OPERATIVE DENTISTRY EXAMINATION SECTION TEST 1 ad DIRECTIONS: Bach ement i question or incomplete J answers or complet several one that answers the question or p statement j HEC RSWEP TN 1.y During an operative procedure, the rubber dam clamp 1 repeatedly dislodges. This may be caused by I. improper « : 7 II. dullness of ¢ Ti1. clamp improperly IV. holes punched too se of heavy weig Th CORRECT answer is: ZA. 1, UL B. 1, II, III c. 1, v D. 111, IV E. All of the above In estab] Z cay rm for a Cla it i 2 IMPORTANT to NI. limit the isthmus width to 1/4 distance whenever possible II. consider the depth rather than width in order ave ture of the filling material +I pins to protect the large amalgam restorati IV. have a 90° junction of tooth and s the osurface area V, have slight rounding of internal line angles to relieve stress area the tooth B. I, 11, v a“ y f, Ith, v E ,v that might logically be used for placing bevels on inlay preparations are: Smal] diamond disks Fine, tapered diamond stones Il, Margin trimme IV. Enamel hatchet V. Tapered carbide bur The CORRECT answer I, 1, 11 - 1, UII, c. I, Iv, /V Ui, 11, v Ht,significantly, the increase results 4. from condensation techniques rather than the number of pins used B. when the number of pins is greater than four ©. because pins markedly increase the compressive strength of amalgam D. because pins markedly increase t characteristic of amalgam E. from the strength of the stainless steel in the e tensile strength n the practice of preventive dentistry, PRIMARY preven- tion refers to those measures taken to A. prevent the development of disease dentition prevent disease before evidence of its occurrence is detected C. prevent incipient disease from progressing to destructive activity D. focus priority on those practices which minimize the loss of teeth + ensure emphas at any time n the primary is on prevention in all dental treatment 7. Occlusal clearance for a porcelain fused to metal restora- i tion should be about mm, on the occlusal surface of a maxillary first premolar. OAL Oe B. 1.0 1 D, 2.0 A patient telephoned she broke off @ big hen upper Left back toc’. An emergency office visit between patients revesiei that the facial portion of the maxillary left second molar was sheared off level with the gingival tissue, 4 MOD inlay in that tooth was loose and it was removed. No pulp exposure was evident, but the tooth was sensitive, Ths patient cannot be seen again for two weeks. The treatment at this tine would be to A. smooth the rough eages and reappoint B. place a zine phosphate cement temporary restoration C, place a zinc-oxide nol cement temporary restor: tion D. cement on a metal band or shell with reinforced zine oxide-eugenol cemen dismiss the paticnt without further intervention until the next scheduled visit which would provide suffi- cient time for the obviously involved treatment 9. / The 10.) Aca Prox re B, ©. D. E. 1. The J rece9.) The factor in the design of the abutment preparation ‘partial denture which must be determined BEFORE 1 sing treatment of the abutment teeth is the location of the rests and clasps ty fumber of teeth to be replaced by thé partial dent ruep inelines to be used in selecting the replacement teeth D. composition of the denture material which is Supported by the edentulous areas E, all of the above A cavity prepared for a powdered gold restoration on the 0. J proximal surface of an anterior tooth ALWAYS A. includes the contact B. extends beneath the ingival tissue €. contains a 2-planed and a 2-planed facial wa p. ends in the facial embrasure to facilitate finishing and maintenance of the margin E. hus enamel walls which meet the surface of the tooth 388 Gliowing the general direction of the enamel rods into an interocclu 11., The incomplete seating of a 4 J record will result in Sh. excessive occlusal contact of the cast B. insufficient occlusal contact of the ca C, normal occlusal contact if soft w the peclusal p. distortion of the interocclusal record E. no occlusal contact 12,/ The HOST trequent complaint of pain after placement of ar ; v amalgam restoration is related to gh Ay cold B. "heat C. sweets gf “Dl galvanic shock E. biting pressure 13, Of the following materials, the one NOST likely to cause 1 = an adverse pulpal reaction when placed directly in a 4 cavity preparation is A. silver amalgan silicate C. calcium hydroxide D. zine ox E. zine phosphate cemen Cuspal reduction DECREASES 14,4 A. retention form B. resistance form ~ C. convenience form ). pulpal involvement E, withdrawal form 15. A compo: resin, compared with poly (methyl methacry 15 late), has ‘A. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion B. greater compressive strength €. greater stiffnes: 5 inkage lower polymerization all of the abovean endodontically treated maxillary cent ar crate sized mesial and distal composite ré nonce involving the facial surface and a heav vould BEST be treated by restoring it with ‘A. post-retained porcelain metal full crown B, post-retained porcelain jacket crown C. composite resin D. 3/4 gold crown E. none of the above The 8 percent racemic epinephrine-containing cord for tissue packing may pre ZARDOUS for some patien A. Iocal caustic action upon the gingiv B. vasoconstricting action C. propensity for allergic D. astringent action local E. none of the above The location of the gingival margin in the preparation 5f proximal ities is influenced by need for retention of a cast restoration imount of gingival recession reed to extend gingivally to clear the contact area convenience form of the cavity III 1, IV lenta p include all the following tions of the op support . sensory . circulatory dentin repair? ¥ mentum repair Inflammation of the pulp is MOST often assoc with A. trauma B. galvanism 5 lusion /D. dental caries + gingivitis Another name for dental plaqu A. sorde B, dextran ©. microcosm materia alba E. polysaccharide pit and fissure caries is USUADLY characterized by cones of decay that A. are apex to base at the D-E junction B. are base to base at the D-E junction C. are apex to apex at the D-E junction Do have no general pattern at the D-E junc E. are unrecognizableIf acidogenic bacteria are to produce caries, it 23 REQUIRED that they al B. produce phosphoric acid A. colonize on the tooth surface D. grow and reproduce in an acid environmen E. reproduee on the tooth surface } 24, tn expanded-function dental auxiliary has denonstr 2a. to you that he can regularly complete a procedure at an acceptable quality level. Unless specifically requested to aid in @ procedure, should 7k. continue to evaluate all treatment rende by the auxiliary B, occasionally spot evaluate procedures as a qualit C, evaluate each patient ter total patient treat~ nent has been completed D. occasionally spot evaluate patients only after total yatient treatment has been completed E. evaluate the treatment rendered at the appointment in order to benefit full ervice of an expanded-fungtion auxili €\ The general direction of the enamel rods at any particular \) location on the crown of a perm n may be NOST _ accurately described to be perpendicular to the pulpal surface B. parallel to the dentin tubules c rpendicular to the dentino-enamel junction D. perpendicular to a tangent at the external of the enamel perpendicular to the dentin tubules KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) 1A D B a E 7. B BLE 20. D 21 24, ATEST 2 DIRECTIONS: Each question.or incomplete statement is followed by several suggested answers or completions. Select the one that BEST the question or completes the statement ESTER OP THE con ANSWER ESPACE AT In restoring the distal surface of a mandibular first 1 molar, how should the distal marginal ridge be restored in relation to the mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular second molar provided the maxillary molars are ideally shaped and aligned? A. Lower B. Higher C. Same height D. Marginal ridges are unrelated E. At right angles 2.) A split tooth will frequently display which of the 2.£ following symptoms and signs? 1. No radiographic evidence II, Moderate pain, transient in nature III, Sensitivity to pressure IV. Thermal sensitivity The CORRECT answer ij A. I, II B. II, III c. III, Iv D. II, 111, Iv vE, All of the above A 3/4 crown casting is made for the mandibular left second premolar. It does not sit upon the die completely and appears open at all margins. * Which of the following could cause this problem? I. A ouck-back or void on the inner surface of the casting at the sprue area Il, A bubble in the die at the lingual cusp area due to entrapment of air while pouring stone into the impressions IIL, