CBSE Paper Solutions 2012

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C
CBSE Prelim. 2012(Hints & Solutions) - Code C Narayana IIT/PMT Academy
NARAYANA INSTITUTE : A-1/171 A, Janakpuri, N.D.58; 196/197/D-12, Sec.-8, Rohini, N.D.-85,; E-14, South Extn.-II, N.D-49; H.O.:Vittalwadi, Narayanaguda, Hyderabad-29
[2]
[2]
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
for
CBSE Preliminary 2012
by Narayana IIT/PMT ACADEMY
1. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in
(1) Zostera (2) Salvia (3) Fig (4) Commellina
Sol: It has cleistogamous flowers.
2. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA
strand sequence?
(1) UAGAC (2) AACTG (3) ATCGU (4) TTAGU
3. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for
(1) Genetic transformation (2) DNA sequencing
(3) Genetic Fingerprinting (4) Study of enzymes
4. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Apoplast Plasmodesmata (2) Potassium Readily immobilisation
(3) Bakane of rice seedlings F. Skoog (4) Passive transport of nutrients ATP
5. Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. Which is this
stage?
(1) Prophase II during meiosis (2) Prophase of Mitosis
(3) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis (4) Prophase I during meiosis
Sol: This stage is Pachytene of prophase-I of meiosis, it represent crossing over.
6. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as
(1) golden algae (2) slime moulds (3) blue green algae (4) protists
7. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having
(1) Motile Sperms (2) Cambium (3) Vessels (4) Seeds
8. Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration humans?
(1) Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration
(2) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis
(3) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO
2
) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin
(4) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi
Sol: It is occupational lung disease.
[3]
[3]
9. The common bottle cork is a product of
(1) Phellogen (2) Xylem (3) Vascular Cambium (4)Dermatogen
10. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana
(1) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles
(2) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junction of midgut and hindgut
(3) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts
(4) Nervous system located dorsally, consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal
connectives
11. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are?
(1) They do not remain confined in the area of formation
(2) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
(3) They show contact inhibition
(4) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients
12. Closed vascular bundles lack
(1) Conjunctive tissue (2) Cambium (3) Pith (4) Ground tissue
13. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that
(1) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no
effective vaccine
(2) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus
influenzae
(3) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but
not the lungs
(4) Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease
14. Which one of the following is wrong statement?
(1) Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live as aerobes under free-living conditions
(2) Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membranes, certain nucleic acids and all proteins
(3) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemoautotrophs
(4) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing nitrogen in free-living state also
15. A normal-visioned man whose father was colour-blind, marries a woman whose father was also colour-blind.
They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colour-blind?
(1) zero percent (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 100%
16. Placentation of tomato and lemon is
(1) Free central (2) Marginal (3) Axile (4) Parietal
17. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin
A deficiency?
(1) Canolla (2) Golden rice (3) Bt-Brinjal (4) Flaver Savr tomato
18. What is correct to say bout the hormone action in humans?
(1) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with aging
(2) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane
(3) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone
(4) Glucagon is secreted by |-cells of Islets of Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis
19. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?
(1) Haemoglobin (2) Collagen (3) Insulin (4) Trypsin
[4]
[4]
20. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of
immunity?
Examples Type of immunity
(1)
Anti-tetanus and anti-
snake bite injections,
Active immunity
(2)
Saliva in mouth and
Tears in eyes
Physical barriers
(3)
Mucus coating of
epithelium lining the
urinogenital tact and the
HCl in stomach
Physiological
barriers
(4)
Polymorpho-nuclear
leukocytes and
monocytes
Cellular barriers
21. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by he chronic intake of
(1) Alcohol (2) Tobacco (Chewing) (3) Cocaine (4) Opium
22. F
2
generation ion a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1 : 2 : 1.
It represents a case of
(1) Dihybrid cross (2) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
(3) Monohybrid cross with incomplete (4) Co-dominance
23. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched,
whereas the remaining three are correct?
Sol: Pila, is the member of phylum Mollusca is unsegmented.
24. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in
(1) Salivary glands of Anopheles (2) Human RBCs
(3) Human liver (4) Gut of female Anopheles
Sol: Motile zygote of plasmodium is ookinete and is occur in gut of Anopheles.
25. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
(1) Binocular vision (2) Increasing cranial capacity
(3) Upright posture (4) Shortening of jaws
[5]
[5]
26. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular weight organic
compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank component X in it.
Category Component
(1) Amino acid NH
2
(2) Nucleotide Adenine
(3) Nucleoside Uracil
(4) Cholesterol Guanin
27. Widal Test is carried out to test
(1) Diabetes mellitus (2) HIV/AIDS (3) Typhoid fever (4) Malaria
28. Identify the possible link A in the following food chain
Plant insect frog A Eagle
(1) Wolf (2) Cobra (3) Parrot (4) Rabbit
29. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessd. The result expected
was
(1) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening
(2) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening
(3) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis
(4) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo
30. A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is
(1) Anabaena (2) Frankia (3) Tolypothrix (4) Spirulina
31. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are
(1) nucleated and with haemoglobin (2) very much smaller and fewer
(3) nucleated and without haemoglobin (4) without nucleus but with haemoglobin
32. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system
(1) Osteoporosis decrease in bone mass and higher chance of fractures with advancing age
(2) Myasthenia gravis Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(3) Gout inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
(4) Muscular dystrophy age related shortening of muscles
33. How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an inflorescence?
Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry
Sol: Fig Syconus, Pineaple and Mulberry Sorosis.
(1) Five (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
34. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in
(1) Maize (2) Cycas (3) Pinus (4) Sunflower
35. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas?
(1) Chromosomal Organization (2) Cell wall
(3) Cell membrane (4) Ribosomes
Ans. (3)
Sol: E.coli bacteria having different chromosomal Organization, Cell wall and Ribosome but does not differ in
Cell membrane from Chlamydomonas?
[6]
[6]
36. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 80 percent) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed
in which part of the nephron?
(1) Distal convoluted tubule (2) Proximal convoluted tubule
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle (4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
37. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
(1) It serves as a selectable marker (2) It is isolated from a virus
(3) It remains active at high temperature
(4) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells
Sol: Enzyme taq polymerase is thermostable.
38. An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Lignin (3) Cellulose (4) Cuticle
39. Yeast is used in the production of
(1) Lipase and pectinase (2) Bread and beer
(3) Cheese and butter (4) Citric acid and lactic acid
40. Phyllode is present in
(1) Euphorbia (2) Australian Acacia (3) Opuntia (4) Asparagus
41. Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using microbes?
(1) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica
(2) Bt-cotton to increase cotton yield
(3) Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard
(4) Trichoderma sp. against certain plant pathogens
42. In an area where DDT had been used extensively the population of birds declined significantly because
(1) earthworms in the area got eradicated (2) cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
(3) many of the birds eggs laid, did not hatch (4) birds stopped laying eggs
43. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from
(1) decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter (2) soil insects
(3) small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize, etc (4) sugarcane roots
44. Signals for parturition originate from
(1) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary (2) Placenta only
(3) Fully developed foetus only (4) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
45. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack
(1) Phloem fibres (2) Thick-walled tracheids (3) Xylem fibres (4)Cambium
46. The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of
(1) intestinal mucus (2) glucagon (3) androgens (4) progesterone
47. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of
(1) Platinum or Zinc (2) Silicon or Platinum (3) Gold or Tungsten (4) Silver or Platinum
48. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of
