) Earth, Sun, Moon Sun and the Moon. This means that as the Sun
(C) Sun, Earth, Moon sets in the west, the Full Moon rises in the east,
(D) Moon, Earth, Sun placing them on opposite sides of the sky.


Ans
31. The Indian National Calendar is a solar calendar
(D) Moon, Earth, Sun that begins on what date in the Gregorian
The activity is a model to understand phases. The calendar (in a non-leap year)?
ball represents the Moon, which reflects light. The (A) January 1
student’s head represents the Earth, from where (B) October 2
the observation is made. The lamp represents the (C) March 22
Sun, the source of light. (D) April 14

28. A ______ day is based on the Earth’s rotation,

Ans

while a ______ year is based on the Earth’s (C) March 22
revolution around the Sun. The Indian National Calendar is a solar calendar
(A) solar, lunar and that “The year begins on 22 March, which is
(B) mean solar, solar the day after the spring equinox”.
page 304 Class 8th Science Foundation

32. Earth’s shadow is to lunar eclipse as the Moon’s these varying lengths over an entire year, which
revolution is to ______. gives us our standard 24-hour day.
(A) phases of the Moon
(B) solar eclipse 35. Which statement about the cycle of Moon phases
(C) day and night is incorrect?
(D) seasons (A) The period of the Moon’s waxing is called
Shukla Paksha.


Ans (B) The day the Moon is not visible is called
(A) phases of the Moon Purnima.
The analogy links a cause to its effect. The Earth’s (C) The cycle from one Full Moon to the next
shadow passing over the Moon is the cause of a takes about 29.5 days.
lunar eclipse. The Moon’s revolution around the (D) The period of the Moon’s waning is called
Earth, changing our viewing angle of its sunlit Krishna Paksha.
half, is the cause of the phases of the Moon.

Ans
33. What is the main difference between a waxing (B) The day the Moon is not visible is called
gibbous and a waning gibbous Moon? Purnima.
(A) There is no difference. The day the Moon is not visible is the New Moon,
(B) A waxing gibbous is smaller than half; a which is called Amavasya. Purnima is the name
waning gibbous is larger than half. for the Full Moon day, when the Moon is fully
(C) A waxing gibbous is seen before the Full visible.
Moon; a waning gibbous is seen after. 36. You are looking at the sky at sunset and see a
(D) A waxing gibbous is visible during the day; a half-illuminated Moon. Is this the First Quarter
waning gibbous is visible at night. or the Third Quarter phase?


Ans (A) It is a Half Moon, not a quarter.
(B) First Quarter, because a waxing moon is
(C) A waxing gibbous is seen before the Full easiest to spot at sunset.
Moon; a waning gibbous is seen after. (C) Third Quarter, because it is waning.
Both are “gibbous,” meaning more than half-lit. (D) It could be either.
”Waxing” means the illuminated part is growing,
which occurs in the week leading up to the Full

Ans
Moon. ”Waning” means the illuminated part is (B) First Quarter, because a waxing moon is
shrinking, which occurs in the week after the Full easiest to spot at sunset.
Moon. The First Quarter Moon (a waxing half-moon) is
about 90 degrees east of the Sun. This means it
34. Why is the term “mean solar day” used instead of rises around noon and is high in the southern sky
just “solar day”? at sunset. The Third Quarter Moon (a waning
(A) Because some days feel more unpleasant or half-moon) rises around midnight and is high in
“mean” than other days. the sky at sunrise.
(B) Because it represents the average of a solar
day and a lunar day. 37. Which statement accurately describes the
(C) Because the actual time from one noon to the relationship between the Moon, Earth, and Sun?
next varies slightly throughout the year. (A) The Sun revolves around the Earth, and the
(D) Because the Sun’s own rotation speed is not Moon revolves around the Sun.
constant, affecting the day length. (B) The Earth revolves around the Moon, and the


Ans Moon revolves around the Sun.
(C) The Moon revolves around the Earth, and the
(C) Because the actual time from one noon to the Earth revolves around the Sun.
next varies slightly throughout the year. (D) The Moon and the Sun revolve around the
Due to the Earth’s elliptical orbit and axial tilt, Earth.
the apparent motion of the Sun is not perfectly
uniform. The actual length of a solar day changes

Ans
slightly. The “mean solar day” is the average of (C) The Moon revolves around the Earth, and the
Earth revolves around the Sun.
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

This describes the correct orbital mechanics of our (A) By observing when the shadow cast by a
local system. The Moon is a satellite of the Earth, vertical stick is at its shortest.
orbiting it. The Earth, along with the Moon, is a The Sun reaches its highest point in the sky at
planet that orbits our star, the Sun. local noon. At this precise moment, the shadows
it casts are at their minimum length for the day.
38. What is space debris? This observation was a fundamental method for
(A) Old, non-functional artificial satellites and ancient timekeeping.
their parts orbiting the Earth.
(B) Dust particles found on the surface of the 41. If a festival is based on a purely lunar calendar,
Moon. like Eid-ul-Fitr, what happens to its date in the
(C) Natural asteroids and comets that are found Gregorian (solar) calendar over many years?
in space. (A) It occurs about 11 days later each year.
(D) A specific type of harmful cosmic radiation. (B) It stays in the same season but shifts by a few
days.


Ans
(C) It occurs about 11 days earlier each year,
(A) Old, non-functional artificial satellites and cycling through all the seasons.
their parts orbiting the Earth. (D) It always occurs on the same Gregorian date.
The space debris or space junk as the collection
of human-made objects left in orbit. This includes

Ans
defunct satellites, spent rocket stages, and (C) It occurs about 11 days earlier each year,
fragments from collisions, which pose a significant cycling through all the seasons.
hazard to active satellites. The lunar year (354 days) is about 11 days
shorter than the solar year (365 days). A purely
39. In the model from figure, when the student sees lunar calendar does not correct for this difference.
the ball as fully dark (position E), this represents Therefore, a festival fixed to this calendar will
the ______. regress by about 11 days each year relative to the
solar calendar, eventually moving through all four
seasons over a cycle of about 33 years.

42. What does the term “habitable zone” or

(A) Full Moon “Goldilocks zone” refer to?
(B) New Moon (A) The layer of the atmosphere that contains the
(C) Lunar Eclipse most oxygen.
(D) Solar Eclipse (B) The region around a star where the
temperature allows liquid water to exist.


Ans (C) The area on Earth where most humans live.
(B) New Moon (D) The part of a planet’s orbit where eclipses can
At position E, the ball (Moon) is between the occur.
observer (Earth) and the lamp (Sun). The side of

Ans
the ball facing the observer is not illuminated by
the lamp, so it appears dark. This corresponds to (B) The region around a star where the
the New Moon phase. temperature allows liquid water to exist.
The habitable zone is an astronomical concept
40. In Activity 11.3, how is the time of the local noon describing the orbital region around a star where
determined? a planet’s surface temperature is “just right”—
(A) By observing when the shadow cast by a not too hot and not too cold—for liquid water to
vertical stick is at its shortest. be stable, which is believed to be essential for life.
(B) By finding the time when the shadow cast by
a vertical stick is at its longest. 43. A lunar calendar is based on the Moon’s phases
(C) By looking at a standard clock at the moment and has about ______ days, while a solar
it displays 12:00. calendar is based on the seasons and has about
(D) By measuring the ambient temperature of the ______ days.
surrounding air. (A) 365, 354 (B) 29, 365
(C) 354, 365 (D) 365, 29


Ans
page 306 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (A) Because it is on the same side of the sky as

(C) 354, 365 the rising Sun.
A lunar year consists of 12 lunar months (12 x During its waning phase, the Moon is moving
~29.5 days), which totals approximately 354 days. “ahead” of the Earth in its orbit, bringing it
A solar year is based on the Earth’s orbit around closer to the Sun in the sky from our perspective.
the sun and is approximately 365 days long. This means it will be visible in the eastern sky in
the pre-dawn hours and near the time of sunrise.
44. Which of the following is NOT a mission of the
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) ? 47. Day is to Earth’s rotation as year is to Earth’s
(A) AstroSat (space observatory) ______.
(B) Chandrayaan (to the Moon) (A) revolution
(C) Voyager (to the outer solar system) (B) phases
(D) Mangalyaan (to Mars) (C) tilt
(D) atmosphere


Ans


Ans
(C) Voyager (to the outer solar system)
Chandrayaan, Mangalyaan, and AstroSat are all (A) revolution
specifically listed as prominent ISRO missions. The analogy links a unit of time to the astronomical
The Voyager missions are famous deep-space motion that defines it. The daily cycle is caused
probes launched by NASA (the US space agency), by the Earth’s rotation on its axis. The yearly
not ISRO. cycle of seasons is caused by the Earth’s revolution
(orbit) around the Sun.
45. What is the main difference between a Full Moon
and a lunar eclipse? 48. Who was the chairperson of the Calendar Reform
(A) A Full Moon is when the Moon is fully lit; a Committee (CRC) set up by the Government of
lunar eclipse is when it is completely dark. India in 1952?
(B) A Full Moon is a monthly phase; a lunar (A) C. V. Raman
eclipse is a rare event caused by the Earth’s (B) Meghnad Saha
shadow. (C) Vikram Sarabhai
(C) A Full Moon happens during the day; a lunar (D) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
eclipse happens at night.

Ans
(D) A Full Moon is caused by Earth’s shadow; a
lunar eclipse is a natural phase. (B) Meghnad Saha
The “Be a scientist” box in the chapter is


Ans dedicated to Meghnad Saha. It explicitly states,
(B) A Full Moon is a monthly phase; a lunar “He was also the chairperson of the Calendar
eclipse is a rare event caused by the Earth’s Reform Committee”.
shadow.
49. Which statement about the Indian National
A Full Moon is a normal, predictable phase that
occurs every month. A lunar eclipse, while it can Calendar is incorrect?
only happen during a Full Moon, is a special, (A) Its leap years are matched to the Gregorian
much rarer alignment where the Earth passes calendar.
directly between the Sun and Moon, casting its (B) It consists of 365 days in a regular year.
shadow on the Moon. (C) Its year begins on January 1st.
(D) It is a solar calendar.
46. Why is a waning Moon best spotted at sunrise?

Ans
(A) Because it is on the same side of the sky as
the rising Sun. (C) Its year begins on January 1st.
(B) Because it is on the opposite side of the sky The Indian National Calendar year begins on
from the rising Sun. March 22nd (or March 21st in a leap year), which
(C) Because the sky is darkest at sunrise. corresponds to the day after the spring equinox.
(D) Because the waning Moon only reflects light January 1st is the start of the Gregorian calendar
at sunrise. year.

Ans
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

50. The apparent northward movement of the Sun (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
from December to June is called: (d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
(A) Uttarayan


Ans
(B) Purnima
(C) Dakshinayan (d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
(D) Amavasya A Full Moon is when the Moon appears as a
full bright circle. A New Moon is when it is not


Ans visible. The waning period is when the bright part
(A) Uttarayan shrinks, while the waxing period is when it grows.
The “Our scientific heritage” section defines these
terms. It states that the Sun’s apparent movement 53. A student observes a crescent Moon in the early
northwards is called Uttarayan, while its apparent morning, just before sunrise. What can they
southward movement is called Dakshinayan. conclude about this Moon?
(A) It is a Full Moon.
51. If the current year is a leap year according to the (B) It is a waning crescent.
Gregorian calendar, how many days will the first (C) It is a lunar eclipse.
month (Chaitra) of the Indian National Calendar (D) It is a waxing crescent.
have?


Ans
(A) 31 days
(B) 28 days (B) It is a waning crescent.
(C) 29 days A waning moon is seen in the hours before and
(D) 30 days during sunrise. The crescent phase is the thin
sliver seen just before the New Moon. Therefore,


Ans a crescent Moon visible in the early morning sky
(A) 31 days is a waning crescent.
The Indian National Calendar handles leap years.
It states that in a leap year, an extra day is “added 54. Which of the following best describes the motion
to Chaitra, the first month of the year,” making it of artificial satellites?
31 days long instead of the usual 30. (A) They are stationary points of light in the sky.
(B) They move slowly across the sky over many
52. Match the phase of the Moon with its correct hours, like planets.
description. (C) They appear as tiny specks moving quickly
and steadily across the sky.
Column A Column B (D) They move erratically and twinkle brightly
1 Full Moon A The period when the like stars.
(Purnima) visible bright portion of

Ans
the Moon is decreasing
each day. (C) They appear as tiny specks moving quickly
and steadily across the sky.
2 New Moon B The day when the The chapter describes how to spot artificial
(Amavasya) Moon is not visible from satellites. They are distinguished from other
Earth because its non- celestial objects by their rapid, silent, and steady
illuminated side faces us. movement across the sky, appearing as a constant
3 Waning C The period when the point of light rather than a twinkling one.
Period visible bright portion of
the Moon is increasing 55. The period from one New Moon to the next Full
each day. Moon is the:
(A) Lunar month
4 Waxing D The day when the entire (B) Waning period
Period illuminated side of the (C) Lunar year
Moon is visible from (D) Waxing period
Earth.


Ans
Options
(a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B (D) Waxing period
(b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
page 308 Class 8th Science Foundation

The waxing period is the phase of the Moon’s cycle

Ans

where the illuminated portion is growing. This (B) Its dates remain synchronized with the
starts from the New Moon (zero illumination) and seasons.
progresses to the Full Moon (full illumination), Agriculture is fundamentally dependent on the
taking about two weeks. seasons (for planting, harvesting, etc.). A solar
calendar is tied to the Earth’s revolution around
56. A lunar year, consisting of 12 lunar months, is the Sun, which is the cause of the seasons. This
approximately how many days long? makes it a reliable tool for tracking and predicting
(A) 354 days seasonal changes.
(B) 29.5 days
(C) 365 days 60. Match the unit of time with the astronomical
(D) 360 days cycle it is based on.


Ans Column A Column B
(A) 354 days 1 Day A Based on the cycle of
A lunar month is about 29.5 days. A lunar year is the Moon’s phases as
12 of these months. 12 × 29.5 = 354. The lunar it revolves around the
year is “354 days long”. Earth.
57. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the 2 Month B An adjustment made
Moon? every four years in a
(A) Gibbous solar calendar to keep
(B) Half Moon (Quarter) it synchronized with the
(C) Crescent seasons.
(D) Eclipse 3 Year C Based on the Earth’s


Ans revolution around the
Sun, which causes the
(D) Eclipse
cycle of seasons.
Crescent, Gibbous, and Half Moon (or Quarter)
are all names for specific shapes of the Moon’s 4 Leap Year D Based on the Earth’s
illuminated portion. An eclipse is not a phase but rotation on its axis, which
a separate, less frequent event where one celestial causes the apparent daily
body’s shadow falls upon another. motion of the Sun.
Options :
58. A festival is celebrated on the full moon of the
(a) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
month of Phalguna every year. What festival is
(b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
this?
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
(A) Holi
(d) 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
(B) Eid-ul-Fitr
(C) Dussehra

Ans
(D) Diwali (a) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B


Ans The day is based on Earth’s rotation. The month
is based on the Moon’s phases. The year is based
(A) Holi
on Earth’s revolution around the Sun. A leap year
The several examples of festivals tied to lunar
is a calendar correction to account for the extra
phases. It explicitly states that “Holi on the full
quarter day in a solar year.
Moon of Phalguna” is one such example.
61. In the model from Activity 11.2, your head
59. What is the primary advantage of a solar calendar
represents the ______, and the lamp represents
(like the Gregorian) over a purely lunar calendar
the ______.
for an agricultural society?
(A) Moon, Earth
(A) Its festivals are more colorful.
(B) Earth, Sun
(B) Its dates remain synchronized with the seasons.
(C) Sun, Moon
(C) It has more months.
(D) Moon, Sun
(D) It is easier to count the days.
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

Ans

Ans
(B) Earth, Sun (D) Because it is bright enough to be visible
The activity is designed to simulate the Earth- against the blue sky, and its orbit puts it above
Moon-Sun system from our perspective. The the horizon during daylight hours.
observer’s head is the point of observation, The Moon is always in the sky for about 12
representing the Earth. The single light source hours out of every 24. Its visibility during the
is the lamp, which represents the Sun. The ball day depends on its phase and position. Around
represents the Moon. the first and third quarters, for example, it is
far enough from the Sun in the sky and reflects
62. Which of the following is a correct statement enough light to be easily seen against the bright
about the Moon’s light? blue of the sky.
(A) The amount of light the Moon produces
changes each night. 65. Which of the following statements about calendars
(B) The Moon’s light is a reflection of light from is incorrect?
the Earth. (A) A solar year is approximately 365.25 days
(C) The Moon produces its own light. long.
(D) The Moon shines by reflecting sunlight. (B) The Gregorian calendar is a type of solar
calendar.


Ans
(C) A lunar year is approximately 354 days long.
(D) The Moon shines by reflecting sunlight. (D) Luni-solar calendars add a leap day every
This is a fundamental concept. The Moon is a four years.
non-luminous body; it does not generate its own
light. The moonlight we see is simply sunlight

Ans
that has struck the Moon’s surface and has been (D) Luni-solar calendars add a leap day every
reflected towards the Earth. four years.
Adding a single leap day is the correction
63. An astronomer wants to track the Earth’s position mechanism for solar calendars. Luni-solar
in its orbit relative to the distant stars. Which calendars use a different method to stay
definition of a year would be most useful for this synchronized with the seasons: they add an entire
purpose? extra month (Adhika Maasa) every two or three
(A) Sidereal year years.
(B) Lunar year
(C) Tropical year 66. What is the main difference between the Cartosat
(D) Leap year and AstroSat satellites?
(A) Cartosat is for communication, while AstroSat


Ans
is for weather monitoring.
(A) Sidereal year (B) Cartosat orbits the Moon, while AstroSat
The “A step further” box on calendars defines orbits the Sun.
the sidereal year as “the time duration required (C) Cartosat observes the Earth, while AstroSat
for the same stars to rise again at sunset”. This observes distant stars and celestial objects.
means it measures a full 360-degree orbit of the (D) Cartosat is a natural satellite, while AstroSat
Earth with respect to the fixed background stars, is an artificial satellite.
making it the choice for tracking orbital position.


Ans
64. Why can the Moon sometimes be seen during the (C) Cartosat observes the Earth, while AstroSat
daytime? observes distant stars and celestial objects.
(A) It is an optical illusion caused by the The chapter describes their different purposes.
atmosphere. The Cartosat series are Earth Observation
(B) Because it is a solar eclipse. satellites that “capture high-quality images of the
(C) Because it is closer to the Earth during the Earth”. AstroSat is described as a space mission
day. that “makes scientific observations of stars and
(D) Because it is bright enough to be visible other celestial objects”.
against the blue sky, and its orbit puts it
above the horizon during daylight hours.
page 310 Class 8th Science Foundation

67. A day is to rotation as a season is to ______. Options

(A) revolution and tilt (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
(B) rotation (b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
(C) reflection (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(D) refraction (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D


Ans

Ans
(A) revolution and tilt (b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
The analogy links a time period to its astronomical A solar calendar is based on the 365-day solar
cause. The cycle of a day is caused by the Earth’s year. A lunar calendar is based on the 354-day
rotation. The cycle of seasons is caused by the lunar year. A luni-solar calendar combines both
Earth’s revolution around the Sun, combined systems by adding an extra month periodically.
with the tilt of its axis. The Gregorian calendar is the most common
example of a solar calendar.
68. If you see a half moon high in the sky at sunrise,
what can you infer? 70. Which of these is NOT a correct pairing of a
(A) It is a New Moon. festival with its lunar timing?
(B) It is a Full Moon. (A) Diwali - New Moon of Kartika
(C) It is a Third Quarter moon. (B) Holi - Full Moon of Phalguna
(D) It is a First Quarter moon. (C) Makar Sankranti - New Moon of Pausha
(D) Buddha Purnima - Full Moon of Vaisakha


Ans
(C) It is a Third Quarter moon.

Ans
A Third Quarter moon (waning half-moon) rises (C) Makar Sankranti - New Moon of Pausha
around midnight and sets around noon. Therefore, The first three pairings correctly as examples
at sunrise (around 6 AM), it would be at or near of festivals based on the Moon’s phases. It then
its highest point in the sky. identifies Makar Sankranti as a festival that
follows a solar calendar, not a lunar one.
69. Match the type of calendar with its defining
characteristic. 71. A waxing crescent appears after the ______,
and a waning crescent appears before the
Column A Column B ______.
1 Solar Calendar A Primarily follows the (A) New Moon, New Moon
Moon’s phases but (B) Full Moon, New Moon
adds an extra month (C) New Moon, Full Moon
every few years (D) Full Moon, Full Moon
to align with the

Ans
seasons.
(A) New Moon, New Moon
2 Lunar Calendar B A widely used solar
The crescent is the thinnest visible phase. The
calendar that has
waxing (growing) crescent is the first phase
months of varying
visible after the invisible New Moon. The waning
lengths and uses leap
(shrinking) crescent is the last visible phase before
years.
the Moon becomes the invisible New Moon again.
3 Luni-solar C Based on the Earth’s
Calendar revolution around 72. What is the name of the mapping platform by
the Sun, resulting in ISRO that uses images from Cartosat satellites?
a year of about 365 (A) Bhuvan
days. (B) Google Earth
(C) AstroSat
4 Gregorian D Based only on the
(D) Mangalyaan
Calendar Moon’s cycle of
phases, resulting in

Ans
a year of about 354 (A) Bhuvan
days.
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

“One such mapping platform, Bhuvan, uses these cycles. The hour is an artificial subdivision of
images to show terrain, soil, land use, vegetation, the day (1/24th of a day) created by humans for
and more”. convenience; it does not correspond to a distinct
natural cycle.
73. Why is it useful to have different types of calendars
(lunar, solar, luni-solar)? 76. A culture uses a calendar that has 12 months, and
(A) To make timekeeping more confusing. an extra month is added to the year every 3 years.
(B) To have more holidays throughout the year. What type of calendar is this?
(C) Because different calendars serve different (A) Sidereal
cultural, religious, and agricultural purposes. (B) Luni-solar
(D) Because no single calendar is accurate. (C) Purely solar
(D) Purely lunar


Ans
(C) Because different calendars serve different

Ans
cultural, religious, and agricultural purposes. (B) Luni-solar
Different calendars evolved to meet different This describes the exact correction mechanism of
needs. Lunar calendars are often important for a luni-solar calendar. It uses lunar months but
religious festivals tied to the moon’s phases. Solar adds an intercalary (extra) month periodically to
calendars are crucial for agriculture tied to the ensure the calendar year stays aligned with the
seasons. Luni-solar calendars represent an attempt longer solar year and the cycle of seasons.
to reconcile both of these important cycles.
77. What is the primary difference between a tropical
74. What does the existence of “space junk” or “space year and a sidereal year?
debris” imply? (A) A tropical year is aligned with the seasons
(A) That meteorites are a major problem for (equinox to equinox), while a sidereal year is
satellites. aligned with the background stars.
(B) That satellites are designed to fall apart after (B) A tropical year is longer than a sidereal year.
a short time. (C) A tropical year is based on the Moon, and a
(C) That human activity in space has long-term sidereal year is based on the Sun.
environmental consequences. (D) A tropical year is used in lunar calendars, and
(D) That space is naturally filled with a lot of a sidereal year is used in solar calendars.
garbage.


Ans


Ans (A) A tropical year is aligned with the seasons
(C) That human activity in space has long-term (equinox to equinox), while a sidereal year is
environmental consequences. aligned with the background stars.
Space debris is not natural; it consists of defunct The “A step further” box explains this distinction.
human-made objects. Its accumulation in orbit A tropical year measures the time it takes for the
poses a significant collision risk to operational Sun to return to the same position in the cycle of
satellites, demonstrating that human activities seasons (e.g., from one spring equinox to the next). A
have an environmental impact that extends sidereal year measures the time it takes for the Earth
beyond the Earth’s atmosphere. to complete a 360° orbit relative to distant stars.

75. Which of the following is NOT a unit of time 78. Which of the following statements about the
based on a natural astronomical cycle? Moon is correct?
(A) Hour (A) It is the largest object in our solar system.
(B) Year (B) It revolves around the Sun directly.
(C) Day (C) The same half of the Moon always faces the
(D) Month Earth.
(D) It produces its own light through nuclear


Ans
fusion.
(A) Hour
The day (Earth’s rotation), month (Moon’s

Ans
phases), and year (Earth’s revolution) are all (C) The same half of the Moon always faces the
based on fundamental, observable astronomical Earth.
page 312 Class 8th Science Foundation

“only one half of the Moon always faces the (A) waning, waxing
Earth”. This phenomenon, known as synchronous The waning period is when the visible light is
rotation or tidal locking, is a key feature of the decreasing, which happens from Full Moon to New
Earth-Moon system. Moon. The waxing period is when the visible light
is increasing, which happens from New Moon to
79. Match the astronomical phenomenon with its Full Moon.
scientific cause.
81. An ancient civilization built a large stone structure
Column A Column B with a window that aligns perfectly with the
1 Phases of the A A man-made object rising sun only on the winter solstice. What was
Moon orbiting Earth, used the likely purpose of this structure?
for communication (A) As a place for storing grain.
and research. (B) As a house for the king.
2 Lunar Eclipse B Caused by the Earth’s (C) As an astronomical observatory or calendar.
shadow falling on the (D) As a defensive fortress.
Moon, which can

Ans
only happen on a full (C) As an astronomical observatory or calendar.
Moon day. Such precise alignments with astronomical events
3 Artificial C The average 24-hour (solstices, equinoxes) are a hallmark of ancient
Satellite period based on the observatories. These structures were used to
time it takes for the track the passage of time, mark the seasons, and
Sun to return to its create calendars for agricultural and ceremonial
highest point in the purposes.
sky.
82. Why do the dates of a festival like Makar
4 Mean Solar Day D Caused by the Sankranti, which follows a solar sidereal calendar,
changing angles at slowly shift over centuries in the Gregorian
which we view the (tropical solar) calendar?
Moon’s illuminated (A) Because the Gregorian calendar is inaccurate.
half. (B) Because the sidereal year is slightly longer
Options : than the tropical year.
(a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D (C) Because the Earth’s orbit is getting larger.
(b) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C (D) Because of the addition of the Adhika Maasa.
(c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B


Ans
(d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
(B) Because the sidereal year is slightly longer


Ans
than the tropical year.
(b) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C The “A step further” box explains that the
The phases of the Moon are due to our changing sidereal year is about 20 minutes longer than
view of its sunlit side. A lunar eclipse occurs when the tropical year (which the Gregorian calendar
the Earth’s shadow covers the Moon. An artificial follows). This small difference accumulates over
satellite is a man-made object sent into orbit. time, causing a slow drift. A festival fixed to the
A mean solar day is based on Earth’s rotation sidereal year will gradually occur later and later
relative to the Sun. in the tropical year.

80. The cycle from a Full Moon to a New Moon is 83. What are the names for the two types of Indian
the ______ period, and from a New Moon to luni-solar calendars based on when the month
a Full Moon is the ______ period. starts?
(A) waning, waxing (A) Uttarayan and Dakshinayan
(B) crescent, gibbous (B) Chaitra and Vaisakha
(C) gibbous, crescent (C) Purnimant and Amant
(D) waxing, waning (D) Shukla and Krishna


Ans

Ans
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

(C) Purnimant and Amant The “Our scientific heritage” section highlights
In Amant calendars, the month starts on the day that these accurate descriptions were achieved
after the New Moon (Amavasya). In Purnimant without modern instruments. This demonstrates
calendars, the month starts on the day after the a deep-rooted tradition of meticulous sky
Full Moon (Purnima). observation, pattern recognition, and the ability
to create functional calendar systems based on
84. Which statement about the Moon’s appearance these cycles.
is incorrect?
(A) The shape of the Moon itself physically 87. What is the shortest shadow of a vertical stick
changes each night. used to measure?
(B) We see different phases because the Moon (A) Local noon
orbits the Earth. (B) Sunset
(C) Half of the Moon is always illuminated by the (C) Sunrise
Sun. (D) Midnight
(D) The Moon reflects sunlight.


Ans


Ans (A) Local noon
(A) The shape of the Moon itself physically Activity 11.3 describes this method. The Sun
changes each night. is at its highest point in the sky at local noon.
The Moon is a spherical body whose physical When the Sun is at its highest point, it casts the
shape is constant. The “changing shape” we shortest shadow of the day.
observe is an illusion created by our changing
viewing angle of its sunlit portion. 88. A solar eclipse can only happen on a ______
day, and a lunar eclipse can only happen on a
85. If today is the Full Moon, what phase will the ______ day.
Moon be in approximately one week? (A) New Moon, Full Moon
(A) Third (or Last) Quarter (B) Gibbous, Crescent
(B) New Moon (C) First Quarter, Third Quarter
(C) Waxing Gibbous
(D) Full Moon, New Moon
(D) Waxing Crescent


Ans

Ans

(A) Third (or Last) Quarter (A) New Moon, Full Moon
The lunar cycle is approximately four weeks long. For a solar eclipse, the Moon must be between the
The cycle goes Full Moon ® Waning Gibbous Sun and Earth to block the Sun’s light, which is
® Third Quarter ® Waning Crescent ® New the New Moon alignment. For a lunar eclipse, the
Moon. One week after the Full Moon, the cycle Earth must be between the Sun and Moon to cast
will have progressed by one-quarter, reaching the its shadow, which is the Full Moon alignment.
Third Quarter phase (a waning half-moon).
89. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the
86. What is the significance of the fact that ancient moon mentioned in the diagram?
texts like the Surya Siddhanta could accurately
describe the Sun’s seasonal movement (Uttarayana
and Dakshinayana)?
(A) It is merely a coincidence.
(B) It proves that ancient people had telescopes.
(C) It means their calendar was better than
modern calendars.
(D) It shows a long history of careful, systematic
astronomical observation and timekeeping.


Ans
(D) It shows a long history of careful, systematic
astronomical observation and timekeeping.
page 314 Class 8th Science Foundation

(A) Full Moon (C) The Sun

(B) Gibbous (D) Mars
(C) Crescent


Ans
(D) Half Moon
(B) The Moon


Ans The last “A step further” box explains the close
(D) Half Moon link between tides and the Moon. It notes that the
While the half-illuminated moon is a phase tide cycle is closely related to the Moon’s position
(First and Third Quarter), the specific labels on and rises about 50 minutes later each day, just
the diagram in figure are Full Moon, Gibbous, like the Moon. Therefore, a lunar-based calendar
Crescent, and New Moon for the main stages would be best for tracking tides.
shown.
92. Why are many traditional paintings and art forms
90. Match the term from Indian calendars with its in India filled with depictions of the Sun and the
correct meaning. Moon?
(A) It was a rule set by ancient kings.
Column A Column B (B) It implies their significance in daily life,
1 Krishna Paksha A The period when agriculture, timekeeping, and culture.
the Moon’s visible (C) Because they were worshipped as the only
illuminated part is two gods.
increasing. (D) Because they were the easiest shapes to draw.
2 Shukla Paksha B The day of the full

Ans
Moon. (B) It implies their significance in daily life,
3 Adhika Maasa C The period when agriculture, timekeeping, and culture.
the Moon’s visible The prominent and repeated depiction of the
illuminated part is Sun and Moon in various art forms reflects their
decreasing. central importance to ancient and traditional
4 Purnima D An extra, intercalary societies for tracking time, marking seasons for
month added to luni- farming, and their role in cultural and religious
solar calendars to keep beliefs.
them synchronized 93. Approximately how long does it take for the
with the seasons. moon to go from a New Moon phase to a Full
Options Moon phase?
(a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (A) One month
(b) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C (B) One day
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A (C) Two weeks
(d) 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C (D) One week


Ans

Ans
(a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (C) Two weeks
In India, the waning period is called Krishna The full lunar cycle (e.g., from Full Moon to Full
Paksha, and the waxing period is called Shukla Moon) takes about four weeks (a month). The
Paksha. Adhika Maasa is the extra month added journey from New Moon (0% illuminated) to Full
to luni-solar calendars. Purnima is the name for Moon (100% illuminated) is half of that cycle,
the full Moon day. which is approximately two weeks.

91. A group of students is tasked with creating a 94. Which statement about the Moon’s orbit is
calendar that is most useful for predicting tides correct according to the text?
at a coastal location. Which astronomical body’s (A) The Moon’s orbit is a perfect circle.
cycle should their calendar be most closely based (B) The Moon’s orbit is perfectly aligned with
on? Earth’s orbit.
(A) The distant stars (C) The Moon does not orbit the Earth.
(B) The Moon (D) The Moon’s orbit is slightly tilted.
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

Ans 98. What is the main difference between a Full Moon

(D) The Moon’s orbit is slightly tilted. and a Gibbous Moon?
The text explicitly mentions the “small tilt of the (A) A Gibbous Moon is fully illuminated, while a
Moon’s orbit with respect to the Earth’s orbit Full Moon is more than half illuminated.
around the Sun” as the reason why eclipses do not (B) There is no difference.
happen every month. (C) A Full Moon is a waxing phase, while a
Gibbous Moon is a waning phase.
95. You look at a luni-solar calendar and see that
this year has 13 months instead of 12. This extra (D) A Full Moon is fully illuminated, while a
month is the: Gibbous Moon is more than half illuminated.
(A) Leap day

Ans
(B) Sidereal month
(D) A Full Moon is fully illuminated, while a
(C) Adhika Maasa Gibbous Moon is more than half illuminated.
(D) Tropical month The Full Moon represents the peak illumination
(100%). The Gibbous phase is the stage just before


Ans
or just after the Full Moon, where the illuminated
(C) Adhika Maasa portion is greater than 50% but less than 100%.
“Adhika Maasa” as the extra or intercalary month
that is added to a luni-solar calendar every few 99. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of
years. Its purpose is to correct the drift between ISRO’s artificial satellites?
the lunar year and the solar year. (A) Supporting communication and weather
monitoring.
96. What fundamental human need led to the (B) Making scientific observations of distant
development of solar calendars? stars.
(A) The need for a calendar that was synchronized
(C) Capturing high-quality images of Earth for
with the seasons for agriculture.
mapping.
(B) The need to navigate ships across the ocean.
(D) Generating artificial rainfall during droughts.
(C) The need to have a calendar with exactly 30
days in each month.

Ans
(D) The need to predict eclipses accurately. (D) Generating artificial rainfall during droughts.
The many real functions of ISRO’s satellites,


Ans
including mapping (Cartosat), astronomy
(A) The need for a calendar that was synchronized (AstroSat), communication, and weather
with the seasons for agriculture. monitoring. Large-scale weather modification like
“It was important to know the arrival of seasons creating rain is not a current capability or stated
for agricultural purposes. This need for a year to purpose of these satellites.
synchronise with seasons led to the creation of
solar calendars”. 100. The mean solar day is approximately ______
hours long, and the lunar cycle is approximately
97. Which of these is NOT a real type of calendar ______ days long.
system? (A) 24, 50
(A) Solar (B) 12, 30
(B) Martian (C) 24, 29.5
(C) Lunar (D) 30, 365
(D) Luni-solar


Ans


Ans
(C) 24, 29.5
(B) Martian The mean solar day, based on Earth’s rotation, is
The chapter discusses calendars based on the our standard 24-hour day. The synodic period of
Earth’s rotation (day), the Moon’s orbit around the Moon (the time for a full cycle of phases) is
the Earth (lunar month), and the Earth’s orbit about 29.5 days.
around the Sun (solar year). A calendar based on
Mars’ cycles was not discussed.
page 316 Class 8th Science Foundation

101. Which statement about the Moon’s location in 104. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement
the sky is correct? based on Activity 11.2 (ball and lamp)?
(A) The Moon is always closest to the Sun on a (A) The shape of the illuminated portion of the
Full Moon day. ball appears to change as it moves around the
(B) On successive days, the Moon appears to observer.
have shifted its position at the same time. (B) The “New Moon” phase occurs when the ball
(C) The Moon can only be seen when it is directly is between the observer and the lamp.
opposite the Sun. (C) The ball itself physically changes shape
during the activity.
(D) The Moon is always in the same position in
(D) The “Full Moon” phase occurs when the
the sky at the same time each night.
observer is between the ball and the lamp.


Ans


Ans
(B) On successive days, the Moon appears to have
(C) The ball itself physically changes shape
shifted its position at the same time.
during the activity.
Due to its own orbital motion, the Moon’s position
The entire point of the activity is to demonstrate
changes. If you look at it at 8 PM tonight, it will
that the phases are an effect of changing viewing
be in a different spot in the sky at 8 PM tomorrow
angles, not a physical change in the object. The
night, having moved further east.
ball (representing the Moon) remains a sphere
102. A Purnimant calendar is a type of luni-solar throughout the simulation.
calendar where each month begins:
105. What is the key difference between how a
(A) On the day of the spring equinox.
solar calendar and a luni-solar calendar stay
(B) On the day after the Full Moon.
synchronized with the seasons?
(C) On the day of the New Moon.
(A) A solar calendar adds a leap day; a luni-solar
(D) On the first day of the Gregorian month.
calendar adds a leap month.


Ans (B) There is no difference in their method.
(B) On the day after the Full Moon. (C) A solar calendar adds a leap month; a luni-
In Purnimant calendars, “the start of the new solar calendar adds a leap day.
month corresponds to the day after the full Moon, (D) A solar calendar ignores the seasons; a luni-
and the month ends on the full Moon”. solar calendar follows them.


Ans
103. What is the most fundamental reason that
the Sun, Moon, and stars have been used for (A) A solar calendar adds a leap day; a luni-solar
timekeeping for thousands of years? calendar adds a leap month.
(A) Because they were the only things visible in The two calendar types use different mechanisms
the sky. for the same purpose. A solar calendar makes a
small correction by adding a single leap day every
(B) Because they were considered to be gods.
four years. A luni-solar calendar makes a much
(C) Because their motions are regular, cyclical,
larger correction by adding an entire intercalary
and predictable.
month every few years.
(D) Because they are easy to count.
106. The Moon revolves around the Earth once a


Ans
month. The Earth revolves around the Sun once a
(C) Because their motions are regular, cyclical, year. This means that:
and predictable. (A) The Sun revolves around the Moon.
Effective timekeeping requires a reliable, repeating (B) The Moon completes one revolution around
standard. The apparent motions of celestial the Sun in a month.
bodies—the Sun’s daily path, the Moon’s monthly (C) The Moon does not revolve around the Sun.
phases, the stars’ yearly cycle—are extremely (D) The Moon also completes one revolution
regular and predictable, making them the perfect around the Sun in a year, along with the
natural clocks for ancient civilizations. Earth.


Ans
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

(D) The Moon also completes one revolution the afternoon and evening, making sunset a good
around the Sun in a year, along with the Earth. time to look. A waning Moon precedes the Sun, so
As the Moon orbits the Earth, the entire Earth- it is visible in the pre-dawn hours, making sunrise
Moon system is simultaneously orbiting the Sun. a good time to look.
Therefore, while the Moon is making its smaller
monthly orbits around us, it is also being carried 110. Which statement accurately describes the
along on the Earth’s much larger yearly orbit relationship between the Moon’s phases and its
around the Sun. position relative to the Sun?
(A) The Moon’s phase is independent of its
107. The apparent southward movement of the Sun in position relative to the Sun.
the sky from June to December is known as: (B) On a New Moon day, the Moon appears
(A) Amavasya closest to the Sun in the sky.
(B) Purnima (C) On a Full Moon day, the Moon appears closest
(C) Dakshinayan to the Sun in the sky.
(D) Uttarayan (D) The Moon is always 90 degrees away from the
Sun.


Ans
(C) Dakshinayan

Ans
The “Our scientific heritage” section defines (B) On a New Moon day, the Moon appears
this term, stating that the Sun’s “apparent closest to the Sun in the sky.
southward movement from June to December is The New Moon occurs when the Moon is in the
Dakshinayan”. same general direction as the Sun in our sky, which
is why it is difficult to see. Conversely, the Full
108. Which of the following statements about the Moon occurs when it is in the opposite direction.
Sun’s apparent motion is incorrect?
(A) The length of its shadow is shortest at local 111. You are designing a calendar for a fictional planet
noon. that has two moons. What information would be
(B) The Sun is at its highest point in the sky at most crucial for creating a monthly system?
midnight. (A) The orbital periods and phase cycles of both
(C) It appears to rise in the east and set in the moons.
west daily. (B) The temperature at the planet’s poles.
(D) The position of sunrise shifts north and south (C) The number of continents on the planet.
throughout the year. (D) The color of the planet’s sun.


Ans


Ans
(A) The orbital periods and phase cycles of both
(B) The Sun is at its highest point in the sky at
moons.
midnight.
The concept of a “month” is based on the cyclical
The Sun is at its highest point in the sky at
phases of a moon. If a planet has two moons,
local noon, which is in the middle of the day. At
their individual cycles would need to be observed
midnight, the Sun is on the opposite side of the
and understood to create a meaningful monthly
Earth and is not visible.
calendar system.
109. A waxing Moon is easiest to spot at ______,
112. Why is the Gregorian calendar rule for leap years
and a waning Moon is easiest to spot at ______.
more complex than just “add a day every four
(A) sunrise, sunset
years”?
(B) noon, midnight
(A) To align with the cycles of other planets.
(C) midnight, noon
(B) To make it harder for people to calculate.
(D) sunset, sunrise
(C) To more accurately correct for the fact that


Ans the tropical year is slightly less than 365.25
(D) sunset, sunrise days.
The chapter’s section on locating the Moon (D) To ensure that Christmas always falls in
provides this as a general rule. A waxing Moon winter.
follows the Sun across the sky, so it is visible in

Ans
page 318 Class 8th Science Foundation

(C) To more accurately correct for the fact that (C) By identifying the stars that rose at sunset
the tropical year is slightly less than 365.25 days. and tracking the position of sunrise.
The “A step further” box explains this. Adding a The “Our scientific heritage” section describes
day every four years is a good approximation but these ancient methods. Astronomers noted the
slightly overcorrects. The extra rules (skipping slow north-south shift of the sunrise position on
century years unless divisible by 400) are a fine- the horizon and also tracked which constellations
tuning mechanism to keep the calendar average were visible in the background of the Sun at
extremely close to the actual length of the different times of the year.
seasonal year.
116. If a year in the Indian National Calendar starts
113. Which of the following is NOT an ISRO mission? on March 21st, what does this signify?
(A) Hubble Space Telescope (A) That the calendar is out of sync with the
(B) Chandrayaan seasons.
(C) AstroSat (B) That it is a leap year.
(D) Cartosat (C) That a lunar eclipse has occurred.
(D) That it is a regular, non-leap year.


Ans
(A) Hubble Space Telescope

Ans
Cartosat, AstroSat, and Chandrayaan are all (B) That it is a leap year.
listed as Indian space missions developed by The Indian National Calendar normally begins
ISRO. The Hubble Space Telescope is a famous on March 22nd. It explicitly says that in leap
mission operated jointly by NASA and the years, “the new year begins on 21 March of the
European Space Agency (ESA). Gregorian calendar” because an extra day has
been added to the first month.
114. What is the main difference between a planet and
a star? 117. Why does a waning crescent Moon appear very
(A) Planets are always larger than stars. close to the Sun in the sky?
(B) Planets produce their own light, while stars (A) Because the Earth’s atmosphere bends the
reflect light. light to make them appear close.
(C) Stars produce their own light, while planets (B) Because it is in the part of its orbit that is
shine by reflecting light from a star. nearly in line with the Sun and Earth, just
(D) Planets are hot, and stars are cold. before the New Moon.
(C) Because the Sun’s gravity is pulling it closer.


Ans (D) Because it is physically moving closer to the
(C) Stars produce their own light, while planets Sun.
shine by reflecting light from a star.

Ans
This is a fundamental astronomical distinction.
(B) Because it is in the part of its orbit that is
Stars, like our Sun, are massive balls of gas that
nearly in line with the Sun and Earth, just before
generate their own light and heat through nuclear
the New Moon.
fusion. Planets are smaller bodies that orbit a star
The phases are determined by the Moon’s orbital
and are only visible because they reflect the star’s
position. The crescent phases occur when the
light.
Moon is angularly close to the Sun in our sky. The
115. In ancient times, how did astronomers track waning crescent is the last visible phase as the
the solstices and equinoxes without modern Moon approaches the New Moon position, where
instruments? it is directly in line with the Sun.
(A) By counting the number of days between
118. Which of the following is NOT a good place to be
festivals.
during a lightning storm?
(B) By observing the phases of the Moon.
(A) In a car.
(C) By identifying the stars that rose at sunset (B) In a boat on a lake.
and tracking the position of sunrise. (C) In a building, away from windows.
(D) By measuring the temperature of the air. (D) In a low-lying ditch.


Ans

Ans
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

(B) In a boat on a lake. (A) It produces its own faint light.

Being in open water during a thunderstorm is (B) It reflects the light from the Sun.
extremely dangerous. You and your boat become (C) It reflects the light from the Earth
the highest point in a flat area, making you a (earthshine).
likely target for a lightning strike. (D) It is a source of bioluminescence.

119. A full cycle of the Moon’s phases takes about one

Ans
______, and a full cycle of the Earth’s seasons (B) It reflects the light from the Sun.
takes about one ______. This is the most basic principle of the Moon’s
(A) month, year visibility. The Moon is a non-luminous object.
(B) day, month The only reason we can see it is that its surface
(C) year, century reflects the vast amount of light that travels to it
(D) week, month from the Sun.


Ans 123. Which statement about the rule for leap years in
(A) month, year the Gregorian calendar is incorrect?
The chapter establishes the link between (A) Every year is a leap year.
astronomical cycles and units of time. The lunar (B) A year divisible by 4 is a leap year.
cycle of phases is the basis for the month. The (C) A year divisible by 100 is not a leap year.
Earth’s orbital cycle, which causes the seasons, is (D) A year divisible by 400 is a leap year.
the basis for the year.


Ans
120. Shukla Paksha is to waxing as Krishna Paksha is (A) Every year is a leap year.
to ______. The “A step further” box explains the complex
(A) waning rules. The system is designed to add a leap day
(B) new moon only periodically to keep the calendar aligned
(C) full moon with the seasons. Making every year a leap year
(D) gibbous would cause the calendar to drift very quickly.


Ans 124. What is the main difference between the Moon
(A) waning and an artificial satellite?
The analogy links the traditional Indian term (A) The Moon is natural; the satellite is man-
to its English equivalent. The chapter defines made.
Shukla Paksha as the waxing (growing) period (B) The Moon is smaller than a satellite.
of the Moon and Krishna Paksha as the waning (C) The Moon orbits the Sun; the satellite orbits
(shrinking) period. the Earth.
(D) The Moon reflects light, but a satellite does
121. A new artificial satellite is launched into an orbit not.
that is about 800 km above the Earth’s surface.
Approximately how long will it take to complete

Ans
one orbit? (A) The Moon is natural; the satellite is man-
(A) 100 minutes made.
(B) 1 year This is the primary distinction. The Moon
(C) 50 minutes is Earth’s single, large, natural satellite. The
(D) 24 hours thousands of other satellites orbiting Earth are


Ans artificial, meaning they were built and launched
by humans.
(A) 100 minutes
The chapter provides typical data for low-Earth 125. When using a vertical stick to track the Sun, the
orbit satellites. It states, “Most orbit about shadow is shortest at:
800 km above Earth’s surface and take roughly (A) Local Noon
100 minutes to complete one orbit”. (B) Midnight
(C) Sunrise
122. What is the fundamental reason we can see the (D) Sunset
Moon at all?
page 320 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans (C) Solstice

(A) Local Noon (D) Amavasya
Activity 11.3 is based on this principle. The length

Ans
of a shadow is inversely related to the height of
the light source. The Sun is at its highest point in (C) Solstice
the sky at local noon, which is when it will cast Purnima (Full Moon), Amavasya (New Moon),
the shortest shadow. and Crescent are all terms for phases of the Moon.
A solstice is a point in the Earth’s orbit around
126. If a luni-solar calendar did NOT add an intercalary the Sun that marks the longest or shortest day of
month, what would happen? the year; it is related to the Sun, not the Moon’s
(A) It would have to add a leap day every year phases.
instead.
(B) Its months would slowly drift out of sync with 129. A solar eclipse occurs when the ______ passes
the seasons, just like a purely lunar calendar. between the ______ and the Earth.
(C) It would become a purely solar calendar. (A) Sun, Moon
(D) Its dates would remain perfectly aligned with (B) Moon, Sun
the seasons. (C) Earth, Sun
(D) Earth, Moon


Ans


Ans
(B) Its months would slowly drift out of sync with
the seasons, just like a purely lunar calendar. (B) Moon, Sun
The entire purpose of the intercalary month in A solar eclipse is the blocking of the Sun’s light.
a luni-solar calendar is to correct for the ~11- This can only happen when the Moon, in its
day difference between the lunar and solar years. orbit, passes directly in front of the Sun from our
Without this correction mechanism, it would perspective on Earth, casting its shadow on the
behave exactly like a lunar calendar, and its Earth.
seasons would drift.
130. Uttarayan is to northward movement as
127. Why can’t you see stars during the day, even Dakshinayan is to ______.
though they are still there? (A) stationary position
(A) Because they turn off their light during the (B) eastward movement
day. (C) southward movement
(B) Because the light from the Sun is scattered by (D) westward movement
the Earth’s atmosphere, making the sky too

Ans
bright to see the faint starlight.
(C) southward movement
(C) Because the Moon blocks their light.
The analogy relates the ancient Indian term
(D) Because they move to the other side of the
to the direction of the Sun’s apparent seasonal
world.
movement along the horizon. Uttarayan is the


Ans northward journey, and Dakshinayan is the
(B) Because the light from the Sun is scattered southward journey.
by the Earth’s atmosphere, making the sky too
131. The Indian festival of Holi is celebrated on which
bright to see the faint starlight.
day of the lunar month?
The stars are always in the sky. However, during
(A) The Crescent Moon day
the day, sunlight enters our atmosphere and is
(B) The Full Moon day
scattered in all directions by the air molecules.
(C) The New Moon day
This scattered light is extremely bright and
(D) The first day of the month
effectively washes out the much fainter light
coming from the distant stars.

Ans
(B) The Full Moon day
128. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the
The chapter explicitly gives this example, stating
Moon?
that Holi is celebrated “on the full Moon of
(A) Purnima
Phalguna”.
(B) Crescent
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

132. A student in the Northern Hemisphere notices (D) Lunar year

that the Sun is rising farther to the south each


Ans
morning in October. This is part of the Sun’s
apparent movement known as: (A) Tropical year
(A) A solar flare The “A step further” box defines the tropical year
(B) A lunar eclipse as the time between successive spring equinoxes.
(C) Dakshinayan This is the year that is aligned with the seasons
(D) Uttarayan and is the basis for the Gregorian calendar.

Ans 136. If you are observing the Moon and its illuminated
(C) Dakshinayan portion on the right side is a semi-circle, you are
Dakshinayan is the period from the June solstice seeing the:
to the December solstice when the Sun’s rising and (A) First Quarter phase
setting positions move progressively southward (B) Waning Gibbous phase
each day. October falls within this period. (C) Waxing Crescent phase
(D) Third Quarter phase
133. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the


Ans
Moon’s changing appearance?
(A) The Moon revolves around the Earth. (A) First Quarter phase
(B) The Moon’s orbit is tilted. In the Northern Hemisphere, during the waxing
(C) The Moon reflects sunlight. period (after the New Moon), the right side of the
(D) The Moon physically shrinks and grows. Moon is illuminated. A semi-circle of light on the
right side corresponds to the First Quarter phase.


Ans
(D) The Moon physically shrinks and grows. 137. The time unit ‘day’ is fundamental to all calendar
The Moon is a solid, spherical body of rock. systems because:
Its physical size and shape do not change. The (A) It is the longest astronomical cycle.
changing appearance is purely an effect of the (B) It is based on the Moon, which is easy to see.
geometry of the Sun-Earth-Moon system. (C) It was invented by the ancient Greeks.
(D) It is the most easily and universally observed
134. What is the primary difference between a natural natural cycle.
satellite and an artificial satellite?


Ans
(A) Natural satellites are visible at night, while
artificial ones are not. (D) It is the most easily and universally observed
(B) Natural satellites orbit planets, while artificial natural cycle.
satellites orbit stars. The cycle of light and darkness caused by the
(C) Natural satellites formed naturally, while Earth’s rotation is the most immediate and
artificial satellites are human-made. impactful natural cycle for all life on Earth.
(D) Natural satellites are larger than artificial Its regularity and universal nature made it the
satellites. obvious choice as the basic building block for all
systems of timekeeping.


