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Sr. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Name of Module FOUNDATION Financial Markets: A Beginners Module ^ Mutual Funds : A Beginners' Module Currency Derivatives: A Beginners Module Equity Derivatives: A Beginners Module Interest Rate Derivatives: A Beginners Module Commercial Banking in India: A Beginners Module FIMMDA-NSE Debt Market (Basic) Module Securities Market (Basic) Module INTERMEDIATE Capital Market (Dealers) Module ^ Derivatives Market (Dealers) Module ^ [Please refer to footnote no. (i)] Investment Analysis and Portfolio Management Module Fundamental Analysis Module Options Trading Strategies Module Operations Risk Management Module Banking Sector Module Insurance Module Macroeconomics for Financial Markets Module NSDLDepository Operations Module Commodities Market Module Surveillance in Stock Exchanges Module Corporate Governance Module Compliance Officers (Brokers) Module Compliance Officers (Corporates) Module Information Security Auditors Module (Part-1) Information Security Auditors Module (Part-2) Technical Analysis Module Mergers and Acquisitions Module Back Office Operations Module Wealth Management Module Project Finance Module Venture Capital and Private Equity Module Financial Services Foundation Module ### NSE Certified Quality Analyst $ Certified Credit Research Analyst Level 1 ~ ADVANCED Financial Markets (Advanced) Module Securities Markets (Advanced) Module Derivatives (Advanced) Module [Please refer to footnote no. (i) ] Mutual Funds (Advanced) Module Options Trading (Advanced) Module FPSB India Exam 1 to 4** Examination 5/Advanced Financial Planning ** Equity Research Module ## Issue Management Module ## Market Risk Module ## Financial Modeling Module ### NISM MODULES NISM-Series-I: Currency Derivatives Certification Examination ^ NISM-Series-II-A: Registrars to an Issue and Share Transfer Agents Corporate Certification Examination NISM-Series-II-B: Registrars to an Issue and Share Transfer Agents Mutual Fund Certification Examination NISM-Series-III-A: Securities Intermediaries Compliance (Non-Fund) Certification Examination NISM-Series-IV: Interest Rate Derivatives Certification Examination NISM-Series-V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification Examination ^ NISM Series-V-B: Mutual Fund Foundation Certification Examination NISM-Series-V-C: Mutual Fund Distributors (Level 2) Certification Examination NISM-Series-VI: Depository Operations Certification Examination NISM Series VII: Securities Operations and Risk Management Certification Examination NISM-Series-VIII: Equity Derivatives Certification Examination NISM-Series-IX: Merchant Banking Certification Examination NISM-Series-X-A: Investment Adviser (Level 1) Certification Examination NISM-Series-X-B: Investment Adviser (Level 2) Certification Examination NISM-Series-XI: Equity Sales Certification Examination NISM-Series-XII: Securities Markets Foundation Certification Examination Fees (Rs.) Test Duration (in minutes) No. of Maximum Questions Marks Pass Marks (%) 50 50 50 50 50 50 60 60 50 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 # 50 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 50 50 50 60 60 60 60 60 60 50 60 60 60 50 60 50 50 60 60 50 50 60 60 50 60 60 60 60 50 60 Certificate Validity (in yrs) 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 3 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 3 5 5 5 5 2 5 5 5 5 5 5 NA NA NA 5 5 5 5 5 NA NA 2 2 2 NA 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 2022 1686 1686 1686 1686 2528 2528 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1686 1123 1686 1686
* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *
120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 105 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 75 120 120 90 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 240 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120 120
60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 60 75 60 60 60 60 60 50 100 60 60 90 90 60 60 60 60 60 70 45 60 80 60 60 55 60 35 75 30 49 55 40 30 100 100 100 100 100 100 50 68 100 100 100 100 100 68 100 100
100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 120 100 100 100 100 100 140 100 60 70 65 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 50 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100
1686 * 1686 * 1686 * 1686 * 1686 * 2247 per exam * 5618 * 1686 * 1686 * 1686 * 1123 * 1250 1250 1250 1250 1250 1250 1000 1405 * 1250 1250 1250 1250 1250 1405 * 1405 * 1405 *
* ^ # ** -
in the Fees column - indicates module fees inclusive of service tax Candidates have the option to take the tests in English, Gujarati or Hindi languages. Candidates securing 80% or more marks in NSDL-Depository Operations Module ONLY will be certified as Trainers. Following are the modules owf Financial Planning Standards Board India (Certified Financial Planner Certification) FPSB India Exam 1 to 4 i.e. (i) Risk Analysis & Insurance Planning (ii) Retirement Planning & Employee Benefits (iii) Investment Planning and (iv) Tax Planning & Estate Planning - Examination 5/Advanced Financial Planning ## Modules of Finitiatives Learning India Pvt. Ltd. (FLIP) ### Module of IMS Proschool $ Module of SSA Business Solutions (P) Ltd. ~ Module of Association of International Wealth Management of India The curriculum for each of the modules (except Modules of Financial Planning Standards Board India, Finitiatives Learning India Pvt. Ltd. and IMS Proschool) is available on our website: www.nseindia.com > Education > Certifications. Note: (i) SEBI / NISM has specified the NISM-Series-VIII-Equity Derivatives Certification Examination as the requisite standard for associated persons functioning as approved users and sales personnel of the trading member of an equity derivatives exchange or equity derivative segment of a recognized stock exchange.
Learning Objectives
To know how to calculate and interpret return and risk associated with investments To understand the working of cash and futures markets and various derivative products and their role To understand the structure of balance sheet of companies and how they help in gauging inherent risk To appreciate the significance of capital structure and know the sources of funds and calculation of their cost To know the various risks that manufacturing companies are exposed to and the treasury management products that help in mitigating them To understand the risks of banking and finance companies and role of treasury management in mitigating them To appreciate the accounting issues that have a role in treasury management decisions To know the various treasury management processes and how risk is to be managed in the treasury
Contents
Acronyms ..............................................................................................................7 Chapter 1 1.1 1.2 1.3 Treasury Management Fundamentals...............................................9 Background........................................................................................9 Return Metrics. ....................................................................................9 Risk Metrics...................................................................................... 13 1. Standard Deviation. ....................................................................... 13 2. Beta. ........................................................................................... 15 3. Weighted Average Maturity. ............................................................ 17 4. Modified Duration. ......................................................................... 17 Self-Assessment Questions................................................................. 18 Product / Exposure Structures....................................................... 20 Background...................................................................................... 20 Cash Market. ..................................................................................... 21 Futures............................................................................................ 22 Forwards.......................................................................................... 25 Options............................................................................................ 27 SWAPs............................................................................................. 32 1. Interest Rate Swap. ....................................................................... 32 2. Currency Swap............................................................................. 34 3. Credit Default Swap (CDS)............................................................. 35 4. Swaption..................................................................................... 42 SSELECTIVVELLY-Invest Classification Scheme for Investment Products.... 42 Off-Balance Sheet Exposures. .............................................................. 43 Self-Assessment Questions................................................................. 45 Capital Structure & Weighted Average Cost of Capital.................... 46 Background...................................................................................... 46 Capital Structure............................................................................... 46 Earnings, Interest and Debt Servicing. .................................................. 48 Sources of equity funds...................................................................... 49 Cost of equity................................................................................... 49 Sources of debt funds........................................................................ 50 Cost of debt. ..................................................................................... 51 Weighted Average Cost of Capital. ........................................................ 52 Cost of Capital for Trading Portfolios. .................................................... 53 Self-Assessment Questions................................................................. 56
2.7 2.8
Chapter 3 3.1 3.2 3.3 3.4 3.5 3.6 3.7 3.8 3.9
Chapter 4 4.1 4.2 4.3 4.4 4.5 4.6 4.7 4.8 4.9
Treasury Management in Manufacturing and Services Companies. . 57 Background...................................................................................... 57 Contribution Analysis......................................................................... 57 Operating Leverage & Financial Leverage.............................................. 58 Balance Sheet................................................................................... 59 Liquidity Management........................................................................ 60 Foreign Exchange Exposures (Operations). ............................................ 62 Foreign Exchange Exposures (Loans taken or investments made). ............ 63 Commodity Exposures. ....................................................................... 65 Credit Exposures............................................................................... 65 Self-Assessment Questions................................................................. 68 Treasury Management in Banking & Finance Companies. ................ 69 Background...................................................................................... 69 Capital Adequacy. .............................................................................. 69 Balance Sheet................................................................................... 73 Yield Curve and Spreads. .................................................................... 74 Credit Risk. ....................................................................................... 75 Interest Risk..................................................................................... 78 Re-financing Risk. .............................................................................. 79 Asset-Liability Management. ................................................................ 80 Securitisation. ................................................................................... 80
Chapter 5 5.1 5.2 5.3 5.4 5.5 5.6 5.7 5.8 5.9
5.10 Foreign currency risk. ......................................................................... 82 5.11 Equity Exposure................................................................................ 83 Self-Assessment Questions................................................................. 86 Accounting Issues in Treasury Management................................... 87 Background...................................................................................... 87 Long-term supply arrangements.......................................................... 88 Foreign Currency borrowing for a fixed asset......................................... 88 Hedge and Hedged Instrument............................................................ 89 Investment types.............................................................................. 90 Self-Assessment Questions................................................................. 91 Treasury Management Processes and Risk Management in Treasury.. 92 Background...................................................................................... 92 Domestic Remittances........................................................................ 92 International Remittances. .................................................................. 94 Liquidity Management........................................................................ 95 Risk Management in Treasury. ............................................................. 96 Self-Assessment Questions............................................................... 100
References......................................................................................................... 101
Acronyms
BIS BIFR CDS CORF CD CP CRAR DPS DSCR EBIT EPS FII GoI ICAI ICR IFRS IMF IndAS IPDI IRR MDB NBFC NCD NEFT NPA NSE P/E PCNPS PD RBI RTGS RWA SPV SWIFT WACC Bank for International Settlements Board for Industrial and Financial Re-construction Credit Default Swap Corporate Operational Risk management Function Certificate of Deposit Commercial Paper Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio Dividend per Share Debt Servicing Coverage Ratio Earnings before Interest and Tax Earnings per Share Foreign Institutional Investor Government of India Institute of Chartered Accountants of India Interest Coverage Ratio International Financial Reporting Standards International Monetary Fund Indian Accounting Standards Innovative perpetual debt instruments Internal Rate of Return Multilateral Development Banks Non-banking Finance Company Non-Convertible Debenture National Electronic Funds Transfer Non-performing Assets National Stock Exchange Price Earnings Ratio Perpetual Non-Cumulative Preference Shares Primary Dealer Reserve Bank of India Real Time Gross Settlement Risk-Weighted Assets Special Purpose Vehicle Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication Weighted Average Cost of Capital
Note: Candidates are advised to refer to NSEs website: www.nseindia.com, click onEducation link and then go to Updates & Announcements link, regarding revisions/updations in NCFM modules or launch of new modules, if any. This book has been developed for NSE by Mr. Sundar Sankaran, Director, Advantage India Consulting Pvt. Ltd. and finberry academy pvt ltd. Copyright 2013 by National Stock Exchange of India Ltd. (NSE) Exchange Plaza, Bandra Kurla Complex, Bandra (East), Mumbai 400 051 INDIA
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In MS Excel, the exponential function is denoted by ^. Therefore, the formula is written as =(1+4.50%)^2-1. The above simple approach works, so long as investment and redemption are at face value. Suppose investment was at a 1% discount i.e. investor invests Rs. 99, but receives coupon calculated at 9% on Rs. 100. In such cases, a crude return measure, current yield may be used. It is calculated as Rs. 9 Rs. 99 X 100 i.e. 9.091%. A more professional approach is to use the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) function, as shown in Table 1.2. Cash flow 1 is a situation where there is no discount; Cash flow 2 is a situation where the discount of Rs. 1 is applicable. The calculation entails putting down the cash flows at various points of time inflows are denoted as positive and outflows are denoted as negative.