(1) hn RNA (2) m RNA (3) r RNA (4) t RNA
49. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the
following is likely to happen in his neuro-hormonal control system?
(1) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse
(2) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of brain
(3) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin from adrenal cortex
(4) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin from adrenal medulla
[7]
[7]
50. The test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the following techniques?
(1) Intra uterine insemination (IUI) (2) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
(3) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT) (4) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection(ICSI)
51. People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass about six months back
(1) are not physically fit to play games like football
(2) suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc.
(3) have the usual RBC count but their haemoglobin has very high binding affinuty to O
2
(4) have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O
2
52. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during
(1) Anaphase II (2) Prophase I (3) Prophase II (4) Metaphase I
Sol: Recombinase help in recombination (crossing over) occur during prophase-I
53. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much required?
(1) Organ of Corti (2) Vestibular apparatus (3) Ear ossicles (4) Eustachian tube
54. What is the figure given below showing in particular?
(1) Uterine cancer (2) Tubectomy (3) Vasectomy (4) Ovarian cancer
55. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent
evolution?
56. Companion cells are closely associated with
(1) Vessel elements (2) Trichomes (3) Guard cells (4) Sieve elements
57. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of which is
(1) Corpus callosum (2) Cerebellum (3) Hypothalamus (4) Spinal cord
58. The upright pyramid of number is absent in
(1) Forest (2) Lake (3) Grassland (4) Pond
59. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to
(1) Jaundice (2) Diarrhoea (3) Vomiting 4) Indigestion
60. The coconut water and th eedible part of coconut are equivalent to
(1) Endocarp (2) Mesocarp (3) Embryo (4) Endosperm
61. Cymose inflorescence is present in
(1) Sesbania (2) Trifolium (3) Brassica (4) Solanum
[8]
[8]
62. A process that makes important difference between C
3
and C
4
plants is
(1) Glycolysis (2) Photosynthesis (3) Photorespiration (4) Transpiration
63. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,00 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa with short
stature, heavy eye brows, retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait
and stooped posture was
(1) Neanderthal human (2) Cro-magnan humans (3) Ramapithecus (4) Homo habilis
64. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
(1) Selectable marker (2) Plasmid (3) Probe (4) Vector
Sol: Probe is a short strand of RNA or DNA with radioactive nucleotides.
65. The highest number of species in the world is represented by
(1) Mosses (2) Algae (3) Lichens (4) Fungi
66. Which one out of A D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?
(1) D (2) A (3) B (4) C
Sol: A basic amino acid contain more NH
2
group, as in option D two amino groups are present.]
67. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain
organisms at some of the different levels?
(1) Level PP is phytoplanktons in sea and Whale on top level TC
(2) Level one PP is pipal trees and the level SC is sheep
(3) Level PC is rats and level SC is cats
(4) Level PC is insects and level SC is :small insectivorous birds
68. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given
options correctly identifies its certain components (s)?
(1) rop-reduced osmotic pressure (2) Hind III, EcoRI-selectable markers
(3) amp
R
, tet
R
- antibiotic resistance genes (4) ori - original restriction enzyme
[9]
[9]
69. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA?
(1) A terminator (2) A promoter
(3) The structural gene (4) The inducer
70. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor
friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?
(1) Blood group AB (2) Blood group O (3) Blood group A (4) Blood group B
71. Vexillary aestivation si characteristic of the family
(1) Asteraceae (2) Solanaceae (3) Brassicaceae (4) Fabaceae
72. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for
(1) working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines
(2) measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in producing curd on a commercial scale
(3) working out the efficiency of R. B. Cs. about their capacity to carry oxygen
(4) estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water
73. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?
(1) Vector DNA - Site for t-RNA synthesis
(2) Micropropagation - In vitro production of plants in large numbers
(3) Callus - Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture
(4) Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two diverse cells
Sol: Vector DNA Transfer of foreign DNA to target cell.
74. Nuclear membrane is absent in
(1) Agaricus (2) Volvox (3) Nostoc (4) Penicillium
75. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm?
(1) Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium
(2) Viability of sperm is determined by its motility
(3) Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension
(4) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours
76. Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem?
(1) Decomposition (2) Productivity (3) Stratification (4) Energy flow
77. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of
(1) streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels
(2) citric acid
(3) blood cholesterol lowering statins
(4) ethanol
78. Which one of the following is a wrong statement?
(1) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals
(2) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon
(3) Eutrophication si a natural phenomenon in freshwater bodies
(4) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas
79. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic
group?
(1) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an algae and a protozoan
(2) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus
(3) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista
(4) Paramecium and Plasmodium belongs to the same kingdom as that of Penicillium
[10]
[10]
80. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in
(1) Nucleolus (2) Nucleoplasm (3) Ribosomes (4) Lysosomes
81. What is true about ribosomes?
(1) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
(2) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
(3) These are self - splicing introns of some RNA s
(4) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 70 S, where S stands for sedimentation coefficient.
82. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through the cell
membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus)
(1) Thyroxin, Insulin (2) Somatostatin, oxytocin
(3) Cortisol, testosterone (4) Insulin, glucagon
83. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutri-
tion?
(1) Aspergillus (2) Glomus (3) Trichoderma (4) Azotobacter
84. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem?
(1) Phosphorus cycle (2) Nitrogen cycle (3) Carbon cycle (4) Sulphur cycle
85. Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane
(1) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane
(2) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part
(3) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson
(4) Na
+
and K
+
ions move across cell membrane by passive transport
86. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas
is known as
(1) Natural selection (2) Migration
(3) Divergent evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
87. Which one of the fallowing areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity?
(1) Gangetic Plain (2) Sunderbans (3) Western Ghats (4) Eastern Ghats
88. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given
(1) Streptokinase (2) Cyclosporin-A (3) Statins (4) Penicillin
89. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus-free plants for micropropagation?
(1) Vascular tissue (2) Meristem (3) Node (4) Bark
90. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group
(1) Animalia (2) Monera (3) Plantae (4) Fungi
91. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called
(1) Inducing (2) Slicing (3) Splicing (4) Looping
92. Best defined function of Manganese in green plants is
(1) Calvin cycle (2) Nitrogen fixation (3) Water absorption (4) Photolysis of water
93. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of
(1) Tomato (2) Papaver (3) Michelia (4) Aloe
94. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in
(1) Cucumber (2) Castor (3) Maize (4) Papaya
95. The correct sequence of cell organelles during photorespiration is
(1) Chloroplast, Rough Endoplasmic reticulum Dictyosomes
(2) Chloroplast, mitochondria, peroxisome
(3) Chloroplast, vacuole, peroxisome
(4) Chloroplast, Golgibodies, mitochondria
[11]
[11]
Sol: But the correct sequence for photorespiration is chloroplast peroxisomes mitochondria.
96. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?
(1) Members of kingdom Plantae (2) Mode of Nutrition
(3) Multiplication by fragmentation (4) Diplontic life cycle
97. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(1) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-living
(2) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes
(3) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes
(4) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage
98. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics
are the ones categorized as
(1) Archaebacteria (2) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria (4) Cyanobacteria
99. Which statement is wrong for viruses?
(1) All of them have helical symmetry
(2) They have ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins
(3) Antibiotics have no effect on them
(4) All are parasites
100. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Ginger-Sucker (2) Chlamydomonas Conidia
(3) Yeast Zoospores (4) Onion Bulb
101. ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre.
1
F
,
2
F
and
3
F
represents three forces acting along the