Ans
(C) Natural satellites formed naturally, while 138. Which statement about the rule of leap years in a
artificial satellites are human-made. solar calendar is incorrect?
This is the defining difference. A natural satellite, (A) It helps keep the calendar synchronized with
like the Moon, is a celestial body that was formed the seasons.
through natural cosmic processes. An artificial (B) It involves adding an extra month every few
satellite is a machine that was built on Earth and years.
launched into orbit. (C) A leap day is typically added every four years.
(D) It is needed because the Earth’s revolution is
135. The time from one spring equinox to the next is not exactly 365 days.
called a:


Ans
(A) Tropical year
(B) Leap year (B) It involves adding an extra month every few
(C) Sidereal year years.
page 322 Class 8th Science Foundation

Adding an extra month is the correction

Ans

mechanism for a luni-solar calendar. A solar (A) Crescent Moon
calendar like the Gregorian makes its correction The “Eid-ul-Fitr is celebrated after sighting
by adding a single extra day (February 29th). the crescent Moon at the end of the month of
Ramazan”. This marks the beginning of the new
139. In India, the waxing period of the Moon is called lunar month.
______ and the waning period is called
______. 143. What does the Saha equation, developed by
(A) Purnima, Amavasya Meghnad Saha, help scientists to study?
(B) Amant, Purnimant (A) The composition and temperature of stars.
(C) Uttarayan, Dakshinayan (B) The formation of calendars.
(D) Shukla Paksha, Krishna Paksha (C) The orbits of artificial satellites.


Ans (D) The phases of the Moon.

(D) Shukla Paksha, Krishna Paksha

Ans

The chapter provides these specific traditional (A) The composition and temperature of stars.
Indian names for the two halves of the lunar The “Be a scientist” box on Meghnad Saha
month. Shukla Paksha refers to the “bright explains that he was a pioneering astrophysicist
fortnight” (waxing), and Krishna Paksha refers to who “studied stars and their temperatures and
the “dark fortnight” (waning). developed a mathematical equation, famously
known as the Saha equation” to do so.
140. Moon is to natural satellite as Cartosat is to
______. 144. Which of the following is NOT a good way to
(A) natural satellite observe an artificial satellite?
(B) star (A) Use a powerful telescope pointed at a single
(C) planet star.
(D) artificial satellite (B) Look shortly after sunset or before sunrise.


Ans (C) Go to a location with a clear view of the sky.
(D) Look for a fast, steadily moving point of light.
(D) artificial satellite
The analogy classifies objects that orbit the

Ans
Earth. The Moon is Earth’s one natural satellite. (A) Use a powerful telescope pointed at a single
Cartosat is an example of an artificial, human- star.
made satellite that also orbits the Earth. Satellites move quickly across the sky. A telescope
has a very narrow field of view, making it extremely
141. A lunar eclipse can only happen during which difficult to track a moving satellite. They are best
phase of the Moon? spotted with the naked eye or binoculars.
(A) Full Moon
(B) First Quarter 145. What is the main difference between a Purnimant
(C) New Moon and an Amant calendar?
(D) Third Quarter (A) One is used in North India, and the other is


Ans used in South India.
(B) The starting day of the month (relative to the
(A) Full Moon Full Moon or New Moon).
A lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth is directly (C) One uses leap years, and the other uses leap
between the Sun and the Moon, casting its shadow months.
on the Moon. This specific alignment can only (D) One is solar, and the other is lunar.
happen when the Moon is in the Full Moon phase.


Ans
142. The festival of Eid-ul-Fitr is celebrated after the (B) The starting day of the month (relative to the
sighting of the: Full Moon or New Moon).
(A) Crescent Moon The two types of luni-solar calendars based on
(B) Gibbous Moon their convention for starting a month. Purnimant
(C) Full Moon months end on the Full Moon (Purnima), and
(D) Half Moon Amant months end on the New Moon (Amavasya).
Pagesmith CH 11 : Keeping Time with the Skies

146. The time it takes for the Earth to complete one

Ans
rotation on its axis is the basis for the: (A) The Moon’s orbit is tilted.
(A) Day The tilt of the Moon’s orbit is the reason eclipses
(B) Month are rare. It is not the reason for the regular,
(C) Year monthly cycle of phases. The phases are caused
(D) Season by the geometry of the Moon’s revolution around


Ans the Earth.

(A) Day 150. The Moon takes about one ______ to orbit the
The chapter explicitly links the natural cycle of Earth, and the Earth takes about one ______
the Earth’s rotation to the fundamental time to orbit the Sun.
unit of the day, which forms the foundation of all (A) year, century
calendars. (B) week, month
(C) day, year
147. An ancient monument has a special opening that (D) month, year
allows sunlight to illuminate a specific mark on
the floor only on the day of the spring equinox.

Ans
This structure functions as a: (D) month, year
(A) Calendar These are the two fundamental orbital periods
(B) Satellite dish that define our common units of time. The Moon’s
(C) Telescope orbital period gives us the month, and the Earth’s
(D) Clock orbital period gives us the year.


Ans 151. First Quarter is to waxing as Third Quarter is to
(A) Calendar ______.
By marking a specific point in the solar year (A) waning
(the spring equinox), this structure serves as a (B) crescent
calendar. It allows people to track the passage of (C) full
the year and know when the seasons are changing. (D) gibbous

148. When you look at the Moon through a telescope,

Ans

you see many circular pits on its surface. These (A) waning
are: The analogy relates the half-moon phase to its
(A) Artificial satellites orbiting the Moon. position in the cycle. The First Quarter is the half-
(B) Phases of the Moon. moon that occurs during the waxing (growing)
(C) Craters caused by impacts from asteroids and period. The Third Quarter is the half-moon that
meteorites. occurs during the waning (shrinking) period.
(D) Large cities built by aliens.
152. The fact that multiple ancient cultures


Ans independently developed calendars based on
(C) Craters caused by impacts from asteroids and astronomical cycles shows that:
meteorites. (A) Timekeeping is not a scientific process.
The Moon’s surface is covered with impact (B) These cycles are universally observable and
craters. These were formed over billions of years important for human societies.
as asteroids, meteoroids, and comets struck (C) All ancient calendars were identical.
its surface. Unlike Earth, the Moon has no (D) They were all in communication with each
atmosphere or geological activity to erode them. other.

149. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the

Ans

Moon’s changing appearance? (B) These cycles are universally observable and
(A) The Moon’s orbit is tilted. important for human societies.
(B) The Moon’s distance from the Earth changes. The independent development of similar systems
(C) The Moon revolves around the Earth. points to a common human experience. The
(D) The Moon reflects sunlight. regular, predictable cycles of the Sun and Moon
were observable by everyone and were crucial for
page 324 Class 8th Science Foundation

organizing agriculture, social events, and religious 156. Which Indian mission was sent to study Mars?
ceremonies everywhere. (A) Aditya L1
(B) Mangalyaan
153. You want to observe the Full Moon. When is the (C) Chandrayaan
best time to look for it? (D) AstroSat
(A) In the middle of the afternoon
(B) Around sunset, rising in the east

Ans
(C) Just before sunrise, setting in the west (B) Mangalyaan
(D) Around sunrise Mangalyaan is explicitly identified as the Mars


Ans Orbiter Mission. Chandrayaan is for the Moon,
AstroSat is a space observatory, and Aditya L1 is
(B) Around sunset, rising in the east for the Sun.
The Full Moon is opposite the Sun in the sky.
Therefore, as the Sun sets in the west, the Full

*************
Moon will be rising in the east. It will then be
visible all night long.

154. What is the key advantage of a luni-solar calendar

over a purely solar one?
(A) It has fewer days in a year, making it simpler.
(B) It is more accurate at predicting seasons.
(C) It does not require leap years.
(D) It keeps the months aligned with the Moon’s
phases, which can be important for cultural
or religious reasons.


Ans
(D) It keeps the months aligned with the Moon’s
phases, which can be important for cultural or
religious reasons.
While a solar calendar is best for agriculture,
its months are arbitrary and do not align with
the lunar cycle. A luni-solar calendar maintains
a connection to the visible phases of the Moon,
which is often a requirement for timing festivals
and rituals in many cultures.

155. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) A tropical year and a sidereal year are exactly
the same length.
(B) The Moon rises about 50 minutes later each
day.
(C) A lunar year has about 354 days.
(D) A mean solar day is 24 hours.


Ans
(A) A tropical year and a sidereal year are exactly
the same length.
The sidereal year is about 20 minutes longer than
the tropical year. This small difference is what
causes the long-term drift between calendars
based on them.
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

CHAPTER 12
How Nature Works in Harmony

SUMMAR 3. Interactions within Ecosystems

3.1 Feeding Relationships

1. Habitats and Ecosystems Organisms in an ecosystem are classified by how
they obtain food.
1.1 Components of a Habitat 3.1.1 Producers, Consumers and Decomposers
A habitat is the natural place or environment 1. Producers (Autotrophs):Organisms, mainly
where an organism lives. It provides everything green plants, that produce their own food
an organism needs to survive, such as food, water, using sunlight through photosynthesis.
and shelter. 2. Consumers (Heterotrophs):Organisms that
Every habitat consists of two types of components: get energy by eating other organisms.
1. Biotic Components : All the living or once- 3. Herbivores : Eat only plants (e.g., deer,
living parts of a habitat, such as plants, rabbits).
animals, and microorganisms. 4. Carnivores : Eat only animals (e.g., tigers,
2. Abiotic Components : The non-living physical snakes).
and chemical parts of a habitat, such as 5. Omnivores : Eat both plants and animals
sunlight, water, soil, air, and temperature. (e.g., foxes, crows).
6. Decomposers (Saprotrophs) : Organisms like
1.2 From Habitat to Ecosystem bacteria and fungi that break down dead
An ecosystem is a system formed by the interaction plants and animals. This process, called
of the biotic community (all living things) with decomposition, recycles essential nutrients
their abiotic environment in a particular area. back into the soil, making them available for
Ecosystems can be terrestrial(like forests or producers.
grasslands) or aquatic(like ponds or rivers). They 3.1.2 Food Chains and Food Webs
can be as large as an ocean or as small as a single
1. Food Chain : A simple, linear sequence
tree.
that shows how energy is transferred when
one organism eats another (e.g., Grass
2. Levels of Organization in an
®Grasshopper ®Frog ®Snake).
Ecosystem 2. Trophic Level : The position an organism
1. Population : A group of organisms of the same occupies in a food chain. Producers are at the
species living together in the same habitat. first level, followed by consumers at higher
For example, all the fish of a single type in a levels.
pond make up a population. 3. Food Web : A more complex network of
2. Community : All the different populations many interconnected food chains within an
of plants, animals, and microorganisms that ecosystem, showing that most organisms have
live and interact with each other in the same multiple food sources.
habitat.
page 326 Class 8th Science Foundation

3.2 Other Relationships (Symbiosis)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO
Organisms interact in ways other than just eating
each other.
1. Mutualism : A relationship where both 1. What is a habitat?
organisms benefit (e.g., a bee gets nectar (A) An organism’s natural home that provides its
from a flower, and the flower gets pollinated). essential needs.
2. Commensalism : A relationship where (B) All the populations of living organisms found
one organism benefits, and the other is coexisting in a particular area.
unaffected(e.g., an orchid growing on a tree (C) The complex network of interactions between
branch for support). the biotic and abiotic components.
(D) The long-term average of weather conditions
3. Parasitism : A relationship where one
found within a specific region.
organism (the parasite) benefits, and the
other (the host) is harmed(e.g., a tick feeding

Ans
on a dog’s blood). (A) An organism’s natural home that provides its
essential needs.
4. Ecosystem Balance and Human Impact A habitat is the natural home or environment of
an animal, plant, or other organism. It provides
4.1 The Importance of Balance all the necessary conditions, both living and non-
An ecosystem is considered balanced when living, that an organism needs for its survival and
the interactions among its components keep growth.
populations and resources stable. Removing even
2. In a forest ecosystem, which of the following is an
one organism can have a cascading effect on the
example of a biotic component?
entire ecosystem, disrupting this balance. For
(A) Sunlight
example, a decline in fish can lead to an increase
(B) A deer
in the insects they eat.
(C) Soil
4.2 Human-made Disruptions (D) Water
Human activities can severely damage ecosystems.

Ans
Key threats include: (B) A deer
1. Pollution : Contaminating air, water, and Biotic components are all the living or once-living
soil. parts of an ecosystem. A deer is a living animal.
2. Deforestation and Habitat Loss : Clearing Sunlight, soil, and water are all non-living,
forests for agriculture, roads, and cities. physical factors and are therefore classified as
3. Overuse of Resources : Overfishing, over- abiotic components.
harvesting, and excessive use of groundwater.
3. Which of the following is an example of an abiotic
4. Unsustainable Farming : The overuse of component of a pond habitat?
synthetic fertilizers and pesticides can (A) Fish
degrade soil, harm beneficial microorganisms, (B) Algae
and reduce biodiversity. (C) Temperature of the water
(D) Frogs
4.3 Benefits and Conservation of Ecosystems


Ans
Healthy ecosystems provide essential benefits
to humans, including clean air, water, food, (C) Temperature of the water
medicines, and regulation of the climate. Abiotic components are the non-living chemical
Conservation efforts are crucial to protect these and physical parts of the environment that affect
benefits. This includes establishing protected are living organisms. Water temperature is a physical
as like national parks and wildlife sanctuaries condition, whereas fish, algae, and frogs are all
to preserve habitats and their wildlife for future living beings, or biotic components.
generations.
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

4. What is a population in an ecological context? The study showed an indirect effect. Fish reduced
(A) All the different types of animals living in a the population of dragonfly larvae, meaning fewer
forest. adult dragonflies. Since dragonflies eat pollinators
(B) The total number of living things in the entire like bees, fewer dragonflies meant more bees
world. survived to pollinate the nearby flowers, leading
(C) A single, individual organism living by itself. to better seed production.
(D) A group of organisms of the same kind living
together in a habitat. 7. What is an ecosystem?
(A) A group of organisms all belonging to the


Ans same species.
(D) A group of organisms of the same kind living (B) A large habitat that contains many different
together in a habitat. types of animals.
A population consists of all the individuals of a (C) Only the non-living components of a specific
single species living within a particular area at a environment.
given time. For example, all the catfish living in (D) The interaction of the biotic community with
a single pond constitute the catfish population of the abiotic components in an area.
that pond.

Ans
5. What does a community comprise in a habitat? (D) The interaction of the biotic community with
(A) Different populations of plants, animals, and the abiotic components in an area.
microorganisms living together. An ecosystem is a complex system formed by
(B) Only a single population of one type of the interaction between all the living organisms
organism. (biotic components) and their physical, non-living
(C) The abiotic components of a habitat, such as environment (abiotic components). It includes
the soil and water. all the relationships and flows of energy and
(D) Only the non-living things that are found in a nutrients.
specific location.
8. In figure the relationship between a tick and a dog,


Ans where the tick benefits by feeding on blood and
(A) Different populations of plants, animals, and the dog is harmed, is an example of ______.
microorganisms living together.
A community includes all the different populations
of various species that share the same habitat and
interact with each other. It represents the entire
living, or biotic, part of a habitat.

6. In the pond study described, there were more

flowering plants near Pond A (with fish) than
near Pond B (without fish). What was the reason
for this?
(A) The water from Pond A was a better fertilizer
for the plants.
(B) Dragonflies that were present in Pond B ate
all the flowering plants.
(C) Fish ate dragonfly larvae, leading to more Different types of interactions between organisms
pollinators like bees, which helped plants
(A) Mutualism
produce more seeds.
(B) Commensalism
(D) The fish were observed to be directly
(C) Competition
pollinating the flowers themselves.
(D) Parasitism


Ans


Ans
(C) Fish ate dragonfly larvae, leading to more
(D) Parasitism
pollinators like bees, which helped plants produce
Parasitism is a relationship where one organism
more seeds.
(the parasite) lives on or in another organism (the
page 328 Class 8th Science Foundation

host) and benefits by deriving nutrients at the

Ans

host’s expense. The tick benefits, while the dog is (D) Herbivores
harmed through blood loss and potential disease Herbivores are a type of consumer (heterotroph)
transmission. that have adapted to eat and digest only plant
matter. Examples given in the chapter include
9. What is the process called where insects like bees deer and hare.
carry pollen from one flower to another, which is
essential for fruit and seed formation? 13. Organisms that eat both plants and animals are
(A) Decomposition called:
(B) Photosynthesis (A) Omnivores
(C) Pollination (B) Herbivores
(D) Respiration (C) Carnivores


Ans (D) Producers

(C) Pollination

Ans

Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from (A) Omnivores
the male part (stamen) of a flower to the female Omnivores are consumers that have a diet
part (carpel). This process, often aided by consisting of both plant and animal matter.
pollinators like insects, is a crucial step in the The crows, foxes, and mice are as examples of
sexual reproduction of flowering plants. omnivores.

10. A forest, a farm, and a large banyan tree are all 14. What is a food chain?
examples of which type of ecosystem? (A) A simple sequence showing ‘who eats whom’
(A) Terrestrial ecosystems in an ecosystem.
(B) Human-made ecosystems (B) A complex network of all feeding relationships
(C) Aquatic ecosystems in an ecosystem.
(D) Microscopic ecosystems (C) A detailed list of all the foods that a single


Ans animal eats.
(A) Terrestrial ecosystems (D) The biological process of plants making their
Terrestrial ecosystems are those that are found on own food.
land. Forests, farms, and even a single large tree are

Ans
all land-based environments where communities of
organisms interact with their surroundings. (A) A simple sequence showing ‘who eats whom’
in an ecosystem.
11. Organisms that can make their own food using A food chain illustrates the flow of energy in an
processes like photosynthesis are called: ecosystem through a linear pathway. It starts with
(A) Decomposers or saprotrophs a producer and follows a sequence of consumers,
(B) Consumers or heterotrophs showing the direct feeding relationship between
(C) Producers or autotrophs organisms.
(D) Carnivores or herbivores
15. In the food chain Grass ® Hare ® Fox, what is


Ans the hare?
(C) Producers or autotrophs (A) A secondary consumer (carnivore)
Producers, also known as autotrophs, form (B) A primary consumer (herbivore)
the base of the food chain. They are capable (C) A producer
of producing their own food, usually through (D) A decomposer
photosynthesis, using energy from the sun. Plants
and algae are primary examples.

Ans
(B) A primary consumer (herbivore)
12. Organisms that eat only plants are called:
The food chain shows that the hare eats grass (a
(A) Carnivores
producer). An organism that eats a producer is a
(B) Omnivores
primary consumer, and since it eats a plant, it is
(C) Producers
also a herbivore.
(D) Herbivores
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

16. What is a food web? 19. “In nature, nothing is wasted—everything is

(A) An interlinked network of many different food reused.” Which group of organisms is most
chains in an ecosystem. responsible for this process?
(B) A single, linear path illustrating the flow of (A) Decomposers
energy. (B) Producers
(C) A comprehensive list of all the plants in a (C) Carnivores
specific habitat. (D) Herbivores
(D) The complete diet of a single top predator


Ans
species.
(A) Decomposers


Ans This statement refers to the process of nutrient
(A) An interlinked network of many different food cycling. Decomposers are the key players in
chains in an ecosystem. this cycle. By breaking down all dead organic
In most ecosystems, organisms have multiple food material, they ensure that the valuable nutrients
sources and are preyed upon by multiple predators. contained within are not lost but are returned to
A food web is a more realistic representation the environment to be used again by producers.
of these complex and interconnected feeding
relationships than a simple food chain. 20. The process of pollination, shown in figure, is
essential for what process in plants?
17. What is the role of decomposers like fungi and
bacteria in an ecosystem?
(A) They are autotrophs that produce organic
food from inorganic sources like sunlight.
(B) They form the first trophic level and are the
primary source of energy for herbivores.
(C) They decompose dead organic matter, which
recycles essential nutrients.
(D) They help to regulate the ecosystem by
controlling the population of top predators. Insect pollination

Ans (A) Photosynthesis

(C) They decompose dead organic matter, which (B) Respiration
recycles essential nutrients. (C) Water absorption
Decomposers, or saprotrophs, play a vital role (D) The formation of fruits and seeds
by breaking down complex organic matter from


Ans
dead organisms and waste products into simpler
nutrients. This process of decomposition is (D) The formation of fruits and seeds
essential for returning nutrients to the soil for Pollination is the transfer of pollen (containing
producers to use. male gametes) to the female part of a flower. This
is a crucial step in plant sexual reproduction,
18. What is the term for the specific position an as it leads to fertilization and the subsequent
organism occupies in a food chain? development of seeds and fruits
(A) A trophic level
(B) A habitat 21. In the 1980s, the large-scale harvesting of Indian
(C) A population bullfrogs led to what negative consequence for
(D) An ecosystem farmers?
(A) A significant decline in the population of


Ans snakes that ate the frogs.
(A) A trophic level (B) A noticeable decrease in the water level of
Each step in a food chain represents a different local ponds and streams.
trophic (feeding) level. Producers are at the (C) An increase in agricultural pests that the
first trophic level, primary consumers are at the frogs used to eat.
second, and so on. (D) An unexpected improvement in the overall
quality of the soil.
page 330 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans with access to sunlight, but it does not harm or

(C) An increase in agricultural pests that the provide any benefit to the tree it is growing on.
frogs used to eat.
25. What is the main role of competition between
The case study demonstrates the disruption of an
ecosystem’s balance. Frogs are natural predators organisms in an ecosystem?
of many insects. When the frog population was (A) It eliminates the need for predators by
drastically reduced by over-harvesting, the controlling prey.
population of their prey (agricultural pests) (B) It causes the extinction of the majority of
increased, forcing farmers to rely more on chemical species.
pesticides. (C) It helps control population sizes and keeps
the ecosystem balanced.
22. In an interaction between two organisms, both of (D) It ensures that all organisms get an equal
them benefit. What is this relationship called? share of available resources.
(A) Parasitism

Ans
(B) Mutualism
(C) Competition (C) It helps control population sizes and keeps
(D) Commensalism the ecosystem balanced.
When organisms compete for limited resources like


Ans food, water, or space, it naturally regulates their
(B) Mutualism population numbers. This competition prevents
Mutualism is a type of symbiotic relationship any single species from becoming too dominant
where both participating species derive a benefit. and using up all the resources, thus helping to
The chapter uses the example of a honeybee and a maintain the overall balance of the ecosystem.
flower: the bee gets nectar for food, and the flower
26. The Sundarbans, home to the largest mangrove
gets pollinated.
forests in the world, are a UNESCO World
23. A tick living on a dog and feeding on its blood is Heritage Site. What is a major threat to this
an example of which type of interaction? ecosystem?
(A) Predation (A) A significant increase in the native tiger
(B) Mutualism population.
(C) Commensalism (B) A gradual decrease in the average sea level of
(D) Parasitism the region.
(C) The recent introduction of several new fish


Ans
species.
(D) Parasitism (D) Deforestation, illegal hunting, and pollution.
Parasitism is a relationship where one organism


Ans
(the parasite, in this case, the tick) benefits at
the expense of the other organism (the host, the (D) Deforestation, illegal hunting, and pollution.
dog). The tick gets a meal (blood), while the dog The Sundarbans as a case study of a threatened
is harmed (skin irritation, potential disease). ecosystem. It explicitly lists the major threats
as “Mangrove trees are being cut for fuelwood
24. An orchid growing on a tree branch, where the and farming. Illegal hunting and overuse of forest
orchid benefits by getting a place to live and the resources are a threat to the wildlife... Pollution
tree is unaffected, is an example of: from industrial waste... are also damaging the
(A) Parasitism water and habitat”.
(B) Commensalism
(C) Competition 27. Which of the following is an example of a human-
(D) Mutualism made ecosystem?
(A) A fish pond


Ans
(B) A mountain range
(B) Commensalism (C) A volcanic island
Commensalism is an interaction where one (D) A deep-sea trench
organism benefits and the other is neither helped


Ans
nor harmed. The orchid gets a suitable location
(A) A fish pond
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

Human-made or artificial ecosystems are created classification as an omnivore is based on its varied
and managed by humans to meet specific needs. diet in a real ecosystem.
A fish pond is created by humans for aquaculture.
The other options are all examples of natural 30. In the food chain Grass ® Grasshopper ® Frog ®
ecosystems. Snake ® Eagle, the frog is a ______ consumer
and the eagle is a ______ consumer.
28. Which of the following is NOT a biotic component (A) primary, secondary
of a typical garden ecosystem? (B) secondary, quaternary
(A) The amount of rainfall (C) primary, quaternary
(B) Bees (D) secondary, tertiary
(C) Grass


Ans
(D) Earthworms
(B) secondary, quaternary


Ans The grasshopper (eats producer) is the primary
(A) The amount of rainfall consumer. The frog (eats primary consumer) is the
Earthworms, grass, and bees are all living secondary consumer. The snake (eats secondary
organisms, making them biotic components. consumer) is the tertiary consumer. The eagle
The amount of rainfall is a non-living, climatic (eats tertiary consumer) is the quaternary
factor, which makes it an abiotic component of consumer.
the ecosystem.
31. What was the negative environmental impact of
29. In the food web, which organism is an example of the Green Revolution’s farming methods?
an omnivore? (A) A significant increase in the overall diversity
of crops grown.
(B) An increase in the population of beneficial
insects and soil microbes.
(C) Overuse of chemicals and excessive
groundwater extraction, leading to soil
degradation.
(D) A long-term decrease in overall food
production and crop yields.


Ans
(C) Overuse of chemicals and excessive groundwater
extraction, leading to soil degradation.
While the Green Revolution increased yields, the
chapter identifies its downsides. It states that the
methods are “unsustainable because of the overuse
of synthetic chemicals, excessive groundwater
extraction, and growing only one type of crop,”
which can lead to soil degradation.

32. The practice of growing the same crop repeatedly

Food web on the same piece of land is known as:
(A) Sustainable agriculture
(A) Fox
(B) Crop rotation
(B) Rabbit
(C) Monoculture
(C) Snake
(D) Organic farming
(D) Hawk


Ans


Ans
(C) Monoculture
(A) Fox
The chapter defines this specific agricultural
The foxes as omnivores, animals that eat both
practice, stating, “Growing the same crop
plant and animal matter. While the simplified
repeatedly, known as monoculture, can reduce
diagram only shows the fox eating a rabbit, its
crop diversity and affect pollinators”.
page 332 Class 8th Science Foundation

33. Producer is to autotroph as consumer is to 36. Which statement about the flow of energy in a
______. food chain is incorrect?
(A) heterotroph (A) The sun is the ultimate source of energy for
(B) decomposer most ecosystems.
(C) habitat (B) An eagle is at a higher trophic level than a
(D) ecosystem grasshopper.


Ans (C) All the energy from one trophic level is
transferred to the next.
(A) heterotroph
(D) Energy flows from the producer to the
The analogy links the common term for a trophic
consumers.
role to its scientific equivalent. Producers, which
make their own food, are called autotrophs.

