IIT-JEE 2009 STS III/MPC/P(I)/QNS

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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2009

PAPER I MATHEMATICS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 246

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose. INSTRUCTIONS:
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A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 69 questions. The booklet has 24 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet. 3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet. 6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. 8. Do not break the seals of the questions-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators. B. Filling the ORS 9. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts. 11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS affirming that you have verified this. 12. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.

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PART A : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. If the roots of 2x + px + q = 0 are real and different and differ by at most by 4, then q lies in the interval p
2

(A)

8,

(B)

8,

8 p
2

8 p
2

8 p
2

8 p
2

(C)

(D)

4,

8 2. If log 2,

8 2 log 3
3 x

8 1 and log 3
3 x

8 3 be the 11th, 16th and 26th terms

3 respectively of A.P., then (A) x = 1 (B) x = log3 5

(C) x = 2

(D) x = log5 3

3. The locus of the point the tangents from which to the curve (25x 1) + (25y 2) = (7x + 24y 25) are at right angles is (A) (25x 1) + (25y 2) = 625 (C) 24x 7y 25 = 0
2 2 2 2 2

(B) (25x 1) + (25y 1) = 25 (D) 7x + 24y = 25

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4. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 7. The ratio of the longest side to the shortest side is (A) 3 2 5 (B)
2

3 2
3

(C)

3 1

(D)

3 1

5. lim

n r = 1

r n r
4

n n

(A)

(B)

2 2

(C)
2 2

2 2

(D)

6. The area between y (A) 1 6 (B) 3

x, x > 0, x + y 2 is 2 (C) 4 12 3 (D) 2 3

12

SECTION II Multiple Correct Answer Type This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 7 to 10. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 7. If |Z + 4i| = min {|Z + 3i|, |Z + 5i|}, then Z satisfies (A) Im Z = 7 2 7 2 (B) Im Z = 7 2 9 2

(C) Im Z =

(D) Re Z =

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8. If one vertex of an equilateral triangle is at (1, 1) and one side is 3x + 4y 9 = 0, then (A) length of a side is 3 units (B) length of a side is 4 3 units 3 4

(C) area of the triangle is 4 3

sq. unit

(D) area of the triangle

sq. units

9. The expression cos 3 + sin 3 + (2 sin 2 3) (sin cos ) is positive for all in (A) 2n 3 4 3 , 2n 3 , 2n 4 (B) 2n 2 4 , 2n , 2n 6 3 4
2

(C) 2n

(D) 2n

10. The value of a N such that the graph of the function y = x + 2(a + 4)x 5a + 64 is strictly above the X-axis is (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 1 SECTION III Reasoning Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 11 to 14. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (D) 2

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(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. x tan 11. Statement 1: lim
x 3 5

1 x x
2

3 x

7 = 1

7 x

and Statement 2: lim

0

tan n

= n
2 2

12. Statement 1: and Statement 2:

The point on the curve x + 2y = 6 which is nearest to the line x + y = 7 is (2, 1)

The tangent at (2, 1) to the curve is parallel to the line x + y = 7

13. Statement 1:

f cos 2x
0

cos x dx =

f cos 2x 2
0

cos

dx

if

f(x) is even and Statement 2: f( x) = f(x) if f is an even function SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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14. Statement 1:

If the equations of two equal sides of an isosceles triangle are 7x y 3 = 0 and x + y 5 = 0, then the slope of the third side is 3 or 1 3

and Statement 2: The base of an isosceles triangle is perpendicular to the bisector of the angle between equal sides. SECTION IV Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 17 x + y + 2x = 0 and y = 4x are two curves 15. The triangle formed by the three common tangents to the curves is (A) Isosceles but not equilateral (B) Equilateral (C) Right angled (D) Scalene
2 2 2

16. The area of the triangle formed by the three tangents in Qn. 15 is equal to (A) 3 3 2 sq. units (B) 6 3 sq. units 3 4

(C) 3 3 sq. units

(D)

sq. unit

17. The inradius of the triangle in Qn. 15 is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 2 (D) none of these

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 18 to 20 Let f(x) = cos (1 + 2x [2x]) where [y] = greatest integer y 18. The period of f(x) is (A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 1 2