sides AB, BC and AC respectively. If the total torque about O is zero then the magnitude of
3
F
is
(1) F
1
F
2
(2)
1 2
F F
2
+
(3) 2(F
1
+F
2
) (4) F
1
+F
2
Ans.(4)
Sol.
1 2 3
net F F F
t = t + t + t

1 2 3
0 Fr F r F r = + +

F
3
= F
1
+ F
2
102. If the nuclear radius of
27
Al is 3.6 Fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of
64
Cu in Fermi is
(1) 1.2 (2) 4.8 (3) 3.6 (4) 2.4
Ans.(2)
Sol. , ,
1/ 3
1/ 3 27
0 0 0
r r A For Al 3.6fm r 27 3r = = =
r
0
= 1.2 fm
, ,
1/ 3
64 1/ 3
0
For Cu r r A 1.2fm 64 4.8fm = = =
[12]
[12]
103. The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16
th
, its weight on the surface of earth (radius R), is:
(1) 15 R (2) 3 R (3) 4 R (4) 5 R
Ans.(2)
Sol.
,
2 2
1 Gmm Gmm
16 R
R h
=
+
R h
4 h 3R
R
+
= =
104. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A
1
and A
2
with half lives of 20s and 10s respectively. Initially
the mixture has 40 g of A
1
and 160 g of A
2
. The amount of the two in the mixture will become equal after:
(1) 80 s (2) 20s (3) 40 s (4) 60 s
Ans.(3)
Sol. After 40 sec, 40 gm of A
1
will become 10 gm and 160 gm of A
2
will also become 10 gm (both are equal).
105. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 5R above that surface of the earth, R being the
radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height of 2R from the surface of the
earth is:
(1) 10 (2)
6 2
(3)
6 / 2
(4) 5
Ans.(2)
Sol.
2 3
1 1
T r ;
2 3
2 2
T r
,
,
3
2 3
2 2
3 2 3
1 1
3R T r
T r
6R
= =
R
2R
5R
2
2
2 2
1
T 1 24
T 6 2 hr
T 8 2 2
= == =
106. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a position
such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle
0
with the direction of the field. Assuming that the potential
energy of the dipole to be zero when
o
90 0 =
, the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will respec-
tively be :
(1) pEsin , 2pEcos 0 0 (2) pEsin , 2pEcos 0 0
(3) pEcos , pEsin 0 0 (4) pEsin , pEcos 0 0
Ans.(4)
Sol.
PEsin t = 0
0
+q
q
E
j
/ 2
U d PEsin d PE cos 0 PEcos
0
t
= t 0 = 0 0 = + 0 = 0
} }
[13]
[13]
107. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 Volt - 100 Watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the
rated value by which the power would decrease is:
(1) 2.5% (2) 5% (3) 10% (4) 20%
Ans.(2)
Sol.
2
V
P
R
=
dP 2dv
2 2.5 5%
P V
= =
108. The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the
projectile is:
(1) ,
1
tan 4
0 = (2) ,
1
tan 2
0 = (3)
o
45 0 =
(4)
1
1
tan
4
| |
0 =

\
Ans.(1)
Sol.
,
2 2 2
u 2sin cos u sin
R H
g 2g
0 0 0
= =
tan 4 0 =
so, ,
1
tan 4
0 =
109. In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For V
A
= 12V,
1
R 500 = O and
R 100 = O
the galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. The value of V
B
is
(1) 2 V (2) 12V (3) 6 V (4) 4 V
Ans.(1)
Sol. Applying Kirchoffs for loop connecting cell V
A
, R
1
and A
2
500I 100I 12 + =
So,
2
2
12 10
I 2 10
6
= =
Hence, ,
2
B
V 100 2 10 2V
= =
110. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere range. The value (in
ohm) of necessary shunt will be
(1) 0.01 (2) 1 (3) 0.05 (4) 0.001
Ans.(4)
Sol. Resistance of voltmeter is very high w.r.t. shunt, hence almost all current will pass through shunt.
G
voltmeter
25A
S
25A
25 mV
25 S = 25 mV
S 0.001 = O
[14]
[14]
111. The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage wave forms across
A, B and C are given. The logic circuit gate is:
(1) NOR gate (2) AND gate (3) NAND gate (4) OR gate
Ans.(4)
Sol.
A B Y A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 1 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 0 1
0 1 1 1 1 1
Y = A+ B OR gate
112. An alternating electric field, of frequency v, is applied across the dees (radius = R) of a cyclotron that is
being used to accelerate proton (mass = m). The operating magnetic field (B) used in the cyclotron and the
kinetic energy (K) of the proton beam, produced by it, are given by:
(1)
2 2
2 m
B and K m R
e
t v
= = tv
(2)
2 2 2
2 m
B and K 2m R
e
t v
= = t v
(3)
2 2
m
B and K m R
e
v
= = tv
(4)
2 2 2
m
B and K 2m R
e
v
= = t v
Ans.(2)
Sol.

