SECTION 1 A

Direction for Questions (1 to 4): In each question, a phrase is given in bold letters. Select the sentence from the given
answer choices that conveys the same meaning as given in the original sentence.

1. He has been busy “searching for” the origin of his family, “which was hidden and difficult to find”.
(1) He has been busy hunting up the origins of his family.
(2) He has been busy hunting out the origins of his family.
(3) He has been busy hunting after the origins of his family.
(4) He has been busy hunting down the origins of his family.
(5) He has been busy hunting for the origins of his family.

2. The decision on the matter “is the responsibility of” the prime minister.
(1) The decision on the matter lies up the prime minister.
(2) The decision on the matter lies with the prime minister.
(3) The decision on the matter lies down under the prime minister.
(4) The decision on the matter lies behind the prime minister.
(5) The decision on the matter lies over the prime minister.

3. She told her daughter not to “waste” herself on that dull job.
(1) She told her daughter not to fling herself off on that dull job.
(2) She told her daughter not to fling herself out on that dull job.
(3) She told her daughter not to fling herself up on that dull job.
(4) She told her daughter not to fling herself away on that dull job.
(5) She told her daughter not to fling herself on that dull job.

4. She managed to “induce” him to her views very soon.

(1) She managed to bring him round to her views very soon.
(2) She managed to bring him home to her views very soon.
(3) She managed to bring him up to her views very soon.
(4) She managed to bring him on to her views very soon.
(5) She managed to bring him over to her views very soon.

Direction for Questions (5 to 7): A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. In each question the middle sentence is fixed in its place. Keeping this in
mind, choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

5.
(A) The P.M’s special envoy on Afghanistan says, “we find it difficult to distinguish between ‘good’ and ‘bad’
Taliban.”
(B) Describing it as an oxymoron, they say “good Taliban” can’t be found in a group subscribing to religious belief so
repulsively retrograde.
(C) Such formulations as a “good Taliban” have the Indian foreign policy establishment bristling.
(D) The world has now once again turned its gaze on Afghanistan, hoping to restore peace and stability to a country
ravaged by war for nearly three decades.
(E) The United States and others are searching for a “good Taliban” who can be weaned away from violence in return
for a share in power.
(1) ABCDE (2) DECBA (3) DACBE (4) BACED (5) EBCDA

6.
(A) Where is your blowing bulb located?
(B) Do your bulbs keep blowing?
(C) Have you chosen the correct bulb for the lamp?
(D) Vibration near a bulb from washing machines, children playing or even walking up stairs will often snuff out a
light source.

888 A1 A
 (E) Before you call out the electrician, run through these checks.
(1) BECAD (2) EACBD (3) DECBA (4) ABCED (5) ABCDE

7.
(A) Tigers can’t count.
(B) When they depart, they leave the buffalo tethered to the tree.
(C) Several people walk through the cats’ territory leading a buffalo, and then stop at the clearing.
(D) This is the key to the baiting method of hunting them.
(E) What the tigers’ don’t know is that two of the hunters have stayed behind to hunt them down.
(1) EBCAD (2) AECDB (3) ADCBE (4) DACBE (5) ABCDE

Direction for Questions (8 to 10): Fill in the gaps in the passage below with the most appropriate word from the options
given for each gap. The right words are the ones used by the author. Be guided by the author’s overall style and meaning
when you choose the answer:
Are we responsible for the distrust, even the --------8-----------, Kashmiris feel when they consider their 60-year association
with India? Have we betrayed promises, mistreated our fellow citizens, ---------9----------on their rights and brutally shattered
their dreams? Did our behaviour make the insurgency ‘inevitable’?
It may seem odd to ask these questions when Srinagar is enjoying its best summer since 1989 but, I would argue, this is one
reason why they need to be asked all the more forcefully. Just because the situation seems more normal doesn’t mean the
underlying grievances have disappeared. And if we don’t look for honest answers we could slide back towards the
……10……..

8. (1) Unfriendliness (2) Alienations (3) Betrayal

(4) Treachery (5) Infidelity

9. (1) Crushed (2) Trespassed (3) Trampled

(4) Encroached (5) Broken

10. (1) Cliff (2) Beginning (3) Precipice

(4) War (5) End

SECTION-1B

Direction for Questions (11 to 15): Read the passage given below and select the best option for the questions that follow.

Chartrand had only been at the Vatican a few months when he heard the story of the bomb that blew up the camerlengo’s
mother before the kid’s very eyes. A bomb in church… and now it’s happening all over again. Sadly, the authorities never
caught the bastards who planted the bomb ……. probably some anti-Christian hate group they said, and the case faded away.
No wonder the camerlengo despised apathy.

A couple months back, on a peaceful afternoon inside Vatican City, Chartrand had bumped into the camerlengo coming
across the grounds. The camerlengo had apparently recognized Chartrand as a new guard and invited him to accompany him
on a stroll. They had talked about nothing in particular, and the Camerlengo made Chartrand feel immediately at home.

‘Father,’ Chartrand said, ‘may I ask you a strange question?’

The camerlengo smiled. ‘Only if I may give you a strange answer.’
Chartrand laughed. ‘I have asked every priest I know, and I still don’t understand.’
‘What troubles you?’ The camerlengo led the way in short, quick strides, his frock kicking out in front of him as he walked.
His black, crepe-sole shoes seemed befitting, Chartrand thought, like reflections of the man’s essence…… modern but
humble and showing signs of wear.
Chartrand took a deep breath. ‘I don’t understand this omnipotent-benevolent thing.’
The camerlengo smiled. ‘You’ve been reading Scripture.’
‘I try.’
‘You are confused because the Bible describes God as an omnipotent and benevolent deity.’

