Two Lorentz transformations differ by an infinitesimal amount. In the notation of section 11.

7, they are represented as,

1
1 2 2 1
; ;
L L L L L L L
A e A e A A A e e e
o o o + +
= = = = [I.1]
Show that, to first order, the Lorentz transform
1
2 1
A A A

can be written as,

| | | | | |
1 1 1
, , , , , , ...
2! 3! 4!
A L L L L L L L L L L o o o o ( + + + + + ( (

I [I.2]
Proof of the baker-hausdorff expansion [I.2]: consult QM 08 - 055 - pr 9-2 - exponentials as unitary operators and
baker-hausdorff. That means we can take the following as given,
| | | | | |
2 3
, , , , , , ...
2! 3!
A A
e Be B A B A A B A A A B

( = + + + + ( (

[I.3]
Huh? Weird. There must be some really tiny detail that Im missing.