Ans
Consumers, which get food by eating others, are
(C) All the energy from one trophic level is
called heterotrophs.
transferred to the next.
34. What is the ancient liquid fertilizer mentioned Energy transfer between trophic levels is very
in the “Our scientific heritage” box, made from inefficient. A large portion of energy is lost as
animal and plant waste? heat at each level due to metabolic processes, or is
(A) Mishraloha uneaten. Only a small fraction (typically around
(B) Kamsya 10%) of the energy from one level is incorporated
(C) Vrikshayurveda into the next.
(D) Kunapa Jala
37. What is the main difference between a habitat


Ans and a niche?
(D) Kunapa Jala (A) A habitat is the organism’s address; a niche is
The chapter highlights the ancient text its profession or role in the ecosystem.
Vrikshayurveda and its emphasis on soil health. (B) A habitat is for animals; a niche is for plants.
It specifically mentions the use of organic manure (C) A habitat is large; a niche is small.
like “Kunapa Jala (a liquid fertiliser made (D) There is no difference; they are the same
from animal and plant waste by the process of thing.
fermentation)”.


Ans
35. If all decomposers were to disappear from (A) A habitat is the organism’s address; a niche is
an ecosystem, what would be the most likely its profession or role in the ecosystem.
consequence? A habitat is simply the place where an organism
(A) The number of consumers would increase due lives. A niche is a much broader concept that
to more available food. includes not just its habitat, but also its role in
(B) Dead organic matter and waste would pile the food web, its interactions with other species,
up, and nutrients would not be recycled. and its impact on the environment.
(C) The number of producers would increase
dramatically with no competition. 38. An organism is an individual, a group of the same
(D) The ecosystem would become much cleaner organisms is a ______, and all the different
and more organized. groups together form a ______.


Ans (A) ecosystem, habitat
(B) community, population
(B) Dead organic matter and waste would pile up, (C) habitat, ecosystem
and nutrients would not be recycled. (D) population, community
Decomposers are essential for breaking down
dead organisms and waste products. Without

Ans
them, this material would accumulate. More (D) population, community
importantly, the vital nutrients locked within this A single living being is an individual. A collection
dead matter would not be returned to the soil, of these individuals of the same species forms
eventually leading to the collapse of the ecosystem a population. The collection of all the different
as producers run out of nutrients. populations in an area makes up the community.
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

39. The relationship between Rhizobium bacteria and (B) Because all organisms in an ecosystem
a pea plant is an example of mutualism because: are interconnected through feeding and other
(A) The plant gets usable nitrogen, and the relationships.
bacteria get shelter and food from the plant. The pond study and the bullfrog example both
(B) The plant benefits from the nitrogen, but the illustrate the principle of interconnectedness. The
bacteria are unaffected by the interaction. removal of one species can disrupt the food web,
(C) The bacteria harm the plant by taking leading to population explosions of its prey (like
essential nutrients from its roots. pests) and population declines of its predators,
(D) The plant is harmed by the bacteria, but the causing a chain reaction of imbalance.
bacteria benefit from the relationship.
42. Which of the following is NOT an ecosystem


Ans service provided by forests?
(A) The plant gets usable nitrogen, and the (A) Providing fresh air
bacteria get shelter and food from the plant. (B) Producing synthetic pesticides
This is a classic example of mutualism, where both (C) Providing food, timber, and medicines
species benefit. The pea plant receives essential (D) Providing fertile soil
nitrogen compounds that the bacteria produce.

Ans
In return, the plant provides the bacteria with
carbohydrates (food) and a protected environment (B) Producing synthetic pesticides
(the root nodules). Ecosystem services are the benefits humans receive
from natural ecosystems. Fresh air, soil fertility,
40. Which of the following is a true statement about food, and timber are all natural products or
ecosystems? processes of a healthy forest. Synthetic pesticides
(A) Ecosystems can be of various sizes, from a are artificial chemicals manufactured by humans.
large forest to a small pond.
(B) Human activities always have a positive and 43. In figure the hawk flying in the sky is a biotic
beneficial impact on ecosystems. component. Its interaction with the sunlight,
(C) All ecosystems are large, such as vast forests which allows it to see its prey, is an example of an
and expansive oceans. interaction between ______.
(D) An ecosystem only includes the living (biotic)
components of a particular area.


Ans
(A) Ecosystems can be of various sizes, from a
large forest to a small pond.
The “ecosystems can be large or small”. It gives
examples ranging from a vast forest to a simple
pond or even a single large tree, demonstrating
the scalability of the concept.

41. Why can the loss of a single species, like the

Indian bullfrog, have a cascading effect on an Biotic and abiotic interactions
entire ecosystem?
(A) Two biotic components
(A) Because all other species in the ecosystem are
(B) A biotic and an abiotic component
emotionally attached to it.
(C) Two abiotic components
(B) Because all organisms in an ecosystem are
(D) A producer and a consumer
interconnected through feeding and other
relationships.

Ans
(C) Because the lost species was the only source (B) A biotic and an abiotic component
of food for all other species in the habitat. The hawk is a living (biotic) organism. The
(D) Because the loss of a single species causes the sunlight is a non-living (abiotic) factor. The
overall habitat to become smaller in size. hawk’s use of sunlight to hunt represents a direct


Ans interaction between a living component and a
non-living component of the ecosystem.
page 334 Class 8th Science Foundation

44. Who was the famous Indian wildlife biologist who (D) Because it shows the complex and multiple
helped us understand forest ecosystems? feeding relationships that actually exist.
(A) C.V. Raman A food chain is an oversimplification. In reality,
(B) Asima Chatterjee most animals eat a variety of foods and are eaten
(C) A.J.T. Johnsingh by a variety of predators. A food web captures
(D) Meghnad Saha this complexity by showing how multiple food
chains are interconnected.


Ans
(C) A.J.T. Johnsingh 48. Which of the following is NOT a good reason for
The “Be a scientist” box is dedicated to Asir promoting sustainable farming practices?
Jawahar Thomas Johnsingh (A.J.T. Johnsingh). (A) To conserve water and protect biodiversity.
It credits him as a pioneer in studying wildlife (B) To reduce the use of synthetic chemicals that
and understanding predator-prey relationships in can harm the environment.
Indian forest ecosystems. (C) To increase the resistance of pests to
pesticides.
45. Biotic is to living as abiotic is to ______. (D) To protect soil health and prevent degradation.
(A) plant
(B) animal

Ans
(C) interacting (C) To increase the resistance of pests to
(D) non-living pesticides.
Increasing pest resistance is a negative consequence


Ans
of the overuse of pesticides, which is a feature
(D) non-living of unsustainable farming. Sustainable practices
The analogy relates a term to its definition. Biotic aim to reduce the need for pesticides and thereby
components are defined as the living parts of an avoid the problem of resistance.
ecosystem. Abiotic components are defined as the
non-living parts of an ecosystem. 49. All the different populations of organisms living
and interacting in the same habitat form a(n):
46. In a food web, an owl eats a mouse, and the mouse (A) Population
eats grass. What is the trophic level of the owl? (B) Ecosystem
(A) Secondary consumer (C) Community
(B) Producer (D) Individual
(C) Decomposer
(D) Primary consumer

Ans
(C) Community


Ans
A community specifically refers to all the living
(A) Secondary consumer (biotic) components—the collection of all plant,
The grass is the producer (first trophic level). animal, and microbe populations—that live and
The mouse eats the grass, making it the primary interact in a particular area.
consumer (second trophic level). The owl eats the
mouse, making it a secondary consumer (third 50. What is one of the main reasons elephants wander
trophic level). into human farms and villages?
(A) They are trying to escape from predators in
47. Why is a food web a more accurate representation the forest.
of an ecosystem than a single food chain? (B) Scarcity of food and water in their natural
(A) Because it is much easier to draw and forest habitat.
understand. (C) They are naturally domesticated animals that
(B) Because it also includes the abiotic seek human contact.
components like water and soil. (D) They are attracted to the bright lights of the
(C) Because most organisms in an ecosystem eat village at night.
only one type of food.
(D) Because it shows the complex and multiple

Ans
feeding relationships that actually exist. (B) Scarcity of food and water in their natural
forest habitat.


Ans
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

The introductory story explains this as the root

Ans

cause of the conflict. It states, “When vegetation (D) Increased antibiotic resistance
is scarce and waterholes dry up in their natural The chapter lists many benefits (ecosystem
habitat, elephants may wander in to nearby farms services) we get from nature, including clean air,
or plantations in search of food”. water, food, and climate regulation. Antibiotic
resistance is a major health threat, often worsened
51. What is the main purpose of an “elephant by environmental pollution, not a benefit from a
corridor”? healthy ecosystem.
(A) To be a protected area where elephants are
kept in captivity. 54. A ______ eats only plants, while a ______
(B) To create a large, specialized farm for growing eats only other animals.
food for elephants. (A) carnivore, herbivore
(C) To provide a designated area for tourists to (B) producer, omnivore
safely view elephants. (C) herbivore, carnivore
(D) To allow safe movement of elephants between (D) omnivore, producer
forest habitats without conflict with humans.


Ans


Ans
(C) herbivore, carnivore
(D) To allow safe movement of elephants between These are the specific definitions for different
forest habitats without conflict with humans. types of consumers based on their diet. Herbivores
The introduction explains that wildlife ecologists are plant-eaters. Carnivores are meat-eaters.
have identified these corridors “to allow safe
movement of animals.” They connect larger forest 55. What is the main difference between a terrestrial
areas, enabling wildlife to travel between them and an aquatic ecosystem?
without entering human settlements. (A) Terrestrial ecosystems have animals; aquatic
ecosystems have plants.
52. The relationship between a predator (like a fox) (B) Terrestrial ecosystems are small; aquatic
and its prey (like a rabbit) is an example of a ecosystems are large.
biotic-biotic interaction that helps to: (C) Terrestrial ecosystems are on land; aquatic
(A) Control the population of both species and ecosystems are in water.
maintain balance. (D) Terrestrial ecosystems are human-made;
(B) Increase the overall population of the prey aquatic ecosystems are natural.
species.


Ans
(C) Eliminate the prey species completely from
the habitat. (C) Terrestrial ecosystems are on land; aquatic
(D) Provide an essential food source for the ecosystems are in water.
producers. This is the fundamental distinction between
the two main types of ecosystems. Terrestrial


Ans
ecosystems are land-based (like forests or
(A) Control the population of both species and grasslands), while aquatic ecosystems are water-
maintain balance. based (like ponds, rivers, or oceans).
Predation is a key interaction for ecosystem
stability. Predators help control the population 56. In the food pyramid activity, which organisms
of prey, preventing them from overgrazing. are at the base of the pyramid (the first trophic
The availability of prey, in turn, controls the level)?
population of the predator. This maintains a (A) The decomposers
dynamic balance. (B) The millet (a grain plant)
(C) The mouse
53. Which of the following is NOT a benefit humans (D) The eagle
get from healthy ecosystems?


Ans
(A) Clean air and water
(B) Climate regulation (B) The millet (a grain plant)
(C) Food and medicines The base of any ecological pyramid of numbers
(D) Increased antibiotic resistance or energy is always occupied by the producers. In
this crop field food chain, the millet plant is the
page 336 Class 8th Science Foundation

producer that makes its own food, supporting all (C) A lion hunting a zebra.
other levels. (D) A bee pollinating a flower.

57. A farmer is practicing sustainable agriculture.

Ans

Which of the following actions would they most (A) A plant absorbing sunlight for photosynthesis.
likely take? Biotic-biotic interactions occur between two or
(A) Use organic manure and practice crop more living organisms. The other three options are
rotation. all examples of this. A plant absorbing sunlight is
(B) Grow only one type of crop year after year on a biotic-abiotic interaction, as the plant (biotic) is
the same land. interacting with sunlight (an abiotic component).
(C) Remove all trees and hedges around the farm
to maximize space. 60. An organism’s place in the ecosystem is its
(D) Use large amounts of synthetic fertilizers and ______, and the group of all living things in
chemical pesticides. that place is the ______.
(A) niche, ecosystem


Ans (B) community, population
(A) Use organic manure and practice crop (C) habitat, community
rotation. (D) population, habitat
Sustainable farming aims to work in harmony with


Ans
natural ecosystems. Using organic manure (like
Kunapa Jala) recycles nutrients and improves (C) habitat, community
soil health. Crop rotation helps to maintain soil A habitat is the specific place or environment
fertility and break pest cycles, reducing the need where an organism lives. The community is the
for chemicals. term for all the different populations of living
organisms that share that habitat.
58. Why is it stated that an ecosystem can be as
small as a single large tree? 61. Mutualism is to +/+ as parasitism is to
(A) This statement is incorrect; an ecosystem ______.
must be very large to be stable. (A) -/-
(B) Because a tree is the most important part of (B) +/0
any larger ecosystem. (C) +/-
(C) Because a single tree can be a habitat for (D) 0/0
many different populations (insects, birds,

Ans
mosses) that interact with each other and
(C) +/-
with abiotic factors (sunlight, rain).
The analogy uses symbols to represent the
(D) Because a tree is a living organism and
outcome for the two interacting organisms. In
therefore a complete system.
mutualism (+/+), both benefit. In parasitism


Ans (+/-), one organism (the parasite) benefits, while
(C) Because a single tree can be a habitat for many the other (the host) is harmed.
different populations (insects, birds, mosses) that
62. The overuse of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides
interact with each other and with abiotic factors
was a major feature of what period in agricultural
(sunlight, rain).
history?
A single large tree meets all the criteria for an
(A) The Industrial Revolution
ecosystem. It provides a habitat for a community
(B) The Information Age
of different organisms (biotic components) which
(C) The Stone Age
interact with each other and with the non-
(D) The Green Revolution
living (abiotic) environment of the tree and its
immediate surroundings.

Ans
(D) The Green Revolution
59. Which of the following is NOT a type of biotic-
The Green Revolution as the period in the
biotic interaction?
mid-20th century when new farming methods,
(A) A plant absorbing sunlight for photosynthesis.
including the widespread use of synthetic fertilizers
(B) Two birds competing for the same nest site.
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

and pesticides, were introduced to increase food 66. What is the main difference between a producer
production. and a decomposer?
(A) A producer is at the top of the food chain; a
63. If the population of deer in a forest suddenly decomposer is at the bottom.
increases, what is a likely immediate effect on the (B) A producer creates organic matter from
forest’s biotic community? inorganic matter; a decomposer breaks down
(A) The population of tigers (their predator) will organic matter into inorganic matter.
immediately decrease. (C) A producer is a plant, while a decomposer is
(B) The number of birds that nest in the trees always a type of animal.
will decrease. (D) There is no difference, as they both play a
(C) The number of decomposers in the soil will role in recycling nutrients.
increase.
(D) The amount of grass and shrubs (their food)

Ans
will decrease. (B) A producer creates organic matter from


Ans inorganic matter; a decomposer breaks down
organic matter into inorganic matter.
(D) The amount of grass and shrubs (their food) They are at opposite ends of the nutrient cycle.
will decrease. Producers (like plants) use sunlight, water,
Deer are herbivores that feed on plants like grass and CO2 to build complex organic molecules.
and shrubs. A rapid increase in the deer population Decomposers (like fungi) take complex organic
would lead to overgrazing, causing a significant molecules from dead organisms and break
and immediate reduction in the amount of this them down into simple inorganic nutrients that
vegetation. producers can use again.
64. The Sundarbans mangrove forests are described 67. Which of the following is an example of an
as protecting coastal areas from storms. This is organism at the third trophic level?
an example of a(n): (A) Grass
(A) Ecosystem service (B) A frog that eats the grasshopper
(B) Food chain (C) A snake that eats the frog
(C) Human-made ecosystem (D) A grasshopper that eats grass
(D) Trophic level


Ans


Ans
(B) A frog that eats the grasshopper
(A) Ecosystem service Trophic levels are numbered starting with
Ecosystem services are the beneficial functions producers at level 1. Grass is level 1 (producer).
that natural ecosystems provide to humans. The The grasshopper is level 2 (primary consumer).
ability of the mangrove forest to act as a natural The frog, which eats the primary consumer, is at
barrier, slowing down strong winds and waves and level 3 (secondary consumer).
thus protecting human settlements, is a critical
ecosystem service. 68. A farmer notices that using a certain pesticide is
becoming less effective over time. This is likely
65. Which of the following is NOT an example of a due to:
consumer? (A) The pesticide degrading more quickly in the
(A) A lion soil over time.
(B) A mushroom (B) The crops becoming immune to the effects of
(C) A human the pesticide.
(D) A cow (C) The pesticide washing away in the rain more


Ans easily each year.
(D) The pests developing resistance to the
(B) A mushroom
pesticide.
A mushroom is a type of fungus. Fungi are not
consumers in the traditional sense of eating living

Ans
things; they are decomposers (saprotrophs) that (D) The pests developing resistance to the
obtain nutrients by breaking down dead organic pesticide.
matter. Lions, cows and humans are all consumers.
page 338 Class 8th Science Foundation

This problem associated with unsustainable A tree is a plant that produces its own food
farming. ”Some pests may develop resistance through photosynthesis, making it a producer.
to pesticides, making them difficult to control”. A mushroom is a fungus that breaks down dead
Through natural selection, pests that survive the organic matter, making it a decomposer.
chemical treatment pass on their resistant traits,
leading to a resistant population. 72. Match the level of ecological organization with its
correct definition.
69. Why are food chains in most ecosystems relatively
short (usually 4-5 trophic levels)? Column A Column B
(A) Because decomposers eat everything before 1 Population A All the different groups
the chain can get longer. of organisms living and
(B) Because there are not enough different types interacting in the same
of animals to make them longer. area.
(C) Because predators at the top of the chain are 2 Community B A group of organisms
not efficient enough hunters. of the same kind living
(D) Because a large amount of energy is lost at together in a specific
each trophic level. habitat.


Ans 3 Ecosystem C The specific place where
(D) Because a large amount of energy is lost at an organism lives, which
each trophic level. provides for its needs.
Energy transfer between trophic levels is very 4 Habitat D The interaction between
inefficient (only about 10% is passed on). After a all the living things and
few transfers, there is simply not enough energy the non-living things in
remaining to support a viable population at a an area.
higher trophic level.
Options
70. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
a habitat? (b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
(A) It provides food for the organism. (c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
(B) It includes both biotic and abiotic components. (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(C) It provides shelter and space for an organism

Ans
to grow.
(D) It is the specific role an organism plays in its (c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
environment. A population is a group of the same species. A
community includes all the different populations


Ans in an area. An ecosystem includes the community
(D) It is the specific role an organism plays in its plus the non-living environment. A habitat is the
environment. specific home of an organism.
A habitat is the “address” or physical place where
73. Bee and flower is to mutualism as orchid and tree
an organism lives. The specific role or “profession”
an organism has within that habitat (what it eats, is to ______.
how it interacts) is its niche, a different ecological (A) commensalism
concept. (B) predation
(C) competition
71. A ______ is an example of a producer, and a (D) parasitism
______ is an example of a decomposer.

Ans
(A) deer, lion
(B) fish, frog (A) commensalism
(C) mushroom, tree The analogy compares two types of biotic
(D) tree, mushroom interactions. The bee-flower relationship is
mutualism, where both benefit. The orchid-tree


Ans relationship is commensalism, where one benefits
(D) tree, mushroom (the orchid) and the other is unaffected (the tree).
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

74. What is the term for all the living beings in a (B) Elephants searching for food like sugarcane
habitat? on farms.
(A) The biotic components (C) Construction of roads and buildings
(B) The abiotic components fragmenting habitats.
(C) The population (D) Shrinking and drying of forest habitats.
(D) The ecosystem


Ans


Ans (A) A planned effort by elephants to take over
(A) The biotic components human villages.
The biotic components are all the living The conflict is presented as a consequence of
organisms—plants, animals, and microorganisms. environmental pressure, not a deliberate act
of aggression by elephants. It is a result of
75. A bird builds its nest in a tree. The bird benefits their natural habitats being unable to support
from the shelter, and the tree is not harmed. This them, forcing them to seek resources in human-
interaction is an example of: dominated areas.
(A) Competition
(B) Parasitism 78. What is the main difference between a herbivore
(C) Commensalism and a carnivore?
(D) Mutualism (A) Herbivores are primary consumers; carnivores
are secondary or tertiary consumers.


Ans
(B) Both A and B are correct.
(C) Commensalism (C) Herbivores are large animals; carnivores are
This is another example of commensalism. The small animals.
bird receives a benefit (a safe place to build a (D) Herbivores eat plants; carnivores eat animals.
nest), but its presence does not significantly help
or harm the tree.

Ans
(B) Both A and B are correct.
76. Why is biodiversity (a wide variety of different The terms describe both diet and trophic level. A
species) important for the stability of an herbivore’s diet consists of plants, which places it
ecosystem? at the trophic level of a primary consumer (since
(A) It increases the amount of competition to a it eats producers). A carnivore’s diet consists of
dangerous and unsustainable level. other animals, placing it at higher trophic levels
(B) It provides more complex food webs and (secondary, tertiary, etc.).
alternative pathways for energy flow.
(C) It decreases the total number of decomposers 79. An example of a food chain in a grassland
present in the soil. ecosystem is: Grass ® Grasshopper ® Frog ® ?
(D) It makes the ecosystem look more interesting ® Eagle. What organism is eaten by the eagle?
and aesthetically pleasing. (A) Mouse
(B) Snake


Ans (C) Fox
(B) It provides more complex food webs and (D) Hare
alternative pathways for energy flow.

Ans
An ecosystem with high biodiversity has a more
(B) Snake
intricate food web. If one species declines, the
The specific food chain to illustrate the concept:
predators that fed on it have alternative food
Grass is eaten by the grasshopper, which is eaten
sources, and the organisms it preyed upon are still
by the frog. The frog is then eaten by the snake,
controlled by other predators. This redundancy
and the snake is eaten by the eagle.
makes the entire system more resilient to
disturbances. 80. You observe a mushroom growing on a dead,
fallen log. The mushroom is acting as a:
77. Which of the following is NOT a reason why
(A) Decomposer
human-elephant conflict occurs?
(B) Parasite
(A) A planned effort by elephants to take over
(C) Producer
human villages.
(D) Primary consumer
page 340 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans it by consuming other organisms, making them

(A) Decomposer consumers.
Mushrooms are a type of fungus that obtains
84. Match the organism with its correct role in the
nutrients by breaking down dead organic material.
By growing on the dead log, it is playing the ecosystem’s food chain.
ecological role of a decomposer, recycling the log’s Column A Column B
nutrients.
1 Producer A An animal that feeds only
81. If a habitat has only one type of living organism, on other animals, such as
what problem would likely arise? a leopard.
(A) All individuals would compete for the exact 2 Herbivore B An organism, like fungi or
same resources, leading to scarcity. bacteria, that breaks down
(B) The organism would have no predators to dead organic matter.
control its population.
(C) There would be no decomposers available to 3 Carnivore C An organism, like a
recycle any waste. green plant, that makes
(D) The habitat would become too quiet and its own food through
peaceful for survival. photosynthesis.

Ans 4 Decomposer D An animal that feeds only

on plants, such as a deer.
(A) All individuals would compete for the exact
Options :
same resources, leading to scarcity.
(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
”If all organisms are the same, they would have
(b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
the same requirements—food, water, space—
(c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
leading to competition and possible scarcity of
(d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
resources”.


Ans
82. Which of the following is NOT an abiotic factor
in an ecosystem? (a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
(A) The bacteria in the soil. A producer makes its own food. A herbivore
(B) The type of soil. eats plants, while a carnivore eats animals. A
(C) The intensity of sunlight. decomposer recycles nutrients by breaking down
(D) The temperature of the air. dead material.

Ans 85. Population is to one species as ______ is to all

species in a habitat.
(A) The bacteria in the soil.
(A) individual
Abiotic factors are non-living. Sunlight,
(B) habitat
temperature, and soil type are all non-living
(C) community
components. Bacteria are living microorganisms,
(D) ecosystem
making them a biotic component of the soil
ecosystem.

Ans

83. In an ecosystem, plants are ______ because (C) community

they make their own food, and animals are The analogy relates a term to the number of
______ because they eat other organisms. species it includes. A population refers to all the
(A) autotrophs, decomposers individuals of a single species. A community refers
(B) consumers, producers to all the individuals of all the different species
(C) herbivores, carnivores living together in a habitat.
(D) producers, consumers 86. What is the term for a human-created ecosystem


Ans like a park or an agricultural farm?
(A) An artificial ecosystem
(D) producers, consumers
(B) A natural ecosystem
Plants, through photosynthesis, are the producers
(C) A terrestrial ecosystem
of organic matter in most ecosystems. Animals
(D) A balanced ecosystem
cannot produce their own food and must obtain
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

Ans ratio by mass. Variable ratios are a characteristic

(A) An artificial ecosystem of mixtures.
The distinguishes between natural ecosystems
90. What is the main difference between an ecosystem
and those created by people, stating, “Humans
have created artificial ecosystems like fish ponds, and a community?
farms, and parks to meet their needs”. (A) An ecosystem is always much larger than a
community.
87. A bird called an oxpecker eats ticks off the back (B) An ecosystem includes abiotic factors, while a
of a rhinoceros. The oxpecker gets food, and the community includes only biotic factors.
rhino gets rid of parasites. This is an example of: (C) An ecosystem includes only animals, while a
(A) Competition community includes both plants and animals.
(B) Mutualism (D) There is no significant difference between the
(C) Commensalism two terms.
(D) Parasitism

Ans


Ans (B) An ecosystem includes abiotic factors, while a
(B) Mutualism community includes only biotic factors.
This is a classic example of mutualism, where A community is the collection of all living
both species benefit. The oxpecker gets a meal, populations in an area. An ecosystem is a broader
and the rhinoceros is cleaned of harmful parasites. concept that includes the community plus all
the non-living (abiotic) components of the
88. Why does the chapter state that even a single environment with which they interact.
large tree can be considered an ecosystem?
(A) Because it is part of a larger forest ecosystem. 91. In a pond habitat, fish obtain ______ needs
(B) Because it is a primary producer in the food like food from small plants and animals, and
chain. ______ needs like oxygen from the water.
(C) Because it contains both biotic (insects, birds, (A) community, population
moss) and abiotic (sunlight, water on leaves) (B) biotic, abiotic
components that interact. (C) living, non-living
(D) Because it is a living organism and is therefore (D) abiotic, biotic
a complete system.