888 A2 A
‘Exactly’
‘Omnipotent-benevolent simply means that God is all-powerful and well-meaning.’
‘I understand the concept. It’s just there seems to be a contradiction.’
‘Yes. The contradiction is pain. Man’s starvation, war, sickness….’
‘Exactly!’ Chartrand knew the camerlengo would understand. ‘Terrible things happen in this world. Human tragedy seems
like proof that God could not possibly be both all-powerful and well-meaning. If He loves us and has the power to change our
situation, He would prevent our pain, wouldn’t He?’
The camerlengo frowned.’ Would He?
Chartrand felt uneasy. Had he overstepped his bounds? Was this one of those religious questions you just didn’t ask?
‘Well….. If God loves us, and He can protect us, He would have to. It seems He is either omnipotent and uncaring, or
benevolent and powerless to help.’
‘Do you have children, Lieutenant?’
Chartrand flushed. ‘No’ signore’
‘Imagine you had an eight-year-old son….. would you love him?’
‘Of course.’
‘Would you do everything in your power to prevent pain in his life?’
‘Of course.’
‘Would you let him skateboard?’
Chartrand did a double take. The camerlengo always seemed oddly ‘in touch’ for a clergyman. ‘Yeah, I guess,’ Chartrand
said. ‘Sure, I’d let him skateboard, but I’d tell him to be careful.’
‘So as this child’s father, you would give him some basic, good advice and then let him go off and make his own mistakes?’
‘I wouldn’t run behind him and mollycoddle him if that’s what you mean.’
‘But what if he fell and skinned his knee?’
‘He would learn to be more careful.’
The camerlengo smiled. ‘So although you have the power to interfere and prevent your child’s pain, you would choose to
show your love by letting him learn his own lessons?’
‘Of course. Pain is part of growing up. It’s how we learn.’
The camerlengo nodded. ‘Exactly.’

11. According to the phrase ‘this omnipotent-benevolent thing’ the author says:
(1) God gives good advice and lets man go off make his own mistakes.
(2) God choose to show His love by letting man learn from his own mistakes.
(3) God is benign, altruistic, magnanimous, and invincible
(4) God can protect man but he does not.
(5) God does not care about man’s pain.

12. What does Chartrand mean when he says -the camerlengo always seemed oddly ‘in touch’ for a clergyman?
(1) The camerlengo did not have the answer to his spiritual question.
(2) Unlike other priests, he was rather interested in family affairs than spirituality.
(3) Unlike other priests, he had a more practical way of explaining the Lord’s powers.
(4) Both (ii) and (iii)
(5) None of the above

13. In discussing the line-“It seems He is either omnipotent and uncaring, or benevolent and powerless to help”-the
camerlengo explain
(1) The God loves his children and He should protect them, if he can.
(2) God chooses to give man a chance to learn from his mistakes.
(3) God does not have the power to interfere, although He is benevolent.
(4) God is all-powerful yet does not care much for his children.
(5) Both (iii) and (iv)

14. Which of the following contradicts the information in the passage?

(1) Chartrand thought the camerlengo was not like other clergymen and that he despised apathy.
(2) The camerlengo could easily befriend a person and had a pragmatic approach to spirituality.
(3) The prevalent human tragedy proofs that God is not omnipotent and benevolent.

888 A3 A
 (4) In future Chartrand wouldn’t run behind his son but choose to make him learn from his own lessons.
(5) God is aware of the man’s starvation, war, sickness and pain.

15. The significant characteristic feature of the camerlengo as inferred from the passage is:
(i) Pragmatic
(ii) Philistine
(iii) Amicable
(iv) Avaricious
(1) Only (ii) (2) Both (i) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) only (i)
(5) both (i) and (iv)

Direction for Questions (16 to 19): Read the passage given below and select the best option for the questions that follow.
In his 1997 book, “The Genius of Shakespeare”, Jonathan Bate wrote about the man whom Ben Jonson, a rival playwright,
poet and actor, described as “not of the age, but for all time”. In his new book, which is being published in America this
month (it came out in Britain in October), Mr. Bate explores a different Shakespeare, one Jonson described as “Soul of the
Age!”, the man who stood for and expressed the essence of his generation.

The effect, curiously, is not to distance the man, but to sharpen him. Approaching him locally, with connections to specific
places and people, with certain books on his desk, and an eye out for particular political and diplomatic pitfalls—all this
brings Shakespeare into focus. Not that any biographer has much hard fact to work on. As Mr. Bate says, Shakespeare is
elusive in every way: in his politics, religion, and sexuality and in everything else that matters. The trick, it seems, is to pay
very close attention to what evidence there is, not to take anything for granted and, well, to know a great deal about his
world.

Take Gloucestershire, for example, or even Warwickshire. It turns out that Shakespeare was the only dramatist of the period
to stage scenes in these counties. (The Justice Shallow bits, with their intensely local country references in the second part of
“Henry IV” come especially to mind.) At first glance this is nice to know, but no more than a dab of colour on the hills-and-
dales Shakespeare who sits alongside the court-and-tavern one. What we don’t think of in this connection is maps—or rather
Christopher Saxton’s map of England, published in 1579, and Marcus Gheeraerts the Younger’s portrait of Queen Elizabeth I
standing on this map, her foot somewhere in Oxfordshire.

The Saxton maps (there were separate county maps too) were the first to show England to itself in any detail: roads, towns,
rivers, every crook and corner. They were part of the great Elizabethan project for an English Protestant national identity.
They demonstrated the extent of the monarch’s reach. But as Mr. Bate points out, this cut both ways. For they also gave
people a sense of belonging to the land itself as much as to the crown. Shakespeare’s career, he argues, was more evenly split
between London and Warwickshire, town and country, than is generally supposed. This duality influenced the whole
structure of his thought, feeding in to the idea of a deep England, an England that wasn’t London. It is a long story, with
many branches, and Mr. Bate teases it out with the mixture of precise, wide-ranging historical, biographical and literary
scholarship that distinguishes the book as a whole.

