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Exam Sample Paper 4

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Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be managed as a service request using the Request Fulfilment process? a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge b) After a service review. This combination could be describes as? a) High Utility and Low Warranty b) High Utility and High Warranty c) Low Utility and Low Warranty d) Low Utility and High Warranty 2 Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts? a) Process Manager b) Service Catalogue Manager c) Supplier Manager d) IT Designer / Architect 3 Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure? a) Deming Cycle b) RACI model c) CSI (Continual Service Improvement) model d) Service model 4. but when it works it is of great value to the customer.1 A Service is not very reliable. a functionality change is required to an application c) A manager asks for a change to an existing global security profile d) Users require testing of an element of the business continuity plan .

In which document will customers initial service targets be documented before the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is produced ? a) Pilot Service Level Agreement (PSLA) b) Service Level Requirements (SLR) c) Service Catalogue (SC) d) Operational Level Agreement (OLA) . Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT? 1.5. Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre ? a) Technical Management b) IT Operations Management c) Service Desk d) Applications Management 7. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability and the right level of control a) 2 only b) 1 only c) All of the above d) None of the above 6. Configuration Items (CIs) may be grouped and managed together 2.

Technology metrics measure efficiency and effectiveness c) Service metrics measure the end to end service.8. Technology metrics measure the infrastructure 9. The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as? a) Service metrics include critical success factors (CSF) and Key Performance Indicators (KPIs). Technology metrics measure individual components d) Service metrics measure each of the service management processes. Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities ? a) Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests b) Web front-end c) Menu-driven range of self help and service requests d) A direct interface into the back end process handling software . Technology metrics include availability and capacity b) Service metrics measure maturity and cost. What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting? a) Service reporting intervals should be defined and agreed with the customers b) Reporting intervals should be set by the service provider c) Reports should be produced monthly d) Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services 10.

What process does Demand Management work most closely with? a) Service Level Management b) Capacity Management c) Service Strategy d) Configuration Management 13.11. What is the RACI model used for? a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity b) Defining requirements for a new service or process c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of service 12. In which phase of the service lifecycle would it be decided what services should be offered and to whom they will be offered? a) Continual Service Improvement b) Service Operation c) Service Design d) Service Strategy . Which of the following is NOT an ITIL recognised Service Desk? a) Local b) Virtual c) Outsourced d) Centralised 14.

Technology Capacity Management and Component Capacity Management . continuity and. 17. Which of the above statements are CORRECT? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) None of the above d) 2 only 16"Warranty of a service" means? a) The service is fit for purpose b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability. capacity. Security.15. Service Capacity Management and Component Capacity Management b) Supplier Capacity Management. The three sub-processes of Capacity Management are a) Business Capacity Management. Consider the following statements: 1. Service Capacity Management and Technology Capacity Management d) Business Capacity Management. A characteristic of the "Process" is that it is performance driven and able to be measured. Service Capacity Management and Component Capacity Management c) Supplier Capacity Management. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger 2.

change and release documentation" a) The Capacity Plan b) The Definitive Media Library c) The Configuration Management System d) A Service Level Agreement 19. known errors.18. “Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production” is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle? a) Service Operation b) Service Strategy c) Service Transition d) Continual Service Improvement . Which of the following statements about a Change process model is CORRECT? a) A Change process model should not be used for emergency changes b) A Change process model should be constructed when a significant change is required c) A Change process model predefines steps that should be taken to handle a Change in an agreed way d) Escalation procedures are outside the scope of a Change process model 20. What is described by the following statement? "Maintains relationships between all service components and any related incidents. problems.

What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle? a) Steady.21. monitoring performance and assessing metrics in order to facilitate service improvements are all activities associated with which part of the service lifecycle? a) Service Operation b) Demand Management c) Service Design d) Capacity Management 23. Availability Management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following? a) b) c) d) IT Services and Components IT Services and Business Processes Components and Business Processes IT Services. Gathering data. Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low? a) Access Management b) Incident Management c) Release and Deployment Management d) Request Fulfillment 24. ongoing improvement b) Rapid. Components and Business Processes . one-off improvement c) Return on investment within 12 months d) Quick Wins 22.