19. The graph of y = f(x) cuts the x-axis at the point with x-coordinate (A) 1 2 (B) 4 1 2 (C) n 2 where n I (D) 4 1 2

20. The area between y = f(x), y = 0, and x = 0 is (A) (1 sin 1) 1 2 (B) 1 2 sin 3 2 sin 1

(C)

sin 1

(D) 1

Paragraph for Question Nos. 21 to 23 The sides of a triangle a, b, c are natural numbers with the condition a b c 21. If c = 12, the number of triangles, that are possible is (A) 21 (B) 42 (C) 12 (D) 20

22. If c = 13, the number of triangles that are possible is (A) 21 (B) 42 (C) 49 (D) 56

23. If c = 24 the number of isosceles or equilateral triangles possible is (A) 13 (B) 24 (C) 11 (D) 12

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PART B : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 24 to 29. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 24. In the potentiometer circuit shown, the length of potentiometer wire AB is 400 cm long and resistance per unit length is 0.2 /cm. If a battery of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across XY as shown, then for (A) E = 1.5 V, r = 16 , the balance point would exist on the potentiometer wire (B) E = 1 V, r = 25 , the balance point is at 250 cm from A (C) We cannot compare emfs of two cells which are more than 1.6 V using this potentiometer (D) All of the above 25. A bead moves outwards with constant speed u along the spoke of a wheel and the wheel is rotating about its axis with constant angular velocity . The velocity of the bead as a function of time is given by (A) ue
r

(B) ue r (C) ue r

ut e ut e

r t

(D) ute where e and e are unit vectors along radial and tangential direction t
r t

respectively. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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26. Two identical trucks each of mass M (excluding sacks of rice) move on national highways with speeds v and v towards each other. When they meet each other,
1 2

a sack of rice of mass m is thrown from one truck to the other and an identical sack of rice is thrown from the second to the first. Calculate their velocities v and v after the exchange of sacks, given m = 50 kg, M = 200 kg, v = 50 m/s
1 2 1

and v

= 200 m/s. Friction of the road may be neglected. (B) 150 m/s, 50 m/s (D) 100 m/s, 50 m/s

(A) 0, 150 m/s (C) 100 m/s, 150 m/s

27. Find the period of small oscillation of a simple pendulum of length l if its point of suspension O moves relative to the earth with a constant acceleration a, given l = 30 cm and a = g/2 and the angle between the vectors g and a is = 120. The period of oscillation of the pendulum is (A) 0.8 s (C) 0.95 s (B) 1.2 s (D) 1.05 s

28. The ratio of the energy required to raise a satellite upto a height h above the earth to that required to put it into orbit there is (A) h : R (B) 2h : R (C) R : h (D) R : 2h

29. The diagram shows an iron wire AB mounted in a brass frame and attached to the frame at both ends A and B. The length of AB at 0C is 300 cm and the diameter of the wire is 0.6 mm. What extra tension will be set up in the stretched wire when the temperature of the system is raised to 40C, in powers of 10 dyne? Given brass = 8 10 /C iron = 12 10 /C and Yiron = 21 10 (A) 0.95
6 6 11 6 2

dyne/cm

(B) 0.165 (C) 0.142 (D) 0.125 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION II Multiple Correct Answer Type This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 30 to 33. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 30. The torque on a body about a given point is found to be equal to A L where A is a constant vector and L is angular momentum about that point. From this, it follows that (A) dL dt is perpendicular to L at all constants of time

(B) the component of L in the direction of A does not change with time (C) the magnitude of L does not change with time (D) L does not change with time 31. Which of the following quantities are always zero in a simple harmonic motion? Given F force, a acceleration, r displacement and v velocity. (A) F a (B) v r (C) a r (D) F r