proton will change its velocity oppositely in time equal to half time period of AC source.
R 2 R
v v v 2 R
T/ 2 T
t t
= = = t v
, m 2 R mv 2 m
R R B
eB eB e
t v t v
= = =
,
2
2 2 2
1
K mv m 2 R 2m R
2 2
1
= = t v = tv
113. The current (I) in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure
Which one of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the coil?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans.(3)
Sol.
0
2I t dI d
V L L constant
dt dt T
| |
= = =

\
; For t = 0 to t = T/2
0
2I t dI d
V L L constant
dt dt T
| |
= = =

\
; For t = T/2 to t = T
[15]
[15]
114. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the
objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are :
(1) 15 cm, 5 cm (2) 18 cm, 2 cm (3) 11 cm, 9 cm (4) 10 cm, 10 cm
Ans.(2)
Sol.
0
0 e
e
f
9 & f f 20
f
= + =
sop f
0
= 18, f
e
= 2
115. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star, in which the
rate of energy production is Q?
(1)
,
1/ 2
2
Q/ 4 R

t o (2)
,
1/ 4
2
4 R Q/ t o (3)
,
1/ 4
2
Q/ 4 R t o (4)
2
Q/ 4 R t o
( o stands for Stefans constant)
Ans.(3)
Sol. Rate of energy ,
2 4
Q 4 R T = o t
1/ 4
2
Q
T
4 R
| |
=

t
\
116. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from second
excited to the first excited state. The ratio of the wavelength
1 2
: emitted in the two cases is:
(1) 27/20 (2) 27/5 (3) 20/7 (4) 7/5
Ans.(3)
Sol. 2 2
1 1
hc 1 1 hc 7
13.6 13.6
4 3 144
1
= = +
(

]
2 2
2
hc 1 1
13.6
3 2
1
=
(
]
2 1
2
1
hc
20
hc
7

= =
117. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 m . Assuming it to be 25% efficient in
converting electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow light it emits per second is:
(1) 6 10
18
(2) 62 10
20
(3) 3 10
19
(4) 1.5 10
20
Ans.(4)
Sol.
34 8
19
7
hc 6.625 10 3 10
E 3.2 10 J
6 10

= = =
v
20
1
nE 200W n 1.52 10
4
= =
118. Four point charges Q, q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation between Q
and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is:
(1)
1
Q
q
=
(2) Q = q (3)
1
Q
q
=
(4) Q = q
Ans.(4)
Sol. If potential at centre is zero.
Then Q q +2q +2Q = 0
So Q = q
[16]
[16]
119. An o-particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83 cm in the presence of a magnetic field of 0.25 Wb/m
2
.
The de Broglie wavelength associated with the particle will be:
(1) 0.1 (2) 10 (3) 0.01 (4) 1
Ans.(3)
Sol.
mv
R
qB
=
,
h h
mv qBR
= = =
0.01
120. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It :
(1) will stay in any position (2) will stay in north-south direction only
(3) will stay in east- west direction only (4) will become rigid showing no movement
Ans.(1)
Sol. When compass needle is taken to a geometric pole, if will become free and it will stay in any position.
121. A ring is made of a wire having a distance
0
R 12 = O . Find the points A and B, as shown in figure, at which
a current carrying conductor should be connected so that the resistance R of the sub circuit between these
points is equal to
8
3
O
(1)
1
2
1
3
=
l
l
(2)
1
2
3
8
=
l
l
(3)
1
2
1
2
=
l
l
(4)
1
2
5
8
=
l
l
Ans.(3)
Sol. Resistance per unit length
1 2
12
=
+ l l
1 2
3 1 1
8 R R
= +
Put
1
1
1 2
12
R =
+
l
l l
and
2
2
1 2
12
R =
+
l
l l
on solving this
1
2
1
2
=
l
l
122. C and Si both have same lattice structure, having 4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is insulator where
as Si is intrinsic semiconductor. This is because:
(1) In case of C the conduction band is partly filled even at absolute zero temperature
(2) the four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the second orbit, whereas in the case of Si they lie in the
third
(3) The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the third orbit, whereas for Si they lie in the fourth orbit
(4) In case of C the valance band is not completely filled at absolute zero temperature
Ans.(2)
Sol. Loosely bounded valence e
in Si as compared to C.
[17]
[17]
123. Transfer characteristics [output voltage (V
0
) vs input voltage (V
i
)] for a base biased transistor in CE
configuration is as shown in the figure. For using transistor as a switch, it is used:
(1) both in region (I) and (III) (2) in region II
(3) in region I (4) in region III
Ans.(1)
Sol. Transistor as a switch is used in saturated and cut off region.
124. Two spheres A and B of masses m
1
and m
2
respectively collide. A is at rest initially and B is moving with
velocity v along x-axis. After collision B has a velocity
v
2
in a direction perpendicular to the original direction.
The mass A moves after collision in the direction.
(1) opposite to that of B (2)
1
1
tan
2
| |
0 =

\
to x-axis
(3)
1
1
tan
2
| |
0 =

\
to x axis (4) same as that of B
Ans.(2)
Sol.
i 2 1
p m vi m 0 = +
f 2 1 1
v
p m j m v
2
= +

; (v
1
= final velocity of A)
i f 2 2 1 1
v

p p m vi m j m v
2
= = +

2 2
1
1 1
m m v

v vi j
m m 2
= +
1
tan
2
| |
0 =

\
1
1
tan
2
| |
0 =

\
to the x-axis
125. When a string is divided into three segments of length l
1
, l
2
and l
3
the fundamental frequencies of these three
segments are v
1
, v
2
and v
3
respectively. The original fundamental frequency (v) of the string is:
(1) v = v
1
+ v
2
+ v
3
(2)
1 2 3
1 1 1 1
= + +
v v v v
(3)
1 2 3
1 1 1 1
= + +
v v v v
(4)
1 2 3
v = v + v + v
Ans.(2)
Sol.
1
1 1 1
2
2
= = l l
; 1
1 1
v v
2
v = =
l
2
2 2 2
2
2
= = l l
; 2
2 2
v v
2
v = =
l
[18]
[18]
3
3 3 3
2
2
= = l l
; 3
3 3
v v
2
v = =
l
3 1 2
1 2 3
2 2 2 1 1 1
v v v
+ + = + +
v v v
l l l
1 2 3
2 2 2 1
v
+ +
=
v
l l l
126. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The
currents flowing in them are I and 2I, respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction at the centre will
be:
(1)
0
3 I
2R
(2)
0
I
2R
(3)
0
I
R
(4)
0
5 I
2R
Ans.(4)
Sol.
2 2 2 2 0 0
1 2
I I 5
B B B 1 2
2R 2R