KPIs can be both qualitative and quantitative a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1. organisations can respond to customer requirements while maximising value and reducing incidents and disruption. Each KPI should relate to a critical success factor 3. Change management is an important part of ITIL®. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) uses process metrics to identify improvement opportunities 4. Using Change Management. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model? a) Understand the business vision and objectives b) Carry out a baseline assessment to understand the current situation c) Agree on priorities for improvement d) Create and verify a plan . Which of these statements about Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) and Metrics are CORRECT? 1. Which type of body exists to support the authorisation of changes. 2 and 4 only d) All of the above 26. particularly the assessment and prioritisation of changes? a) CAB b) CMB c) CAT d) CAS 27.25. Service metrics measure the end-to-end service 2.

Which statement about the Known Error Database (KEDB) is totally correct? a) The KEDB is the same database as the Service Knowledge Management System b) The KEDB should be used during incident diagnosis phase to try to speed up the resolution process c) Care should be taken to avoid duplication of records in the KEDB. Which of the following BEST describes when a known Error record should be raised? a) Immediately following the Problem resolution. It should be done as soon as it becomes useful to do so d) As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the problem will not be found . What is the role of Facilities Management? a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as "utilities". such as printers or network access b) Advice and guidance to IT Operations on methodology and tools for managing IT Services c) The Management of the physical IT environment such as a data center d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT Operations staff to maintain the infrastructure 29. so a permanent historical record of all actions is retained in case of a recurrence b) As soon as a temporary resolution or workaround has been found. regardless of whether the cause has yet been diagnosed c) It is inadvisable to set a specific point when a Known Error record must be raised.28. This can be done by giving as many technicians as possible access to create new records d) Access to the KEDB should be limited to the Service Desk 30.

The BEST definition of an Event is? a) b) c) d) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed Service Level has already been impacted An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT Infrastructure or delivery of services A known system defect that generates multiple Incident reports A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement programme . Of which ITIL process are Reliability.31. Which phase of the service lifecycle provides a framework for evaluating service capability and risk profile before and during service deployment? a) Service Strategy b) Continual Service Improvement c) Service Transition d) Service Operation 33. Serviceability and Maintainability components? a) IT Service Continuity Management b) Service Level Management c) Problem Management d) Availability Management 32. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer? a) b) c) d) The The The The average utilization level of the Service Desk level of availability realised and the time not available per period percentage of incidents that were resolved within the target successful and reverted Changes during a specific period 34.

and 3 and 3 and 4 3 4 4 only only only only 37.35. 1. Risk assessment a) b) c) d) 1. 2 and 2. Business continuity strategy 3. 1. Design of the service metrics 2. 2. IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on? 1. Business Impact analysis 4. Which of the following is a type of Service Level Agreement (SLA) described in the ITIL Service Design publication? a) b) c) d) Priority-based SLA Technology-based SLA Location-based SLA Customer-based SLA . Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern of IT Governance? a) Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes b) Ensuring that processes and procedures are correctly followed c) Reducing the total cost of providing services d) Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met 36.

A project is continuous and has no end date. A process stops when the objective has been achieved.38. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users 3. D. whereas a process has a finite lifespan. whereas a project has a finite lifespan. Which of the following is a good way of showing performance against SLA targets as part of a report? a) b) c) d) Service Review SLAM Chart CSIP RFCs against the SLA . Defining security policies for system access 4. whereas a project does not stop when the objective is met. In a project the focus is not on the result. B. whereas with a process the result is important 39. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services 2. Which of the following activities are included in Access Management? 1. C. A process is continuous and has no end date. What is the difference between a process and a project? A. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to a) b) c) d) 2 1 2 1 and and and and 4 3 3 2 only only only only 40.

Answers for sample paper 4 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A C B A C B B C A A A B C D B D A C C C 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A D A D A A C B C D C A B B C D A D B .

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