As is obvious from the IRR calculation for Cashflow 1, the calculated IRR is for a period. It will need to be compounded using (1+4.50%)2-1 i.e. 9.202%. The compounded IRR in the case of Cash flow 2 works out to 10.33%. The discount of Rs. 1 has boosted the yield by more than 1%. The calculations are made in the Table, assuming the debenture will mature in 1 year. The same calculations work for debentures of any maturity. This can be seen in Table 1.3, where the tenor of the debentures is extended to 2 years. Further, an additional scenario, Cash flow 3 is introduced. In the new scenario, investment is at par, but redemption is at a premium of 1%.
Between Cash flow 1 and Cash flow 2, the difference in IRR Compounded is much less than 1%. It is lower than in Table 1.2 because the 1% upfront benefit is now distributed over 2 years. IRR Compounded is lower for Cash flow 3 as compared to Cash flow 2. Although investor gets a 1% extra benefit in both cases, in Cash flow 3 the benefit is back-ended (on redemption). In the case of Cash flow 2, it is front-ended (on investment). Therefore, it can be said that the earlier the benefit is received, the better (higher return) it is for the investor. The IRR calculations give the IRR per period. Therefore, the cash flows need to be for periods that are equal. In practice, this may not always be the case. For instance, suppose the 2-year debenture is issued on December 31, 2013. However, the issuer would like to standardise the interest payment cycle as March 31 and September 30. Only the last interest payment would need to be on another date viz. December 31, 2015. In this case, the first and last debenture servicing will be for 3 month periods, while the middle periods are all 6 months. In such cases, IRR cannot be used. XIRR needs to be used, as shown in Table 1.4. This calls for entering the actual dates for each debenture servicing, in
a form that MS Excel recognises as date format. Thereafter, the XIRR function can be used, where two ranges of cells need to be selected viz. the cash flow values and the dates. Table 1.4 XIRR
The table also shows IRR, which is wrong to apply. The benefit of XIRR is that no further compounding is required. XIRR is a compounded return by itself. Return for the investor is cost for the issuer. Therefore, the same calculations are used to determine the cost for the issuer. Only difference will be in the signs used for the cash flows. Initial receipt of money from the investor will be shown as positive and subsequent payments towards interest and redemption will be negative. The calculated values of IRR and XIRR will remain the same. The explanations so far are given in the context of primary issue of securities by an issuer. The methodology is equally applicable for secondary market trades. There is only one technical difference viz. accrued interest, when it comes to secondary market trades. Suppose Party A buys from Party B for Rs. 98, the debenture mentioned in Table 1.4 on May 5, 2014 and holds it beyond September 30, 2014. On September 30, 2014, the issuer will pay Party A interest for the entire period from March 31, 2014. However, Party A held the debenture only from May 5, 2014. Interest for the period April 1, 2014 to May 5, 2014 rightfully belongs to Party B, which held the debenture during that period.
Therefore, Party A will not only pay Party B the clean price of Rs. 98, but also accrued interest for the period from the last interest payment date to the settlement date (May 5, 2014). This is paid on the settlement date, although the interest will be received by Party A from the issuer only on the next interest payment date. The total of Clean Price and accrued interest is called dirty price. The calculations are shown in Table 1.5. Yield to maturity (YTM) for Party A is 10.907%.
For example, if a share is quoted at Rs. 50 on Day 1, Rs. 55 on day 2 and Rs. 66 on day 3. The return on Day 2 is Rs. 5 Rs. 50 X 100 i.e. 10%. The return on Day 3 is Rs. 11 Rs. 55 X 100 i.e. 20%. Standard deviation measures the extent to which such returns vary over different time periods. Specifically, it measures how much the returns vary as compared to its own past standards of return. Unlike returns, which are calculated for each period, standard deviation is a single number for a series of periods. This can be easily calculated using the MS Excel function STDEV as shown in Table 1.6 in the context of returns from a mutual fund scheme. The standard deviation, based on monthly returns is 2.53%. This needs to be compounded to its annual equivalent, by multiplying it by the square root of 12. (If the periodic returns were weekly, the multiplication factor would be square root of 52. While working with daily returns, the norm is to multiply by the square root of 252). 9
Thus, the annualised standard deviation is 8.78%. A high standard deviation would mean that the investment deviates more from its past standard i.e it is more risky. At times, the term variance is used. This is nothing but the square of standard deviation. In the above case, annualised standard deviation was calculated as 8.78%. Variance will be 8.78%2 i.e. 0.77%. Table 1.6 Standard Deviation
2.
Beta An alternate approach to measure equity risk is based on Capital Assets Pricing Model (CAPM), discussed in NCFMs Workbook titled Securities Market (Basic) Module. We saw that there are two risks in investing in equity: Systematic risk () is inherent to equity investments e.g. the risk arising out of political turbulence, inflation etc. It would affect all equities, and therefore cannot be avoided.
10
Non-systematic risk is unique to a company e.g. risk that a key pharma compound will not be approved, or the risk that a high performing CEO leaves the company. Non-systematic risk can be minimized by holding a diversified portfolio of investments.
Since investors can diversify away their non-systematic risks, they have to be compensated only for systematic risk.
Calculation of beta calls for information on the value of the market index on each of the days for which the NAV information is used. A diversified index like S&P CNX Nifty has to be used.
Based on the value of Nifty on each of those days, the periodic returns can be calculated, as was done for the scheme returns. Thereafter, the slope function can be used in MS Excel. The details are shown in Table 1.7. Table 1.7 Beta
The Beta of 0.98 is close to 1. This means that the investment returns are closely aligned with that of the Nifty.
11
If the beta is more than 1, it means that the investment is more risky than the market. A value of beta that is less than 1 would mean that the investment is less risky than the market.
3.
Weighted Average Maturity Fixed rate debt instruments have a price risk. When interest rates in the market go up, the debt instruments already issued, based on the erstwhile lower interest rates, lose value. Similarly, when interest rates in the market go down fixed rate debt instruments gain value.
The extent of such depreciation or appreciation of fixed rate debt instruments in response to changes in yields in the market, is influenced by the tenor of the instruments. Instruments that have a longer maturity are more volatile than those with shorter maturity.
Therefore, the weighted average maturity of a debt portfolio becomes an indicater of its price risk. Higher the weighted average maturity, more the portfolio value is likely to fluctuate in response to changes in market yields.
The calculation of weighted average maturity is illustrated in Table 1.8 for a debt portfolio of Rs. 255 crore. The weighted column is calculated as Tenor X Proportion for each row. Table 1.8 Weighted Average Maturity
4.
Modified Duration While maturity influences the price risk in a debt security, a more scientific approach would be to consider its modified duration.
12
Suppose the modified duration is to be calculated as of January 15, 2012, for a security that offers a coupon of 11% p.a., payable half-yearly, until it matures on January 25, 2014. The security is currently traded in the market at an yield of 11.5%.
The modified duration can be calculated using the MDURATION function in MS Excel. This is shown in Table 1.9. Table 1.9 Modified Duration of a Debt Security
The implication is that if the yields in the market were to change by 1%, this debt security is likely to change in value by 1.68%.
If the coupon payments were quarterly, the frequency would be shown as 4; annual coupon payment would mean frequency of 1.
In this manner, the modified duration can be calculated for every debt security. Other things being equal, longer the maturity, higher the modified duration. The modified duration of a zero coupon bond is the same as its maturity.
Weighted average maturity and modified duration are used for debt investments, beta is for equity investments and standard deviation is used for both debt and equity investments.
13
Self-Assessment Questions
Treasury management is useful for - - - - Banks Non-banking finance companies Manufacturing companies All the above
Which of the following spreadsheet functions is to be used for calculating returns if periods are not the same? - - - - IRR XIRR Stdev Slope
Which of the following is used only for equity investments? - - - - Standard deviation Beta Weighted average maturity Modified duration
Market yields have gone up by 0.5% for comparable securities. What would be the revised price of a debt security trading at Rs105 with modified duration of 1.2? - - - - Rs. 105.63 Rs. 105.53 Rs. 104.37[105 (0.5% X 1.2 X 105)] Rs. 104.48
14
derivatives. Those that do not trade in the market are called over-the-counter (OTC)
Derivatives comprise four basic contracts namely Forwards, Futures, Options and Swaps. Over the past couple of decades several exotic contracts have emerged. But these are largely variants of these basic contracts. These four basic contract types are discussed later in this chapter.
16
Figure 2.1
2.3 Futures
Infosys stock futures are traded in the market. The underlying is the shares of Infosys. Therefore, if Infosys shares were to go up in value, its stock futures will also appreciate. Similarly, a decline in Infosys shares pulls down the value of its stock futures.
17
The rate of interest that equates the cash price to the futures price is the cost of carry. The futures price is given by the formula FP = S0 X (1+r)t
Suppose, cost of carry is 6%, and Infosys shares are trading at Rs. 4,000. Value of Infosys stock futures, maturing in 20 days, can be calculated as Rs. 4,000 X (1+6%)(20365) i.e. Rs. 4,012.80 (rounded to nearest 5 paise) (In practice, the cost of carry is calculated from the independently traded price of the share and the stock futures.) If the share price were to increase, other things remaining the same, the stock futures will also appreciate, as would be evident from the formula. In the same example, let us now suppose that Infosys is expected to give a dividend of Rs. 1 per share in 12 days. An investor holding the underlying share will receive the dividend. therefore will need to be subtracted from the spot price. PVD = Rs. 1 (1 + 6%)(12/365) = Rs. 0.998 = (S0 PVD) X (1+r)t = (4,000 0.998) X (1+6%)(20365) = Rs. 4,011.80 (rounded to nearest 5paise) But the holder of
Infosysfutures will not be entitled to the dividend. The Present Value of Dividend (PVD)
FP
This calculated price is the no arbitrage price, where the investor is neutral between buying in the cash market and futures market. If Infosys futures are available in the market at a price lower than the no arbitrage price, then the investor would prefer to take the position with Infosys futures instead of the underlying Infosys shares. As in the case of shares, the pay-off matrix can be prepared for investment strategies of going long or short on Infosys futures. This is shown in Figure 2.2. (Cost of carry has been kept zero for the illustration. Addition of cost of carry will not change the pattern of the pay-off). 18
Figure 2.2 Thus, both cash market and futures market give the investor a similar profile of returns. Why should an investor opt for the futures market? One reason was given earlier as part of the calculation of futures price. If the futures are trading below their theoretical price (given the cost of carry for the investor), then buying the futures is more sensible than buying the Infosys shares.
19
Another reason to favour futures is the leveraging it offers. On purchase of Infosys shares, the investor has to pay the entire price by the settlement date. However, in the futures market, the investor pays only a margin. Suppose the initial margin is 20%, then the investor needs to pay only 20% of the value of the position taken. For the same outflow as in the case of cash market, the investor can take a futures position that is 100 20 i.e. 5 times. In the normal course, companies leverage by borrowing money. In the case of futures, the leveraging is built into the product. So the investor does not need to go about mobilising debt to take the higher exposure. A point to note is that apart from initial margin, there are also daily mark-to-market margins. Thus, if an investor is long or short on the futures, and the position is in profit on any day, the investor will receive mark to market margin. However, if the position is in a loss, then the investor will need to pay mark to market margins. Investors should consider their ability to pay mark to market margins before taking positions in the futures market. The explanations given above for stock futures are equally applicable for index futures, interest rate futures and currency futures. However, in line with the difference in underlying, there are differences in the contract structure between different types of futures.