Mr. Bate arranges his material around the seven ages of man, as in the melancholy Jacques’s “All the world’s a stage” speech
from “As You Like It”. Even so, this is not straight chronological Shakespeare. It almost doesn’t matter in what order you
read the book. The fascinating account of Shakespeare’s Latin training, and how it shaped his use of language, should be read
early. Mr Bate’s later discussions, particularly of “The Tempest”, show how intricately he counterpointed the classical and
Christian traditions. But the section on the Essex rebellion and the role of Shakespeare’s potentially subversive “Richard II”
(a play about a monarch deposed and assassinated) can be read, thrillingly, on its own. Mr. Bate dusts off the much-told
story, and brings his man much closer to real danger. Luckily for us, it was Sir John Hayward, author of a Shakespeare-
influenced history of Richard II, who was thrown in the Tower and interrogated when treason was the cry.
So what was Shakespeare like? Canny, skeptical, sympathetic: might Enobarbus, the humorously detached and yet
emotionally entangled friend of Cleopatra’s Antony come closest to him, Mr. Bate wonders? A constant theme is
Shakespeare’s resistance to definition. He offered “questions and debates, not propaganda and positions”. Just as he has been
appropriated, so he appropriated ideas from everyone else. On balance, Mr. Bate suggests, the humane realism of Epicurus,
an ancient Greek philosopher, whose pliable ness and variety of mind Shakespeare would have encountered indirectly
through the essays of Montaigne, is a good place to start.

888 A4 A
16. What can be inferred about Ben Johnson after reading the passage?
(1) The man was a supporter of Shakespeare and stood for him.
(2) The man although a rival, was an ardent fan of Shakespeare.
(3) The man described Shakespeare as the personification of the Elizabethan age.
(4) Ben’s connection with Shakespeare made it easy for him to write a biography on him.
(5) Only (b) and (d)

17. What does Jonathan Bate say about the nature of Shakespeare?
(1) He is canny, skeptical, sympathetic & humorously detached.
(2) Shakespeare was a pliant and a genius in diversity.
(3) He had an eye for particular details of the Elizabethan age and portrayed these through his works.
(4) The author is ambivalent and is unable to decipher much about Shakespeare’s character.
(5) Both 1 and 4.

18. What is said about the “Saxton maps” in the passage?

(1) Queen Elizabeth I patronized these maps for manifestation of her power.
(2) Marcus Gheeraerts humiliated Saxton by making Queen Elizabeth I stand on the maps.
(3) The demonstrated the extent of the monarch, Christopher Saxton’s reach.
(4) Both 1 and 3
(5) All 1, 2 and 3

19. What could be the implied similarity between Saxton’s creation and Shakespeare’s work?
(1) Both their works represented Queen Elizabeth I’s reign during 1579.
(2) Both their works denote an England that was not London.
(3) Their works were a part of the great Elizabethan project and demonstrated the extent of her power.
(4) Both their works portrayed every details of both town and country of England in the Elizabethan era.
(5) Both 2 and 4.

Direction for Questions (20 to 24): Read the passage given below and select the best option for the questions that follow.
Fund managers are trained to be doubtful about an emerging market with rising fiscal deficits. But to associate high Indian
deficit ratios with higher risk is to extrapolate unconditionally from past crises in Latin American countries where these
features were found together. These countries had low saving rates and low population densities. In India higher private
saving compensates for government disserving. In high population density emerging markets in a catch-up phase, labour
share in productive occupations rises, and debt ratios fall.

In Asia a rise in income tends to raise savings more than consumption. In boom times investment may exceed saving but only
marginally. So the current account deficit, which finances the difference between investment and domestic savings, remained
around 1% of GDP in India. Capital flows much larger than the current account deficit were accumulated as reserves. With
these cushions of domestic and foreign resources available, temporary, government disserving is not threatening. It is not
threatening especially when it is required in a situation of direct external demand shocks, and a fear cum earlier domestic
monetary tightening led decline in demand, so that output is growing at much below its potential. The government is the one
agent who can act immune from sentiment. The widening deficit is partly, therefore, a conscious policy measure. Fiscal
boosts have contributed to making India one of the brighter spots in a dismal globe.
A distinction should be made between structural and cyclical deficits. At the present juncture, with private demand slowing, a
cyclical deficit is needed. A structural deficit is also required, to remove infrastructure bottlenecks, but deficits should be
reduced in good times.

There are fears, however, the government may not have the capacity to reverse run-away deficits, and that no credible plan
has been presented for doing so. But India does have improved systems, independent of government, that have delivered.
There has been a steady lowering of tax rates. Technology has been used to broaden coverage, and reduce loop holes. The
experience with the destination-based state-level VAT since 2005 has been good. The proposed move to GST in 2010 should
yield large efficiency gains of one market. Continuing growth may protect some of the recent buoyancy in tax revenue but
revenue expansion due to improved compliance and broad basing will survive a slowdown. Many of the current pressures on
the budget are short-term. Oil subsidies are no longer required, pay commission arrears and loan waivers would be
completed. India, as a net importer, benefits from low commodity prices. Tax cuts can be reversed.

888 A5 A
The fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, contributed to the improvement in government finances,
which were on track to meet announced targets before the oil shock hit. But the episode showed that inadequate attention had
been paid to incentives in formulating the Act. Loopholes can be found to maintain the letter of a law even while violating its
spirit. Since only the interest payment on oil bonds enters the government budget, these off balance-sheet items were
creatively used to subsidies some petroleum products. Targets were mechanically achieved, compressing essential
expenditure on infrastructure, health and education, while maintaining populist subsidies.