32. A vessel of mass M filled with water has a hole at its bottom and is fastened on to a cart. The dimensions of the vessel are as shown in Figure. The cart is pulled with a force F so that maximum amount of water remains in the vessel. (A) The amount of water retained is (bcA)/2L (B) Inclination of the water surface with the b c

horizontal is such that acceleration a = g

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(C) Force F acting on the vessel to retain maximum water in the vessel is M bcA L (D) All of the above 33. Sound passes through a gas with a velocity of 1260 ms specific heat for this gas is 1.4
1

at 0C. The ratio of

5

(A) Ratio of the pressure to the density of the gas at 0C is 11.84 10 (B) Molecular weight of the gas is 2 g (C) Density of the gas cannot be determined from the given data (D) All of the above SECTION III Reasoning Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 34 to 37. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 34. Statement 1: and Statement 2: If the length of the tube h is less than the rise h, the liquid would spread out until its curvature becomes large. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK A liquid cannot emerge in the form of a fountain from the upper end of a short capillary tube, kept immersed in a liquid

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35. Statement 1:

A charged conducting sphere will be able to retain charge for a longer time than a charged conducting cylinder, charged to the same amount

and Statement 2: 36. Statement 1: Curvature is not uniform in the case of a cylinder. A loosely wound helix made of stiff wire is suspended vertically with the lower end just touching a dish of mercury. When a current is passed through the wire, the helical wire executes oscillatory motion with the lower end jumping out of and into the mercury

and Statement 2: 37. Statement 1: There is force of attraction and repulsion between the turns of the helical coil due to current passing through it. A bar magnet is dropped into a vertical copper tube. If air resistance is neglected, the magnet attains a constant terminal velocity. If the tube is cooled, terminal velocity increases and if it is heated, terminal velocity decreases

and Statement 2: There is change of current in the tube. SECTION IV Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 38 to 40 An alternating current flows through a coil of inductance 0.015 henry and ohmic resistance 1 . Another ohmic resistance of 3 is connected in series with the coil. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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The rms value of current and voltage are 2 ampere and 10 volt respectively. 38. The frequency of the alternating current is (A) 60 Hz (B) 50 Hz (C) 32 Hz (D) 82 Hz

39. The phase angle is (A) tan

1

4 3

(B) tan

3 4

(C) tan

1 3

(D) tan

1 5

40. Effective voltage across the coil is (A) 11.2 V (B) 8.6 V (C) 6.3 V (D) 5.2 V

Paragraph for Question Nos. 41 to 43 An energy of 68.0 eV is required to excite a hypothetical hydrogen-like atom from its second Bohr orbit to third. The nuclear charge is Ze. 41. Atomic number of the hydrogen-like atom is (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

42. Kinetic energy of the electron in the first Bohr orbit is (A) 490 eV (B) 520 eV (C) 620 eV (D) 310 eV

43. Wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation required to eject the electron from the first orbit to infinity is (A) 22.2 (B) 28 (C) 25.3 (D) 33.1

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 44 to 46 Two blocks of masses 3m and 4m are connected by a light inextensible string passing over a smooth pulley. The mass 4m is held with the string just taut and mass 3m just stationary on a horizontal table below the pulley. The system is released and 70 cm from above the table, the 3m mass picks up another mass 7m (g = 9.8 m/s )
2

44. Velocity of the 4m mass when 3m mass picks up 7m is (A) 1.9 m/s (B) 1.7 m/s (C) 1.4 m/s (D) 1.2 m/s

45. The new velocity of the 3m mass immediately after it picks up the 7m mass is (A) 1.7 m/s (B) 1.1 m/s (C) 0.9 m/s (D) 0.7 m/s

46. The time that elapses from the start of the motion to the instant when the combined mass strikes the table is (A) 7 2 7 6 13 13 s (B) 7 6 6 4 12 13 s

(C)

(D)

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PART C : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 47 to 52. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 47. Number of atoms in 558.5 g of Fe (At. wt. of Fe = 55.85) is (A) twice that in 60 g of carbon (B) 6.023 10
23

(C) half that in 8 g of He (D) 558.5 6.023 1023 48. The common features among the species CN , CO and NO are (A) bond order and nucleophilicity (B) bond order and electrophilicity (C) bond order and isoelectronic structure (D) electrophilicity and isoelectronic structure. 49. Which of the following trends of ionic radii is correct? (i) F > Na > Mg (iii) P
3 + 2+ +

(ii) Al

3+

>O

>N
+

>S

> Cl

(iv) H > H > He (C) (i) and (iv)

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

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50. Cs ion imparts violet colour to the flame. This is due to the fact that the emitted radiation has (A) high energy (C) longer wavelength (B) low energy (D) lower wave number