Ans


Ans (B) biotic, abiotic
(C) Because it contains both biotic (insects, birds, Food, which comes from other living things,
moss) and abiotic (sunlight, water on leaves) fulfills a biotic need. Oxygen, which is a non-
components that interact. living chemical substance dissolved in the water,
An ecosystem is defined by the interaction of fulfills an abiotic need.
living and non-living parts. A large tree provides
92. What has led to the shrinking and drying of
a habitat for a community of organisms and has
its own set of abiotic conditions, thus functioning forests, the natural home of elephants?
as a small, self-contained ecosystem. (A) An increase in the overall elephant population.
(B) The migration of other large animals into the
89. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a forests.
compound? (C) A series of long and unexpected droughts.
(A) The components are chemically bonded. (D) Changes in rainfall and temperature, and the
(B) The components can be mixed in any ratio. cutting down of trees for roads and buildings.
(C) It cannot be separated by physical means.

Ans
(D) A new substance with new properties is
formed. (D) Changes in rainfall and temperature, and the
cutting down of trees for roads and buildings.


Ans The introduction lists multiple factors contributing
(B) The components can be mixed in any ratio. to habitat loss. It mentions that “Changes
A defining feature of a compound is that its in rainfall and temperature affect vegetation.
constituent elements are always present in a fixed Cutting down trees for constructing roads and
buildings makes it worse”.
page 342 Class 8th Science Foundation

93. A spider builds a web between the branches of a The trophic levels starting from the base.
bush. The spider benefits from having a place to ”Producers (like green plants) are at the first
catch its food, while the bush is largely unaffected. trophic level”. They are the foundation of the food
This is an example of: chain as they create the initial organic energy.
(A) Mutualism
(B) Commensalism 97. The relationship between a clownfish that lives
(C) Parasitism safely among the tentacles of a sea anemone
(D) Competition (which is unaffected) is an example of:
(A) Commensalism


Ans (B) Mutualism
(B) Commensalism (C) Parasitism
This relationship fits the +/0 pattern of (D) Competition
commensalism. The spider gains a significant

Ans
advantage (a structure to build its web), but the
bush is neither helped nor harmed by the presence (A) Commensalism
of the web. This is a classic example of commensalism. The
clownfish gains protection from predators by
94. If a farmer repeatedly uses the same pesticide, living within the stinging tentacles, to which it
some pests may survive and reproduce. Over time, is immune. The sea anemone is not significantly
the pest population will be mostly made up of helped or harmed by the clownfish’s presence.
individuals who are not affected by the pesticide.
This is an example of: 98. Why is it important to have “wildlife corridors”?
(A) The development of resistance (A) They are paths used by wildlife ecologists to
(B) A stable food chain study animals.
(C) Mutualism (B) They connect fragmented habitats, allowing
(D) Decomposition animals to move safely for food and breeding.
(C) They are scenic routes designed for tourists to


Ans view wildlife.
(A) The development of resistance (D) They are areas where wildlife is kept in large
It states that “Some pests may develop resistance enclosures.
to pesticides, making them difficult to control”.

Ans
This is an example of natural selection, where the
pesticide acts as a selective pressure. (B) They connect fragmented habitats, allowing
animals to move safely for food and breeding.
95. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Human development often breaks large habitats
terrestrial ecosystem? into smaller, isolated patches. Wildlife corridors
(A) A grassland are strips of natural habitat that link these
(B) A forest patches, allowing animals to migrate, find mates,
(C) A desert and access a wider range of resources without
(D) A river crossing dangerous human-dominated landscapes.


Ans 99. Which of the following is NOT an interaction
(D) A river between biotic and abiotic components?
Terrestrial ecosystems are land-based. A river is a (A) A fish using dissolved oxygen from the water.
flowing body of water, which makes it an example (B) Earthworms living in moist soil.
of an aquatic ecosystem. (C) A plant absorbing water from the soil.
(D) A frog eating an insect.
96. Who is at the first trophic level in a food chain?
(A) Herbivores

Ans
(B) Decomposers (D) A frog eating an insect.
(C) Carnivores A frog (biotic) eating an insect (biotic) is an
(D) Producers example of a biotic-biotic interaction (predation).
The other options all describe an interaction


Ans
between a living organism (biotic) and a non-
(D) Producers living part of its environment (abiotic).
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

100. Match the ecological term with its correct (A) individuals, non-living
definition. (B) habitats, biotic
(C) ecosystems, living
Column A Column B (D) populations, abiotic
1 Biotic A A network of

Ans
Component interconnected feeding
relationships. (D) populations, abiotic
The ecological hierarchy this way. A community
2 Abiotic B A simple sequence is the sum of all the different populations in an
Component showing ‘who eats area. An ecosystem is the community combined
whom’. with all the non-living (abiotic) factors of the
3 Food Chain C The living organisms in environment.
a habitat.
103. In the pond study, what did the fish eat?
4 Food Web D The non-living physical (A) Other fish
and chemical factors of (B) Dragonfly larvae
a habitat. (C) Flowering plants
Options (D) Bees and butterflies
(a) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B


Ans
(b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D (B) Dragonfly larvae
(d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C The explanation of the pond study explicitly
states, “Fish eat dragonfly larvae, so ponds with


Ans
fish had fewer dragonflies”. This was the key
(b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A interaction that led to the cascading effects on
The biotic components of an ecosystem are the the ecosystem.
living parts, while the abiotic components are the
non-living parts. A food chain is a simple feeding 104. A gardener adds a compost pile of dead leaves and
sequence, and a food web is a complex network of vegetable scraps to their garden. Over time, this
these chains. improves the soil. This is because of the action of:
(A) Herbivores
101. What is the main difference between producers (B) Decomposers
and consumers? (C) Producers
(A) Producers make their own food, while (D) Predators
consumers obtain food by eating other


Ans
organisms.
(B) Producers live on land, and consumers live in (B) Decomposers
water. The compost pile is a rich source of organic
(C) Producers are animals, and consumers are matter. Decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi,
plants. break down this dead material, releasing essential
(D) Producers are small, and consumers are large. nutrients into the soil and creating humus, which
improves soil structure and fertility.


Ans
(A) Producers make their own food, while 105. What does the term “balance in an ecosystem”
consumers obtain food by eating other organisms. mean?
This is the fundamental difference in their method (A) That the ecosystem never changes from its
of obtaining energy. Producers (autotrophs) original state.
are self-sufficient, creating their own organic (B) That interactions among organisms keep
compounds. Consumers (heterotrophs) must populations and resources relatively stable
ingest other organisms to get their energy and over time.
organic matter. (C) That the number of plants is always exactly
equal to the number of animals.
102. A community is made up of different ______, (D) That all organisms in the habitat have the
and an ecosystem is made up of a community plus same weight.
its ______ components.
page 344 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans 109. What is the term for an organism, like a plant,

(B) That interactions among organisms keep that can produce its own food?
populations and resources relatively stable over (A) Heterotroph
time. (B) Autotroph
An ecosystem’s balance is dynamic, not static. It (C) Saprotroph
refers to a state of equilibrium where processes (D) Consumer
like predation, competition, and nutrient cycling

Ans
work to keep the populations of different species
and the availability of resources within a stable (B) Autotroph
range. An organism that is a producer is also called an
autotroph, which means “self-feeder” (auto =
106. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of self, troph = food).
unsustainable farming practices mentioned?
(A) Soil degradation 110. Which of the following is NOT an example of an
ecosystem?
(B) Reduction in crop diversity due to monoculture
(A) A pond
(C) An increase in the population of beneficial
(B) A forest
microbes
(C) An agricultural farm
(D) Pests developing resistance to pesticides (D) A population of deer


Ans

Ans
(C) An increase in the population of beneficial (D) A population of deer
microbes A population is just one component of an
The overuse of synthetic chemicals can harm ecosystem. An ecosystem must include the entire
the soil by decreasing the population of friendly community of different populations (all biotic
microorganisms, which are important for soil factors) and their interaction with the non-living
health and fertility. abiotic factors.
107. Lion is to carnivore as deer is to ______. 111. Match the type of interaction between two
(A) producer organisms with its correct description.
(B) omnivore
(C) decomposer Column A Column B
(D) herbivore 1 Mutualism A A relationship where


Ans one organism benefits
and the other is
(D) herbivore
harmed, such as a tick
The analogy classifies organisms based on their
on a dog.
diet. A lion is a classic example of a carnivore
(meat-eater). A deer is a classic example of a 2 Commensalism B An interaction where
herbivore (plant-eater). both organisms benefit
from each other, like a
108. The introductory story of the chapter highlights bee and a flower.
the conflict between humans and which animal?
(A) Elephants 3 Parasitism C An interaction where
(B) Tigers organisms struggle
(C) Monkeys for the same limited
(D) Snakes resources like food,
water, or space.


Ans
(A) Elephants 4 Competition D A relationship where
The opening paragraphs of the chapter focus one organism benefits,
entirely on the issue of elephants entering farms and the other is
and villages in several Indian states due to habitat unaffected, like an
loss and resource scarcity. orchid growing on a
tree.
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

Options

Ans
(a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B (B) Competition
(b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C Competition occurs when two or more organisms
(c) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B require the same limited resource. Since both the
(d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A rabbit and the mouse rely on grass as their food


Ans source, they are in competition with each other
for that resource.
(b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
Mutualism is when both organisms benefit. 114. What is the main difference between an autotroph
Commensalism is when one benefits and the other and a heterotroph?
is unaffected. Parasitism is when one benefits by (A) Autotrophs are decomposers; heterotrophs
harming the other. Competition occurs when are producers.
organisms need the same limited resources. (B) Autotrophs make their own food; heterotrophs
consume other organisms.
112. A ______ is a linear path of energy, while a (C) Autotrophs are animals; heterotrophs are
______ is a complex network of interconnected plants.
paths. (D) Autotrophs live in water; heterotrophs live on
(A) food web, food chain land.
(B) ecosystem, trophic level
(C) food chain, food web

Ans
(D) trophic level, ecosystem (B) Autotrophs make their own food; heterotrophs


Ans consume other organisms.
This is the fundamental difference in how they
(C) food chain, food web obtain energy. Autotrophs (“self-feeders”)
A food chain is a simple, linear representation produce their own organic compounds from
of feeding. A food web is a more complex and inorganic sources. Heterotrophs (“other-feeders”)
realistic model showing how multiple food chains must ingest other organisms to get their organic
are interlinked in an ecosystem. compounds.
113. In the food web shown in figure, the rabbit and 115. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of
the mouse both eat grasses. This is an example of: mangrove forests like the Sundarbans?
(A) They absorb carbon dioxide from the air.
(B) They release large amounts of pollutants into
the water.
(C) They protect coastal areas from storms and
floods.
(D) They are home to a wide variety of flora and
fauna.


Ans
(B) They release large amounts of pollutants into
the water.
The mangroves as providing protection and
absorbing CO2. It lists pollution from human
sources as a threat to the mangroves, not a
product of them. Healthy mangroves actually
help to filter and clean water.

116. In a food chain, what is the term for the organisms

at the second trophic level?
(A) Predation (A) Primary consumers
(B) Competition (B) Secondary consumers
(C) Parasitism (C) Producers
(D) Mutualism (D) Decomposers
page 346 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans Mutualism, parasitism, and competition are all

(A) Primary consumers interactions between living organisms (biotic).
The trophic levels are numbered sequentially. Soil erosion is a physical process, an interaction
Producers are at the first level. The organisms between abiotic factors like water and wind and
that eat the producers (herbivores) are at the the abiotic soil.
second trophic level and are called primary
120. In a pond ecosystem, a frog eating an insect is an
consumers.
example of an interaction between two ______
117. The introduction of a non-native, invasive plant components, while a fish absorbing oxygen from
species into an ecosystem can be harmful because: water is an interaction between a biotic and an
(A) It will increase the biodiversity of the ______ component.
ecosystem. (A) producer, consumer
(B) It will always be eaten by all the native (B) abiotic, biotic
herbivores. (C) living, living
(C) It might outcompete native plants for (D) biotic, abiotic
resources like sunlight and water.

Ans
(D) It will immediately improve the quality of the
soil for other plants. (D) biotic, abiotic
The frog and the insect are both living (biotic)


Ans organisms. The fish is living (biotic), but the
(C) It might outcompete native plants for dissolved oxygen it absorbs from the water is a
resources like sunlight and water. non-living (abiotic) chemical component.
Invasive species often have no natural predators
121. Predator is to prey as parasite is to ______.
or diseases in their new environment. This allows
them to grow and reproduce unchecked, using (A) mutualist
up resources that native species need to survive, (B) producer
which can severely disrupt the ecosystem’s (C) host
balance. (D) decomposer


Ans
118. What is the ultimate source of energy for most
ecosystems on Earth? (C) host
(A) The Sun The analogy relates two interacting organisms in
(B) Decomposers a specific relationship. In predation, the predator
(C) Water eats the prey. In parasitism, the parasite lives on
(D) The soil or in and feeds off the host.

Ans 122. Why do human-made ecosystems like farms and

(A) The Sun parks need constant human care and management?
The energy that flows through almost all food (A) Because they are not as stable or self-
chains originates from the Sun. Producers, regulating as natural ecosystems.
like plants, capture solar energy through (B) Because they do not contain any abiotic
photosynthesis and convert it into chemical components like soil or water.
energy (food). This energy is then transferred to (C) Because they are specifically designed to be
consumers when they eat the plants. temporary and short-lived.
(D) Because they lack producers and cannot
119. Which of the following is NOT a type of biotic generate their own energy.
interaction?

Ans
(A) Parasitism
(B) Mutualism (A) Because they are not as stable or self-
(C) Soil erosion regulating as natural ecosystems.
(D) Competition Natural ecosystems have complex webs of
interactions that create balance and resilience.


Ans Human-made ecosystems are often simplified
(C) Soil erosion (e.g., monoculture farms) and lack this natural
regulation, so they require constant human input
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

like watering, weeding, and pest control to be connections within ecosystems and the services
maintained. they provide, we can recognize how our actions
impact them and learn to manage our activities
123. Who is at the top of the food chain: Grass ® in a way that does not cause irreversible damage.
Mouse ® Snake ® Hawk?
(A) Hawk 126. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
(B) Snake consumer?
(C) Mouse (A) Algae making food through photosynthesis.
(D) Grass (B) A fox eating a rabbit.
(C) A deer eating grass.


Ans
(D) A mouse eating seeds.
(A) Hawk
The top of the food chain is occupied by the final

Ans
consumer, which is not typically preyed upon by (A) Algae making food through photosynthesis.
other animals within that specific chain. In this Consumers must obtain energy by eating other
sequence, the hawk eats the snake and is the apex organisms. Algae are producers; they create their
predator. own food using sunlight and are at the bottom of
the food chain, not a consumer.
124. A company clears a large area of mangrove forest
to build a shrimp farm. What is a likely negative 127. What is the main difference in the role of a
environmental consequence? producer and a consumer in a food web?
(A) The coastline will become more vulnerable to (A) Producers provide energy to the ecosystem;
storm damage. consumers transfer that energy.
(B) The local fish population will experience a (B) Producers are animals; consumers are plants.
significant increase. (C) Producers eat consumers; consumers eat
(C) The local climate will become cooler and less producers.
humid. (D) Producers are decomposers; consumers are
(D) The water in the surrounding area will herbivores.
become cleaner.


Ans


Ans (A) Producers provide energy to the ecosystem;
(A) The coastline will become more vulnerable to consumers transfer that energy.
storm damage. Producers are the entry point for energy into the
One of the key ecosystem services of mangrove ecosystem, converting solar energy into chemical
forests is protecting coastlines by absorbing energy. Consumers obtain this energy by eating
the impact of storms and waves. Removing the producers or other consumers, thus facilitating the
mangroves eliminates this natural barrier, leaving flow and transfer of energy through the different
the area exposed. trophic levels.

125. Why is it important to understand how ecosystems 128. Which of the following is a human-made ecosystem
work? that requires constant management?
(A) To learn how to eliminate all decomposers (A) A tropical rainforest
and pests from the environment. (B) A deep ocean trench
(B) So we can replace all natural ecosystems with (C) A mountain glacier
more efficient human-made ones. (D) An agricultural field
(C) So we can understand our dependence on


Ans
them and learn how to use them sustainably.
(D) Because it is a required subject in school with (D) An agricultural field
no practical application. The farms as human-made ecosystems. Unlike a
natural forest, a farm requires continuous human


Ans input like ploughing, sowing, irrigating, and pest
(C) So we can understand our dependence on control to remain productive.
them and learn how to use them sustainably.
The chapter’s overall message is about harmony
and balance. By understanding the intricate
page 348 Class 8th Science Foundation

129. Two different species of birds in a forest feed on 132. An orchid on a tree is an example of ______,
the same type of caterpillar. This interaction is where one organism benefits and the other is
an example of: ______.
(A) Competition (A) mutualism, benefited
(B) Commensalism (B) parasitism, harmed
(C) Mutualism (C) competition, harmed
(D) Parasitism (D) commensalism, unaffected


Ans

Ans
(A) Competition (D) commensalism, unaffected
Competition occurs when two or more organisms The chapter uses this specific example to define
require the same limited resource. In this case, commensalism. The orchid gets a place to live
both bird species are competing for the same food (+), and the tree is neither helped nor harmed
source (the caterpillars). by its presence (0), fitting the +/0 pattern of
commensalism.
130. A healthy ecosystem is one that is:
(A) Completely unchanging and static over long 133. Habitat is to address as ______ is to
periods of time. community.
(B) In a state of dynamic balance with complex (A) all residents
interactions. (B) population
(C) Dominated by a single, powerful and (C) ecosystem
successful species. (D) individual
(D) Free of all decomposers and microbes that

Ans
cause decay. (A) all residents


Ans The analogy relates an ecological term to a human
equivalent. A habitat is like an organism’s address
(B) In a state of dynamic balance with complex
(where it lives). A community, which consists of
interactions.
all the different populations living in that habitat,
The theme of the chapter is “how nature works in
is like all the different residents living at that
harmony.” This harmony is not a static state but
address.
a dynamic equilibrium maintained by the complex
web of interactions—predation, competition, 134. A group of all the fish of a single species in a pond
decomposition, nutrient cycling—that keep would be called a(n):
populations in check and resources flowing. (A) Habitat
(B) Ecosystem
131. Which of the following is NOT a good description
(C) Population
of a food web?
(D) Community
(A) It consists of a single, straight line of energy
transfer.

Ans
(B) It shows how different food chains are (C) Population
interlinked. A population as a group of organisms of the same
(C) It shows that most organisms have more than kind living together in a habitat. Therefore, all
one food source. the fish of one specific species would constitute a
(D) It is a more realistic model of feeding population.
relationships than a food chain.
135. When a cow eats grass, what kind of energy


Ans transfer is taking place?
(A) From an abiotic component to a biotic
(A) It consists of a single, straight line of energy
component.
transfer.
A single, straight line of energy transfer is the (B) From a producer to a primary consumer.
definition of a food chain. A food web is defined (C) From a consumer to a decomposer.
by its complexity and its multiple, interconnected (D) From a primary consumer to a secondary
lines of energy transfer. consumer.
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

Ans (B) That a healthy prey population is essential

(B) From a producer to a primary consumer. for the survival of predators.
The grass is a producer, creating energy from The chapter highlights his work in Bandipur,
sunlight. The cow is an herbivore that eats the which showed “how predators like tigers and
grass, making it a primary consumer. The energy leopards rely on prey, such as deer and wild boar”
stored in the grass is transferred to the cow. and “proved that a healthy prey population is key
Match the ecological concept with its real-world to predator survival”.
example or implication.
137. Which of the following is NOT an example of a
Column A Column B biotic-abiotic interaction?
(A) A tree’s roots holding soil in place.
1 Ecosystem A A process essential for
Balance plant reproduction, (B) A fish laying eggs in water.
often carried out by (C) A tiger eating a deer.
bees and butterflies. (D) A plant releasing oxygen into the air.
2 Pollination B Practices like overuse of

Ans
pesticides that can lead (C) A tiger eating a deer.
to soil degradation. A tiger (biotic) eating a deer (biotic) is a biotic-
3 Protected C A stable state where biotic interaction (predation). The other options
Area interactions keep all involve a living organism interacting with a
populations and non-living component of its environment.
resources steady.
138. What is the main difference between a producer
4 Unsustainable D A designated space, and a decomposer’s role in the carbon cycle?
Farming like a national park, to (A) Both take up carbon dioxide from the
conserve wildlife and atmosphere.
habitats. (B) Producers take up carbon dioxide from the
Options atmosphere; decomposers release it from dead
(a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B organic matter.
(b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C (C) Both release carbon dioxide from dead matter.
(c) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (D) Producers release carbon dioxide; decomposers
(d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D take it up.


Ans

Ans
(a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (B) Producers take up carbon dioxide from the
Ecosystem balance refers to the stability of atmosphere; decomposers release it from dead
populations and resources. Pollination is a key organic matter.
process for plant reproduction. A protected area Producers (plants) perform photosynthesis, a
is a conservation space for wildlife. Unsustainable process that removes carbon dioxide from the
farming practices can damage the environment. air and converts it into organic compounds.
Decomposers (bacteria, fungi) perform respiration
136. What does A.J.T. Johnsingh’s research on the
as they break down dead organic matter, a
relationship between tigers and deer demonstrate?
process that releases carbon dioxide back into the
(A) That deer are more important to the
atmosphere.
ecosystem than tigers are.
(B) That a healthy prey population is essential 139. What is the first trophic level of any food chain?
for the survival of predators. (A) Producers
(C) That tigers can survive by eating plants if (B) The Sun
deer are not available. (C) Decomposers
(D) That tigers and deer have a mutualistic and (D) Primary Consumers
beneficial relationship.

Ans


Ans (A) Producers
page 350 Class 8th Science Foundation

“Producers (like green plants) are at the first

Ans

trophic level”. They form the energy base upon (C) It includes the abiotic factors of the
which all other trophic levels depend. environment.
A community is defined as consisting only of
140. If a forest fire destroys a large number of trees, the biotic (living) components—all the various
what is an immediate impact on the animal populations of plants, animals, and microbes. An
community? ecosystem is the concept that includes both the
(A) The animals will immediately learn to eat ash community and the abiotic factors.
and charcoal.
(B) A decrease in food and shelter for many animals. 143. In the pond study, fish had a ______ effect on
(C) An increase in food and shelter for all animal dragonfly larvae and an ______ effect on the
species. pollination of nearby plants.
(D) There will be no noticeable impact on the (A) negative, positive
animal community. (B) indirect, direct


Ans (C) direct, indirect
(B) A decrease in food and shelter for many (D) positive, negative
animals.

Ans
The trees are the primary producers and also
(C) direct, indirect
provide the physical structure of the habitat.
The effect was direct on the dragonfly larvae
Destroying them removes the base of the food
because the fish ate them. The effect on the plants
web and the primary source of shelter, leading to
was indirect because it occurred through a chain
a direct and immediate negative impact on the
of other interactions (fewer dragonflies ® more
animals that depend on them.
bees ® more pollination).
141. Why can’t a food chain continue indefinitely with
144. Sunlight is to producer as dead leaves are to
many, many trophic levels?
______.
(A) Because energy is lost at each transfer
(A) carnivore
between levels.
(B) herbivore
(B) Because decomposers break the chain after a
(C) decomposer
few levels.
(D) consumer
(C) Because there is a limited number of species
on Earth.

Ans
(D) Because animals at the top become too large (C) decomposer
to be eaten. The analogy relates an energy/nutrient source


Ans to the organism that uses it. Producers get their
primary energy from sunlight. Decomposers get
(A) Because energy is lost at each transfer
their energy and nutrients from dead organic
between levels.
matter, such as dead leaves.
A significant amount of energy is lost as heat
during metabolic processes at each trophic 145. Which of the following describes an interaction
level. Typically, only about 10% of the energy is between two abiotic components?
transferred to the next level. After a few transfers, (A) Sunlight causing water to evaporate.
there isn’t enough energy left to support another (B) A plant absorbing sunlight.
population.
(C) A bird eating a seed.
142. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of (D) A deer drinking water.
a community?


Ans
(A) It involves interactions between different
species. (A) Sunlight causing water to evaporate.
(B) It is the living part of an ecosystem. This interaction involves sunlight (abiotic) acting
(C) It includes the abiotic factors of the on water (abiotic), causing a change of state.
environment. The other options all involve at least one biotic
(D) It includes different populations of organisms. component (a plant, deer, or bird).
Pagesmith CH 12 : How Nature Works in Harmony

146. Why is soil considered both a biotic and an abiotic 149. What was the main achievement of the Green
component of an ecosystem? Revolution?
(A) Because soil is made of non-living rock (A) It promoted organic farming.
particles (abiotic) but is also filled with living (B) It significantly increased food production.
microorganisms and plant roots (biotic). (C) It increased the diversity of crops grown on
(B) Because soil can be either wet (biotic) or dry farms.
(abiotic).
(D) It eliminated the need for irrigation.
(C) Because “biotic” means “earth,” and soil is
earth.

Ans
(D) This statement is incorrect; soil is purely (B) It significantly increased food production.
abiotic. Due to a food crisis, new farming methods were


Ans introduced, and these “helped increase food
production. This period is known as the Green
(A) Because soil is made of non-living rock
Revolution”.
particles (abiotic) but is also filled with living
microorganisms and plant roots (biotic). 150. A ladybug (beetle) eats aphids, which are pests
Soil is a complex mixture. Its mineral component that damage crops. In this context, the ladybug
(sand, silt, clay) is abiotic. However, healthy is a:
soil is teeming with life, including bacteria, (A) Pollinator
fungi, worms, and insects, which are all biotic
(B) Natural predator
components essential for its fertility.
(C) Producer
147. Which of the following is NOT a good example (D) Decomposer
of a habitat?


Ans
(A) The bark of a tree
(B) A food chain (B) Natural predator
(C) A forest A picture of a beetle eating pests and describes it as
(D) A pond a form of “Natural control of pests by predators”.
The ladybug is preying on the aphids, which helps


Ans
to control the pest population naturally.
(B) A food chain
A habitat is a physical place where an organism 151. The story of the Indian bullfrog ban illustrates
lives. A pond, the bark of a tree, and a forest are that:
all physical locations. A food chain is a conceptual (A) Banning the export of a product always solves
diagram that shows the flow of energy; it is not a environmental problems.
physical place. (B) Human economic activities can have
unintended and severe ecological consequences.
148. What is the main difference between mutualism
(C) Frogs are not an important part of the
and commensalism?
ecosystem.
(A) In mutualism one is harmed; in commensalism
(D) Pesticides are always a better solution than
one is unaffected.
natural predators.
(B) In mutualism both benefit; in commensalism
one benefits and the other is unaffected.