= + = + =
127. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along:
(1) the line making an angle of 45 to the plane of rotation
(2) the radius
(3) the tangent to the orbit
(4) a line perpendicular to the plane of rotation
Ans.(4)
Sol.
, L m r v =

128. The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by equation: x = 8 + 12t t
3
, where x is in metre
and t in second. The retardation of the particle when its velocity becomes zero, is:
(1) zero (2) 6 ms
2
(3) 12 ms
2
(4) 24 ms
2
Ans.(3)
Sol. x = 8 +12t t
3
2
dx
v 12 3t 0 t 2sec
dt
= = = =
, t 2sec
dv
a 6t a 6 2 12
dt
=
= = = =
a = 12 m/s
2
retardation = 12 m/s
2
129. A spherical planet has a mass M
p
and diameter D
p
. A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of
this planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity, equal to:
(1) GM
p
m/D
p
2
(2) GM
p
/D
p
2
(3) 4GM
p
m/D
p
2
(4) 4GM
p
/D
p
2
Ans.(4)
Sol.
p
P
2 2
p
p
GM m
4GM m
F F
D
D
2
= =
| |

\
p
g 2
p
4GM
F
a
m D
= =
[19]
[19]
130. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas
during the cycle is:
(1) 4 PV (2)
1
PV
2
(3) PV (4) 2PV
Ans.(4)
Sol. For a cycle Q W Area of thePVdiagram 2PV A = A = =
131. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant.
Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of temperature with time?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans.(4)
Sol. State change takes place from liquid to gas
132. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the velocity. The units of the constant of
proportionality are:
(1) kgms
2
(2) kgs
1
(3) kgs (4) kgms
1
Ans.(2)
Sol.
d
F v
d
F kv =
2
1 d
1
F kgms
k unit of k kgs
v ms
= = =
133. A particle has initial velocity
,
2i 3j +

and acceleration
,
0.3i 0.2 j +

. The magnitude of velocity after 10
seconds will be:
(1) 5 2 units (2) 5units (3) 9units (4) 9 2 units
Ans.(1)
Sol.
x y

u 2i 3j u 2; u 3 = + = =
x y

a 0.3i 0.2j a 0.3; a 0.2 = + = =
, , , , ,

v u at v 2 0.3 10 i 3 0.2 10 j = + = + + +

v 5i 5j v 5 2 unit = + =
134. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground
state irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential is measured to be 3.57 V. The threshold
frequency of the material is:
(1) 510
15
Hz (2) 1.610
15
Hz (3) 2.510
15
Hz (4) 410
15
Hz
Ans.(2)
Sol. 10.2eV 3.57eV = | +
6.63eV | =
hv= 6.63
19
15
34
6.63 1.6 10
1.6 10 Hz
6.67 10

v = =

[20]
[20]
135. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incident, i, on one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to be small) and
emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the prism is , the angle of incidence i,
is nearly equal to:
(1)
A
2
(2) A (3) A/ 2 (4) A

Ans.(4)
Sol.
1 2
i i A o = +
, 1 A i 0 A = +
i A =
A
i
136. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is:
(1) Zero (2) 0.25 A (3) 0.5 A (4) 0.75 A
Ans.(3)
Sol. D
2
is reverse biased; D
1
is forward biased
10 O
i
5 V
5
i 0.5A
10
= =
137. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of
2kO
is 2V. If the base
resistance is
1kO
and the current amplification of the transistor is 100, the input signal voltage is:
(1) 1.0 V (2) 1 mV (3) 10 mV (4) 0.1 V
Ans.(3)
Sol. Current amplification factor :
3 C
C 3
B
I 2V
I 10 A
I 2 10
A
| = A = =
A O
2 B B
B B 3
B
V V
I V 10
R 1 10
A = = =
100 | =
Now,
3
B 3
B
10 1
100 V volt 10mV
V 10 100
= = =