51. Which of the following carbanions is most stable? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

52. In the following groups

OCH3 I

OSO2CH3 and OSO2CF3 II III

the order of leaving group ability is (A) I > II > III (B) II > I > III (C) III > II > I SECTION II Multiple Correct Answer Type This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 53 to 56. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 53. Which will undergo reaction with CH 3MgBr to give methane? (A) CH3 OH (C) C2H5 NH2 (B) Ethyl alcohol (D) H2O SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (D) III > I > II

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54. Toluene can be converted into benzaldehyde by (A) MnO2, H (C) CrO2Cl2 55. Identify correct statements: (A) In the solid state PBr5 exists as PBr
4

(B) KMnO4, H

(D) Collins reagent

and PBr .
6

(B) Metaphosphoric acid coagulates egg albumin. (C) In [Fe(CN)5 NO]

2

, Fe is present as + 3 oxidation state.

(D) Different types of P F bonds are present in PF5 molecule. 56. The function of salt bridge in a galvanic cell is/are (A) to maintain the electroneutrality of electrolytes in the two half-cells. (B) to allow the ions to flow through it. (C) to minimise liquid-liquid junction potential. (D) to develop a potential difference between the two electrodes. SECTION III Reasoning Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 57 to 60. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 57. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 58. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 59. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 60. Statement 1: and Statement 2: The E
o red

B(OH)3 is acidic while In(OH)3 is basic.

B(OH)3 has a highly hydrogen bonded structure. In stibine SbH3, the H Sb H bond angle is about 90.

Hybrid orbitals of Sb are used in the bond formation with hydrogen. Alkyl isocyanide cannot be hydrolysed by dilute alkali.

Carbon atom in cyanide group has a negative charge and so nucelophilic attack on it is not favourable. Magnesium is corroded at a faster rate than aluminium.

of magnesium is greater than that of aluminium. SECTION IV

Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 Alcohols are hydroxy derivatives of alkanes. They can also be regarded as the monoalkyl derivatives of water. Alcohols undergo oxidation, dehydration and esterification. Aromatic alcohols have hydroxyl group in the side chain. 61. -phenyl ethyl alcohol is heated strongly with alkali to get (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

62.

The product formed is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

63. Consider the reaction

In this dehydration reaction, O (A) H O 2 (B) P

18

isotope will be in (C) both (D) none

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 64 to 66 The decomposition of Cl O at 400 K in the gas phase to Cl and O is a first order 2 7 2 2 reaction. 64. After 100 seconds at 400 K, the pressure of Cl2O7 falls from 0.06 atm to 0.03 atm. The rate constant of the reaction is (A) 6.932 10
3 3

s L mol
1 1

(B) 6.932 10 s

Ms s

(C) 6.932 10

(D) 6.932 10

3 1

65. Time required for 99% decomposition of Cl2O7 at 400 K is (A) 15 minutes (C) 66.45 seconds (B) 664.5 seconds (D) 11 minutes

66. Plot of pressure of Cl2O7 vs rate of disappearance of Cl2O7 will be

(A)

(B)

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(C)

(D)

Paragraph for Question Nos. 67 to 69 0.3 g of an oxalate salt is dissolved in 100 mL of water. The whole solution required 90 mL of 0.05 N KMnO4 solution for complete oxidation. 67. The equivalent mass of oxalate ion is (A) 22 (B) 44 (C) 66 (D) 33

68. Amount of oxalate ion present in whole of the solution is (A) 19.8 g (B) 1.98 g (C) 0.819 g (D) 0.198 g

69. Percentage of oxalate ion by weight present in the sample used for the experiment is (A) 100% (B) 55% (C) 33% (D) 66%

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Name: .

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format: 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Mathematics, Part B: Physics and Part C: Chemistry). Each part has 4 sections. 14. Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 15. Section II contains 4 multiple choice answer type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one or more answers are correct. 16. Section III contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 17. Section IV contains 3 sets of Linked-Comprehension type questions. Each set consists of a paragraph followed by three questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. D. Marking scheme: 18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark for all other cases. It may be noted that there is no negative marking for wrong answer. 20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.

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