Ans
(C) In mutualism one benefits and one is harmed;
(B) Human economic activities can have
in commensalism both are harmed.
unintended and severe ecological consequences.
(D) In mutualism both are unaffected; in
The primary driver for harvesting the frogs was
commensalism both benefit.
economic (export). This single action, however, set


Ans off a chain reaction that disrupted the ecosystem
(B) In mutualism both benefit; in commensalism balance, increased pests, and led to greater
one benefits and the other is unaffected. chemical pollution, showing how interconnected
These are the precise definitions provided. these systems are.
Mutualism is a +/+ interaction. Commensalism
is a +/0 interaction.
page 352 Class 8th Science Foundation

152. The living parts of a habitat are the ______ (the community) but also their interactions with
components, and the non-living parts are the the non-living environment (the abiotic factors).
______ components.
(A) biotic, abiotic 156. A lichen is a composite organism arising from
(B) community, population algae living among filaments of a fungus. The
(C) abiotic, biotic alga provides food through photosynthesis, and
(D) ecosystem, community the fungus provides shelter and moisture. This
relationship is:


Ans (A) Competition
(A) biotic, abiotic (B) Mutualism
These are the two fundamental terms used to (C) Commensalism
classify all parts of a habitat or ecosystem. Biotic (D) Parasitism
refers to the living things, and abiotic refers to

Ans
the non-living things.
(B) Mutualism
153. Which of the following is NOT an example of an This is a classic example of mutualism. Both
aquatic ecosystem? organisms benefit significantly from the
(A) A river partnership: the alga gets a protected environment,
(B) A lake and the fungus gets a constant supply of food.
(C) A grassland
(D) A pond

*************

Ans
(C) A grassland
Aquatic ecosystems are water-based. A grassland
is a land-based environment and is therefore an
example of a terrestrial ecosystem.

154. Individual is to organism as group of individuals

is to ______.
(A) population
(B) community
(C) habitat
(D) ecosystem


Ans
(A) population
The analogy describes the first step up in the levels
of ecological organization. A single organism is
an individual. A group of these same individuals
living together constitutes a population.

155. All the living organisms and their physical

environment in a particular area, functioning
together as a unit, is a(n):
(A) Community
(B) Habitat
(C) Population
(D) Ecosystem


Ans
(D) Ecosystem
This is the comprehensive definition of an
ecosystem. It includes not just all the living things
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

CHAPTER 13
Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

SUMMAR 2. The Systems that Sustain Life

Life is sustained on Earth through the complex
interaction of its major systems.
1. Earth : A Unique Habitable Planet
2.1 The Interconnected Spheres
All life as we know it exists on Earth’s crust, a
very thin outer layer comparable to the skin of an 1. Atmosphere (Air) : Provides gases for
apple. Several “just right” conditions make our respiration (oxygen) and photosynthesis
planet uniquely capable of supporting life. (carbon dioxide) and helps regulate
temperature through a mild greenhouse effect.
1.1 The “Goldilocks” Conditions 2. Hydrosphere (Water) : Covers about 70%
of Earth’s surface and is essential for all
1.1.1 The Right Distance from the Sun
life processes, including regulating body
1. Earth orbits the Sun within the ”habitable temperature and transporting nutrients.
zone,”a region where temperatures are perfect 3. Geosphere (Land) : The Earth’s crust, made
for water to exist in liquid form. of rocks, soil, and minerals, provides nutrients
2. If Earth were closer to the Sun, its water for plants to grow and essential materials for
would evaporate; if it were farther, all its ecosystems and human life.
water would freeze. Liquid water is considered 4. Biosphere (Life) : Includes all living beings,
essential for life to evolve. which interact with each other and the non-
living environment to survive and grow.

2.2 The Importance of Balance in Nature

1.1.2 The Right Size and Gravity
Life on Earth thrives because all these systems
1. Earth’s size is ideal for life. Its gravity is
work together in a delicate balance. A small
strong enough to hold onto its atmosphere,
change in one part, such as deforestation, can
preventing essential gases from escaping into
have a cascading impact on the climate, soil, and
space.
wildlife.
2. A smaller planet’s gravity would be too weak
(like Mars), while a much larger planet’s
3. The Continuity of Life : Reproduction
gravity would be too strong for life as we
know it. Reproduction is the process that ensures life
1.1.3 A Protective Atmosphere and Magnetic continues on Earth.
Field
3.1 The Role of Genes
1. The atmosphere contains oxygen for
respiration and an ozone layer that acts as 1. Parents pass on instructions to their offspring
a shield, blocking harmful ultraviolet (UV) through genes. This is why offspring resemble
radiation from the Sun. their parents.
2. Earth’s magnetic field protects the planet by 2. Reproduction also allows for small changes in
deflecting harmful high-energy particles from these instructions, leading to variations that
the sun (solar wind) and space. can help a species adapt and evolve over time.
page 354 Class 8th Science Foundation

3.2 Asexual Reproduction (C) The entire apple itself

This involves a single parent producing new (D) The apple’s seeds
individuals. The offspring are exact copies of the

Ans
parent. Examples include vegetative propagation
(A) The apple’s skin
in plants (e.g., growing a new potato plant from an
This analogy is used to emphasize how fragile and
‘eye’) and simple division in microbes like bacteria.
thin the life-supporting layer of our planet is. The
3.3 Sexual Reproduction vast majority of the Earth is composed of the
mantle and core, with life being confined to the
This involves two parents who produce specialized
extremely thin outer layer, the crust.
reproductive cells called gametes(e.g., sperm and
egg).Fertilisation is the fusion of a male and female 2. What is the “habitable zone” or “Goldilocks
gamete to form a new cell called a zygote. The zone” around a star?
zygote receives a mix of genes from both parents, (A) The zone where a planet’s magnetic field is
creating a unique individual with a combination strongest.
of traits. (B) The region where surface temperatures are
suitable for liquid water.
4. Threats to Life on Earth
(C) The area where planets are protected from
Human activities are disrupting Earth’s natural asteroid impacts.
balance and threatening life. (D) The part of a solar system that receives the
4.1 The Triple Planetary Crisis most sunlight.

This term refers to the three biggest environmental

Ans

challenges facing our planet: (B) The region where surface temperatures are
1. Climate Change : The burning of fossil fuels suitable for liquid water.
releases greenhouse gases that trap extra The habitable zone is an orbital region around a
heat, causing global warming, rising sea levels star where a planet’s surface is not too hot (to boil
and extreme weather. all water) and not too cold (to freeze all water).
2. Biodiversity Loss : The destruction of habitats This “just right” temperature range is considered
is causing plants and animals to disappear, crucial for the existence of life as we know it.
which weakens entire ecosystems.
3. Pollution : Air, water and soil pollution from 3. Why is the size of the Earth considered “just
factories, farms and waste harms human right” for supporting life?
health and the environment. (A) Because its size and gravitational field prevent
it from capturing any natural moons.
4.2 The Path Forward : Sustainable Action (B) Because it is the largest and most massive
Protecting life on Earth requires collective action. terrestrial planet in the solar system.
This includes reducing pollution, switching to (C) Its gravity is strong enough to hold an
renewable energy (like solar and wind), preserving atmosphere but not crush life.
biodiversity and adopting sustainable practices (D) Because its specific size and mass result in a
like reusing, repairing and recycling. rotation period suitable for life.


Ans
(C) Its gravity is strong enough to hold an


MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIO atmosphere but not crush life.
A planet that is too small (like Mars) has weak
gravity and cannot hold onto a substantial
1. The chapter uses an analogy to describe the atmosphere. A planet that is too large would have
thinness of the Earth’s crust where all life exists. immense gravity, making it difficult for complex
If the Earth were the size of an apple, the crust life forms to exist. Earth’s size provides the ideal
would be as thin as: gravitational balance.
(A) The apple’s skin
(B) The apple’s core
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

4. What important layer in the Earth’s atmosphere 7. What is the primary purpose of reproduction for
acts like a shield, blocking harmful ultraviolet life on Earth?
(UV) rays from the Sun? (A) To create new and diverse food sources for
(A) The magnetic field other organisms.
(B) The hydrosphere (B) To allow individual organisms to live forever
(C) The troposphere without dying.
(D) The ozone layer (C) To ensure the continuity of life by creating
new individuals of a species.


Ans
(D) To halt the process of evolution and keep
(D) The ozone layer species stable.
The ozone layer is a region of the stratosphere with
a high concentration of ozone (O3) molecules. This

Ans
layer is crucial for life on Earth because it absorbs (C) To ensure the continuity of life by creating
most of the Sun’s harmful ultraviolet radiation, new individuals of a species.
which can damage living cells and cause cancer. Reproduction is the fundamental biological
process by which new individual organisms are
5. What is the primary function of the Earth’s produced from their parents. Its main purpose is
magnetic field in sustaining life? to perpetuate the existence of a species from one
(A) It deflects harmful high-energy particles from generation to the next, ensuring that life does not
the Sun and space. disappear.
(B) It keeps the Earth in a stable orbit around
the Sun. 8. What is the main difference between asexual and
(C) It helps in weather forecasting by influencing sexual reproduction?
clouds. (A) Asexual reproduction involves one parent,
(D) It causes the seasons to change throughout while sexual reproduction involves two.
the year. (B) Only plants are capable of asexual
reproduction, and only animals can reproduce


Ans
sexually.
(A) It deflects harmful high-energy particles from (C) Asexual reproduction is a very slow process,
the Sun and space. while sexual reproduction is extremely fast.
The Earth’s magnetic field acts as a protective (D) Asexual reproduction creates significant
shield. It traps or deflects the charged particles genetic variation, while sexual reproduction
of the solar wind and cosmic rays, preventing does not.
them from stripping away our atmosphere and
bombarding the surface with harmful radiation.

Ans
(A) Asexual reproduction involves one parent,
6. What does the term “biosphere” refer to? while sexual reproduction involves two.
(A) All the living beings on Earth, along with the This is the fundamental difference. In asexual
places where they live (land, water, air). reproduction, a single parent organism produces
(B) All the water on Earth, including oceans, offspring that are genetically identical to itself.
rivers, and ice caps. In sexual reproduction, genetic material from two
(C) The complete layer of gases that surrounds different parents combines to create genetically
the Earth. unique offspring.
(D) All the solid parts of the Earth, like the rocks
and soil. 9. The process by which a new plant grows from a
part of the parent plant, such as a stem cutting or


Ans
a potato “eye,” is called:
(A) All the living beings on Earth, along with the (A) Pollination
places where they live (land, water, air). (B) Vegetative propagation
The biosphere is the global ecological system (C) Germination
that encompasses all life on Earth and every (D) Fertilization
part of the Earth where life exists, including land
(geosphere), water (hydrosphere), and the air

Ans
(atmosphere). (B) Vegetative propagation
page 356 Class 8th Science Foundation

Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual (D) Seed formation ® Pollination ® Fertilization

reproduction in plants. It does not involve seeds


Ans
or spores but instead relies on the ability of
vegetative parts (stems, roots, leaves) of a plant (A) Pollination ® Fertilization ® Seed formation
to grow into a new, complete individual. The process begins with pollination, the transfer
of pollen (containing the male gamete) to the
10. In sexual reproduction, what are the special female part of the flower. This is followed by
reproductive cells that carry only half of a parent’s fertilization, the fusion of the male and female
genetic material called? gametes to form a zygote. This zygote then
(A) Zygotes develops into an embryo within the seed.
(B) Tissues
(C) Embryos 13. In animals, the male gamete is called the sperm,
(D) Gametes and the female gamete is called the:
(A) Ovule


Ans
(B) Zygote
(D) Gametes (C) Embryo
Gametes are the specialized sex cells (sperm in (D) Egg
males, eggs in females) that are involved in sexual


Ans
reproduction. They are haploid, meaning they
contain only one set of chromosomes, or half the (D) Egg
genetic material of a normal body cell. The names for animal gametes. The sperm is the
male reproductive cell, and the egg (or ovum)
11. Figure shows the fusion of a sperm cell and an is the female reproductive cell. The ovule is
egg cell. What is this process of fusion called, and the structure in plants that contains the female
what is the resulting cell named? gamete.

14. The fusion of a sperm cell and an egg cell results

in the formation of a single new cell called a:
(A) Embryo
(B) Fetus
(C) Zygote
(D) Gamete


Ans
(C) Zygote
Fertilization is the process where male and female
gametes fuse. The direct result of this fusion is a
(A) Process : Pollination, Result : Seed single, diploid cell known as a zygote. The zygote
(B) Process : Division, Result : Gamete contains a complete set of genetic instructions,
(C) Process : Germination, Result : Embryo half from each parent, and is the first cell of a
(D) Process : Fertilization, Result : Zygote new individual.


Ans
15. What is a key difference in the development of
(D) Process : Fertilization, Result : Zygote young between birds and mammals?
Fertilization is the process where a male gamete (A) Bird embryos do not require a food source,
(sperm) and a female gamete (egg) unite. The while mammal embryos do.
single cell that results from this fusion, containing (B) Mammals lay many eggs at a time, while
a complete set of genetic instructions from both birds give birth to live young.
parents, is called a zygote. (C) Birds reproduce asexually by budding, while
mammals reproduce sexually.
12. What is the correct sequence of events in the (D) In birds, the embryo develops outside the
sexual reproduction of flowering plants? mother’s body in an egg; in mammals, it
(A) Pollination ® Fertilization ® Seed formation develops inside.
(B) Fertilization ® Pollination ® Seed formation
(C) Fertilization ® Seed formation ® Pollination

Ans
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

(D) In birds, the embryo develops outside the (C) Because it is a much faster reproductive
mother’s body in an egg; in mammals, it develops method, allowing for rapid population growth.
inside. (D) Because it consistently produces offspring
After internal fertilization, birds lay an egg that are genetically identical to the parent
containing the zygote and a food supply (yolk), organism.
and the embryo develops externally. In most


Ans
mammals, the fertilized egg remains inside the
mother’s body, where the embryo develops and (B) It creates genetic variation, increasing a
receives continuous nourishment. species’ chance of adapting to change.
The mixing of genes from two parents creates
16. What is the primary cause of the current global unique combinations in the offspring. This
warming and climate change? variation within a population is the raw material
(A) A natural decrease in the total energy output for evolution. If the environment changes, there
of the Sun. is a higher probability that some individuals
(B) An increase in volcanic activity around the will possess traits that allow them to adapt and
world. survive.
(C) The depletion of the Earth’s magnetic field
over time. 19. A farmer grows a new plant by cutting a piece of
(D) The release of greenhouse gases like carbon the stem from an existing plant and planting it.
dioxide from burning fossil fuels. The new plant will be:
(A) Unable to produce any flowers or fruit of its


Ans own.
(D) The release of greenhouse gases like carbon (B) A hybrid of the parent plant and a different
dioxide from burning fossil fuels. nearby plant.
The human activities, particularly the burning of (C) Genetically different from the parent plant
fossil fuels (coal, oil, gas), release large amounts due to the new soil.
of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. These (D) Genetically identical to the parent plant.
gases trap more heat, enhancing the natural


Ans
greenhouse effect and causing the planet’s average
temperature to rise. (D) Genetically identical to the parent plant.
This is a form of vegetative propagation, which is
17. What international agreement helped to reduce a type of asexual reproduction. Since it involves
harmful chemicals like CFCs and allow the ozone only one parent and no mixing of genes, the
layer to recover? offspring (the new plant) is a clone, having the
(A) The Montreal Protocol exact same genetic instructions as the parent
(B) The Paris Agreement plant.
(C) The Kyoto Protocol
(D) The Earth Summit 20. Which of the following is NOT a reason why
Earth’s atmosphere is crucial for life?


Ans (A) It causes the Earth to have a strong magnetic
(A) The Montreal Protocol field.
The global agreements specifically credits the (B) It helps maintain a warm enough temperature
Montreal Protocol (1987) with being a successful through the greenhouse effect.
treaty that “helped reduce harmful chemicals like (C) It provides oxygen for breathing.
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), allowing the ozone (D) It protects us from harmful solar radiation.
layer to slowly recover.”


Ans
18. Why is sexual reproduction important for the (A) It causes the Earth to have a strong magnetic
long-term survival of a species in a changing field.
environment? The atmosphere’s functions include providing
(A) Because it requires significantly less metabolic oxygen, the ozone layer, and the greenhouse
energy than asexual reproduction. effect. The magnetic field, however, is a separate
(B) It creates genetic variation, increasing a phenomenon generated by the movement of molten
species’ chance of adapting to change. iron in the Earth’s core, not by the atmosphere.
page 358 Class 8th Science Foundation

21. What is the “triple planetary crisis” facing Earth (D) male, female
today? Pollen grains are produced by the male parts
(A) The threat of asteroids, comets, and solar of the flower and contain the male reproductive
flares from space. cells. The ovule, located in the female part of the
(B) Climate change, biodiversity loss, and flower, contains the egg cell, which is the female
pollution. gamete.
(C) Poverty, hunger, and illiteracy among human
populations. 24. How does the greenhouse effect on Venus compare
(D) Earthquakes, volcanoes, and tsunamis from to that on Earth?
geological activity. (A) The greenhouse effect on both planets is
identical in strength.


Ans (B) The effect is a runaway process on Venus,
(B) Climate change, biodiversity loss, and making it extremely hot, while it is milder on
pollution. Earth.
It states that the biggest environmental challenges (C) Venus has no greenhouse effect at all, while
we face are “climate change, biodiversity loss, and Earth has a moderate one.
pollution—together known as the triple planetary (D) The effect is much weaker on Venus due to its
crisis.” distance from the sun.

22. Figure shows a cross-section of a flower. Pollination

Ans

is the process where pollen from the ______ is (B) The effect is a runaway process on Venus,
transferred to the female part of a flower. making it extremely hot, while it is milder on
Earth.
The Venus uses as a contrasting example. Its
extremely thick atmosphere of carbon dioxide
traps so much heat that it has led to a “runaway
greenhouse effect,” making it the hottest planet.
On Earth, the effect is moderate and essential for
maintaining a habitable temperature.

25. What is the geosphere?

(A) All the living organisms on the planet and
A flower their habitats.
(B) The solid parts of the Earth, including rocks,
(A) Anther soil, and minerals.
(B) Ovule (C) The layer of gases surrounding the planet
(C) Petal from the ground up.
(D) Sepal (D) All the water on the planet’s surface,


Ans underground, and in the air.

(A) Anther

Ans

The anther is the part of the stamen (the male (B) The solid parts of the Earth, including rocks,
reproductive organ of a flower) that contains the soil, and minerals.
pollen. For reproduction to occur, this pollen The chapter defines the different “spheres”
must be transferred to the stigma of a pistil. that interact to sustain life. The geosphere is
specifically the term for all the solid, non-living
23. In a flowering plant, the pollen contains the parts of our planet’s crust and interior.
______ gamete, and the ovule contains the
______ gamete. 26. Atmosphere is to air as hydrosphere is to
(A) plant, animal ______.
(B) large, small (A) land
(C) female, male (B) life
(D) male, female (C) water


Ans (D) fire
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

Ans The ecosystems are interconnected webs. The loss

(C) water of a species (biodiversity loss) can disrupt food
The analogy links a scientific term for an Earth chains, pollination, decomposition, and other vital
system to its common name. The atmosphere is processes, making the entire ecosystem less stable,
the sphere of air. The hydrosphere is the sphere less productive, and less resilient to change.
of water.
30. Which statement about the Earth’s position and
27. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of orbit is incorrect?
asexual reproduction? (A) The Earth’s orbit is nearly circular, which
(A) It involves the fusion of gametes. helps keep temperatures steady.
(B) The offspring are genetically identical to the (B) If Earth were farther away, all its water would
parent. evaporate.
(C) Vegetative propagation is an example of it. (C) Earth is in the habitable zone of the Sun.
(D) It involves a single parent. (D) The planet’s distance from the Sun allows
water to exist mostly in liquid form.


Ans


Ans
(A) It involves the fusion of gametes.
The fusion of gametes (sperm and egg) is the (B) If Earth were farther away, all its water would
defining event of fertilization, which is the evaporate.
central process of sexual reproduction. Asexual “if it were farther away, it would be too cold, and
reproduction does not involve gametes. all the water would freeze.” Evaporation would
occur if the Earth were closer to the Sun.
28. What is the name of the ISRO mission launched
in 2013 to explore Mars? 31. Figure shows the layered structure of the Earth.
(A) Gaganyaan Where are all the forests, oceans and life forms
(B) Chandrayaan located?
(C) Mangalyaan
(D) AstroSat


Ans
(C) Mangalyaan
The “Our scientific heritage” section about
space exploration explicitly mentions “India’s
Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission), launched
in 2013 by Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO)”.

29. Why is the loss of biodiversity considered a major (A) In the Inner Core
crisis? (B) In the Outer Core
(A) It creates genetic variation, increasing a (C) In the Crust
species’ chance of adapting to change. (D) In the Mantle
(B) Because it is a much faster reproductive

Ans
method, allowing for rapid population growth.
(C) Because every species plays a role, and losing (C) In the Crust
them weakens an ecosystem’s ability to The crust is the outermost, solid layer of the
function and provide services. Earth. It is this relatively thin layer that contains
(D) Because it consistently produces offspring all the planet’s landforms, water bodies and the
that are genetically identical to the parent entire biosphere.
organism.
32. The instructions for how an organism develops,


Ans stored inside every cell, are called:
(C) Because every species plays a role, and losing (A) The cytoplasm
them weakens an ecosystem’s ability to function (B) Gametes
and provide services. (C) Genetic material or genes
(D) The nucleus
page 360 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans In birds, fertilization takes place inside the

(C) Genetic material or genes female’s body. In many fish, the female releases
The genes as the “detailed instruction manual eggs into the water, and the male releases sperm
inside each cell.” This genetic material contains over them, so fertilization occurs externally in the
all the information that directs the development, water.
functioning, and traits of a living organism, and it
36. What does the term “geodiversity” refer to?
is passed down during reproduction.
(A) The different types of water bodies on Earth.
33. A single-celled organism like an amoeba divides (B) The variety of landforms, rocks, soils, and the
into two identical individuals. This is a form of: processes that shape them.
(A) Fertilization (C) The variety of living organisms on Earth.
(B) Pollination (D) The diversity of gases in the atmosphere.
(C) Sexual reproduction

Ans
(D) Asexual reproduction
(B) The variety of landforms, rocks, soils, and the


Ans processes that shape them.
(D) Asexual reproduction The geo-diversity as the variety in the Earth’s
Since a single parent (the original amoeba) non-living, geological features. It states this
is producing offspring, and the offspring are variety “helps create unique habitats where
identical, this is a form of asexual reproduction. different types of life can thrive.”
Specifically, it is known as binary fission.
37. Which of the following is a correct statement
34. What is the main purpose of the Paris Agreement about Earth?
on climate change? (A) Its crust is the thickest layer of the planet.
(A) To ban the use of all fossil fuels immediately. (B) Its atmosphere is composed mainly of carbon
(B) To fund the colonization of Mars. dioxide, like Venus.
(C) To commit countries to reduce their (C) Its magnetic field is created by the atmosphere.
greenhouse gas emissions to limit global (D) Its position in the solar system allows for
warming. liquid water to exist.
(D) To protect the ozone layer from CFCs.

Ans


Ans (D) Its position in the solar system allows for
(C) To commit countries to reduce their liquid water to exist.
greenhouse gas emissions to limit global warming. This is highlighted as the most important reason
The global agreements explains that the Paris for life on Earth. Being in the “habitable zone”
Agreement (2015) “committed countries to reduce means Earth receives the right amount of solar
greenhouse gas emissions” with the specific goal of energy to maintain temperatures where water can
keeping the increase in global average temperature be a liquid, a key ingredient for life.
well below 2°C, and preferably to 1.5°C.
38. Which of the following is NOT an example of
35. What is the main difference between how a bird asexual reproduction?
and a fish reproduce? (A) A hydra growing a bud that breaks off.
(A) Birds lay eggs, while fish give birth to live (B) A bacterium dividing into two.
young. (C) A potato growing a new plant from its “eye”.
(B) Birds have male and female sexes, while fish (D) A pollen grain from one flower fertilizing an
do not. ovule in another.
(C) Birds reproduce asexually, while fish

Ans
reproduce sexually.
(D) Birds have internal fertilization, while many (D) A pollen grain from one flower fertilizing an
fish have external fertilization. ovule in another.
The transfer of pollen and the fertilization of


Ans an ovule involves the fusion of male and female
(D) Birds have internal fertilization, while many gametes from two parents (or two parts of a plant).
fish have external fertilization. This is the definition of sexual reproduction, not
asexual.
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

39. To combat climate change, what is a key action (C) No, because a strong magnetic field is
individuals can take? inherently harmful to all life.
(A) Reducing energy consumption by turning off (D) No, because an atmosphere is essential for
lights and using efficient appliances. breathing and temperature regulation.
(B) Using more plastic bags to protect the

Ans
environment.
(D) No, because an atmosphere is essential for
(C) Cutting down trees to make space for gardens.
breathing and temperature regulation.
(D) Driving a car for even short distances.
While a magnetic field is an important protective


Ans feature, life as we know it also requires a
breathable atmosphere and the temperature
(A) Reducing energy consumption by turning off
moderation provided by the greenhouse effect.
lights and using efficient appliances.
Both are essential.
Much of our electricity is generated by burning
fossil fuels, which releases CO2. By saving energy, 43. Which process in plants releases oxygen into the
we reduce the demand for electricity generation, atmosphere?
which in turn helps to lower greenhouse gas (A) Transpiration
emissions. (B) Photosynthesis
(C) Respiration
40. Photosynthesis is to plants as respiration is to
(D) Decomposition
______.
(A) only animals

Ans
(B) both plants and animals (B) Photosynthesis
(C) only plants During photosynthesis, plants use carbon
(D) non-living things dioxide, water, and sunlight to create food. A key


Ans byproduct of this chemical reaction is oxygen,
which is released into the air.
(B) both plants and animals
Photosynthesis is the process plants use to 44. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of
make food. Respiration is the process used by global warming?
living cells—including those in both plants and (A) An increase in the strength of the Earth’s
animals—to break down that food and release its magnetic field
energy. (B) Rising sea levels
(C) Melting ice caps
41. The development of an embryo takes place inside
(D) More extreme weather conditions
the mother’s body in ______, while it takes
place inside an egg outside the body in ______.