2.4 Forwards
Forwards are like futures. The differences are as follows: Unlike futures, forwards are not traded in the stock exchange. This raises issues about liquidity, transparency of pricing, transactional convenience etc. In order to enable trading in the stock exchange, futures trade on the basis of standardised contracts. For example, all futures contracts are settled in the National Stock Exchange (NSE) on the last Thursday of the concerned month. Since forwards are OTC products, the parties can customise a contract structure that meets their mutual needs best. Since futures are traded in the stock exchange, transactions are guaranteed by the clearing house. Therefore, exposure of the investor is not to the party at the other end of the trade, but to the clearing house. In the case of forwards, the investor is exposed to the counter-party risk. If the counterparty defaults, then courts will need to be approached to enforce ones rights. While investors can cover their foreign currency risks through currency futures, in many instances, forward contracts are used. Suppose, an exporter expects to receive USD1mn after 1 month.He wants to freeze his export receipts in rupees. He will enter into a forward contract with his banker to sell USD at, say, Rs. 60. If USD subsequently depreciates to a spot rate ofRs. 59, then his forward contract is profitable to the extent of Rs. 1. But if USD 20
appreciates to a spot rate ofRs. 61, then the forward contract is a loss to the extent of Rs. 1. Thus, his position is one of being short on the USD. An importer who needs to pay USD is in a reverse position. In order to freeze the rupee outflow, he will book a forward contract to receive USD i.e. he will go long on the USD. Payoffs in the two cases are shown in Figure 2.3. Exporter and Importer in USD forward contract
Figure 2.3 21
Point to note is that the profit or loss in the payoff matrix refers to the forward contract in isolation. The exporter and importer have entered into the forward contract to hedge their position of USD receivable or payable. When the exporter receives the export proceeds in USD, these will be sold at a profit (if the USD appreciates and forward contract is in loss) or a loss (if the USD depreciates and forward contract is in profit). Thus, the overall currency impact will be neutral, for both exporter and importer. This is the purpose of the hedge.
2.5 Options
Let us re-visit the earlier example of importer doing a 1-month forward contract for USD1mn at Rs. 60 =1USD. Variation 1 Suppose the importer, instead of being obliged to buy the dollars (which was the case in the forward contract), had the right to buy the dollars but he was not obliged to buy them. Thus, 1 month down the line, importer can choose, NOT to buy them. Such contracts are option contracts. In this case, the importer, the buyer of USD, has the option (but the bank is committed. If the importer decided to buy the dollars, the bank is obliged to sell them at Rs. 60=1USD). Such contracts, where the party has the option to buy the underlying are called call options. In option terminology, Importer has bought the call option (to buy USD) The bank has sold (or written) the call option.
Variation 2 Suppose the exporter, instead of being obliged to sell the dollars (which was the case in the forward contract), had the right to sell the dollars but he was not obliged to sell them. Thus, 1 month down the line, the exporter can choose, NOT to sell them. Such contracts are also option contracts. In this case, the exporter, the seller of USD, has the option (but the bank is committed. If the exporter decided to sell the dollars, bank is obliged to buy them at Rs. 60 =1USD). Such contracts, where the party has the option to sell the underlying, are called put options. In option terminology, Exporter has bought the put option (to sell USD) The bank has sold (or written) the put option.
The party that buys an option (a call or a put) is said to have a long position; the party that sells (a call or a put) is said to have a short position. 22
It should be noted that: In the first two types of derivative contracts (forwards and futures), both the parties (buyer and seller) have an obligation i.e. the buyer needs to pay for the asset to the seller; and the seller needs to deliver the asset to the buyer on the agreed date (settlement date). In case of options, only the seller of the option (the option writer) is under an obligation and not the buyer of the option (the option purchaser). In a call option, the buyer of the option has the right to BUY the underlying In a put option, the buyer of the option has the right to SELL the underlying. In either case, the price at which the option can be exercised is called exercise price The option buyer may or may not exercise his right. In case the buyer of the option does exercise his right, the seller of the option must fulfil whatever is his obligation (for a call option, the option-seller has to deliver the asset to the buyer of the option; for a put option the option-seller has to receive the asset from the buyer of the option). In order to enter into such a contract, the option seller will expect to receive a compensation from the option buyer upfront. This is the option premium. It is an income for the seller and expense for the buyer, irrespective of whether or not the option is subsequently extinguished. In the above cases, the option was to be exercised 1 month down the line i.e. on a specific date (settlement date, at the end of the contract period). Such options are known as European option contracts. If in the above cases, the option buyer {Importer (in the case of Variation 1) or Exporter (in the case of Variation 2)} could exercise their option anytime up to the expiry of the contract period. This would be an American option contract. The examples above were explained in the context of OTC options sold by the bank. Options are also traded in stock exchanges. Exchange-traded options have a standardised contract structure and are guaranteed by the clearing house. pricing transparency, transaction convenience etc. Since one party (seller of the call or put option) is committed, while the other party (buyer of the call or put option) has the option, the pay off profile is different as compared to forwards and futures. The maximum income for the seller is the option premium earned. However, if the market moves adversely (USD becomes stronger for call option or weaker for put option), then the losses increase. They offer the benefits of liquidity,
23
The maximum expense for the buyer is the option premium earned. However, if the market moves favourably (USD becomes stronger for call option or weaker for put option), then the profits increase.
Since the USD can go up to any price, the maximum profit for the buyer of the call and maximum loss for the seller of the call is unlimited.
Since the USD cannot go below zero, the maximum profit for the buyer of the put and maximum loss for the seller of the put are capped.
The payoff graphs are shown in Figures 2.4 (for call) and 2.5 (for put). Option premium is assumed to be Rs. 3. Breakeven point in the case of call option is at Exercise Price + Option Premium i.e. Rs. 63. In the case of putoption, it is at Exercise Price Option Premium i.e. Rs. 57. Payoffs in the case of direct exposures, futures and forwards are depicted as a straight line. Therefore, these products are said to have a symmetric payoff. Payoffs in the case of options do not follow a straight line. So, options are said to have an asymmetric payoff. Option pricing is beyond the scope of this Workbook. In the case of futures, both buyer and seller are liable to pay margins to the stock exchange. However, in the case of options, only the option seller pays margins to the stock exchange. Payments for the option buyer are capped at the option premium (plus exercise price if option is exercised).
24
Figure 2.4
25
Figure 2.5
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2.6 SWAPs
Swaps are contracts where the two parties commit to exchange two different streams of payments, based on a notional principal. The payments may cover only interest, or extend to the principal (in different currencies) or even relate to other asset classes like equity or commodities. Unlike futures and options, which are created and traded in the stock exchanges, swaps are largely OTC products. Often a bank finds two parties with divergent views about the market (interest rates, exchange rates etc.) and facilitates swap trade/s between them. performs either of two roles: Broker Here, the swap is direct between the two parties. So, the two parties will know each other when the bank brokers the swap. As broker, the bank will earn commission from one or both parties. Dealer Here, the bank executes independent swap trades with both parties. Consequently, neither party will know the identity of the other; for both parties, the bank is the counter-party. In such trades, the bank earns the difference between the two matching trades. Suppose the bank agrees to pay 7% fixed to one party (in return for MIBOR), and receive 5% fixed from the other party (in return for MIBOR). The bank neither has an exposure to MIBOR nor an exposure to fixed interest rate, on account of the combination of the two swaps. Yet, it will earn a spread of 2% p.a., calculated on the notional principal. The bank is however exposed to credit risk from both parties. Since swaps are OTC products, without the benefit of a transparent pricing benchmark, the spreads can be quite large. 1. Interest Rate Swap This is the most elementary form of a swap. Suppose Party A is worried about its 2-year loan of Rs. 1 crore, on which it has committed to pay interest at 1-month MIBOR + 2% (Mumbai Inter-Bank Offered Rate). If interest rates were to go up, it will have to pay higher interest to its lender. On the other hand, Party B is worried that interest rates may fall, and it will earn less on its deposits. The bank
27
Party A and Party B can do an interest rate swap. Party A will agree to pay Party B interest at a fixed rate, say 8%, in return for a receipt of 1-month MIBOR, calculated on a notional principal of Rs. 1 crore.
While the swap may be direct between Party A and Party B, it is understood better if we bring in a 3rd party viz. Party As Lender. (The bank that brings Party A and Party B together may be a 4th party). The position of the 3 parties is shown in Figure 2.6.
Swap Parties
Figure 2.6 Party A will pay MIBOR + 2% to its lender, out of which, it will receive MIBOR from Party B under the swap. Thus, it is no longer exposed to the fluctuations in MIBOR. If MIBOR rises, it will receive more from Party B and pay the amount to its lender. Party As cost of funds is the 2% additional it needs to pay its lender, plus the 8% it has to pay Party B i.e. 10% fixed. Party B, on the other hand, is assured of 8% fixed interest income, from Party A. In return it has to pay MIBOR, which it expects will fall. The actual cash flows of the parties are shown in Table 2.1 (the MIBOR rates are assumed).
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Party As net interest cost is Rs. 5 lakh every 6 months i.e. Rs. 10 lakh p.a. On the Rs. 1 crore notional principal, it works out to 10%.
Party A's lender will continue receiving MIBOR + 2% from Party A. The swap is a separate transaction between Party A and Party B. Party A's lender may not even be aware of the swap.
2.
The parties avoid multiple payments by netting. Thus, either Party A will pay Party B or Party B will Party A, depending on MIBOR.
Currency Swap In a currency swap, the two streams of payments are in different currencies. Suppose Party D and Party R, are counter-parties to a 2-year swap. Party
D agrees to pay Party R, 3% p.a., semi-annually, on a notional principal of USD1mn. In return, Party R commits to pay Party D 7% p.a., semi-annually, on a notional principal of Rs. 5 crore. When the swap is initiated, Party R pays USD1mn to Party D; and receives Rs. 5 crore from Party D. On maturity, Party D pays USD1mn to Party R, and receives Rs. 5 crore from Party R. Party Rs cash flows are shown in Table 2.2. Table 2.2 Party Rs Cash Flows Date 30-Jun-13 31-Dec-13 30-Jun-14 31-Dec-14 USD mm -1.00 0.03 0.03 1.03 Rs. Cr. 5.00 -0.35 -0.35 -5.35
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Table 2.3 Party Ds Cash Flows Date 30-Jun-13 31-Dec-13 30-Jun-14 31-Dec-14 USD mm 1.00 -0.03 -0.03 -1.03 Rs. Cr. -5.00 -0.35 0.35 5.35
Party R has thus taken up a USD asset and a Rupee liability. Party D has done the reverse viz. assumed a USD liability and a Rupee asset.
Parties R & D are exchanging interest rates on fixed basis. The swap is Fixed for Fixed. Similarly, Fixed for Floating is also possible, where interest rate for one leg is in LIBOR or MIBOR. Alternatively, it can be Floating for Floating, where one leg may be in LIBOR and the other may be in MIBOR.
3.
Credit Default Swap (CDS) Non-Sovereign bonds involve a credit risk. Having invested in such bonds, it is possible for the investor to seek protection from credit risk by buying a CDS.
A CDS has two parties - buyer and seller. The buyer pays premium to the seller for the protection. In return, the seller promises to compensate the buyer, if the issuer of the underlying bond defaults on the payments.
CDS issues without proper credit risk assessment led several CDS issuers to bankruptcy in the developed markets in the last few years. RBI has therefore imposed a strict regulatory regime for the product. The key regulations are as follows:
Users Commercial Banks, Primary Dealers (PDs), Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs), Mutual Funds, Insurance Companies, Housing Finance Companies, Provident Funds, Listed Corporates, Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) and any other institution specifically permitted by the Reserve Bank.
These entities are permitted to buy credit protection (buy CDS contracts) only to hedge their underlying credit risk on corporate bonds.
Such entities are not permitted to hold credit protection without having eligible underlying as a hedged item. 30
Users are also not permitted to sell protection and are not permitted to hold short positions in the CDS contracts. However, they are permitted to exit their bought CDS positions by unwinding them with the original counterparty or by assigning them in favour of buyer of the underlying bond.
Market Makers Commercial Banks, standalone PDs, NBFCs having sound financials and good track record in providing credit facilities and any other institution specifically permitted by the Reserve Bank.
Insurance companies and Mutual Funds would be permitted as marketmakers subject to their having strong financials and risk management capabilities as prescribed by their respective regulators (IRDA and SEBI) and as and when permitted by the respective regulatory authorities.
These entities are permitted to quote both buy and/or sell CDS spreads. They are permitted to buy protection without having the underlying bond.
All CDS trades need to have an RBI regulated entity at least on one side of the transaction.
Detailed eligibility criteria have been specified for every category of market maker. In case a market-maker fails to meet one or more of the eligibility criteria subsequent to commencing the CDS transactions, it would not be eligible to sell new protection. As regards existing contracts, such protection sellers would meet all their obligations as per the contract.