The 13th Finance Commission has been asked to reset the path of fiscal consolidation. Hopefully, there will be learning from
the experience. The FRBM should be reframed to encourage genuine improvement. Compliance is better if constraints are
placed on spending instead of on the deficit. Caps by expenditure type can protect productive expenditure, while enforcing
reductions in discretionary spending, but with escape clauses for emergencies. New transfer payment must demonstrate
assured funding so that they do not increase future deficits. Since restraints cover only spending, as revenues fall in a
slowdown, the deficit can increase. Countercyclical deficits are another escape clause. Such flexibility lowers pressure to
break the law, giving it more credibility.

The RBI can manage higher government borrowing to limit the impact on the interest rate through OMOs at different points
in the term structure. Even if the leeway from winding down MSS balances is exhausted, reduced capital inflows allows a
larger share of reserve money growth to come from RBI acquisition of government securities. This helps finance the deficit
and limits crowding out of reviving private borrowing.

Indian interest rates fell after 2000, despite high showing the leeway to reduce interest rates. Today, once more, interest rates
are headed downwards and moderate growth should continue. Diversified sources sustain Indian growth including domestic
demand, agriculture, technology the demographic profile, the infrastructure cycle, and having crossed a critical threshold,
Dependence on external demand is low compared to other Asian countries. So is the dependence on foreign capital. Although
savings are high about half of household savings are in physical forms. Slowdown in foreign funds may force development of
the corporate bond market. And require RBI backing of credit to SMEs to better intermediate savings and raise India’s low
credit/GDP ratio. Firm’s large external borrowing, as norms were liberalized, began from a cash-rich, low-debt position so
they can sustain the risk premium and exchange rate shocks.

Falling real interest rates and rising growth rates effectively reduce government debt. The primary deficit (PD) as a ratio of
GDP, which had, after many years, turned into a surplus in 2006-07, has increased to 2.5. This must be brought down. The
PD ratio directly adds to the debt ratio if the real interest rate equals the rate of growth. For the debt ratio to stay unchanged,
at the current PD ratio, the growth rate must exceed the real interest rate by 300 basis points.
The crisis has shown the importance of both effective government and well functioning markets. Indian governments are
prone to wastage and delays. But our policymakers respond well to crisis, and this one may galvanize them into making
required systemic corrections.

20. According to the passage, the attitude of fund managers towards emerging markets is
(1) Optimistic (2) Polemical (3) Prejudiced (4) Condescension (5) Neutral

21. The passage suggests which of the followings EXCEPT

(1) The increasing fiscal deficit in an economic slowdown is necessary.
(2) There is a need to reframe the FRBM act for the improvement in fiscal consolidation.
(3) Higher government deficit is well negated by availability of foreign capital flow and domestic savings.
(4) The policymakers in India have been insensitive and prosaic to the flux in economic scenario.
(5) None of the above

22. Which of the following statements is/are highlights of Indian economy that/those make(s) this country less susceptible
to the ongoing crisis?
(1) Less reliance on demand of goods from foreign country
(2) High amount of private savings
(3) High amount of capital inflows as compared to current account deficit
(4) All the above statements except 3
(5) 1,2 and 3

888 A6 A
23. The most appropriate title of the passage is
(1) Indian Economy – a snapshot
(2) Risk and Indian Deficits
(3) Policies to combat the recession
(4) Economic policies and its relevance
(5) Hurdles to economic growth

24. When the author describes that “The government is the one agent who can act immune from the sentiments”, he means
that
(1) The downturn is paced due to psychological fear in the mind of people.
(2) The government is apathetic and unconcerned about the emotions of the people and work in its own way.
(3) The government is capable to take rational decisions without any emotional biases.
(4) The government does not get influenced with the feelings of people.
(5) None of these

Direction for Questions (25 to 30): A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four
given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

25.
(A) Freedoms of expression are among our most fundamental liberties. Offensive ideas are part of the price one must
pay to protect these constitutional rights.
(B) The regulation of hate speech is deservedly controversial, in part because debates over hate speech seem to have
teased a part libertarian and egalitarian strands within the liberal tradition.
(C) Hate speech employs discriminatory epithets to insult and stigmatize others on the basis of their race, gender,
sexual orientation, or other forms of group membership.
(D) In the civil rights movements of the 1960s, libertarian concerns with freedom of movement and association and
equal opportunity pointed in the same direction as egalitarian concerns with eradicating racial discrimination and
the social and economic inequalities that this discrimination maintained.
(E) On the other hand, libertarian concerns may seem to constrain the pursuit of equality. Though one may abhor hate
speech and its effects, the cure might seem at least as bad as the disease.
(F) But debates over hate speech regulation seem to force one to give priority to equality or to liberty. On the one
hand, egalitarian concerns may seem to require restricting freedom of expression.
(1) CBDFEA (2) ADFECB (3) ACBFED (4) DAFECB (5) FEDCBA

26.
(A) In unsettled times, how can they keep their people focused and engaged?
(B) How can companies achieve necessary workforce reductions yet maintain, or even improve, productivity levels?
(C) How can they put together the right mix of tools, rewards, training and career opportunities to provide the job
satisfaction necessary to retain their top talent?
(D) Today the pressure to effect critical change quickly is more relentless than ever.
(E) The trouble is, techniques and approaches for improving workforce performance and linking it to bottom-line
value, like many initiatives that go right to the heart of an organization, often seem to play out at a glacial pace.
(F) Most important, how can they do all this right now?
(1 ) BACFDE (2) CFABDE (3) DEFBAC (4) BCFDEA (5) DEBACF

27.
(A) The quintessential artist in him also kept the rebel in him alive, for he was ready to take up cudgels on behalf of
the underdog to give them a hand in their fight and prove the conformists wrong.
(B) There used to be one small abstract work of his on board-that used to hang in my aunt’s staircase for years until a
house painter decided to use it to mix whitewash on-that was indicative of his style during that period.
(C) Manjit Bawa was an artist who actually lived like one- down to the actual disorder–keeping the child in him alive,
ever moved by the wonder of new experience and willing to explore it to the point where his curiosity was
satiated.
(D) But those were the days when art was something one did in addition to a stable job or profession.