Ans
(A) mammals, birds (A) An increase in the strength of the Earth’s
(B) birds, mammals magnetic field
(C) fish, mammals The lists several direct consequences of a warming
(D) fish, birds planet, including the melting of glaciers and


Ans ice sheets, which leads to rising sea levels and
changes in weather patterns. The magnetic field
(A) mammals, birds
is generated in the Earth’s core and is not directly
Most mammals exhibit internal development,
affected by surface climate change.
where the embryo grows inside the mother. Birds
lay eggs, and the embryonic development occurs 45. What is the main difference between a gene and
within the egg after it has been laid. a gamete?
(A) There is no difference, the terms are
42. If a planet had a very strong magnetic field but
interchangeable.
no atmosphere, would it be habitable?
(B) A gene is a cell; a gamete is an instruction.
(A) Yes, because life could exist underground,
(C) A gene is an instruction; a gamete is a cell
protected from the surface.
that carries a set of these instructions.
(B) Yes, because the magnetic field is the only
(D) Genes are only in asexual reproduction;
requirement for life.
gametes are only in sexual reproduction.
page 362 Class 8th Science Foundation

Ans
2 Atmosphere B A layer of gases
(C) A gene is an instruction; a gamete is a cell providing oxygen and an
that carries a set of these instructions. ozone layer that blocks
A gene is a segment of DNA that codes for a UV rays.
specific trait—it is a unit of information. A
gamete (sperm or egg) is a complete reproductive 3 Magnetic C Considered essential for
cell that contains thousands of genes, carrying Field life as we know it to
half of the parent’s entire genetic blueprint. evolve and thrive.

46. The process of a sperm cell and an egg cell joining 4 Liquid Water D The “Goldilocks” region
together is called: around a star where
(A) Pollination temperatures are right
(B) Division for liquid water.
(C) Fertilization Options
(D) Germination (a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A


Ans (b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
(c) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
(C) Fertilization (d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
Fertilization is the specific biological term for
the fusion of male and female gametes to form

Ans
a zygote, which marks the beginning of a new (c) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
individual’s development in sexual reproduction. The habitable zone is the correct distance from
a star for liquid water. The atmosphere provides
47. Which of the following is a strategy to reduce
essential gases and protection. Earth’s magnetic
biodiversity loss?
field acts as a shield against harmful space
(A) Using more pesticides to eliminate all insects
radiation. The presence of liquid water is crucial
from an area.
for life as we know it.
(B) Introducing many foreign species into all
available habitats. 49. Why are both asexual and sexual reproduction
(C) Protecting natural habitats through national considered successful strategies in nature?
parks and sanctuaries. (A) Because asexual reproduction is a new
(D) Converting all forests and grasslands into invention, and sexual reproduction is an old
farmland for food production. one.
(B) Because neither method actually works very


Ans well to perpetuate a species.
(C) Protecting natural habitats through national (C) Because all organisms have the ability to use
parks and sanctuaries. both methods interchangeably.
The primary cause of biodiversity loss is habitat (D) Because asexual reproduction is fast and
destruction. By setting aside protected areas like efficient for stable environments, while sexual
national parks, we can preserve entire ecosystems reproduction provides variation for changing
and the diverse species that live within them from environments.
human development and exploitation.


Ans
48. Match the unique features of Earth that make it (D) Because asexual reproduction is fast and
habitable with their correct descriptions. efficient for stable environments, while sexual
reproduction provides variation for changing
Column A Column B
environments.
1 Habitable A A protective shield Each strategy has its advantages. Asexual
Zone created by the planet’s reproduction allows for rapid population
core that deflects growth of well-adapted organisms in a constant
harmful solar winds and environment. Sexual reproduction shuffles genes,
cosmic rays from space. creating diversity that is crucial for a species to
adapt to new challenges or changing conditions.
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

50. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of life on propagation (a form of asexual reproduction),
Earth? such as taking stem cuttings.
(A) It is completely independent of the Sun’s
energy. 53. Match the Earth’s major systems (spheres) with
(B) It has existed for billions of years. what they consist of.
(C) It is confined to a very thin layer on the Column A Column B
planet’s surface.
(D) It is sustained by a delicate balance of natural 1 Atmosphere A All the water on Earth’s
systems. surface, such as oceans,
lakes, and rivers.


Ans
2 Hydrosphere B All living things and
(A) It is completely independent of the Sun’s the places they live,
energy. including land, water,
The vast majority of life on Earth is dependent and air.
on the Sun. Photosynthesis, which is the base of
most food chains, is powered by sunlight. The 3 Geosphere C The layer of gases that
Sun’s energy also drives the climate and keeps the surrounds the planet.
planet warm enough for liquid water. 4 Biosphere D The solid parts of the
Earth, including rocks,
51. What are the tiny, high-energy particles that come soil, and minerals.
from the Sun and are deflected by the Earth’s
magnetic field called? Options
(A) Cosmic rays (a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
(B) Micrometeorites (b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(C) Neutrinos (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(D) Solar wind (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

Ans

Ans

(D) Solar wind (a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

The chapter distinguishes between two types of The atmosphere is the air around us. The
harmful particles from space. It defines the solar hydrosphere is all the water on Earth. The
wind as the particles that “come from the Sun,” geosphere consists of the solid land, rocks and
which are then deflected by the magnetic field. soil. The biosphere is the part of Earth where all
Cosmic rays are described as coming from farther life exists.
across the universe. 54. What is the significance of the fact that Venus,
52. A gardener wants to grow many rose plants that which is farther from the Sun than Mercury, is
are identical to their favorite one. What is the the hottest planet?
best method to use? (A) It demonstrates the powerful effect of a
(A) Applying fertilizer to the soil around the planet’s atmosphere on its temperature.
plant. (B) It proves that Mercury must have a very weak
(B) Cross-pollinating it with a different type of magnetic field.
rose. (C) It shows that a planet’s surface temperature
(C) Taking stem cuttings from the rose and is determined by its size.
planting them. (D) It is a scientific mystery with no current
(D) Planting seeds from the rose. viable explanation.

Ans

Ans

(C) Taking stem cuttings from the rose and (A) It demonstrates the powerful effect of a
planting them. planet’s atmosphere on its temperature.
Planting seeds involves sexual reproduction and This “anomaly” is explained by the runaway
will produce plants with genetic variations. To greenhouse effect on Venus. Its thick carbon
create genetically identical copies (clones) of the dioxide atmosphere traps heat so effectively that
parent plant, the gardener should use vegetative it becomes much hotter than Mercury, which has
page 364 Class 8th Science Foundation

almost no atmosphere, highlighting the crucial 58. A species of fish reproduces by laying thousands
role the atmosphere plays in a planet’s climate. of eggs in the water, but very few survive to
adulthood. This is a reproductive strategy that
55. The interaction between the ______ (life) and relies on:
the ______ (land) is seen when plant roots (A) Asexual reproduction to create many clones.
hold soil in place, preventing erosion. (B) Providing a high level of parental care to each
(A) biosphere, geosphere individual offspring.
(B) atmosphere, geosphere (C) Producing a large number of offspring with a
(C) hydrosphere, atmosphere low chance of individual survival.
(D) biosphere, hydrosphere (D) Internal fertilization to protect the developing


Ans young.

(A) biosphere, geosphere

Ans

Plants are part of the biosphere (life). The soil is (C) Producing a large number of offspring with a
part of the geosphere (land/rock). The interaction low chance of individual survival.
described is a classic example of how life influences Many aquatic species with external fertilization
the physical land. use this strategy. They invest energy in producing
a massive number of eggs, knowing that most will
56. Which of the following is NOT a good way for an
be eaten or will not survive. The sheer quantity
individual to help protect the planet?
ensures that, by chance, a few will make it to
(A) Learning more about environmental issues
adulthood to continue the species.
and sharing the information.
(B) Reusing and repairing items instead of 59. What does the Paris Agreement goal of limiting
throwing them away. global warming to below 1.5°C mean?
(C) Disposing of all waste, including plastics, in (A) That the agreement will be reviewed every
regular garbage bins. 1.5 years.
(D) Saving energy and water at home. (B) That the average global temperature should
not rise more than 1.5°C above pre-industrial


Ans
levels.
(C) Disposing of all waste, including plastics, in (C) That the temperature of every place on Earth
regular garbage bins. should not go above 1.5°C.
The chapter encourages responsible action. (D) That the ideal temperature for the planet
While disposing of some waste is necessary, should be exactly 1.5°C everywhere.
simply throwing everything away contributes
to pollution and landfill problems. The text

Ans
specifically promotes “recycling items like clothes (B) That the average global temperature should
and plastic” as a way to reduce waste. not rise more than 1.5°C above pre-industrial
levels.
57. Zygote is to a complete set of instructions as a
This goal refers to the increase in the planet’s
gamete is to ______.
average surface temperature compared to the
(A) no instructions
period before the widespread use of fossil fuels.
(B) half a set of instructions
It is a global average, not a limit for any specific
(C) a complete set of instructions location at any specific time.
(D) a double set of instructions
60. Which of the following is NOT a reason Earth is


Ans considered unique?
(B) half a set of instructions (A) It is the only planet known to harbor life.
The analogy relates the cell type to the amount (B) It has liquid water on its surface.
of genetic information it carries. A zygote is (C) It is the only planet in our solar system.
formed by the fusion of two gametes and has a (D) It has an atmosphere containing oxygen.
full, diploid set of genetic instructions. A gamete


Ans
is a reproductive cell that is haploid, containing
only half the normal set of instructions. (C) It is the only planet in our solar system.
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

There are eight planets in our solar system. Earth’s primary source of genetic variation among the
uniqueness comes from its specific conditions that offspring.
allow life to exist, not from being the only planet.
64. Which of the following is a correct statement
61. Hydra, a simple animal, reproduces asexually by about the balance of systems on Earth?
which method? (A) The biosphere is the only system that is
(A) Regeneration important for life.
(B) Budding (B) The geosphere has no impact on the biosphere.
(C) Division (C) Each system (atmosphere, hydrosphere, etc.)
(D) Spore formation works independently of the others.
(D) The systems are all interconnected, and a


Ans
change in one can affect the others.
(B) Budding
The asexual reproduction explicitly states,

Ans
“Hydra, another simple animal, grows tiny buds (D) The systems are all interconnected, and a
on its body that breaks off and grow into new change in one can affect the others.
individuals.” The chapter’s central theme is harmony and
interconnection. It emphasizes that “Earth is a
62. What is the key difference between the nutrients vast, living system where land, air, water, and
in a bird’s egg and the nutrients for a mammalian living things support and affect one another,” and
embryo? a change in one part can have cascading effects.
(A) The bird’s egg has no nutrients; the
mammalian embryo has a pre-packaged 65. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of sexual
supply. reproduction?
(B) The bird’s egg has all nutrients pre-packaged; (A) It produces offspring that are genetically
the mammalian embryo receives a continuous identical to one parent.
supply. (B) It creates variation in the offspring.
(C) There is no difference in how they receive (C) It involves two parents.
nutrients. (D) It involves the formation of gametes.
(D) The bird gets nutrients from the mother; the


Ans
mammal gets them from the egg.
(A) It produces offspring that are genetically


Ans identical to one parent.
(B) The bird’s egg has all nutrients pre-packaged; Producing genetically identical offspring is
the mammalian embryo receives a continuous the hallmark of asexual reproduction. Sexual
supply. reproduction, by combining genes from two
A bird must pack the entire food supply (the yolk) parents, specifically produces offspring that
needed for development into the egg before it is are genetically unique and different from both
laid. A mammalian embryo, developing internally, parents.
receives a constant flow of nutrients from the
mother’s bloodstream via the placenta. 66. The process by which the characteristics of a
species change over many generations, helping
63. In sexual reproduction, ______ from them to survive better in their environment, is
two parents combine, which leads to genetic called:
______. (A) Adaptation or evolution
(A) offspring, identity (B) Germination
(B) body cells, similarity (C) Reproduction
(C) gametes, variation (D) Respiration
(D) instructions, stability


Ans


Ans (A) Adaptation or evolution
(C) gametes, variation The chapter introduces this concept by explaining
The sexual reproduction involves the fusion of that small changes in genes passed down through
special cells called gametes from two different reproduction can help organisms survive better.
parents. This mixing of genetic material is the “Over many generations, such changes can lead
page 366 Class 8th Science Foundation

to new features—or even completely new types of Seed production is the result of sexual
living beings,” which is the essence of evolution reproduction in plants. The ability of these seeds
and adaptation. to be dispersed over a wide area by wind is a
major advantage, allowing the plant to colonize
67. Match the type of reproduction with its correct new territories effectively.
characteristic.
69. Why is Venus hotter than Mercury, even though
Column A Column B Mercury is closer to the Sun?
1 Asexual A A method of asexual (A) Because Mercury is covered in ice that reflects
Reproduction reproduction in plants sunlight.
where a new plant grows (B) Because Venus has more volcanic activity.
from a part like a stem (C) Because Venus has a thick atmosphere that
or a leaf. traps heat.
2 Sexual B Involves a single parent (D) Because Venus rotates faster than Mercury.
Reproduction producing offspring that

Ans
are exact copies of itself. (C) Because Venus has a thick atmosphere that
3 Gametes C Specialized cells like traps heat.
sperm and egg that The chapter uses this example to explain the
carry half of the parent’s greenhouse effect. Mercury has almost no
genetic material atmosphere to retain heat. Venus’s dense carbon
and combine during dioxide atmosphere creates a powerful greenhouse
fertilization. effect, trapping a huge amount of heat and making
4 Vegetative D Involves two parents its surface temperature extremely high.
Propagation and leads to offspring 70. What is the main difference between the geosphere
with a unique mix of and the biosphere?
genetic traits from both. (A) There is no difference.
Options (B) The geosphere is the atmosphere, while the
(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A biosphere is the land.
(b) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C (C) The geosphere is the land, while the biosphere
(c) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B is the water.
(d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
(D) The geosphere is the non-living solid part of


Ans Earth, while the biosphere is the part that
(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A contains all life.
Asexual reproduction involves one parent

Ans
creating identical offspring. Sexual reproduction
(D) The geosphere is the non-living solid part
involves two parents, resulting in varied offspring.
of Earth, while the biosphere is the part that
Gametes are the reproductive cells used in this
contains all life.
process. Vegetative propagation is a specific type
The geosphere refers to the rocks, soil, and
of asexual reproduction in plants.
landforms (non-living). The biosphere is the
68. A gardener notices that a certain type of weed is “zone of life,” encompassing all living organisms
very successful because a single plant can produce and their environments.
hundreds of seeds that are carried by the wind.
71. Which of the following is NOT a good individual
This is an advantage of which process?
action to combat the triple planetary crisis?
(A) Decomposition
(A) Increasing the consumption of single-use
(B) Sexual reproduction leading to seed dispersal
plastic products.
(C) Asexual reproduction
(B) Supporting sustainable and local farming.
(D) Vegetative propagation
(C) Reducing energy consumption at home.


Ans (D) Reusing and recycling materials.
(B) Sexual reproduction leading to seed dispersal

Ans
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

(A) Increasing the consumption of single-use

Ans

plastic products. (d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
Plastic pollution is a major part of the pollution Climate change refers to long-term shifts
crisis. Increasing the use of single-use plastics adds in weather patterns due to global warming.
to waste, resource depletion, and environmental Biodiversity loss is the extinction of species, which
harm. disrupts ecosystems. Pollution is the introduction
of harmful materials into the environment. The
72. ______ reproduction leads to offspring greenhouse effect is the natural warming of the
that are clones of the parent, while ______ planet.
reproduction leads to unique offspring.
(A) Animal, plant 74. Geosphere is to rock as hydrosphere is to
(B) Asexual, sexual ______.
(C) Sexual, asexual (A) plant
(D) Plant, animal (B) air


Ans (C) water
(D) life
(B) Asexual, sexual
A clone is a genetically identical copy, which is

Ans
the result of asexual reproduction from a single (C) water
parent. Sexual reproduction combines genes from The analogy links the scientific term for an Earth
two parents, resulting in a genetically unique sphere to its main component. The geosphere is
individual. the sphere of rock and land. The hydrosphere is
the sphere of water.
73. Match the environmental threat with its
description. 75. What is the name of the flatworm that can regrow
from a fragment of its body?
Column A Column B (A) Amoeba
1 Climate A The natural process of (B) Earthworm
Change trapping heat in the (C) Hydra
atmosphere, which is (D) Planaria
intensified by human


Ans
activities.
(D) Planaria
2 Biodiversity B The contamination of
The asexual reproduction provides specific
Loss air, water, and soil with
examples. It states, “Planaria, a type of flatworm,
harmful substances from
can regrow from a fragment of its body!”
factories, vehicles, and
waste. 76. If scientists discover a planet in another solar
3 Pollution C The long-term changes in system that is the same size as Earth and has a
temperature and weather magnetic field, but is located far outside its star’s
patterns, primarily due habitable zone, what can they conclude?
to global warming. (A) The planet is likely too cold for liquid water
and life as we know it.
4 Greenhouse D The disappearance of
(B) The planet must have a thick atmosphere.
Effect plant and animal species
(C) The planet is definitely habitable.
when their natural
(D) The planet is a gas giant.
habitats are destroyed,
which weakens

Ans
ecosystems. (A) The planet is likely too cold for liquid water
Options and life as we know it.
(a) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B While size and a magnetic field are favorable
(b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C conditions, being in the habitable zone is crucial for
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D maintaining a temperature where liquid water can
(d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A exist. A planet located far outside this zone would
be too cold and any water would be frozen solid.
page 368 Class 8th Science Foundation

77. What is the significance of the balance between

Ans

photosynthesis and respiration on a global scale? (D) Vegetative propagation
(A) It has no global significance. The “eye” of a potato is a bud. Planting a piece
(B) It determines the strength of the Earth’s of the potato tuber (a modified stem) containing
magnetic field. a bud is a form of asexual reproduction where
(C) It causes the phases of the Moon. a new plant grows from a vegetative part of the
(D) It regulates the global cycles of oxygen and parent, not from a seed.
carbon dioxide.
81. Why is biodiversity loss considered part of the


Ans “triple planetary crisis”?
(D) It regulates the global cycles of oxygen and (A) Because it causes the Earth to cool down too
carbon dioxide. rapidly.
These two processes are complementary. (B) Because humans depend on the services
Photosynthesis consumes carbon dioxide and provided by diverse and healthy ecosystems.
releases oxygen. Respiration consumes oxygen (C) Because it is only a crisis for the plants and
and releases carbon dioxide. The balance between animals themselves.
these massive global fluxes is what maintains the (D) Because it makes the planet look less
stable composition of our atmosphere. beautiful.


Ans
78. Which of the following is NOT a method of
asexual reproduction? (B) Because humans depend on the services
(A) Division in bacteria provided by diverse and healthy ecosystems.
(B) Budding in Hydra The loss of species disrupts ecosystems. This
(C) Fertilization in mammals disruption can impair crucial ecosystem services
(D) Vegetative propagation in plants that humans rely on, such as pollination of crops,
water purification, climate regulation, and sources


Ans
for new medicines. Therefore, biodiversity loss is a
(C) Fertilization in mammals direct threat to human well-being.
Fertilization is the fusion of male and female
gametes. This is the defining process of sexual 82. Plants reproduce sexually through the process
reproduction, not asexual reproduction. The of ______, which leads to the formation of a
other three are all examples of asexual methods. ______.
(A) fertilization, zygote
79. The movement of molten iron in which part of the (B) budding, seed
Earth is believed to generate its magnetic field? (C) propagation, clone
(A) The inner core (D) pollination, fruit
(B) The crust


Ans
(C) The outer core
(D) The upper mantle (A) fertilization, zygote
Pollination is the transfer step. Fertilization is


Ans the fusion of the male and female gametes. This
(C) The outer core fusion creates the first cell of the new plant, the
“It is believed that the movement of molten iron zygote, which then develops into the embryo
in Earth’s core may be the origin for Earth’s within the seed.
magnetic field.” Scientific models specify that this
“geodynamo” effect happens in the liquid outer 83. Which of these statements about the Earth’s
core. uniqueness is incorrect?
(A) The greenhouse effect on Earth is entirely
80. The practice of planting a potato piece with an harmful and should be eliminated.
“eye” to grow a new potato plant is an example (B) The Earth is located in the Sun’s habitable
of: zone.
(A) Sexual reproduction (C) The Earth’s size allows it to have a stable
(B) Germination atmosphere.
(C) Pollination (D) The crust, where life exists, is very thin
(D) Vegetative propagation compared to the whole Earth.
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

Ans (D) Fish fertilization produces a zygote; bird

(A) The greenhouse effect on Earth is entirely fertilization does not.
harmful and should be eliminated.

Ans
The natural greenhouse effect is essential for
life. It “plays an important role in maintaining (C) Fish fertilization is external (in water); bird
just the right temperature on Earth.” It is the fertilization is internal.
enhancement of this effect by human pollution The chapter contrasts these two methods. Many
that is harmful. fish release their gametes directly into the water,
where fertilization occurs. In birds (and mammals),
84. Match the key term related to reproduction and the sperm is deposited inside the female’s body,
life with its definition. and fertilization happens internally.

Column A Column B 86. The Paris Agreement, a global accord on climate

1 Genes A The single cell formed change, set a goal to limit global warming to
when a male gamete below what temperature increase?
and a female gamete (A) 5.0°C
combine. (B) 1.0°C
(C) 0.5°C
2 Fertilization B The detailed instructions (D) 1.5°C
stored inside every
cell that determine an

Ans
organism’s traits. (D) 1.5°C
3 Zygote C The process where male The global agreements explicitly states, “The
and female reproductive Paris Agreement set a goal to limit global warming
cells (gametes) join to to below 1.5°C, but as of 2025, the world is not on
form a new cell. track to meet that goal.”
4 Ozone Layer D A part of the atmosphere 87. If you wanted to create a large number of plants
that acts as a shield, that are genetically identical to a parent plant,
blocking harmful you would use:
ultraviolet (UV) (A) A different species of plant.
radiation from the Sun. (B) Seeds from the parent plant.
Options (C) Pollen from a different plant.
(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B (D) Vegetative propagation from the parent plant.
(b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

Ans
(c) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
(d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (D) Vegetative propagation from the parent plant.
Vegetative propagation (using cuttings, tubers,


Ans etc.) is a form of asexual reproduction. It produces
(b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D clones, which are genetically identical to the single
Genes are the instructional units passed from parent. Using seeds involves sexual reproduction
parent to offspring. Fertilization is the fusion of and would result in genetic variation.
male and female gametes. This fusion results in
88. What is the relationship between genes and
the formation of a zygote. The ozone layer is a
reproduction?
crucial part of the atmosphere that protects life
(A) Genes and reproduction are unrelated
from UV rays.
concepts.
85. What is the main difference between fertilization (B) Genes are destroyed during reproduction.
in a fish and fertilization in a bird? (C) Reproduction is the process by which genes
(A) Fish have sperm and eggs; birds do not. are passed from one generation to the next.
(B) Fish reproduce asexually; birds reproduce (D) Genes prevent reproduction from occurring.
sexually.

Ans
(C) Fish fertilization is external (in water); bird
fertilization is internal. (C) Reproduction is the process by which genes
are passed from one generation to the next.
page 370 Class 8th Science Foundation

Genes contain the hereditary information. 92. What is the term for the process of a seed
Reproduction is the biological mechanism that sprouting and starting to grow into a new plant?
ensures this information is transmitted from (A) Pollination
parents to offspring, allowing for the continuation (B) Fertilization
of the species with its characteristic traits. (C) Germination
(D) Propagation
89. Which of the following is NOT a good reason
to support the creation of protected areas like

Ans
national parks? (C) Germination
(A) They help conserve wildlife and their habitats. The germination in the context of seed dispersal.
(B) They provide land for industrial development Germination is the specific process where a seed,
and urbanization. given the right conditions (like water), begins to
(C) They can play a role in saving nature for grow, developing roots and shoots.
future generations.
(D) They help protect endangered animals and 93. The chapter emphasizes a “delicate balance” on
rare plants. Earth. What does this refer to?
(A) The physical balance of the Earth as it spins


Ans on its axis.
(B) They provide land for industrial development (B) The balance between the amount of land and
and urbanization. water on the surface.
The purpose of a protected area is the exact (C) The intricate and easily disrupted interactions
opposite of industrial development. These areas between Earth’s systems (atmosphere, life,
are set aside specifically to prevent development etc.) that maintain habitable conditions.
and preserve natural ecosystems and biodiversity.
(D) The balance between the number of plants
90. The Earth’s ______ is like the skin of an apple, and animals.
and the ______ is all the water on Earth.

Ans
(A) core, atmosphere
(B) mantle, geosphere (C) The intricate and easily disrupted interactions
(C) crust, hydrosphere between Earth’s systems (atmosphere, life, etc.)
(D) atmosphere, biosphere that maintain habitable conditions.
The term “delicate balance” is used to describe


Ans the complex web of interconnected processes
(C) crust, hydrosphere that keep Earth’s climate and ecosystems stable.
The apple skin analogy to describe the thinness of The chapter warns that human actions can
the crust, the outermost solid layer. It also defines easily disturb this balance, leading to serious
the hydrosphere as the sphere that includes all consequences.
the water on the planet.
94. What is the main difference between a gene and
91. Sexual reproduction is to variation as asexual a zygote?
reproduction is to ______. (A) A gene is a cell, while a zygote is a set of
(A) complexity instructions.
(B) randomness (B) A gene is a single instruction, while a zygote is
(C) speed a complete cell containing all the instructions.
(D) stability (cloning) (C) Genes are for plants, and zygotes are for


Ans animals.
(D) A gene is from the father, and a zygote is
(D) stability (cloning)
from the mother.
The analogy links the type of reproduction to
its key genetic outcome. Sexual reproduction is

Ans
the main source of genetic variation. Asexual
(B) A gene is a single instruction, while a zygote
reproduction produces offspring that are
is a complete cell containing all the instructions.
genetically identical to the parent, ensuring the
A gene is a unit of heredity, a specific segment of
stability of a successful set of genes.
DNA. A zygote is the first complete cell of a new
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

organism, formed by the fusion of two gametes, 98. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
and it contains the entire genome (all the genes) the biosphere?
required for development. (A) It is entirely independent of the other
Earth systems (geosphere, atmosphere,
95. In the context of the Earth’s layers, which part hydrosphere).
is a liquid?
(B) It involves the interaction of organisms with
(A) The inner core
their surroundings.
(B) The outer core
(C) It includes all living things.
(C) The crust
(D) The mantle (D) It includes the land, water, and air where life
exists.