The party against whose default, protection is bought and sold through a CDS is called the reference entity. It should be a single legal resident entity [the term resident is as defined in Section 2(v) of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999] and the direct obligor for the reference asset/obligation and the deliverable asset/obligation.
Listed corporate bonds Unlisted but rated bonds of infrastructure companies. Unlisted/unrated bonds issued by the SPVs set up by infrastructure companies. Such SPVs need to make disclosures on the structure, usage, purpose and performance of SPVs in their financial statements. 31
The reference obligations are required to be in dematerialised form only. The reference obligation of a specific obligor covered by the CDS contract should be specified a priori in the contract and reviewed periodically for better risk management.
Protection sellers should ensure not to sell protection on reference entities / obligations on which there are regulatory restrictions on assuming exposures in the cash market such as, the restriction against banks holding unrated bonds, single/group exposure limits and any other restriction imposed by the regulators from time to time.
Users cannot buy CDS for amounts higher than the face value of corporate bonds held by them and for periods longer than the tenor of corporate bonds held by them. They shall not, at any point of time, maintain naked CDS protection i.e. CDS purchase position without having an eligible underlying.
Proper caveat has to be included in the agreement that the market-maker, while entering into and unwinding the CDS contract, needs to ensure that the user has exposure in the underlying.
Further, the users are required to submit an auditor's certificate or custodian's certificate to the protection sellers or novating users (users transferring the CDS), of having the underlying bond while entering into/unwinding the CDS contract.
Users cannot exit their bought positions by entering into an offsetting sale contract.
They can exit their bought position by either unwinding the contract with the original counterparty or, in the event of sale of the underlying bond, by assigning (novating) the CDS protection, to the purchaser of the underlying bond (the "transferee") subject to consent of the original protection seller (the "remaining party").
After assigning the contract, the original buyer of protection (the "transferor") will end his involvement in the transaction and credit risk will continue to lie with the original protection seller.
In case of sale of the underlying, every effort should be made to unwind the CDS position immediately on sale of the underlying. The users are given a maximum grace period of ten business days from the date of sale of the underlying bond to unwind the CDS position.
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In the case of unwinding of the CDS contract, the original counterparty (protection seller) is required to ensure that the protection buyer has the underlying at the time of unwinding.
The protection seller should also ensure that the transaction is done at a transparent market price and this must be subject to rigorous audit discipline.
CDS transactions are not permitted to be entered into either between related parties or where the reference entity is a related party to either of the contracting parties.
In the case of foreign banks operating in India, the term 'related parties' includes an entity which is a related party of the foreign bank, its parent, or group entity.
The user (except FIIs) and market-maker need to be resident entities. CDS Contracts
The identity of the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred must be clearly defined a priori in the documentation.
The reference asset/obligation and the deliverable asset/obligation should be to a resident and denominated in Indian Rupees. The CDS contract has to be denominated and settled in Indian Rupees. Obligations such as asset-backed securities/ mortgage-backed securities, convertible bonds and bonds with call/put options are not permitted as reference and deliverable obligations.
CDS cannot be written on interest receivables. CDS cannot be written on securities with original maturity up to one year e.g. Commercial Papers (CPs), Certificate of Deposits (CDs) and Non-Convertible Debentures (NCDs) with original maturity up to one year.
The CDS contract must represent a direct claim on the protection seller. The CDS contract must be irrevocable; there must be no clause in the contract that would allow the protection seller to unilaterally cancel
33
the contract. However, if protection buyer defaults under the terms of contract, protection seller can cancel/revoke the contract.
The CDS contract should not have any clause that may prevent the protection seller from making the credit event payment in a timely manner, after occurrence of the credit event and completion of necessary formalities in terms of the contract.
The protection seller shall have no recourse to the protection buyer for credit-event losses. Dealing in any structured financial product with CDS as one of the components is not permitted. Dealing in any derivative product where the CDS itself is an underlying is not permissible. The CDS contracts need to be standardized. The standardisation of CDS contracts in terms of coupon, coupon payment dates, etc. will be as put in place by FIMMDA in consultation with the market participants.
The credit events specified in the CDS contract may cover: Bankruptcy, Failure to pay, Repudiation/moratorium, Obligation acceleration, Obligation default, Restructuring approved under Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) and Corporate Debt Restructuring (CDR) mechanism and corporate bond restructuring.
The contracting parties to a CDS may include all or any of the approved credit events. Further, the definition of various credit events should be clearly defined in the bilateral Master Agreement.
A Determination Committee (DC) formed by the market participants and FIMMDA has a key role. The DC, based in India, has to deliberate and resolve CDS related issues such as Credit Events, CDS Auctions, Succession Events, Substitute Reference Obligations, etc.
At least 25 per cent of the members should be drawn from the users. The decisions of the Committee are binding on CDS market participants. The parties to the CDS transaction have to determine upfront, the procedure and method of settlement (cash/ physical/ auction) to be followed in the event of occurrence of a credit event and document the same in the CDS documentation. 34
For transactions involving users, physical settlement is mandatory. For other transactions, market-makers can opt for any of the three settlement methods (physical, cash and auction), provided the CDS documentation envisages such settlement.
While the physical settlement would require the protection buyer to transfer any of the deliverable obligations against the receipt of its full notional / face value, in cash settlement, the protection seller would pay to the protection buyer an amount equivalent to the loss resulting from the credit event of the reference entity.
Auction settlement may be conducted in those cases as deemed fit by the DC. Auction specific terms (e.g. auction date, time, market quotation amount, deliverable obligations, etc.) will be set by the DC on a case by case basis.
If parties do not select Auction Settlement, they will need to bilaterally settle their trades in accordance with the Settlement Method (unless otherwise freshly negotiated between the parties).
The accounting norms applicable to CDS contracts are on the lines indicated in the 'Accounting Standard AS-30 - Financial Instruments: Recognition and Measurement', 'AS- 31, Financial Instruments: Presentation' and 'AS-32 on Disclosures' as approved by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI).
Market participants have to use FIMMDA published daily CDS curve to value their CDS positions. However, if a proprietary model results in a more conservative valuation, the market participant can use that proprietary model.
For better transparency, market participants using their proprietary model for pricing in accounting statements have to disclose both the proprietary model price and the standard model price in notes to the accounts that should also include an explanation of the rationale behind using a particular model over another.
The participants need to put in place robust risk management systems. Market-makers have to ensure adherence to suitability and appropriateness criteria while dealing with users.
CDS transactions must be conducted in a transparent manner in relation to prices, market practices etc.
From the protection buyer's side, it would be appropriate that the senior 35
management is involved in transactions to ensure checks and balances. Protection sellers need to ensure: CDS transactions are undertaken only on obtaining from the counterparty, a copy of a resolution passed by their Board of Directors, authorising the counterparty to transact in CDS. The product terms are transparent and clearly explained to the counterparties along with risks involved. Market-makers have to report their CDS trades with both users and other market-makers on the reporting platform of the CDS trade repository within 30 minutes from the deal time. The users are required to affirm or reject their trade already reported by the market- maker by the end of the day. In the event of sale of underlying bond by the user and the user assigning the CDS protection to the purchaser of the bond subject to the consent of the original protection seller, the original protection seller has to report such assignment to the trade reporting platform and the same should be confirmed by both the original user and the new assignee. 4. Swaption A swaption is an option to enter into a swap. Suppose that a borrower has entered into a 5-year loan agreement where he has to pay MIBOR + 2%. He is prepared to take interest risk for 2 years. But, he is worried about interest rates after 2 years. At the end of 2 years, he can do a swap to pay fixed and receive floating. The only problem is that the terms of the swap will depend on the interest rate scenario at that time. Instead, he can enter into a swaption today. This will give him the right, but not an obligation to do the swap after 2 years. The terms of the underlying swap are decided today, for which he will have to pay an option premium. The borrower, in this case, can be said to have gone long on a call option (because he will receive floating under the swap) on the swap. Suppose that the original loan agreement was on fixed interest rate basis, and the subsequent swap is for the borrower to pay floating and receive fixed. If the borrower does a swaption, he is said to have gone long on a put option (because he will pay floating under the swap) on the swap. 36
Chapter 29 of Wealth Engine: Indian Financial Planning & Wealth Management Handbook by SundarSankaran
37
party, B. It will be mentioned in the Notes to the accounts. However, if Party B defaults, then the company becomes liable to Party A for the guarantee amount. At that stage, it will be mentioned in the liability side of the balance sheet. Securitisation with recourse, discussed in Chapter [5], is another example of Off-Balance Sheet exposure. Off-Balance Sheet exposures are a form of financial engineering where the company takes up risks without it affecting its balance sheet immediately. Such transactions need to be handled with care. In particular, it should be ensured that the company has the balance sheet strength to bear the consequences, if the exposure becomes a liability.
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Self-Assessment Questions
Which of the following are traded in an exchange? - - - - Futures and Options Futures Options Swaps
Which of the following has asymmetric payoff structure? - - - - Futures and Options Futures Options Swaps
ABC buys an option for which exercise price is Rs100 and option premium is Rs5. What is the breakeven price? - - - - Rs. 105 Rs. 95 Rs. 105 if it is a call Rs. 95 if it is a call
Swaption is - - - - Option to enter into a swap Swap between two options Option backed by a swap Swap backed by an option
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40
Table 3.1 Effect of debt on shareholder return Company A Company B Company C Company D Shareholders funds (Net Worth) Debt Capital Invested Rs. Mn. Rs. Mn. Rs. Mn. 100 0 100 50 50 100 20 80 100 20 80 100
Interest Rate Business Return (pre-interest) Business Profits (pre-interest) Interest Cost Profits for Equity Investors % Rs. Mn. Rs. Mn. Rs. Mn. 12% 12 0 12
10% 12% 12 5 7
10% 12% 12 8 4
10% 8% 8 8 0
12%
14%
20%
0%
Company A, Company B and Company C are equally efficient, generating a business return of 12%. Company D is less efficient, with a business return of 8%. Since Company A has no debt, shareholder return (also called return on equity or return on net worth) is the same as the business return viz. 12%. Company B is able to generate 12% as against its cost of debt of 10%. The differential return becomes available to shareholders. This boosts the shareholder return to 14%. Company C, too, is able to generate 12% as against its cost of debt of 10%. The differential return is available for a higher amount of debt than in the case of Company B. This differential return becomes available to a smaller base of shareholders funds. This boosts the shareholder return to 20%. A point to note is that the actual business profits are the same for companies A, B and C. Interest cost is higher for Company C as compared to Company B; Company A has no interest cost. So the profit for equity investors (in Rs.) is higher for Company A as compared to Company B, whose profits are higher than Company Cs profits. However, the shareholder return(%) is higher for Company C as compared to Company B, whose return (%) is higher than that of Company A. Company D generated 8% return, which is lower than its cost of debt of 10%. Thus, it lost money on the debt. Overall, the business return just about covers for the interest cost. Nothing is left for the shareholders. If the interest rate were higher (which it ought to be, given the weaker financials) or business return were lower, the return for equity investors would have become negative. 41
Thus, debt can improve shareholder return, provided the overall business return is higher than the cost of debt. In a poor year, Company Cs business return can dip to 8% or lower, in which case it will end up with no profits or even losses for shareholders. However, at 8% business return, Company B will still have a profit for shareholders (Calculate and see how?) and Company A will have the same 8% return for shareholders. Thus, it is not adequate to only ensure that business return is more than cost of debt. Higher the debt as a percentage of shareholders funds (i.e. debt equity ratio also called leverage), greater the risk to the shareholders. The debt equity ratio is 1:1 for Company B, and 4:1 for Company C and Company D. It follows that more risky the capital structure, lesser should be the risk taken on the asset side. This is discussed in greater detail in Chapters [4] and [5].