[21]
[21]
138. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed
from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is
/ 3 t
. If instead, C
is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again
/ 3 t
. The power factor of the circuit is:
(1)
1/ 2
(2) 1 (3)
3 / 2
(4) 1/2
Ans.(2)
Sol.
L C C
X X X
tan tan 3
R 3 R
t
| = = =
; So
C
X R 3 =
also
L
X
tan 3
3 R
t
= =
; So
L
X R 3 =
Hence it is resonant circuit
R 3 R 3
tan 0
R
| = = ; So, 0 | =
cos 1 | =
139. One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to final state B via two processes: It first undergoes
isothermal expansion from volume V to 3 V and then its volume is reduced from 3 V to V at constant
pressure. The correct P-V diagram representing the two processes is:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans.(3)
Sol. Conceptual
140. The potential energy of a particle in a force field is :
2 1
A B
U
r r
=
, where A and B are positive constant and
r is the distance of particle from the centre of the field. For stable equilibrium, the distance of the particle is:
(1) 2A / B (2) A / B (3) B / A (4) B / 2A
Ans.(1)
Sol. For stable equilibrium
dU
F 0
dr
= =
Solving we get,
2A 2A
B r
r B
= =
141. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat. The length of the
boat is 3.0 m and weighs 100 kg. The 55 kg man walks up to the 65 kg man and sits with him. If the boat is
in still water, the centre of mass of the system shifts by:
(1) 2.3 m (2) zero (3) 0.75 m (4) 3.0 m
Ans.(3)
Sol.
55 3
Shift 0.75m
55 65 100
= =
+ +
142. A coil of resistance 400O is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux | (wb) linked with the coil
varies with time t (sec) as
2
50t 4 | = + . The current in the coil at t = 2 sec is:
(1) 0.1 A (2) 2 A (3) 1 A (4) 0.5 A
[22]
[22]
Ans.(4)
Sol.
d
E | 100t |
dt
|
= =
at t = 2sec
E = 200 volt
E 200 1
i A 0.5A
R 400 2
= = = =
143. A concave mirror of focal length f
1
is placed at a distance d from a convex lens of focal length f
2
. A
beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens - concave mirror combination returns to
infinity. The distance d must be
(1) f
1
+ f
2
(2) 2f
1
+ f
2
(3) 2f
1
+ f
2
(4) f
1
+ f
2
Ans.(2)
Sol.
1 2
d 2f f = +
f
2
2f
1
144. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave in vacuum is given by ,
8
E i40cos kz 6 10 t =
, where E,
z and t are in volt/m, meter and seconds respectively. The value of wave vector k is:
(1) 0.5 m
1
(2) 6 m
1
(3) 3 m
1
(4) 2 m
1
Ans.(4)
Sol.
8 8
6 10 2 6 10 e= tv =
8
6 10
2
v =
t
8
8
6 10
C 3 10
2
v = =
t
1
2
k 2 k 2m
t
= = =
145. A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a fictionless road. If the banking angle
is 45, the speed of car is:
(1) 30 ms
1
(2) 5 ms
1
(3) 10 ms
1
(4) 20 ms
1
Ans.(1)
Sol.
2 2
o
v v
tan45
Rg 90 10
= =
So, V = 30 m/sec
146. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of
glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index.
(1) less than one (2) greater than that of glass
(3) less than that of glass (4) equal to that of glass
Ans.(4)
Sol. If biconvex lens behave like plane sheet, ray will pass undeviated through it only when medium has same
refractive index as that of biconvex lens.
[23]
[23]
147. A solid cylinder of mass 3 kg is rolling on a horizontal surface with velocity 4 ms
1
. It collides with a horizontal
spring of force constant 200 Nm
1
. The maximum compression produced in the sprig will be:
(1) 0.6 m (2) 0.7 m (3) 0.2 m (4) 0.5 m
Ans.(1)
Sol. Loss in K.E. = Gain in spring energy
2 2 2
1 1 1
I mv kx
2 2 2
e + =
Put
2
1
I mr
2
=
148. What is the flux through a cube of side a if a point charge of q is at one of its centre:
(1)
0
q
8e
(2)
0
q
e
(3)
2
0
q
6a
2e
(4)
0
2q
e
Ans.(1)
Sol. Since if charge q is placed at the corner of a cube then charge enclosed = q/8
Therefore,
enclosed
cube
0 0
q q
8
| = =
e e
149. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity
that the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be:
(1)
25hR
24m
(2)
25m
24 hR
(3)
24m
25 h R
(4)
24hR
25m
(m is the mass of the electron, R, Rydberg constant and h Plancks constant)
Ans.(4)
Sol.
5 1
hc
E E =
Rhc hc
Rhc
25
+ =
24 1
R
25
=
h h 24 Rh
p v
m 25 m
= = =

150. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressively waves given by
1
y 4sin 600 t = t and
2
y 5sin 608 t = t . An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear:
(1) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and waning
Ans.(3)
Sol.
,
,
,
,
2 2
1 2 max
2 2
min
1 2
A A 5 4 I 81
I 1
A A 5 4
+ +
= = =

1 1
2 600 so 300Hz tv = t v =
2 2
2 608 so 304Hz tv = t v =
No. of beats per sec = v
2
v
1
= 4
[24]
[24]
151. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state?
(1) NH
3
(2) N
3
H (3) NH
2
OH (4) N
2
H
4
Ans. (2)
Sol.
3
N H
Oxidation state of nitrogen is - 1/3
152. Identify the wrong statement in the following
(1) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius.
(2) Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table
(3) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of the
periodic table
(4) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius
Ans. (4)
Sol. Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, bigger is the ionic radius.
153. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour?
(1) [Zn(NH
3
)
6
]
2+
(2) [Cr(NH
3
)
6
]
2+
(3) [Co(NH
3
)
6
]
2+
(4) [Ni(NH
3
)
6
]
2+
Ans. (3)
Sol.
2
3 6
[Ni(NH ) ]
+
2 0 8
Ni 4s , 3d
+
154. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is :
(1) 16 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14
Ans. (4)
Sol. l = 3. n = 4
Sub Energy level if 4f
Maximum No. of electron in f subshell = (14)
155.CH
3
CHO and C
6
H
5
CH
2
CHO can be distinguished chemically by:
(1) Iodoform test (2) Tollens reagent test (3) Fehling solution test (4) Bendedict test
Ans. (1)
Sol. CH
3
CHO gives iodoform test, C
6
H
5
CH
2
CHO does not give iodoform test
156.The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the melting of ice of 0C is:
(1) 21.04 cal/(mol K) (2) 5.260 cal/(mol K)
(3) 0.526 cal/(mol K) (4) 10.52 cal/(mol K)
Ans. (2)
Sol. Enthalpy of fusion of H
2
O
3
fus
H 1.435 10
s cal / mole
T 273
A
A = =
1 1
5.26cal. mole K

=
157. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?
(1) Cassiterite (2) Pyrolusite (3) Magnetite (4) Malachite
Ans. (3)
Sol. Magnetite
[25]
[25]
158.The pair of species with the same bond order is:
(1) O
2
+, NO
+
(2) NO, CO (3) N
2
, O
2
(4)
2
2
O

, B
2
Ans. (4)
Sol. Both have bond order 1
159.Which of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism?
(1) o -amino acids (2) Lactic acid (3) Tartaric acid (4) Maleic acid
Ans. (4)
Sol. Maleic acid (chiral centre is absent)
HCCOOH
HCCOOH
160. In the following sequence of reactions
3 4
H O LiAlH KCN
3 ether
CH Br A B C
+
, the end product (C) is:
(1) Methane (2) Acetaldehyde (3) Ethyl alcohol (4) Acetone
Ans. (3)
Sol.
3 4
H O LiAlH KCN
3 3 3 3 2 ether
CH Br CH CN CH COOH CH CH OH
+