888 A7 A
 (E) It was only the “add-on” but Manjit wanted to pursue it as his mainstay and it was his sitarist wife Sharda, who
allowed him the luxury of following his dream – especially in their sojourn in Britain. Those were early days.
(F) Like most artists in the ‘70s, he too was exploring the genre of the abstract looking westwards for his reference
points.
(1) CEADFB (2) CADEFB (3) CDEAFB (4) FBCADE (5) CAFBDE
28.
(A) It upholds the right of people to live in freedom from persecution and arbitrary arrest; to hold any faith or none; to
change religion;
(B) This asserts the right of human beings in ways that are now entrenched in the theory and (most of the time) the
practice of liberal democracy.
(C) But there is an insidious blurring of categories here,
(D) which becomes plain when you compare this resolution with the more rigorous language of the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights, adopted in 1948 in a spirit of revulsion over the evils of fascism.
(E) and to enjoy freedom of expression, which by any fair definition includes freedom to agree or disagree with the
tenets of any religion.
(F) The resolution says “defamation of religions” is a “serious affront to human dignity” which can “restrict the
freedom” of those who are defamed, and may also lead to the incitement of violence.
(1) FAEBCD (2) FBCDAE (3) BAEFCD (4) FCDBAE (5) BAECDF

29.
(A) During the dotcom boom, the idea got about that there could be such a thing as a free lunch, or at least free
internet services.
(B) “IN RECENT years, consumers have become used to feasting on online freebies of all sorts: news, share quotes,
music, e-mail and even speedy internet access.
(C) These words appeared in The Economist in April 2001, but they’re just as applicable today.
(D) Firms sprang up to offer content and services online, in the hope that they would eventually be able to “monetise”
the resulting millions of “eyeballs” by selling advertising.
(E) Things did not work out that way, though, and the result was the dotcom crash
(F) These days, however, dotcoms are not making news with yet more free offerings, but with lay-offs—and with
announcements that they are to start charging for their services.”
(1) AFDEBC (2) BFCADE (3) ADEBFC (4) ADECBF (5) BFCEAD

30.
(A) Today, these may be issues you and I empathise with.
(B) And of course, there was the Iraqi journalist who began it all by throwing a full swing at President Bush.
(C) Indians love quoting that example, even though there is absolutely no parallel at all with our own socio-political
context. It may all seem funny and the stuff of satire.
(D) But the truth is that if a civilized society needs to depend on this sort of protests to move the system, we are in real
jeopardy.
(E) Shoe-throwing — no matter how many jokes it spawns — can not and must not have our approval.
(F) Tomorrow, hooligans or hate-mongers will use the same mode or “protest” to run riot.
(1) EABCDF (2) BCDAFE (3) ABCDEF (4) AFBCDE (5) EFABCD

888 A8 A
 SECTION 2A

31. If a, b, c and d are all positive real values, then which of the following can not be the value of
1 1 1 1
( a + b) + + (c + d ) +
c d a b
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16 (5) 17

32. How many odd integers not less then 2987 and less then 5017 have none of its digits repeated?
(1) 504 (2) 505 (3) 506 (4) 507 (5) 508

33. There are 8 speakers in a function and they all speak in random order, the probability that A speaks before B, B speaks
before C and C speaks before D, is
(1) 3/8 (2) 1/24 (3) 1/6 (4) 3/5 (5) None of these

34. If the roots of quadratic equation x2 – 8x – log4 N = 0 are real, then find the minimum value of N.
(1) 4-64 (2) 4-32 (3) 4-16 (4) 4-8 (5) 48

1 1 1 1 1 1
35. A person has to distribute some amount of money (only in 5 rupee coins) 6 friends in the ratio of : : : : : ,
1 2 3 4 5 6
what is second lowest amount (in Rs.) that he can distribute to his friends?
(1) 147 (2) 294 (3) 735 (4) 1470 (5) None of these

36. If I have 50 times 1’s, 50 times 2’s, 50 times 3’s and 50 times 4’s. Now I form numbers by arranging these 200 digits
in all possible ways. How many of these numbers are perfect squares?
(1) 100 (2) 100100 (3) 2001001 (4) 1001 (5) None of these

37. There are 8 days in a week & 36 hours in a day and 90 minutes in an hour and 60 seconds in each minute on a planet
Jadooland. Find the approximate angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock on that planet when the time
is 16:50 AM. Hours hand is taking 2 round in a day.
(1) 1890 (2) 3200 (3)1310 (4)1650 (5) 1270

38. Suppose, the seed of any positive integer n is defined as follows:

Seed (n) = n, if n < 10
= seed (s (n)), otherwise
Where s(n) indicates the sum of digits of n. For example
Seed (7) = 7, seed (248) = seed((2+4+8)) = seed (14) = seed (1 + 4) = seed (5) =5
Seed (7896) = Seed (30 ) = Seed (3) = 3 etc.
Find the value of
seed (seed (32) + seed (332) + seed (3332) + ……..+ seed (3….200 times 32))
(1) 1800 (2) 9 (3) 6 (4) 3 (5) None of these

39. A group of workers complete a certain job in 9 days. But it so happens that every alternate day starting from the
second day, 2 workers are withdrawn from the job and every alternate day starting from the third day, one worker is
added to the group. In such a way, the job is finished by the time, there is no worker left. If it takes the double time to
finish the job now, find the number of workers who started the job?
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 (5) None of these

40. In the expansion of (a+b+c)30, how many terms are there with atleast one power of a, one power of b and one power of
c.
(1) 496 (2) 465 (3) 435 (4) 406 (5) None of these

888 A9 A
 SECTION – 2 B

41. ∠TBC = 900, BC = 8 cm and all small circles are same with radius 2. Find ungrazed area.
There are semi circular field of radius 40 meters. There are six points P,Q,R,S,T and U. Where six horses are tide with
a rope of 20 meters as shown in the figure. ∠TBC = 900 . Find out the ungrazed area.