Interest coverage of 1.33 in year 1 means that even if the Earnings before Interest and Tax (EBIT) of the company were to go down by (1.33 1) 1.33 i.e. 25%, it will have adequate profits to pay interest. (The legal position is that the company has to service its debts even if the company does not earn profits)
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Table 3.3 Debt Servicing Coverage Ratio Rs. Mn. 1 EBIT Depreciation Cash Flows for Debt Servicing 12 10 22 2 25 9 34 3 43 8 51 4 68 7 75 5 103 7 110 292 Total
18
17
16
14
13
78
1.22
2.00
3.19
5.36
8.46
3.74
DSCR of 1.22 in year 1 means that even if the cash flows (EBIT + Depreciation) of the company were to go down by (1.22 1) 1.22 i.e. 18%, it will have adequate cash flows to service the debt. (The legal position is that the company has to service its debts even if the company does not have cash flows) Higher the ICR and DSCR, the more comfortable is the companys borrowing. This needs to be viewed in the context of the companys business environment and overall cost structure. These are covered in the discussions on leverage in Chapter [4].
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the capital gain dividend is incidental to the investment. There are various approaches to determining the cost of equity. Two methods are more commonly used are as follows: D/P + g D/P is the dividend yield that was worked out earlier. The capital gains is captured in g, which stands for earnings growth. If earnings were to go up 12%, then PriceEarnings ratio remaining the same, the share price will also go up by 12%. This flows from the relationship EPS X P/E Ratio = Price. In the above case, dividend yield was 2.5%. If earnings growth is 12%, cost of equity can be computed as 2.5% + 12% i.e. 14.5%. Beta-based approach Beta as a measure of systematic risk was discussed in Chapter [1]. Investors have the option of placing their moneys in government securities and earn a risk-free return (Rf). Suppose this is 8%. Investing in the market entails greater risk. Suppose investors are able to earn 14% by investing in a diversified portfolio of equities. The difference between market return (Rm) and Rf is called risk premium. It is the premium that investor is earning for taking the additional market risk. Investing in a diversified portfolio ensures that non-systematic risk is eliminated. So risk premium is a return for systematic risk i.e. beta. The market is said to have a beta of 1. If beta of the company is higher than 1, then it is more risky than the market. So, its equity ought to offer a higher return to investors, than the market. A company with beta lower than 1 can afford to offer a lower return than the market. Accordingly, cost of equity can be computed as per the following formula: Rf + (Rm Rf) X In the above case, if beta of a company is 1.2, then cost of equity is 8% + (14% - 8%) X 1.2 i.e. 15.2%
Bill discounting is another form of short-term debt funds. Suppose an automobile company has purchased silencers from an auto ancillary company. The normal credit terms are 1 month. The ancillary company will receive money in the normal course, only after a month. If the auto ancillary company needs money urgently, it can raise a Bill of Exchange on the automobile company. A Bill of Exchange is a document prepared by the auto ancillary company, calling upon the automobile company to pay the said amount in 1 month. Once the automobile company signs the Bill, as a token of acceptance of its liability, the auto ancillary can discount it with a bank and receive money upfront. It will endorse the bill in favour of the bank. At the end of 1 month, the bank will produce the bill to the automobile company and get paid. Suppose the Bill is for Rs. 1,000,000 and the bank pays the auto ancillary company a discounted amount of Rs. 989,750, 28 days before the maturity of the bill. The difference of Rs. 10,250 is effectively an interest cost for the auto ancillary company for 28 days. The effective borrowing cost can be computed as Rs. 10,250 Rs. 989,750 X (365 28) i.e. 13.5%. Besides receiving the money upfront, the automobile ancillary company has other benefits from this bill discounting transaction: Under the bill discounting scheme, the bank is taking a credit risk on the automobile company. If the auto ancillary companys financial position is weaker, then direct funding from the bank will come at a higher rate of interest than the effective bill discounting cost. Thus, bill discounting helps in reducing cost of funds for the auto ancillary company. The transaction is not reflected as a debt in the books of the auto ancillary company. So its borrowing limits are available for other needs. incremental source of funding. Bill discounting becomes an
The interest of Rs. 300 brought down the PAT by only Rs. 350 Rs. 140 i.e. Rs. 210. This lower impact on PAT is because the interest cost offered a tax shield it brought down the taxable profits, thus reducing the tax liability. The effective borrowing cost was therefore 15% X (1 30%) i.e. 10.50%. This is the post-tax borrowing cost. Post-tax borrowing cost = Pre-tax borrowing cost X (1 tax rate) Multiplying the borrowing of Rs. 2,000 by the 10.50% post-tax interest cost gives Rs. 210, which is the amount by which profit after tax declined on account of the interest payment. The company enjoyed a tax shield on interest, amounting to the interest cost of Rs. 300 multiplied by the tax rate of 30% i.e. Rs. 90. Interest Tax Shield = Post-tax Interest Cost i.e. Rs. 300 Rs. 90 = Rs. 210. In cost of funds calculations, the post-tax cost of debt is used. However, if the company is making losses or has other exemptions on account of which it does not need to pay a tax, then the pre-tax cost of debt is to be used.
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Table 3.4 Capital Structure Book Value Equity: Net Worth / Market Cap Debt Debt-Equity Ratio Rs. Mn Rs. Mn 22 15 0.68 Market Value 50 16 0.32
The market value weights are used in this method. WACC on this basis is [(10.5% X 16) + (15.2% X 50)] (16 + 50) i.e. 14.06%.
The 15% pre-tax cost of borrowing has increased to 16.06% on account of the compulsion to invest in lower yield government securities. If the requirement was to deposit 10% with
47
the Reserve Bank of India as Cash Reserve Ratio (on which no interest will be received), the incremental cost of debt shoots up to Rs. 15 Rs. 85 X 100 i.e. 17.65%. Investment will be made in assets that yield a pre-tax return of at least 16.06% or 17.65% as the case may be. If the company expects a minimum return of 0.5%, then the pre-tax yield on the asset needs to be 16.56% or 18.15%, as applicable.
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Self-Assessment Questions
A company has issued 1mn shares of Rs. 10 each. They are trading in the market at Rs. 12. Reserves of the company are Rs. 4mn. The company also has not written off miscellaneous expenditure of Rs. 3mn. What is the companys net worth? - - - - Rs. 11mn Rs. 14mn Rs. 16mn Rs. 13mn
A company has issued 1mn shares of Rs. 10 each. They are trading in the market at Rs. 12. Reserves of the company are Rs. 4mn. The company also has not written off miscellaneous expenditure of Rs. 3mn. What should be the weightage to equity under the market value method of determining cost of equity? - - - - Rs. 11mn Rs. 12mn Rs. 9mn Rs. 16mn
Each of the following is an indication of better financial strength for borrowing except- - - - higher interest coverage ratio higher debt servicing coverage ratio higher leverage higher equity
A companys cost of equity is 12%. It can borrow at 14%. If the companys target debt-equity ratio is 1.75 and tax rate is 30%, what is its weighted average cost of capital? - - - - 13.3% 9.8% 17.15% 10.6% 49
Contribution of 54.5% means that if the companys sales were to go up by Rs. 100, then its profits will go up by Rs. 54.50. Breakeven sales at 18.2% of sales means that even if sales were to go down by (100% 18.2%) i.e. 71.8%, the company will still be profitable a very comfortable position to be in. This is a key metric for a treasury manager to focus on. Lower the breakeven sales, greater the latitude the company has to take risks on the treasury front. As the company adds fixed costs, or its margins shrink, the breakeven point will go up. The treasury management should therefore track the breakeven point regularly, say, every year.
Total Leverage
There is no standard for a desirable leverage. It depends on the nature of business. If the demand for the companys products is likely to fluctuate from year to year, then it should minimise the operating leverage, by lowering its fixed cost structure. If that is not possible, then the company should reduce the financial leverage (by reducing interest cost i.e. borrowing). This will translate into lower debt-equity ratio.
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High leverage means that the companys operations / financial structure is inherently risky. In that case, the treasury manager needs to be cautious with treasury management. As in the case of breakeven analysis, the treasury manager should monitor the leverage annually.
Secured Loans Unsecured Loans Current Liabilities (e.g. Sundry Creditors) Total Liabilities
Current Assets (e.g. Inventory, Debtors) Miscellaneous Exp not written off
500 400
1,150 300
Total Assets
14,000
21,800
This can be re-cast as shown in Table 4.4, for better interpretation. The subsequent sections of this chapter discuss various aspects of treasury management based on the Balance Sheet. The Balance Sheet needs to be read along with the Notes to the accounts and Auditors Report to know what the balance sheet does not capture. For instance, non-performing assets may not have been fully recognised and provided, or loss on investments may not have been recognised. Very high guarantees may have been given for a group company whose finances may be under stress. These issues need to be understood well, to know the sources of risk to the balance sheet.
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Table 4.4 Recast Balance Sheet of ABC Company as on Rs. million 31-Mar-12 Sources of Funds Net Worth Secured Loans Unsecured Loans Total Sources 6,000 5,300 1,800 13,100 6,500 12,000 1,700 20,200 31-Mar-13
Application of Funds Net Fixed Assets & CWIP Investments 12,800 300 20,000 350
Total Applications
13,100
20,200
Lenders levy a commitment charge on the amounts not drawn. At times, it is better to bear the commitment charges, than to have to run around for funds in the last minute, and end up borrowing at higher rates of interest on account of the urgency. Besides the capital investment, the other item that is striking in the balance sheet is the negative working capital. Raw materials get processed into finished goods and sold, and thereafter proceeds are recovered. At times, payments for raw materials need to be paid in advance, while credit is to be extended to customers. The entire cycle from payment for raw materials to receipt of sale proceeds is called working capital cycle. The role of working capital is to act as a cushion in adversity. This calls for working capital being positive i.e. current assets should be more than current liabilities. In that case, even if it takes time to manufacture or sell the goods and recover the sale proceeds, the company will be able to pay off its current liabilities i.e. the company will not be strapped for liquidity. As a measure of this liquidity, companies measure their current ratio (current assets current liabilities) and quick ratio [(current assets less inventory) current liabilities]. A current ratio of 1.33 is considered safe. This means that there can be a problem of (1.33 1) 1.33 i.e. 25%, and still the company will have liquidity for day to day needs. Similarly, a quick ratio of 1 is considered safe. In that case, even if inventory does not move i.e. sales are not effected, the companys ability to meet its current liabilities is not affected. A negative working capital situation obviously does not offer such a cushion. The company has to guard against a liquidity risk. Some companies have the practice of running their company with negative working capital. This is achieved by taking advances from customers, while availing of credit from suppliers. Since suppliers do not charge for normal credit period, and interest is not paid to customers for advances, negative working capital is like free money. Deployed prudently, it can generate returns. Even if the company adopts negative working capital as a strategy, it should have the money in liquid investments. This will help it tide over situations such as refund on cancellation of orders by customers. ABC Company appears to be deploying the money in fixed assets. This is risky, because selling the fixed assets, in case of need, to pay current liabilities is not a practical solution.
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appreciates rapidly, and is expected to depreciate again. company can sell the USD futures contracts and book a profit.
Problem is that the settlement date in the stock exchange will be different from the expected payment date for the coal. For instance, if the stock exchange settlement date is Dec 27, but coal payment date is December 29, the power generating company is exposed to USD risk for 2 days.
It can buy USD call options in the stock exchange. Option premium will need to be borne upfront.
The power generating company can book a profit on the USDINR options, if USD appreciates. If USD depreciates, then it will let the option lapse; it will buy USD in the spot market to pay for the coal shipments. 55
It is possible to consider a pharma company that manufactures in India and exports the products. Its natural position therefore is of being long on USD. It can cover itself by going short on USD. It can do this through any of the following routes: It can ask its bank to offer a forward contract. The contract will be for the power generating company to sell USD. It can sell USD futures in the stock exchange. It can buy USD put options in the stock exchange.
Many companies that are in the gems business in India, import uncut gems and export them after processing. Thus, they have imports and exports. It will be costly and senseless to cover both the imports and exports. The approach is to therefore work out a datewise schedule of imports and exports and identify the net gaps. For instance, if on Dec 15 an import payment of USD500mn is to be made, and on Dec 18 an export receipt of USD300mn is expected to be realised. It will hedge itself as an importer for USD200mn. Foreign currencyexposure are not evident on the face of the balance sheet. So, the treasury manager needs to have ongoing communications with the concerned departments to know what is happening on the ground, so that suitable hedges can be taken.
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then the investor suffers. This can be seen in the example in Table 4.5. Table 4.5 Impact of exchange rate movements
Although the USD asset appreciated by 10%, the 5% depreciation in USD pulled down the overall investment return in Rupees to 4.50%. Similarly, if the currency in which one has borrowed appreciates, then the investor suffers. India has signed Double Taxation Avoidance (DTA) agreements with several countries. This ensures that if an resident of a treaty country pays a tax in the other country, then that tax can be claimed as a rebate if the income becomes taxable in the country in which he is resident. Thus, an Indian investing in Singapore will get a rebate on tax paid in Singapore, if the investment becomes taxable in India. 57
While investing abroad, there is also a risk that restrictions may be imposed in repatriating capital or profits. India has signed treaties with various countries to lay the policy framework for investment and trade transactions between the countries. Preference should be given for such countries, because the backing of the government and the bi-lateral treaty become available in case of disputes. There are some unique accounting issues associated with foreign exchange exposures related to loans and investments, which are discussed in Chapter [6].
A significant problem with such credit exposures is the concentration risk. When the industry faces trouble, the company will be strapped for liquidity at the same time that distributors also find it difficult to pay their dues. Even otherwise, given the nature of the business relationship, the company may find it difficult to put pressure on the customer to pay the dues or to pay penal interest on overdue amounts. There is always the fear that the customer will stop business relationship, thus affecting future sales of the company. Keeping these considerations in mind, the treasury manager should explore various ways of introducing a bank into the chain. For instance, this can be done through a bill discounting transaction. Bills accepted by the customer can be discounted with the bank. Thereafter, the bank can follow up with the customer for its dues, without any risk to the companys customer relationship. Another approach that can be taken is factoring, which is a sale of the debt to a financier (factor). Thus, the company gets its fund, while the customer will pay the factor on the due date. The factoring may be with or without recourse to the company. If it is with recourse, the company continues to carry the credit risk. In some industries (e.g. housing and consumer durables), it is common to make arrangements with various banks and other financiers for financing the customers. For example, the builder will get his project approved for financing by specific institutions. Customers can approach the institution for financing of purchase of house from the builder. Such arrangements are called sales aid financing. The builder may work out concessional funding arrangements to make it attractive for the customer to buy. Some of these financing structures are intelligently done. The seller can get advance money based on loan by the bank to the customer (disbursed directly to the seller). Since the bank takes a credit risk on the customer (buyer), the company (seller) effectively gets off-balance sheet financing. The treasury manager has to explore such options to get funds on the most favourable of terms without putting too much pressure on the balance sheet. Supplies to international parties is particularly tricky. Organisations like Dun and Bradstreet provide credit reports to assess the credit worthiness of the buyer. are a good solution in such cases. Let us say goods are to be shipped from India to South Africa. The Indian company will ask the South African buyer to open a letter of credit in its favour. The South African buyer will approach its bank, say, Standard Bank, to open a Letter of Credit in favour of the Indian company. The Indian company has to be particular about the credit worthiness of the bank However, recovering money from debtors in another country imposes huge challenges and costs. Letters of credit
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opening the Letter of Credit. The Letter of Credit will mention an Indian bank, say SBI, with whom Standard Bank has a correspondent banking relationship. Once the Indian company despatches the goods, it will give the bill of lading and other shipping documents to SBI, which will send them to Standard Bank. Standard Bank will hand over the documents to the South African buyer only against payment from him or a credit facility already authorised for him. Thus, the Indian company is able to minimise its credit risks. This chapter focused on treasury management aspects that are unique to the core operations of manufacturing and services companies. Such companies may also be active in loans and investments. Treasury management issues related to such non-core operations are, to an extent, similar to those faced by banking and finance companies. These are discussed in the next Chapter.
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Self-Assessment Questions
A company has sales of Rs. 5,000 and variable cost of Rs. 3,000. If fixed costs are Rs. 300, what is its breakeven sales as a percentage of current sales? - - - - 60% 10% 20% 40%
In the above case, if fixed cost included interest of Rs. 50, what is the companys total leverage? - - - - 1.02 1.05 1.09 1.11
Which of the following is most likely to have a concentrated credit risk profile? - - - - Manufacturing company Bank Financial services company Insurance company
What is the problem with having too many loans that are not drawn down? - - - - Commitment charge may have to be paid Return on capital employed is reduced Current ratio is reduced Income tax problems
Which of the following is / are a solution for commodity risk? - - - - Long term supply contract Commodity futures Commodity options All the above 61
The broad approach adopted by RBI since April 1992, is to assign prescribed risk weights for balance sheet assets, non-fundeditems and other off-balance sheet exposures. Banks are required to maintain, on an ongoing basis, unimpaired minimum capital funds equivalent to the prescribedratio on the aggregate of the risk weighted assets (RWA) and other exposures. The minimum Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) has been prescribed at 9 per cent on an ongoing basis. Banks are required to compute CRAR on Tier 1 basis and Total basis as follows: Tier 1 CRAR =
Total CRAR
Capital funds have been classified into Tier I and Tier II. Tier II capital is considered only upto 100% of Tier II capital. Tier I capital for Indian banks includes the following: Paid-up equity capital, statutory reserves, and other disclosed free reserves, if any; Capital reserves representing surplus arising out of sale proceeds of assets; Innovative perpetual debt instruments (IPDI) eligible for inclusion in Tier 1 capital, which comply with specific regulatory requirements; Perpetual Non-Cumulative Preference Shares (PNCPS), which comply with specific regulatory requirements; and Any other type of instrument generally notified by the Reserve Bank from time to time for inclusion in Tier I capital. Foreign currency translation reserve arising consequent upon application ofAccounting Standard 11 (revised 2003): The effects of changes in foreign exchange rates are not an eligible item of capital funds. Tier I capital for foreign banks includes the following: Interest-free funds from Head Office kept in a separate account in Indian books specifically for the purpose of meeting the capital adequacy norms. Statutory reserves kept in Indian books. Remittable surplus retained in Indian books which is not repatriable so long as the bank functions in India.
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Capital reserve representing surplus arising out of sale of assets in India held in a separate account and which is not eligible for repatriation so long as the bank functions in India.
Interest-free funds remitted from abroad for the purpose of acquisition of property and held in a separate account in Indian books.
Head Office borrowings in foreign currency by foreign banks operating in India for inclusion in Tier I capital which comply with specific regulatory requirements; and
Any other item specifically allowed by the Reserve Bank from time to time for inclusion in Tier I capital.
The Innovative Perpetual Debt Instruments, eligible to be reckoned as Tier Icapital, is limited to 15 per cent of total Tier I capital as on March 31 of the previousfinancial year. The outstanding amount of Tier I preference shares i.e. Perpetual Non-Cumulative Preference Shares along with Innovative Tier I instruments cannot exceed40 per cent of total Tier I capital at any point of time.Tier I preference sharesissued in excess of the overall ceiling of 40 per cent, are eligible for inclusion underUpper Tier II capital, subject to limits prescribed for Tier II capital. Innovative instruments / PNCPS, in excess of the limit are eligible forinclusion under Tier II, subject to limits prescribed for Tier II capital. Tier II capital includes the following: Revaluation reserves reflected on the face of the balance sheet (discounted by 55% i.e. only 45% should be considered) General provisions and loss reserves not attributable to the actual diminution in value or identifiable potential loss in any specific asset and available to meet unexpected losses Banks are allowed to include the General Provisions on Standard Assets, Floating Provisions, Provisions held for CountryExposures, Investment Reserve Account and excess provisions which arise on account ofsale of NPAs in Tier II capital. However, these five items are permitted as Tier II capital upto a maximum of 1.25 per cent of the total risk-weighted assets. Hybrid debt capital instruments Such instruments that have closesimilarities to equity, in particular when they are able to support losses on an ongoing basiswithout triggering liquidation, can be included in Tier II capital.
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Subordinated debt (upto 50% of Tier I capital) The instrument should be fully paid-up,unsecured, subordinated to the claims of other creditors, free of restrictive clauses, andshould not be redeemable at the initiative of the holder or without the consent of RBI. As they approach maturity, they shouldbe subjected to progressive discount, for inclusion in Tier II capital. Instruments with an initialmaturity of less than 5 years or with a remaining maturity of one year cannot be includedas part of Tier II capital.
RBI has provided a comprehensive list of investments and their risk weights. Some of these are as follows: Fund based and non-fund based claims on the central government and central government guaranteed claims Nil Direct loan / credit / overdraft exposure to the State Governments and the investment in State Government securities Nil State Government guaranteed claims 20%
If the above sovereign exposures become non-performing assets (NPA), then the NPA regulations will apply. Claims on foreign sovereigns depends on credit rating given by international credit rating agencies. It varies from 0% for AAA / AA to 20% for A, 50% for Baa/BBB and 100% Ba/BB or below. Claims on the Bank for International Settlements (BIS), the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and specified eligible Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) 20% Claims on Indian scheduled banks CRAR above 9% - 20% Depending on CRAR, it goes up to 625%
Claims on Indian non-scheduled banks CRAR above 9% - 100% Depending on CRAR, it goes up to 625%
Claims on foreign banks 20% to 150% depending on credit rating Claims on companies 20% to 150% depending on credit rating
The risk weight of assets and off-balance sheet items of the bank need to be first computed. Capital is divided by the risk-weighted assetsto arrive at CRAR. An example is given in Table 5.1. 65
Table 5.1 CRAR Ratio Rs. million Weight Capital: Tier I Capital Tier II Capital Tier II Capital Limited to 100% of Tier I Total Capital Assets: Central Government Securities Claims guaranteed by Centre State Government Securities Claims guaranteed by State Swiss Securities (AAA) Loans to IMF Scheduled Bank bonds * Non-Scheduled Bank bonds* AAA Debentures of companies Claim on AAA foreign bank Market Risk RWA Operational Risk RWA Total RWA Tier I CRAR (Tier I Capital RWA) Total CRAR (Total Capital RWA) * CRAR 10% 0% 0% 0% 20% 0% 0% 20% 100% 20% 20% 4,000 3,000 7,500 1,000 500 1,200 12,000 14,000 15,000 5,000 63,200 0 0 0 200 0 240 2,400 14,000 3,000 1,000 20,840 4,000 2,000 26,840 13.04% 26.08% 7,500 3,500 7,000 3,500 Value 31-Mar-13
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Total Liabilities
43,000
50,000
Total Assets
As compared to a manufacturing company, banks have a significant portion of liabilities in the form of borrowings. A percentage of this needs to be maintained with RBI in the form of Cash Reserve Ratio. This is included in the first row in the asset side of the balance sheet. A comparision with the manufacturing company balance sheet in Table 4.3, shows that banks present their assets in decreasing order of liquidity. Cash, bank balances and moneys lent at call or short notice are the most liquid of assets in a bank. They appear at the top of the list of assets. Fixed assets is almost the last item in the list. However, in Table 4.3, the least liquid item viz. net fixed assets was at the top of the list of assets. Manufacturing companies mention their assets in increasing order of their liquidity. Loans are the most significant item in the asset side. This is unique to banks and loan companies. Investment companies balance sheets have investments as the major contributer to their assets. Banks and finance companies, in general, have a smaller portion of their balance sheet represented by fixed assets.