161.In the following reaction :
H CCCH=CH
3 2
CH
3
CH
3
2
H O/ H
O
A + B
The major product is:
Ans. (4)
Sol. H CCCH=CH
3 2
CH
3
CH
3
2
H O/ H
O
H CCCHCH
3 3
CH
3
CH
3
+
1,2 methyl shift
H CCCHCH
3 3
CH
3
CH
3
+
H CCCHCH
3 3
CH
3
CH
3
OH
[26]
[26]
162.Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system?
(1)
CH CH CHCH CHCH ,
3 2 2 3
CH
3
Br CH
3
4Bromo, 2, 4dimethylhexane
(2)
CH CHCHCH CH ,
3 2 3
CH
3
2Methyl3phenylpentane
(3)
CH CCH CH CH COOH,
3 2 2 2
O
5oxohexanoic acid
(4)
1Bromoprop2ene
BrCH CH=CH,
2 2
Ans. (4)
Sol. The correct IUPAC nomenclature is
3Bromoprop1ene
163. In a reaction,
A B +
Product, rate is doubted when the concentration of B is doubled, and rate increases
by a factor of 8 when the concentrations of both the reactants (A and B) are doubled, rate law of the reactin
can be written as:
(1) Rate = k [A]
2
[B]
2
(2) Rate = k [A] [B] (3) Rate = k [A]
2
[B] (4) Rate = k [A] [B]
2
Ans. (3)
Sol. A + B

product
When concentration of B is double rate is double so order with respect to B is 1
When the concentration of A and B are double the rate becomes 8 times. It indicates the order with A is 2
Rate = k [A]
2
[B]
164. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by
(1)
2
O
(2)
2
2
O

(3) O
2
(4)
2
O
+
Ans. (1)
Sol.
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1
z x y x y
1s , *1s , 2s , * 2s , 2p , 2p 2p , * 2p * 2p o o o o o t = t t = t
10 7
B.O. 1.5
2
= =
165. Predict the products in the given reaction.
CHO
Cl
50%KOH

[27]
[27]
Ans. (2)
Sol. Cannizzaro reaction
166. The ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion-exchange resins follows the order:
(1) Rb
+
< K
+
< Na
+
< Li
+
(2) K
+
< Na
+
< Rb
+
< Li
+
(3) Na
+
< Li
+
< K
+
< Rb
+
(4) Li
+
< K
+
< Na
+
< Rb
+
Ans. (4)
Sol. Li
+
< K
+
< Na
+
< Rb
+
larger the hydrated ionic radii lesser the rate of adsorption
167.Which one of the following pairs is isostrucural (i.e. having the same shape and hybridization)?
(1) [NH
3
and
3
NO
] (2) [NF
3
and BF
3
]
(3)
4 4
[BF and NH ]
+
(4) [BCl
3
and BrCl
3
]
Ans. (3)
Sol. Both
4 4
[BF and NH ]
+
are SP
3
hybridized and have same structure
168.P
A
and P
B
are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B respectively of an ideal binary solution.
If x
A
represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be
(1) P
A
+ x
A
(P
A
P
B
) (2) P
B
+ x
A
(P
B
P
A
)
(3) P
B
+ x
A
(P
A
P
B
) (4) P
A
+ x
A
(P
B
P
A
)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
s A A B B
P X P X P = +
=
A A A B
X P (1 X )P +
A A B A B
X P P X P = +
S B A A B
P P X (P P ) = +
169.Standard enthalpy of vapourisation
vap
H A for water at 100C is 40.66 kJ mol
1
. The internal energy of
vaporisation of water at 100C (in kJ mol
1
) is:
(1) 43.76 (2) +43.76 (3) +40.66 (4) +37.56
(Assume water vapour to behave like an ideal gas).
Ans. (4)
Sol.
g
H E n RT A = A + A
g
E H n RT A = A A
1 8.314 373
40.66
1000

=
= 37.56
170.Which of the following statements is false?
(1) Nylon-66 is an example of elastomer
(2) The repeat unit in natural rubber is isoprene
(3) Both starch and cellulose are polymers of glucose
(4) Artificial silk is derived from cellulose
Ans. (1)
Sol. Nylon-66 is an example of fiber
[28]
[28]
171. Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?
(1)Glyptal (2) Dacron (3) Neoprene (4) Melamine
Ans. (3)
Sol. Neoprene is addition polymer
172.The number of octahedral void(s) per atom present in a cubic close - packed structure is:
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1
Ans. (4)
Sol. in C.C.P the effective no. of atom per unit cell = 4
in C.C.P the effective no. of octahedral voide = 4
In C.C.P. structure number of octahedral void per atom 4/4 = 1
173. Which of the statements is not trure?
(1) Na
2
Cr
2
O
7
is preferred over K
2
Cr
2
O
7
in volumetric analysis
(2) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
solution in acidic medium is orange
(3) K
2
Cr
2
O
7
solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
(4) On passing H
2
S trhough acidified K
2
Cr
2
O
7
solution, a milky colour is observed.
Ans. (1)
Sol. Na
2
Cr
2
O
4
is hygroscopic in nature so it can not be used in volumetric analysis
174. The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal sol is expressed in terms of:
(1) Gold number (2) Critical miscelle concentration
(3) Oxidation number (4) Coagulation value
Ans. (1)
Sol. Gold number
175. Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is:
(1) Nitrobenzene (2) Toluene (3) Benzene (4) Benzoic Acid
Ans. (2)
Sol. In toluene CH
3
is activating group for electrophilic aromatic substitution
176. pH of a saturated solutin of Ba(OH)
2
is 12. The value of solubility product (K
sp
) of Ba (OH)
2
is:
(1) 5.0 10
7
(2) 4.0 10
6
(3) 5.0 10
6
(4) 3.3 10
7
Ans. (1)
Sol. Ba(OH)
2
has pH = 12
2
10
[OH]
2
=
3
Ksp 4s =
6 7
1
10 5 10
2