Ans


Ans
(B) The outer core
The diagram of the Earth’s layers explicitly labels (A) It is entirely independent of the other Earth
the outer core as being liquid, while the inner core systems (geosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere).
is labeled as solid. This liquid outer core is crucial The biosphere is completely dependent on the
for generating the Earth’s magnetic field. geosphere for soil and minerals, the hydrosphere
for water, and the atmosphere for gases like
96. Which of the following is an example of sexual oxygen and carbon dioxide.
reproduction in plants?
(A) A strawberry plant sending out runners that 99. Planaria can regrow from a small fragment of its
grow into new plants. body in a process called ______, which is a
(B) A bee transferring pollen between two flowers, form of ______ reproduction.
leading to seed formation. (A) division, sexual
(C) A new plant growing from a fallen leaf. (B) regeneration, asexual
(D) A potato tuber sprouting new plants. (C) fertilization, sexual
(D) budding, sexual


Ans


Ans
(B) A bee transferring pollen between two flowers,
leading to seed formation. (B) regeneration, asexual
The transfer of pollen (containing male gametes) The ability of an organism to regrow lost or
and the subsequent formation of seeds is the damaged parts, or for a fragment to grow into a
process of sexual reproduction in flowering whole new organism, is called regeneration. Since
plants. The other options are all forms of asexual, it involves only one parent and produces a clone,
vegetative propagation. it is a form of asexual reproduction.

97. What is the primary role of the atmosphere’s 100. Venus is to runaway greenhouse effect as
greenhouse effect in making Earth habitable? ______ is to a thin atmosphere.
(A) It traps some of the Sun’s heat, preventing (A) Jupiter
the planet from freezing. (B) Saturn
(B) It creates the oxygen that we breathe. (C) Earth
(C) It filters out harmful cosmic rays. (D) Mars
(D) It blocks all sunlight from reaching the

Ans
surface.
(D) Mars


Ans The analogy contrasts two planets based on their
(A) It traps some of the Sun’s heat, preventing atmospheric conditions. Venus is the example
the planet from freezing. of a planet with an extremely thick atmosphere
Without the greenhouse effect, Earth would be causing a massive greenhouse effect. Mars is used
too cold for liquid water to exist. Greenhouse as an example of a planet that is too small to
gases in the atmosphere trap some of the outgoing hold onto a thick atmosphere, resulting in a very
heat radiation, keeping the planet’s average thin one.
temperature at a comfortable, life-sustaining
level.
page 372 Class 8th Science Foundation

101. A scientist discovers a new planet. It is a rocky The geo-sphere is the solid part of the Earth
planet similar in size to Earth and is located in its (rocks, soil). The sphere that is composed of all
star’s habitable zone. What is the most important life is the biosphere.
additional factor they would look for to assess its
potential for life? 104. What is a key difference between the life cycle of
(A) The presence of a substantial atmosphere and a frog and a human?
water. (A) Frogs have external fertilization in water,
(B) The color of its soil. while humans have internal fertilization.
(C) The speed of its rotation. (B) Frogs do not lay eggs.
(D) The number of moons it has. (C) Humans reproduce asexually, while frogs
reproduce sexually.


Ans
(D) Humans go through a tadpole stage.
(A) The presence of a substantial atmosphere and
water.

Ans
Based on the criteria for life on Earth, being in (A) Frogs have external fertilization in water,
the habitable zone is the first step. The next while humans have internal fertilization.
crucial ingredients are the presence of liquid The fish and frogs as examples of animals where
water and a suitable atmosphere that can regulate fertilization often occurs externally, with gametes
temperature and provide necessary gases. released into the water. It contrasts this with
mammals, including humans, where fertilization
102. How do genes from two parents combine during
is internal.
sexual reproduction?
(A) A single body cell from each parent combines. 105. What are the three components of the ‘triple
(B) The genes are mixed in the air between the planetary crisis’ ?
parents. (A) Overpopulation, poverty, and war
(C) A male gamete (sperm) fuses with a female (B) Climate change, biodiversity loss, and
gamete (egg). pollution
(D) The parents’ bodies physically merge. (C) Water scarcity, food shortages, and energy
crises


Ans
(D) Asteroid impacts, solar flares, and volcanic
(C) A male gamete (sperm) fuses with a female eruptions
gamete (egg).
Sexual reproduction involves the creation of

Ans
specialized reproductive cells, or gametes. The (B) Climate change, biodiversity loss, and
fusion of these two cells, one from each parent, pollution
during fertilization is the event that combines The chapter introduces this specific term
their genetic material to form the first cell of the and defines it clearly, “Today, the biggest
offspring. environmental challenges that we face are climate
change, biodiversity loss, and pollution—together
103. Which statement about the Earth’s spheres is
known as the triple planetary crisis.”
incorrect?
(A) The geo-sphere is composed of all the life on 106. The complete state of physical, mental, and social
Earth. well-being is the definition of:
(B) The hydrosphere is composed of all the water (A) Fitness
on Earth. (B) Life
(C) The biosphere is where all life interacts with (C) Health
its surroundings. (D) Happiness
(D) The atmosphere is composed of all the air

Ans
surrounding Earth.
(C) Health


Ans It defines health not just as the absence of illness,
(A) The geo-sphere is composed of all the life on but as a holistic state of complete well-being
Earth. across physical, mental, and social dimensions.
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

107. Which of the following is NOT a reason Earth’s (A) crust, mantle
atmosphere is important for sustaining life? (B) magnetic field, ozone layer
(A) It traps heat through the greenhouse effect. (C) atmosphere, magnetic field
(B) The ozone layer protects against UV rays. (D) ozone layer, atmosphere
(C) It contains oxygen for respiration.


Ans
(D) It is composed of 95% carbon dioxide.
(B) magnetic field, ozone layer


Ans The magnetic field creates a shield against charged
(D) It is composed of 95% carbon dioxide. particles like the solar wind. The ozone layer,
Earth’s atmosphere is mostly nitrogen (~78%) which is a part of the atmosphere, specifically
and oxygen (~21%). An atmosphere of 95% absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation.
carbon dioxide, like that of Venus, would create a
runaway greenhouse effect and be toxic to life as 111. Budding in Hydra is to asexual reproduction as
we know it. ______ is to sexual reproduction in plants.
(A) regeneration
108. A piece of ginger left in the soil sprouts and grows (B) division
into a new plant. This is a form of: (C) propagation
(A) Fertilization (D) pollination
(B) Asexual reproduction


Ans
(C) Pollination
(D) Sexual reproduction (D) pollination
The analogy links a specific process to the general


Ans type of reproduction it belongs to. Budding
(B) Asexual reproduction is a specific method of asexual reproduction.
The new plant is growing from a vegetative part Pollination is a key step in the process of sexual
(the rhizome or underground stem) of the single reproduction in flowering plants.
parent plant. This process, called vegetative
propagation, is a form of asexual reproduction. 112. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
sexual reproduction?
109. What does it mean for life to ‘thrive’ on Earth, as (A) It involves two parents.
opposed to just ‘exist’ ? (B) It produces offspring that are clones of one
(A) It means that there are many different species. parent.
(B) It means that all organisms are large and (C) It involves the fusion of gametes.
strong. (D) It introduces genetic variation.
(C) It refers to the vast diversity of life forms that

Ans
have evolved and adapted to fill countless
(B) It produces offspring that are clones of one
ecological niches.
parent.
(D) It means that life has existed for a very long
Producing clones (genetically identical offspring)
time.
is the defining feature of asexual reproduction.


Ans Sexual reproduction, by combining genes from
two parents, specifically creates genetically unique
(C) It refers to the vast diversity of life forms
offspring.
that have evolved and adapted to fill countless
ecological niches. 113. Which of the following is NOT listed as a major
The word “thrives” to imply more than just bare sphere of the Earth that interacts to sustain life?
survival. It points to the incredible variety and (A) Atmosphere
complexity of life on Earth, from microbes in (B) Cryosphere
extreme environments to the intricate ecosystems (C) Hydrosphere
of rainforests, showing how life has not just (D) Geosphere
survived but flourished.


Ans
110. The Earth’s ______ protects it from solar (B) Cryosphere
wind, and the ______ protects it from UV The chapter explicitly names and describes the
rays. atmosphere (air), hydrosphere (water), geosphere
page 374 Class 8th Science Foundation

(land), and biosphere (life) as the interacting likely to cause a significant disruption or collapse
systems. The cryosphere (ice) is part of the in a simple food web than in a complex one.
hydrosphere but is not listed as one of the main
categories. 117. The Earth’s ______ protects it from solar
wind, and the ______ protects it from UV
114. If a planet is discovered that is very large and rays.
rocky, what might be a major challenge for life (A) magnetic field, ozone layer
similar to humans? (B) atmosphere, magnetic field
(A) There would be no atmosphere. (C) ozone layer, atmosphere
(B) The planet would be too cold. (D) crust, mantle
(C) The high gravity would be crushing.


Ans
(D) There would be too much water.
(A) magnetic field, ozone layer


Ans The magnetic field creates a shield against charged
(C) The high gravity would be crushing. particles like the solar wind. The ozone layer,
The chapter discusses the importance of Earth’s which is a part of the atmosphere, specifically
“just right” size. It states that if a planet was too absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation.
large, its gravity “was much stronger, it would
perhaps pull us down... with such a large force 118. Sperm is to male as ______ is to female in
that our bones could get crushed!” animal reproduction.
(A) zygote
115. What is the primary benefit of variation created (B) egg
through sexual reproduction? (C) ovule
(A) It reduces the number of offspring that can be (D) pollen
produced.


Ans
(B) It provides the raw material for natural
selection and adaptation to changing (B) egg
environments. The analogy identifies the corresponding gametes.
(C) It makes the process of reproduction much The sperm is the male gamete in animals. The
faster. egg (or ovum) is the female gamete in animals.
(D) It ensures all offspring are identical and well-
119. The fusion of male and female gametes is called:
suited to the current environment.
(A) Reproduction


Ans (B) Development
(B) It provides the raw material for natural (C) Pollination
selection and adaptation to changing environments. (D) Fertilization
Variation means that individuals within

Ans
a population have different traits. If the
(D) Fertilization
environment changes (e.g., new disease, climate
This is the specific scientific term for the event
shift), individuals with certain traits may be more
where the nuclei of the sperm and egg merge,
likely to survive and reproduce. This is the basis
combining their genetic material to form a zygote.
of adaptation and evolution.
120. If all plant life on Earth disappeared, what would
116. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of
be the most immediate and devastating effect on
biodiversity loss?
the atmosphere for animals?
(A) Strengthening of food webs.
(A) The production of oxygen would stop.
(B) Loss of potential sources for new medicines.
(B) The ozone layer would disappear instantly.
(C) Disruption of ecosystems.
(C) The amount of nitrogen would decrease.
(D) Weakening of nature’s ability to support life.
(D) The magnetic field would collapse.


Ans


Ans
(A) Strengthening of food webs.
(A) The production of oxygen would stop.
Biodiversity loss weakens food webs. With fewer
Plants and other photosynthetic organisms are the
species, there are fewer alternative pathways for
primary source of the oxygen in our atmosphere.
energy to flow. The loss of a single species is more
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

Without them, the process of respiration by A gene is a section of DNA that codes for a trait
animals and other organisms would quickly (e.g., the gene for eye color). An allele is a specific
consume the available oxygen, making the air variant of that gene (e.g., the allele for blue eyes
unbreathable. or the allele for brown eyes).

121. What is the fundamental difference between the 124. The solid part of the Earth, including rocks and
development of a bird and a frog after fertilization? minerals, is called the:
(A) The bird undergoes metamorphosis; the frog (A) Atmosphere
does not. (B) Geosphere
(B) The bird has internal fertilization; the frog (C) Hydrosphere
has external fertilization, and both develop in (D) Biosphere
eggs.


Ans
(C) The bird gives birth to live young; the frog
lays eggs. (B) Geosphere
(D) The bird develops inside an egg on land; the The chapter defines the different Earth systems.
frog develops inside an egg in water. The geosphere is the specific term for the planet’s
solid components.


Ans
(B) The bird has internal fertilization; the frog 125. A gardener finds that some of their plants are
has external fertilization, and both develop in being eaten by pests. To follow a sustainable
eggs. practice, what would be a better first step than
While both lay eggs, the fertilization process is spraying chemical pesticides?
different. Birds have internal fertilization before (A) Watering the plants less frequently.
the shelled egg is laid. Frogs typically have (B) Removing all plants from the garden.
external fertilization, where the eggs are fertilized (C) Covering the entire garden with a plastic
by sperm after being laid in the water. sheet.
(D) Introducing natural predators of the pest, like
122. Which of the following is NOT a threat to life on ladybugs.
Earth caused by human activities?


Ans
(A) Enhanced greenhouse effect leading to global
warming. (D) Introducing natural predators of the pest, like
(B) Pollution of air and water. ladybugs.
(C) The Earth’s revolution around the Sun. Sustainable farming practices aim to work with
(D) Deforestation and habitat loss. nature. Using natural predators (biological
control) is an eco-friendly way to manage


Ans pest populations without introducing harmful
(C) The Earth’s revolution around the Sun. chemicals into the environment.
The Earth’s revolution around the Sun is a
natural astronomical process that causes the 126. Why is the apple skin analogy effective in
seasons and is essential for life as we know it. describing the Earth’s crust?
The other options are all harmful consequences of (A) Because the crust is red like an apple.
human activities discussed. (B) Because it visually represents how incredibly
thin the life-supporting layer is compared to
123. What is the main difference between a gene and the planet’s total volume.
an allele? (C) Because the crust contains nutrients just like
(A) An allele is made of many genes. an apple skin.
(B) A gene is a segment of DNA, while an allele is (D) Because it shows the crust is the most
a specific version of that gene. important part of the Earth.
(C) A gene is for plants, while an allele is for


Ans
animals.
(D) There is no difference. (B) Because it visually represents how incredibly
thin the life-supporting layer is compared to the


Ans planet’s total volume.
(B) A gene is a segment of DNA, while an allele The power of this analogy is in its scale. It helps
is a specific version of that gene. us visualize the fragility of the biosphere by
page 376 Class 8th Science Foundation

comparing it to something familiar. The skin of (C) Hydrosphere

an apple is a tiny fraction of the whole apple, just (D) Ecosystem
as the crust is a tiny fraction of the whole Earth.


Ans
127. Which statement about reproduction is false? (A) Geodiversity
(A) Sexual reproduction produces genetically The chapter defines geodiversity as “The variety
identical offspring. of landforms, rocks, soils, etc., on Earth.” It is the
(B) Fertilization is the fusion of gametes. non-living equivalent of biodiversity.
(C) It ensures the continuity of a species.
(D) Asexual reproduction involves a single parent. 131. If a planet were located too close to its star, inside
the habitable zone, what would be the most likely


Ans state of water on its surface?
(A) Sexual reproduction produces genetically (A) It would have evaporated into water vapor (a
identical offspring. gas).
Producing genetically identical offspring (clones) (B) It would be a mixture of liquid and ice.
is the result of asexual reproduction. A key feature (C) It would be frozen solid as ice.
and advantage of sexual reproduction is that it (D) It would exist as a liquid.
creates genetic variation.


Ans
128. Burning fossil fuels releases ______, which (A) It would have evaporated into water vapor
enhances the ______ effect and leads to global (a gas).
warming. The being too close to the Sun (or a star) would
(A) nitrogen, magnetic make a planet too hot. This intense heat would
(B) water vapor, cooling cause any liquid water on the surface to boil and
(C) oxygen, ozone turn into a gas (water vapor).
(D) carbon dioxide, greenhouse
132. The Montreal Protocol is considered a successful


Ans international agreement because:
(D) carbon dioxide, greenhouse (A) It solved the problem of climate change
The chapter identifies the burning of fossil fuels completely.
as the primary source of excess carbon dioxide, (B) It led to the discovery of new planets.
a major greenhouse gas. This extra CO2 in the (C) It effectively addressed the depletion of the
atmosphere traps more heat, enhancing the ozone layer by phasing out harmful chemicals.
natural greenhouse effect and causing the planet’s (D) It established a single global currency.
temperature to rise.


Ans
129. Regeneration in Planaria is to asexual reproduction (C) It effectively addressed the depletion of the
as ______ is to sexual reproduction in humans. ozone layer by phasing out harmful chemicals.
(A) budding The chapter presents the Montreal Protocol as a
(B) cloning success story. It led to a global reduction in the
(C) fertilization production and use of ozone-depleting substances
(D) division like CFCs, which has allowed the protective ozone


Ans layer to begin the slow process of healing.

(C) fertilization 133. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of

The analogy links a specific mechanism to its the Earth’s magnetic field?
broader reproductive category. Regeneration is a (A) It is responsible for the greenhouse effect.
method of asexual reproduction. Fertilization is (B) Migratory birds use it for navigation.
the core event of sexual reproduction in humans (C) It acts as a shield against harmful particles.
and many other animals. (D) It is generated in the Earth’s core.

130. What is the term for the variety of landforms,

Ans

rocks, and soils found on Earth? (A) It is responsible for the greenhouse effect.
(A) Geodiversity The greenhouse effect is an atmospheric
(B) Biodiversity phenomenon caused by certain gases trapping
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

heat. The magnetic field is a separate phenomenon 137. What is the main advantage of internal fertilization
generated deep within the Earth’s core. They are over external fertilization?
two distinct and unrelated protective features of (A) It produces a much larger number of offspring.
our planet. (B) It requires less energy.
(C) It increases the probability of fertilization
134. What is the primary difference between a zygote and protects the gametes from the external
and an embryo? environment.
(A) There is no difference. (D) It only occurs in water.
(B) A zygote is a single cell; an embryo is a


Ans
multicellular structure that develops from the
zygote. (C) It increases the probability of fertilization
(C) A zygote is from the mother; an embryo is and protects the gametes from the external
from the father. environment.
In external fertilization, gametes are vulnerable
(D) A zygote is found in plants; an embryo is
to being washed away, eaten by predators, or
found in animals.
exposed to harsh conditions. Internal fertilization


Ans provides a protected, controlled environment
for the gametes to meet, greatly increasing the
(B) A zygote is a single cell; an embryo is a
chances of successful fertilization.
multicellular structure that develops from the
zygote. 138. Which statement about the “triple planetary
The zygote is the very first stage of development, crisis” is incorrect?
a single cell formed immediately after fertilization. (A) It is primarily caused by natural cycles of the
This single cell then begins to divide repeatedly Earth.
in a process called cleavage, forming a ball of cells (B) It threatens the delicate balance of life on
which is the start of the embryo. Earth.
(C) It includes climate change, biodiversity loss,
135. The process by which different elements combine
and pollution.
in fixed ratios to form something entirely new is
(D) Human actions are a major contributor to the
the definition of a:
crisis.
(A) Mixture
(B) Alloy

Ans
(C) Solution (A) It is primarily caused by natural cycles of the
(D) Compound Earth.


Ans While the Earth has natural cycles, the chapter
explicitly states that the current “triple planetary
(D) Compound
crisis” is being driven and accelerated by human
A compound is a pure substance formed when
actions, such as burning fossil fuels and destroying
atoms of two or more different elements are
habitats.
chemically bonded in a fixed, definite proportion.
139. A ______ is an example of an organism
136. Which of the following human activities directly
that reproduces by budding, while a ______
contributes to biodiversity loss?
reproduces by vegetative propagation.
(A) Planting a variety of native trees.
(A) hydra, potato plant
(B) Recycling plastic waste.
(B) human, bird
(C) Clearing a forest to build a housing complex.
(C) fish, frog
(D) Establishing a national park.
(D) bacterium, virus


Ans


Ans
(C) Clearing a forest to build a housing complex.
(A) hydra, potato plant
Biodiversity loss is primarily driven by habitat
The chapter provides these specific examples of
destruction. Clearing a forest removes the home,
asexual reproduction. Hydra is a simple animal
food sources, and entire ecosystem for countless
that reproduces by growing buds that detach. A
species, directly leading to a reduction in
potato plant can be grown from a piece of the
biodiversity.
tuber (vegetative propagation).
page 378 Class 8th Science Foundation

140. Photosynthesis is to producing oxygen as (A) The genetic instructions (genes) passed down
______ is to releasing carbon dioxide. from their parents.
(A) condensation The fundamental blueprint for an organism’s
(B) reproduction development is contained in its genes.
(C) evaporation These genetic instructions, inherited during
(D) respiration reproduction, ensure that offspring develop into
the correct species with the appropriate traits.


Ans
(D) respiration 144. Which of the following is NOT a good example of
The analogy compares two complementary how Earth’s systems are interconnected?
biological processes based on the gases they (A) Plants (biosphere) release oxygen into the air
exchange with the atmosphere. Photosynthesis (atmosphere).
releases oxygen as a byproduct. Respiration, the (B) Water (hydrosphere) erodes rocks (geosphere).
process of breaking down food for energy, releases (C) Decomposers (biosphere) return nutrients to
carbon dioxide as a byproduct. the soil (geosphere).
(D) The Earth’s magnetic field (from the core) is
141. What is the term for the process of a plant entirely separate and does not interact with
growing from a seed? any other system.
(A) Fertilization
(B) Germination

Ans
(C) Pollination (D) The Earth’s magnetic field (from the core) is
(D) Propagation entirely separate and does not interact with any
other system.


Ans
The magnetic field is a crucial interacting part of
(B) Germination the Earth system. It interacts with the atmosphere
Germination is the specific process in which a seed, and biosphere by protecting them from harmful
under the right conditions, ends its dormancy and solar and cosmic radiation.
begins to sprout, developing into a seedling.
145. What is the main difference in the offspring
142. The use of CFCs in aerosols and refrigerators was produced by asexual versus sexual reproduction?
banned by the Montreal Protocol because they (A) Asexual offspring are genetically identical
were found to be destroying the: (clones); sexual offspring are genetically
(A) Earth’s magnetic field unique.
(B) Ozone layer (B) Asexual offspring are always plants; sexual
(C) Hydrosphere offspring are always animals.
(D) Geosphere (C) Asexual reproduction produces more offspring


Ans than sexual reproduction.
(D) Asexual offspring are genetically diverse;
(B) Ozone layer
sexual offspring are identical.
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) were identified as the
primary chemical agents responsible for depleting

Ans
the protective ozone layer in the stratosphere. The (A) Asexual offspring are genetically identical
Montreal Protocol was the international treaty (clones); sexual offspring are genetically unique.
designed to phase out their production and use. This is the fundamental genetic difference.
Asexual reproduction involves one parent and
143. The fact that a calf grows into a cow and a kitten
produces clones. Sexual reproduction involves
grows into a cat is determined by the:
combining genes from two parents, which results
(A) The genetic instructions (genes) passed down
in variation and unique offspring.
from their parents.
(B) The environment they grow up in. 146. Genes are to instructions as a ______ is to a
(C) The type of food they eat. complete instruction manual.
(D) The amount of sleep they get. (A) cell (B) gamete
(C) zygote (D) genome


Ans


Ans
Pagesmith CH 13 : Our Home : Earth, a Unique Life Sustaining Planet

(D) genome (B) Budding

The analogy relates a unit of information to the Pollination, fertilization, and seed formation are
complete set. A single gene is one instruction. The all key stages in the sexual reproductive cycle of
entire set of genetic instructions for an organism flowering plants. Budding is a form of asexual
is called its genome. reproduction, seen in organisms like yeast and
Hydra.
147. The international agreements like the Kyoto
Protocol and the Paris Agreement primarily 150. Why can sexual reproduction be described as a
address which global problem? “genetic lottery”?
(A) Plastic pollution in the oceans (A) Because it is a game of chance with no rules.
(B) Ozone layer depletion (B) Because it always results in a winning
(C) Climate change due to greenhouse gas combination of traits.
emissions (C) Because the combination of genes from two
(D) Air pollution from soot parents that an offspring receives is random.
(D) Because it is very expensive.


Ans
(C) Climate change due to greenhouse gas

Ans
emissions (C) Because the combination of genes from two
The chapter’s overview of global agreements parents that an offspring receives is random.
specifically links the Kyoto Protocol and the Each gamete carries a different set of instructions
Paris Agreement to the international effort to get and that they “mix in different ways each time.”
countries to commit to reducing their emissions of This random shuffling and combination of
greenhouse gases to combat global warming. parental genes means that the genetic makeup of
any individual offspring is a matter of chance.
148. Why are fossils of ancient marine life sometimes
found on high mountaintops? 151. The Earth is the only planet known to have liquid
(A) Because the sea level was once much higher ______ on its surface and an atmosphere rich
than the mountains. in ______.
(B) Because the animals were carried there by (A) methane, helium
birds. (B) water, oxygen
(C) Because ancient people carried them there. (C) iron, carbon dioxide
(D) Because of geodiversity and geological (D) lava, nitrogen
processes like uplift that have raised the


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seafloor over millions of years.
(B) water, oxygen


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The chapter repeatedly highlights these two
(D) Because of geodiversity and geological features as being critical for life as we know it and
processes like uplift that have raised the seafloor unique to Earth among the planets in our solar
over millions of years. system.
The concept of geodiversity includes the processes
that shape the Earth. The presence of marine
fossils on mountains is powerful evidence for plate
tectonics and geological uplift, showing how the
152. The layer of gases that surrounds the Earth is
Earth’s geosphere is constantly changing over
called the:
vast timescales.
(A) Atmosphere
149. Which of the following is NOT part of the process (B) Geosphere
of sexual reproduction in plants? (C) Hydrosphere
(A) Fertilization (D) Biosphere
(B) Budding

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(C) Seed formation
(A) Atmosphere
(D) Pollination
This is the specific term defined for the envelope


Ans of air that surrounds our planet.
page 380 Class 8th Science Foundation

153. An animal gives birth to a live young one that

*************

develops inside the mother’s body. This animal is
most likely a:
(A) Bird
(B) Mammal
(C) Frog
(D) Fish


Ans
(B) Mammal
The chapter contrasts the reproductive strategies
of different animal groups. Giving birth to live
young after a period of internal development
(gestation) is the defining characteristic of most
mammals.

154. What is the connection between the burning of

fossil fuels and rising sea levels?
(A) Burning fossil fuels releases water, which fills
the oceans.
(B) Burning fossil fuels releases CO2, which causes
global warming, which in turn melts glaciers
and ice caps.
(C) There is no connection.
(D) The smoke from burning fossil fuels pushes
the water up.


Ans
(B) Burning fossil fuels releases CO2, which causes
global warming, which in turn melts glaciers and
ice caps.
Burning fossil fuels (cause) ® increased CO2
(effect/new cause) ® enhanced greenhouse effect/
global warming (effect/new cause) ® melting of
land-based ice (effect/new cause) ® rising sea
levels (final effect).

155. Which of the following is NOT a good sustainable

practice?
(A) Throwing away all used items to buy new
ones.
(B) Reusing items whenever possible.
(C) Reducing consumption of goods.
(D) Recycling materials like plastic and paper.


Ans
(A) Throwing away all used items to buy new
ones.
The “reduce, reuse, recycle” hierarchy is a core
principle of sustainability. A “throw-away”
culture that encourages constant consumption
and disposal is the opposite of this and is
unsustainable.