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default risk. So they trade at the lowest yields in the market. The yield also depends on maturity. Shorter term debt securities trade at a yield lower than longer term debt securities. The curve that plots yield at which sovereign securities of different maturities trade in the market, is called Sovereign Yield curve. Figure 5.1 gives the GoI yield curve as on November 13, 2013. Sovereign Yield Curve
Source: www.nseindia.com Figure 5.1 The short term (1 month) yield is at 8.85%, while long term (20 years) yield is at 9.78%. The yield for long term is higher by 0.93%. Since non-sovereign securities have a default risk, they trade at higher yields than sovereign yields. The difference between the two yields is called yield spread. The yield spread is higher for lower rated securities i.e. yield spread for AA securities is higher than AAA securities; A securities yield spread is higher than for AA and so on. Debt portfolio management is all about deciding on what credit risk to take, what tenor to borrow and what tenor to lend. These are discussed in the rest of this Chapter. 68
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Table 5.4 Credit Rating Scale of CRISIL for short term debt securities CRISIL A1 Instruments with this rating are considered to have very strong degree of safety regarding timely payment of financial obligations. Such instruments carry lowest credit risk. CRISIL A2 Instruments with this rating are considered to have strong degree of safety regarding timely payment of financial obligations. Such instruments carry low credit risk. CRISIL A3 Instruments with this rating are considered to have moderate degree of safety regarding timely payment of financial obligations. Such instruments carry higher credit risk as compared to instruments rated in the two higher categories. CRISIL A4 Instruments with this rating are considered to have minimal degree of safety regarding timely payment of financial obligations. Such instruments carry very high credit risk and are susceptible to default. CRISIL D Note: Instruments with this rating are in default or expected to be in default on maturity. 1) CRISIL may apply '+' (plus) sign for ratings from 'CRISIL A1' to 'CRISIL A4' to reflect comparative standing within the category. 2) A suffix of 'r' indicates investments carrying non-credit risk. Source: www.crisil.com At times, the credit profile of a security is enhanced through a structured obligation, which may be in the form of specific guarantees or escrow or other security arrangements. Such structures are called structured obligations. as applicable. SEBI has introduced standardisation of rating symbols between different domestic credit rating agencies. So other credit rating agencies follow similar rating scale, with the prefix CRISIL being replaced by their own organisation acronym. It stands to reason that poorer the credit rating, higher the yield (and consequently, the yield spread) that the issuer has to offer on its borrowing program. The treasury manager can boost interest income in the portfolio by taking more credit risk. However, higher credit risk can translate into more NPAs in the portfolio. RBI (and other regulaters for non-banks) have legislations regarding provisions to be made for NPAs, when a borrower stops paying interest or principal. Beyond a few defaults, the Debt securities that are backed by such arrangements have a suffix SO added to the short term or long term credit rating symbol,
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bank has to stop recognising interest income on the concerned investment. If it is finally not possible to recover any amount, then the entire book value of the investment will need to be written off. Provisions and write-offs pull down the total return from the investment and the overall profitability of the bank. Hence the need for caution in taking credit risk. When the economic environment is buoyant, most companies do well. In such a situation, defaults are fewer. Such a scenario is ideal for taking credit risks. However, when the economic situation turns adverse, more companies default. Recessionary situations therefore see a rise in credit risk and yield spreads. Shrewd debt investors start increasing credit risk towards the end of the recessionary period, when yield spreads are high, but beginning to decline. Similarly, they start decreasing credit risk when the economy starts taking a dip and fears of defaults start rising.
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Cap is a ceiling to the coupon that the issuer will pay on the security. Beyond that, even if yields go up in the market, the issuer will not pay a higher coupon. Effectively, it becomes a fixed rate instrument if yields rise too much. Thus, the cap is a negative feature for the investor; positive for the issuer.
Floor is a base below which the coupon will not go, even if yields go down. Thus, it becomes a fixed rate instrument if yields fall too much. Thus, the floor is a positive feature for the investor; negative for the issuer.
When the same instrument has both a cap and a floor, the feature is called a collar. Another feature to watch out for in debt instruments is call and put option. Call option means that the issuer has the right to call back the security and return the investors money on specific dates or after a specific period. Issuers are likely to exercise this option when yields in the market fall. Thus, the call option can deprive the investor of possible capital gains in a declining interest rate scenario. negative feature for the investor; positive for the issuer. Put option means that the investor has the right to return the security to the issuer and claim return of the moneys invested. This option is exercisable on a specific date or after a specified period, as mentioned in the terms of the issue. Investors will exercise this option if yields in the market go higher than the coupon they earn on the security. Thus, they can avoid having to book capital losses if yields in the market rise. It is a positive feature for the investor; negative for the issuer. It is a
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These are key decisions on which the yields and liquidity of the institution depends.
5.9 Securitisation
An investment company can sell its marketable securities in the market to get liquidity. However, a loan is a transaction between the lender and borrower not a security that can be sold in the market. Consider a project finance institution or an auto finance company. Its asset base keeps
increasing as it lends more. New loans will be financed partly out of repayment of past loans. However, a growing company will keep requiring new borrowings to finance new loans. Securitisation is an alternative to borrowing to finance new loans. It is a structure where illiquid loans can be taken out of the books of a lender and converted into tradable debt securities. Trading in those securities facilitates price discovery and enhances the vibrancy of the bond market. The original lender benefits through re-pricing of the loan portfolio and release of lending capacity for further loans. Suppose Bank XYZ has a loan of Rs. 100 crore on its books, on which it earns 12% p.a. interest. The EMI amounts to Rs. 21.91 crore p.a. The balance tenure of the loan is 7 years. The loan has been given to Project ABC, whose credit worthiness has improved as the project progressed. The market is now comfortable with 11% p.a. yield from the borrower for 7 year funding. One approach for Bank XYZ to take the loan out of its books and benefit from the credit improvement is through securitisation. The present value of a series of coupon payments at 12% p.a. (the original coupon) discounted at 11% (the prevailing market yield) on a loan of Rs. 100 crores, amounts to Rs. 103.23 crore, as shown in Table 5.5.
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As part of the securitisation transaction, a special purpose vehicle(SPV) is created that will buy out the loan from Bank XYZ at Rs. 103.23 crore (transaction costs and margins are ignored for simplicity). The figure can also be calculated by using the PV function in MS Excel, with the parameters as market yield, number of annual payments and the annual payment value [=pv(11%,7,21.91)]. By selling the loan account to the SPV at Rs. 103.23 crore, Bank XYZ will book a profit of Rs.103.23 minus Rs. 100 i.e. Rs. 3.23 crore. Where will the SPV get the money to pay Bank XYZ? It will issue securities that are backed by the EMI receivable from Project ABC. As shown in Table 5.6, if the SPV were to collect 74
Rs.103.23 crore from investors and pay them the EMI that is collected from Project ABC every year, the investors will earn yield of 11%, which is in line with their expectations. Table 5.6 Yield for Investors in Securities Issued by SPV Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 103.23 92.68 80.96 67.96 53.53 37.51 19.73 11.36 10.19 8.91 7.48 5.89 4.13 2.17 -21.91 -21.91 -21.91 -21.91 -21.91 -21.91 -21.91 Opening Interest EMI Closing 103.23 92.68 80.96 67.96 53.53 37.51 19.73 -0.01 ^
^ Will be zero if the numbers are not rounded off to 2 decimals (Interest in the above table is calculated as Opening Balance multiplied by interest at 11%). The transfer of loan from Bank XYZ can be with recourse or without recourse. If it is with recourse, then in the event that Project ABC does not pay the EMI, Bank XYZ will pay the SPV. In such a structure, the contingent liability remains with Bank XYZ and therefore, it cannot book the entire profit of Rs. 3.24 crore shown above. This is an example of an off balance sheet exposure for Bank XYZ. The bank will prefer a transfer without recourse, for which it may have to transfer the loan at a slightly lower value than Rs. 103.24 crore. Accordingly, its profits will be lower.
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If the bank does not want to be exposed to such risks, it can opt for hedging through any of the following approaches: Ideal for such a situation is a foreign currency swap, where it will receive Yen and pay Rupees. The counter party could be someone who expects the Yen to depreciate or who has a Yen receivable (for example, from a Yen-denominated investment). On each loan servicing cycle, the bank will receive Yen under the swap and pay the Yen to its lender. Thus, the Yen exposure is neutralised and the bank is able to operate with a fixed Rupee cost. The bank can find a counter party that will sell Yen under a forward contract that meets the banks loan servicing liabilities. The bank can also buy Yen futures, which will appreciate if the Yen appreciates. The profit from the Yen futures trade will balance the loss on the loan servicing, if the Yen were to appreciate. The bank can buy Yen options. Although a cost in the form of option premium is to be borne, the bank can book a profit on the option if the Yen were to appreciate. This will compensate for the loss on the loan servicing on account of the stronger Yen. However, if the Yen were to depreciate, it will benefit on the loan servicing because the rupee cost of the instalment will be lower. In such a situation, the bank will allow the Yen options to lapse. The margin for the bank will obviously be lower than 8%, to the extent of hedging cost.
generating company may make a strategic investment in a coal mining company. Or a cement company may invest in another cement company, with the objective of merging the two companies later. Strategic investments in the same business can be difficult to execute, especially if the target company does not want to fall into the net of the purchaser. Further, depending on market share implications, regulatory objections can come from the Competition Commission. 76
Strategic investments are long term in nature. The intention is not to buy or sell the strategic investments with a view to benefit from changes in valuation in the market.
The treasury manager has a very limited role in strategic investments. Decisions are taken by the board to fulfil the strategic agenda.
Financial investments in equity are aimed at benefiting from valuations in the market. Within equity exposure, this kind of investment entails the maximum role for the treasury manager. He needs to be clear on what is the objective of the investment. For example, Does the company want to stay invested to benefit from long term appreciation in equity markets? Invest in a diversified index. Does the company want to earn returns better than the long term appreciation in equity markets? Build up fundamental analysis capabilities that will help in stock and sector selection. Choose between bottom-up approach and top-down approach. In bottom-up approach, the focus is on stock selection. Distribution of fund between sectors is incidental to the stock selection. In top-down approach, the initial focus is on making allocation between sectors. Thereafter, good stocks within those sectors are identified. Does the company want to speculate on short-term movements in the stock exchange? Invest based on technical analysis in the market.
Most forward looking manufacturing companies limit their financial investments in the equity market. They prefer to let the company focus on its core business, rather than let financial investments divert the focus or increase the risk. Some companies transfer the surpluses from the core business to a focussed investment division or subsidiary, where the equity risks may be taken.
Between the two approaches is a median approach called strategic financial investments. Here, significant amounts are invested in specific businesses (as in the case of strategic investment). However, unlike strategic investments, strategic financial investments are meant to be sold at some time, when the valuations are attractive.
The treasury manager has a greater role in such investments, than in strategic investments, but lesser role than in financial investments.
Thus, each equity investment objective calls for a different treasury management style and role. Accordingly, the skill sets to build in the treasury management department vary.
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Self-Assessment Questions
RBI has set the minimum capital adequacy for banks at - - - - 8% 9% 10% 12%
Which of the following is part of Tier II capital for banks? - - - - Capital Revenue reserve Revaluation reserve None of the above
What is likely to be the most important item of liability for a retail bank? - - - - Deposits Loans Overdraft Investment
The yield curve for India is - - - - Horizontal Upward sloping Downward sloping Vertical
Which of the following protects the investor? - - - - put cap call put and cap
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The discussions in this chapter are for education purposes. They should not be viewed as advice on accounting issues for business. Please check with your Chartered Accountant for advice on accounting for your business
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finalised, audited and adopted. The higher depreciation provided in year 2 on account of revaluation of the asset, should be for only that year? Or should a higher depreciation for year 1 also be charged in the accounts for year 2? In the following year, if the USD were to depreciate to Rs. 60 per USD, what would be the impact? These are the kinds of issues that the treasury manager has to grapple with. Each situation is different. So, the issues and the solutions will vary with the situation. Accounting cannot be the sole basis on which decisions are taken. However, decisions cannot also be taken independent of accounting issues. In some cases, it may be possible to structure instruments / contracts in a form where the accounting issues are minimised. The treasury manager has to explore such options.
company mentioned earlier that has a USD100mn borrowing may execute a currency swap to receive USD from a swap counter party, against Rupees. On each debt servicing date, it will receive USD from the swap counter party and pay its lender. So long as the hedge and the hedged instrument are both valued based on MTM, the profit in one will compensate (fully or partly) for loss in the other. Suppose that only the hedge is valued at MTM, while the hedged instrument is valued on a conservative basis at cost or MTM, whichever is lower. In that case, if interest rates were to go up, loss in the investment will be compensated by gain in the hedge. However, if interest rates were to go down, gain in the investment will not be recognised (on account of conservatism), but loss in the hedge will have to be provided for. Thus, profits will be hit on account of the hedge. There are conditions to fulfil before a hedge can be accounted as a hedge. Further, hedges are rarely perfect. For instance, a lender may have a liability based on 1-year government yield 81
while the hedging interest rate swap may be based on 3-year government yield. Since 1-year and 3-year yield will not go up or down to the same extent, a basis risk remains. Treasury manager has to be mindful of such issues.