= =
177. A metal crystallizes with a face-centered cubic lattice. The edge of the unit cell is 408 pm. The diameter of
the metal atom is:
(1) 408 pm (2) 144 pm (3) 204 pm (4) 288 pm
Ans. (4)
Sol.
a 2 408 2
2r
2 2
= = 288pm =
178. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoracetic acid (B), acetic acid
(C) and formic acid (D) is:
(1) B > D > C > A (2) A > B > C > D
(3) A > C > B > D (4) B > A > D > C
Ans. (4)
Sol. Stronger the I effect more acidic the carboxylic acid
[29]
[29]
179. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valences electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:
(1) 6, 0, 0, + 1/2 (2) 5, 0, 0, + 1/2 (3) 5, 1, 0 + 1/2 (4) 5, 1, 1, + 1/2
Ans. (2)
Sol. Z = 37
1
[kr] 5s
180. Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al
2
O
3
) by electrolysis of a molten mixture of:
(1) Al
2
O
3
+ CaF
2
+ NaAlF
4
(2) Al
2
O
3
+ Na
3
AlF
6
+ CaF
2
(3) Al
2
O
3
+ KF + Na
3
AlF
6
(4) Al
2
O
3
+ HF + NaAlF
4
Ans. (2)
Sol. Al
2
O
3
+ Na
3
AlF
6
+ CaF
2
181.Equimolar solutions of the following substances were prepared separately. Which one of these will record
the highest pH value?
(1) Al Cl
3
(2) Li Cl (3) Be Cl
2
(4) Ba Cl
2
Ans. (4)
Sol. Ba Cl
2
(Solution is basic)
182.When Cl
2
gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of chlorine
changes from:
(1) Zero to 1 and zero to + 5(2) Zero to 1 and zero to + 3
(3) Zero to + 1 and zero to 3 (4) Zero to + 1 and zero to 5
Ans. (1)
Sol.
2 3 2
3Cl 6NaOH NaCl 5NaClO 3H O
A
+ + +
183. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about enzyme catalysis?
(1) Enzyme action is specific
(2) Enzymes are denaturated by ultraviolet rays and at high temperature
(3) Enzymes are least reactive at optimum temperature
(4) Enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature
Ans. (3)
Sol. Enzymes are most reactive at optimum temperature
184. Deficiency of vitamin B
1
causes the disease
(1) Beri-Beri (2) Cheilosis (3) Sterility (4) Convulsions
Ans. (1)
Sol. Beri-Beri
185. Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose?
(1) oD Glucopyranose and | D fructofuranose
(2) | D Glucopyranose and oD fructofuranose
(3) oD Glucopyranose and | D fructopyranose
(4) oD Galactopyranose and | D Glucopyranose
Ans. (1)
Sol. oD Glucopyranose and | D fructofuranose
[30]
[30]
186. Limiting molar conductivity of NH
4
OH
o
4
i.e. m(NH OH)
| |
A

\
is equal to:
(1)
o o o
4
m(NaOH) m(NaCl) m(NH Cl) A + A A
(2)
o o o
4 4 4
m(NH OH) m(NH Cl) m(NH Cl) A + A A
(3)
o o o
4
m(NH Cl) m(NaOH) m(NaCl) A + A A
(4)
o o o
4
m(NH Cl) m(NaCl) m(NaOH) A + A A
Ans. (3)
Sol.
o o o
4
m(NH Cl) m(NaOH) m(NaCl) A + A A
(Kholraush law)
187. Which one of the following statements regarding photochemical smog is not correct?
(1) Photochemical smog is an oxidising agent in character
(2) Photochemical smog is formed through photochemical reaction involving solar energy
(3) Photochemical smog does not cause irritation in eyes and throat
(4) Carbon monoxide does not play any role in photochemical smog formation
Ans. (3)
Sol. Photochemical smog cause irritation in eyes and throat
188. Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because:
(1) acids and alkalies in these solutions are shielded from attack by other ions
(2) they have large excess of H
+
or OH
ions
(3) they have fixed value of pH
(4) these give unionised acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali
Ans. (4)
Sol. these give unionised acid or base on reaction with added acid or alkali
189. Which one of the alkali metals, forms only, the normal oxide, M
2
O on heating in air?
(1) K (2) Li (3) Na (4) Rb
Ans. (2)
Sol. Lithium form only monoxide when react with air
190. Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair around the central atom?
(1) BF
3
(2)
2
NH
(3) PCl
3
(4) H
2
O
Ans. (3)
Sol. PCl
3
(SP
3
hybridisation)
191. In a zero - order reaction for every 10 rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is
increased from 10C to 100C, the rate of the reaction will become:
(1) 512 times (2) 64 times (3) 128 times (4) 256 times
Ans. (1)
Sol. New rate
T/10
2
A
=
192. A mixture of potassium chlorate, oxalic acid and sulphuric acid is heated. During the reaction which element
undergoes maximum change in the oxidation number?
(1) H (2) Cl (3) C (4) S
Ans. (2)
Sol. Cl
[31]
[31]
193.Acetone is treated with excess of ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The product obtained is:
Ans. (3)
Sol. Acetone with excess of ethanol gives acetal.
194.In Freundlich Adsorption isotherm, the value of 1/n is:
(1) between 2 and 4 in all cases (2) 1 in case of physical adsorption
(3) 1 in case of chemisorption (4) between 0 and 1 in all cases
Ans. (4)
Sol. between 0 and 1 in all cases
195. In which of the following reactions, standard reaction entropy change ( S ) A is positive and standard Gibbss
energy change ( G ) A decreases sharply with increasing temperature?
(1)
2 2
1
CO(g) O (g) CO (g)
2
+
(2)
2
1
Mg O (g) MgO(s)
2
+
(3)
2 2
1 1 1
Cgraphite O (g) CO (g)
2 2 2
+
(4)
2
1
Cgraphite O (g) CO(g)
2
+
Ans. (4)
Sol.
2
1
Cgraphite O (g) CO(g)
2
+
(Ellingham diagram)
196. Sulphur trioxide canbe obtained by which of the following reaction:
(1)
2 4 3
Fe (SO )
A
(2)
2 4
S H SO
A
+
(3)
2 4 5
H SO PCl + (4)
4
CaSO C
A
+
Ans. (1)
Sol.
2 4 3 2 3 3
Fe (SO ) Fe O 3SO
A
+ `
197. Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids of phosphorus?
(1) Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid
(2) All oxoacids contain tetrahedral four coordinated phosphorus
(3) All oxoacids contain atleast one P = O unit and one P OH group
(4) Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate
Ans. (1)
Sol. Hypophosphorous acid is a monoprotic acid
[32]
[32]
198. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous
oxide with:
(1) Sulphur dioxide (SO
2
) (2) Iron sulphide (FeS)
(3) Carbon monoxide (CO) (4) Copper (I) sulphide (Cu
2
S)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
2 2 2
2Cu O Cu S 6Cu SO + +
(Self reduction method)
199. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it
(1) Steel (2) Bell metal (3) Bronze (4) Invar
Ans. (1)
Sol. Steel contains carbon as non metal constituent
200. 50 mL of each gas A and of gas B takes 150 and 200 seconds respectively for effusing through a pin hole
under the similar conditions. If molecular mass of gas B is 36, the molecular mass of gas A will be:
(1) 128 (2) 32 (3) 64 (4) 96
Ans. (No option is correct)
Sol.
A B
B A
r M 200
r 150 M
= =
A
4 3 6
3 M
=
A
9 36 81
M 20.25
16 4
= = =
*****

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CBSE Prelim. 2012(Hints & Solutions) - Code C Narayana IIT/PMT Academy

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