(1) 300 π m2 (2) 200 π + 300 m2 (3) 300 π + 200 m2 (4) 200πµ2 (5) None of these

42. A circle C1 of Radius 2 is drawn in a square ABCD. Now, Four more circles C2, C3, C4 & C5, each of Radius 2 cm are
drawn with centers as A, B, C and D respectively. Now a square EFGH is drawn such that it is in side the ABCD & its
vertices are on C2, C3, C4 & C5. Find the area of the part which is in side the ABCD but out side of EFGH & C2, C3, C4
& C5.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6

Direction for Questions (43 to 44): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mr. Ashish sells scent during the day. He sells 9.09% of the total quantity of the scent with him in the morning. He observes
that the total quantity of the scent with him in the morning is 10% less than the quantity of scent with him on the previous
night. This is because the scent evaporates during the course of the night. Everyday he increases the selling price of the scent
by 10% with respect to the selling price of the scent on the previous day. The cost price of the scent is Rs. 8/litre whereas on
the first day he sells the scent at Rs. 10/litre.

43. If the total quantity of the scent with him on the morning of the first day is 11000 litres, then what is the total profit
made by him after he has completely sold all the scent with him?
(1) 4.54% (2) 9.09% (3) 10% (4) 11.11% (5) 13.63%

44. What is the total quantity of the scent that has evaporated as a percentage of the total quantity of scent with him on the
morning of the first day?
(1) 45% (2) 25% (3) 20% (4) 50% (5) Cannot be determined

45. In a race of 1 km. Amit beats Barun, Churchill, Deepak, Ezaj, Faraz and Nitin by 20, 40, 60, 80, 100 and 120 metre
respectively. Find by what distance Deepak beats fourth runner up if he was 22.22 m ahead of the Ezaj when the first
runner up finished the race.
(1) 28.28 m (2) 28.56 m (3) 33.32 m (4) 22.22 m (5) None of these

46. If equations x4 + (a + 1)x3 + (a + b - 2)x2 + (b – 2a) x – 2b = 0

and x4 + (b - 1) x3 + (a - b - 2)x2 + (a + 2b) x – 2a = 0
have a common root, then which of the following condition is true?
(1) a + b = 1 (2) a + 1 = 0 (3) a = 0 (4) a + b +1 = 0 (5) None of these

47. A pipe A fills a tank in 20 to 24 minutes, Pipe B fill the same tank in 30 to 32 minutes. If pipe A and pipe B
fill the tank on alternate minutes respectively and on every third minute they both fill the tank. Which of the
following best describe the range of minutes in which tank will be filled?
(1) 18 < D < 21 (2) 17 < D < 21 (3) 16 < D < 22 (4) 20 < D < 24 (5) Not possible

Directions for Questions (48 & 49): Read the instructions given below and solve the questions based on it.

888 A 10 A
Following are the certain functions:
H (a, b, c) = Greatest common divisor of a, b and c
L (a, b, c) = Least common multiple of a, b and c
A (a, b, c) = Average of a, b, and c
Min (a, b, c) = Smallest value among a, b and c
Max. (a, b, c) = Largest among a, b and c

48. Which of the following is true? (a, b and c are distinctly different positive numbers) :
(1) H (a, b, c) × L (a, b, c) = abc
(2) H (a, b, c) > A (a, b, c)
(3) H (a, b, c) = > Min (a, b, c)
(4) H (a, b, c) < A (a, b, c) < L (a, b, c)
(5) none of these

49. If Max (a, b, c) = Min (a, b, c), then

(1) A (a, b, c) = H (a, b, c)
(2) A (a, b, c) = L (a, b, c)
(3) A (a, b, c) = Min (a, b, c)
(4) All of these
(5) none of these

50. What is the unit digit of summation of 100th power of all positive prime numbers till 100?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) None of these

51. A contractor needs to complete a wall in 24 days. For everyday that he finishes ahead of time, he gets an incentive ‘I’
and for everyday that he finishes behind time, he needs to pay penalty ‘P’. He has a choice of 2 workers, who work as
follows. A completes the wall in 24 days for 75% of the time and in 30 days for 25% of the time. B completes the wall
in 20 days for 60% of the time and in 30 days for 40% of the time. At what ratio of P to I will the contractor be
different of using A and B.
(1) 8/3 (2) 2 (3) 7/3 (4) 7/4 (5) None of these

A −1
52. If B ( A) = then B(aA) in terms of B(A) is equal to:
A +1
B ( A) + a ( a − 1) B ( A) + a + 1 ( a + 1) B ( A) + a − 1
(1) (2) (3)
1 + aB ( A) ( a + 1) B ( A) + a − 1 ( a − 1) B ( A) + a + 1
(4) B (A) + a (5) None of these

Directions for Question (53 & 54): 72 apples are to be distributed among Ram, Shyam and Hari. Hari’s share is less than
that of Shyam. Further they have agreed to divide the apples such that the number of apples with the 3 of them are in the
arithmetic progression. Share of nobody is 0.