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Self-Assessment Questions
Which of the following is a mandatory accounting standard? - - - - AS 11 and AS 1 AS 11 AS 1 AS 30
Which of the following are normally accounted? - - - - Long term supply contract Payment of advance to supplier Payment of advance to supplier and receipt of material All the above
Which of the following is / are mostly likely to be marked to market? - - - - HTM HFT AFS HTM and HFT
Which of the following is aimed at protecting the balance sheet from MTM valuation risk? - - - - Cash flow hedge Fair value hedge Neither cash flow hedge nor fair value hedge Guarantees 83
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RTGS RTGS ensures real-time transfer of funds during business hours (9.00 hours to 16.30 hours on week days and from 9.00 hours to 14:00 hours on Saturdays). This is the fastest mode to receive and make payments. The minimum amount to be remitted through RTGS is Rs. 2 lakh. There is no upper ceiling for RTGS transactions.
Inward transactions are fee. There is a fee on outward transactions, not exceeding Rs. 30 per transaction, for transactions uptoRs. 5 lakh. Fee for transactions higher than Rs. 5 lakh cannot exceed Rs. 55 per transaction. Service tax is extra.
NEFT In the case of NEFT, cheques are processed in hourly batches. There are twelve settlements from 8 am to 7 pm on week days and six settlements from 8 am to 1 pm on Saturdays.
There is no limit either minimum or maximum on the amount of funds that could be transferred using NEFT. However, maximum amount per transaction is limited to Rs.50,000/- for cash-based remittances and remittances to Nepal.
2.50 to Rs. 25 per transaction, depending on the amount transferred. Service tax is
ECS This is for transactions that are repetitive and periodic in nature. It may be for bulk payment (e.g. dividends, interest, salaries, pensions etc.) [ECS Credit] or bulk collection (e.g. utility payments, loan repayments, insurance premia, systematic investment in mutual funds etc.)[ECS Debit].
In the case of ECS Credit, the User who wishes to make payments has to submit details of the beneficiaries (like name, bank / branch / account number of the beneficiary, MICR code of the destination bank branch, etc.) and date on which credit is to be made to the beneficiaries. The information has to be provided in a specified format (called the input file) through the sponsor bank (the Users bank) to one of the ECS Centres where it is registered as a User.
The bank managing the ECS Centre then debits the account of the sponsor bank on the scheduled settlement day, and credits the accounts of the destination banks, for onward credit to the accounts of the ultimate beneficiaries with the destination bank branches.
In the case of ECS Debit, the User has to submit details of the customers (like name, bank / branch / account number of the customer and MICR code of the destination 85
bank branch) and date on which the customers account is to be debited. The data has to be provided in a specified format (called the input file) through its sponsor bank to the ECS Centre. The bank managing the ECS Centre then passes on the debits to the destination banks for onward debit to the customers account with the destination bank branch and credits the sponsor bank's account for onward credit to the User institution. Destination bank branches have been directed to treat the electronic instructions received from the ECS Centre on par with the physical cheques and accordingly debit the customer accounts maintained with them. All the unsuccessful debits are returned to the sponsor bank through the ECS Centre (for onward return to the User Institution) within the specified time frame. There are three broad categories of ECS Schemes Local ECS, Regional ECS and National ECS. Local ECS covers 81 centres / locations across the country. At each of these ECS centres, the branch coverage is limited to the geographical coverage of the clearing house, generally covering one city and/or satellite towns and suburbs adjoining the city. Regional ECS operates at 9 centres / locations at various parts of the country. Itcovers all core-banking-enabled branches in a State or group of States. Although the inter-bank settlement takes place centrally at one location in the State, the actual customers under the scheme may have their accounts at various bank branches across the State or group of States. National ECS is the centralised ECS. It is operated from Mumbai. It covers all core-banking enabled branches located anywhere in the country. Customers can be from any branch across the country.
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Suppose a remittance is to be made from India to the US. The Indian party will go to its bank, say, State bank of India (SBI). SBI will have a relationship with a correspondent bank in the US, say Chase Manhattan. The Indian party will need to give SBI complete information about the bank account details of the beneficiary to whom the transfer is to be made. The beneficiary may have a bank account with some other bank, say Bank of America. Accordingly, SBI will issue a SWIFT transaction to Chase Manhattan for further transfer of funds to the beneficiarys account in Bank of America. SWIFT makes it convenient to transfer funds across the world. From an accounting point of view, SBI will debit the customer and credit an account called Vostro account. Bank of America will credit the proceeds to its customer and debit an account called Nostro account. Thus, Vostro accounts capture all the foreign currency transferred out, and Nostro accounts capture all the foreign currency transferred in.
the countries from where imports will be made, the countries where the goods will be exported and experiences of others who may have implemented similar plans. Treasury should encourage the company to review the long term plan annually. An alternative would be to have an annual rolling long term plan. If neither is possible, then treasury should independently understand the developments in implementing the strategy, the likely changes in course and consequential funding implications. Such a proactive approach will ensure that treasury is seen as a key contributer to the implementation of strategy in the company. Cash flow plan The cash flow plan takes a shorter term view of the likely financial flows. It is prepared at various levels of detail for different periods such as daily for a week, weekly for a month and monthly for a year. The daily plan is aimed at ensuring that there is enough money in the bank to ensure cheques are cleared. At the same time, money should not lie idle in the current account, where no interest is earned. In many businesses, it is not possible to know precisely, the collections that will be received in a day. This increases the challenge in liquidity management. Some banks provide a sweep facility, where surplus funds in current account are automatically transferred into a fixed deposit, so that at least some interest is earned. The weekly and monthly plans provide a picture of the persistence of surpluses or deficits. This will determine the medium term financing or investment arrangements to make. The regular reporting should include not only the Rupee denominated picture, but also the surplus / deficit in various foreign currencies and the hedges taken, if any. Volatile currencies should be particularly monitored. The foreign currency perspective is especially important for companies that have significant international transactions.
Risk management generally encompasses the process of identifying risks, measuring exposures to those risks (where possible), ensuring that an effective capital planning and monitoring programme is in place, monitoring risk exposures and corresponding capital needs on an ongoing basis, taking steps to control or mitigate risk exposures and reporting to senior management and the board on the banks risk exposures and capital positions. Internal controls are typically embedded in day-to-day business and are designed to ensure, to the extent possible, that the activities are efficient and effective, information is reliable, timely and complete and applicable laws and regulations are complied with. Common industry practice for sound operational risk governance in banks often relies on three lines of defence Business line management, An independent corporate operational risk management function (CORF), and An independent review.
Depending on the nature, size and complexity, and the risk profile of activities, the degree of formality of how these three lines of defence are implemented will vary. In all cases, however, the treasury management risk governance function should be fully integrated into the overall risk management governance structure of the organisation. The degree of independence of the CORF will differ among banks. For small banks, independence may be achieved through separation of duties and independent review of processes and functions. In larger banks, the CORF will have a reporting structure independent of the risk generating business lines and will be responsible for the design, maintenance and ongoing development of the operational risk framework within the bank. This function may include the operational risk measurement and reporting processes, risk committees and responsibility for board reporting. A strong risk culture and good communication among the three lines of defence are important characteristics of good operational risk governance. Internal audit coverage should include opining on the overall appropriateness and adequacy of the Framework and the associated governance processes across the bank. Internal audit should not simply be testing for compliance with board approved policies and procedures, but should also be evaluating whether the Framework meets organisational needs and supervisory expectations. For example, while internal audit should not be setting specific risk appetite or tolerance, it should review the robustness of the process of how these limits are set and why and how they are adjusted in response to changing circumstances. 89
Against this backdrop on risk management, the following specific aspects ought to be part of risk management in treasury. The philosophy and role of treasury in the organisation should be clearly documented. There has to be clarify on whether treasury is a service centre or a profit centre. As service centre, it will operate as a support function and help manage risks that originate elsewhere in the business. maximise returns. Within the overall philosophy, the nature of products that treasury can deal in, and the limits thereof should be put down in writing. Besides limits in exposure for each product, stop loss limits can also be set. If stop loss is reached, then treasury will have to compulsorily close the position without waiting for any further instructions or market input. The overall limits for treasury ought to be distilled further, to limits for people in the treasury department. The treasury head can set the limits for his team. There has to be a mechanism of immediately capturing in the system, all trades that are executed by treasury. Beyond a prescribed value, the trades should be reported to higher authorities immediately or end of day. Depending on size of operations, the classical split of activities between front office, middle office and back office can be implemented. The front office is the market interface for executing trade. Dealers are part of the front office. Middle office is an important link between front office and back office. It helps the former execute orders; helps the latter settle the transactions and account for the same. The system checks to ensure that adequate limits are available, before trading are a middle office responsibility. It also handles risk management especially credit and market risks of theorganisation Middle office does various validations. For instance, dealers may trade based on their own models. Middle office will have its own scientific models for valuation and profit booking. Some institutional investors, such as Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) appoint custodians for their investments. When trades are done on behalf of such institutional investors, the custodian has to confirm in the system that it will settle the transaction. Accordingly, the settlement obligation goes to the custodian. This again is a back-office function. 90 At profit centre, it will need to take risks to
Risk managers, surveillance staff and financial modellers are part of the middle office.
Back office handles clearing, settlement and accounting. It may also handle control over operational risks.
Such a split in roles is the hallmark of an effective internal checks and controls. The regular reporting formats and frequency should be clearly laid down. Reporting should include instances where limits were exceeded, irrespective of whether the position ended in a profit or loss. Similarly, instances of frauds, or cases where standard processes were not followed should be reported. Compensation structures of employees also influence the risks taken. The typical
compensation structure is asymmetric i.e. employee earns a bonus in a good year, but does not bear the losses in a bad year. This kind of structure can push employees to take high risks, because he gets the benefits of an upside without any risk of a downside. Therefore, thought leaders suggest that bonuses should not be excessive. Further, there has to be a mechanism to claw back past bonuses, if subsequently the profits turn to losses. Markets are dynamic. Accordingly, treasury management keeps facing newer challenges.
It is to be ensured that the treasury is abreast of changing dynamics of the economy and markets. Further, the treasury systems and processes should ensure that treasury is able to act quickly in response to market changes, without compromising on the risk management.
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Self-Assessment Questions
Which of the following forms of transfer from a buyer to seller is fastest? - - - - Physical cheque NEFT RTGS SWIFT
Which of the following is true of SWIFT? - - - - Leading global bank Platform for international money transfers Lender of last resort Head office in Switzerland
Since long term plans are prepared by corporate planning department, treasury manager has no role. - - True False
Dealers are part of - - - - Front office Middle office Back office None of the above
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References
Bank for International Settlements (www.bis.org) Crisil (www.crisil.com) Global Association of Risk Professionals (www.garp.org) Jayanth Rama Varma, Derivatives and Risk Management, Tata McGraw Hill John C Hull, Options, Futures & Other Derivatives, Prentice-Hall Inc.Robert Cooper (2004), Corporate Treasury and Cash Management, Palgrave Macmillan Reserve Bank of India, Master Circular on Prudential Guidelines on Capital Adequacy and Market DisciplineNew Capital Adequacy Framework (NCAF), July 1, 2013 www.rbi.org.in Robert Cooper (2004), Corporate Treasury and Cash Management, palgrave Macmillan Robert Hudson, Alan Colley and Mark Largan (1998), Treasury Management, CIB Publishing Satyajit Das, Swaps & Financial Derivatives, IFR Books SundarSankaran (2012), Wealth Engine: Indian Financial Planning & Wealth Management, Vision Books
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