53. If none of them is to receive more than 34 apples in how many ways can the apples be distributed
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 13 (5) None of these

54. Which of the following statement must be true

(1) The number of apples Shyam receives is atmost 47
(2) The number of apples Hari receives is atmost 23.
(3) One person gets exactly 24 apples
(4) More than one of the above is correct
(5) None of these

Directions for Question (55 & 56): Read the passage below and solve these questions based on it:

888 A 11 A
Following is the result of an examination
Out of 1,000 students who appeared
(a) 658 failed in physics
(b) 166 failed in physics and chemistry
(c) 372 failed in chemistry, 434 failed in physics and biology
(d) 590 failed in biology, 126 failed in biology and chemistry
Find the number of students who failed in (assuming that none of them passed in all the subjects)

55. Chemistry but not physics

(1) 312 (2) 226 (3) 266 (4) 206 (5) None of these

56. Physics or biology but not in chemistry.

(1) 560 (2) 710 (3) 620 (4) 625 (5) None of these

3 4
57. What is the value of x for which + = 5.
x x
3 4 3 4 1 4
(1) 1 < x ≤ (2) 1 < x ≤ (3) 0 < x ≤ (4) 0 < x ≤ (5) <x≤
2 3 2 3 2 3

58. The quadratic equation g(x) = (px2 + qx +r), p ≠ 0, attains its maximum value at x = 7/2. Product of the roots of the
equation g(x) = 0 is equal to 10. What is the value of p × q × r ?
(1) 70 (2) -70 (3) 0
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Directions for Questions (59 & 60): Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question using the
following instructions.
Choose (a) if the question can be answered by the statements (1) alone but not by the statement (2).
Choose (b) if the question can be answered by the statements (2) alone but not by the statement (1).
Choose (c) if the question can be answered by the statements (1) alone or by the statement (2).
Choose (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but can not be answered using either
statement alone.
Choose (e) If the question cannot be answered even by suing both the statement together.

59. What is the remainder when (n-2)! is divided by n?

(1) n is even
(2) n is prime

60. There are 25 runners in a race. Every runner is allotted with a different number from 1 to 25 after the race it was found
that top eight runners are 8 consecutive numbers .who is the second runner-up?
(1) Runner with number 3 and 8 finish before 17 runners.
(2) Runner with number 10 is not in top eight runners.

SECTION- 3A

Directions for question (61 to 65): Read the following information and answer the question.

Batsman – Smith, Gayle, Yuvraj, Pieterson, Ponting, Ghambir

All-rounder – Sachin, Flintoff, Jaisurya, Sehwag
Bowler – Jaheer, Johnson, Natini, Harbhajan
Wicketkeeper – Dhoni, Mccullum

888 A 12 A
To participate in star-fatafat cricket contest, Mr. Sidhu, Mr. Shastri, Mr. Gavaskar and Mr. Jones have made their dream
team. A dream team consists of seven players with 3 batsman, 2 bowlers, 1 all-rounder and 1 wicketkeeper.
The following observations were made for the teams selected by these gentlemen:

• In any of the two teams, only one batsman is common.

• Dhoni & Yuvraj always play in the same team so are Smith & Mccullum but Harbhajan and Johnson never play
together.
• Except all-rounders, each player is selected in two team and all-rounder being captains are part of only one team.
• The batsman with the names having same initial letter are not in the same team.
• Jaheer and Johnson are captained by Sehwag in a match. Flintoff wants to open the bowling with Jaheer and
Sachin wants Harbhajan in his team.
• Sachin and Jaisurya both open the batting with Mccullum.
• Mr. Sidhu, Mr. Shastri, Mr. Gavaskar and Mr. Jones select Sachin, Jaisurya, Flintoff and Sehwag as their captain
respectively.

61. The two bowlers picked up by Jones in his team are

(1) Harbhajan, Jaheer (2) Jaheer, Johnson (3) Natini, Johnson
(4) Natini, Jaheer (5) None of these

62. If Gambhir plays in the team of Sehwag and Sachin, than Ponting is in the team of
(1) Mr. Sidhu (2) Mr. Jones (3) Mr. Shastri
(4) Mr. Gavaskar (5) can not be determined

63. In how many ways can Mr. Gavaskar select his team?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8 (5) 16

64. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(i) Smith plays with Pieterson exactly in one team.
(ii) Yuvraj plays with Gambhir in two teams.
(iii) Gale and Natini are together in one team exactly once.
(1) i & ii only (2) i & ii only (3) ii & ii only (4) i only (5) iii only

65. The batsman who is necessary in Sehwag’s team is

(1) Smith (2) Gayle (3) Yuvraj (4) Ponting (5) Pieterson

Directions for Question (66 to 70): The following bar chart provides the male to female ratio of various states of India. The
given pie chart provides the percentage population of various states as total population of India.

888 A 13 A
66. If Karnataka has 5% population of other states, then what is the number of women per 1000 men in the other states?
(1) 920 (2) 950 (3) 940 (4) 930 (5) none of these

67. How many pairs of the following states excluding other states (when taken in a group of two) definitely have their
female to male ratio equal to or more than 950 per 1000?
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3 (5) 2

68. The number of females in Gujrat exceeds than that in Tamilnadu by assuing India’s population to be 100 crore.
(1) 47 lakhs (2) 50 lakhs (3) 53 lakhs (4) 57 lakhs (5) Cannot be determined

69. What is the ratio of males in Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh?

(1) 1:1 (1) 1: 4 (3) 1: 4.15 (4) 1: 3.75 (5) can not be determined

70. By what percentage are males in UP more than females in UP?

(1) 9% (2) 10% (3) 11% (4) 8.5% (5) None of these

SECTION 3B

Directions for Questions (71 to 75): Read the following information and answer the questions accordingly:

888 A 14 A
In a software technology park, 8 buildings – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are situated in a single row from left to right. Each
Building has different number of stories and the building with maximum number of stories is tallest and building with lowest
stories is shortest. These buildings are arranged in the increasing order of number of stories in a building. Three of the
buildings are painted pink, three are painted cream and the rest are painted white not necessarily in the same order.
Further, the following information is available.
(i) V is taller than S but shorter than P, while Q is shorter than T.
(ii) T, the second lowest building is not painted pink.
(iii) W, the fifth tallest is painted cream and so is Q.
(iv) U is shorter than P and S but taller than Q and W.
(v) V is not painted white.
(vi) Neither the tallest building nor the building next to it is painted pink.

71. Which two buildings are adjacent to each other and are of the same colour?
(1) U and S (2) S and W (3) T and S (4) W and U (5) It is not possible

72. Which three buildings are painted pink?

(1) Q, T and R (2) R, U and S (3) V, R and U (4) S, U and P (5) can not be determined

73. Which is the building that is second left to a cream color building and also immediate right of cream color building?
(1) R (2) T (3) U (4) V (5) none of these

74. Building S is between

(1) U and V (2) W and U (3) T and R (4) Q and U (5) none of these

75. Which of the following statements is definitely true ?

(1) A Blue coloured building is always adjacent to a White coloured building.
(2) A white coloured building is always adjacent to a Blue coloured building.
(3) No two buildings which are painted in the same colour are adjacent to each other.
(4) Cream colour building always has white colour building adjacent to it.
(5) None of these.

Directions for Question (76 to 80): In “Uncommon Admission test”, Five rounds of selection (1) Prelims (2) Mains (3)
Group discussion (4) Physical fitness (5) Interview are organized one after the other from Monday to Friday. On each day all
the mentioned rounds take place. However, on a particular day a participants starts from ‘Prelims’ and moves to the next
round only when he successfully completes the previous round. On each day participants keep moving to the next round till
they reach Interview or they are involved in those rounds till they are not able to get success in any one of the rounds. All the
participants appearing for Interview get selected. Those participants, who are unable to successfully complete an event in a
particular day are termed as ‘Rollover participants’ for that day. Rollover participants for a particular day , turn the next day
to participate in the same event which they could not successfully complete on previous day. NEW Participants coming each
day are called as ‘Fresh candidates’. The following table gives the data about the number of participants in various events
from Monday to Friday in a particular week. There were no rollover students from last week.

Prelims Mains Group discussion Physical fitness Interview

Monday 30 28 25 19 16
Tuesday 33 27 29 31 25
Wednesday 25 23 18 18 18
Thursday 30 32 25 25 17
Friday 27 23 27 27 27

76. How many total fresh participants participated in the preliminary round in all the five days?
(1) 145 (2) 107 (3) 124 (4) 109 (5) can not be determined

77. What can be the maximum fresh participants reaching to the final Interview on Wednesday?
(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 15 (5) can not be determined

888 A 15 A
78. Rollover participants on Tuesday only are allowed to participate on Thursday and all other conditions remain same.
Find the sum of number of rollover participants on any day.
(1) 30 (2) 29 (3) 22 (4) 25 (5) 28

79. What are the maximum possible rollover participants on any day?
(1) 21 (2) 19 (3) 25 (4) 23 (5) 22

80. What are the minimum rollover participants in any day in Group discussion?
(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0 (5) 4

Directions for Question (81 to 85): MRG Marc conducted a survey of 200 people each having at least one credit card in
each age category. The following table provides the data for people having master card, visa card and express card in each
age group.

Credit card holders

Age group Master cards Visa cards Express cards
20<a<25 90 80 85
25<a<30 75 90 110
30<a<40 55 75 88
40<a<50 92 63 58
50<a<60 78 92 70

81. The number of people surveyed having only one credit card in all the age group is at least
(1) 803 (2) 898 (3) 338 (4) 798 (5) none of these

82. The number of people surveyed who use master card and visa card both in the age group 40<a<50 is at most
(1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 13 (4) 14 (5) none of these

83. The number of people surveyed who use all the three credit cards in the age group 50<a<60 is at most
(1)15 (2) 10 (3) 25 (4) 20 (5) none of these

84. If we calculate the maximum number of people surveyed in each category having all the three cards, then the category
that has minimum number of people among all the categories is
(1) 20<a<25 (2) 25<a<30 (3) 30<a<40 (4) 50<a<60 (5) 40<a<50

85. If we calculate the minimum number of people surveyed having at least two credit cards in each age group, the
category with maximum number of such people is
(1) 20<a < 25 (2) 25<a<30 (3) 30<a<40 (4) 50<a<60 (5) 40<a<50

Directions for Question (86 to 90):

In Davis cup tournament India played with Australia in Quarter final and with France in semi final.
In Davis cup tournament, in any round five matches are played.
1st phase - two single matches
2nd phase - one double match
3rd phase - two reverse single matches

Reverse single match means that the players of 1st phase are reversed during reverse single match.

Indian players - A, B, C, D
Australia - E, F, G, H
France - P, Q, R, S

888 A 16 A
The following diagram provides the data of matches played and win of all the players of India, France and Australia in Davis
cup.

India beat Australia by 3 - 2 and France by 4 - 1.

Note : The players who played in single and reverse single matches in a particular round did not play double match in that
particular round. Except these matches, there were no extra matches played.
A(4, 3)- means A played 4 matches and won 3 matches.
A player can play maximum 2 matches in a round.

86. The player who participated in double match from India against Australia are
(1) D, C (2) D, B (3) B, C (4) either 1 or 2 (5) none of these

87. How many matches did E play in the tournament?

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) either 1 or 2 (5) Cannot be determined

88. The opponents against A in the semi final are

(1) P, Q (2) Q, R (3) P, R (4) R, S (5) None of these

89. The players who did not play in any of the doubles match definitely is / are
(1) A (2) C (3) P (4) 1 & 3 (5) all of these

90. The teams those lost double matches are

(1) India (2) India & Australia (3) Australia & France
(4) France and India (5) cannot say

888 A 17 A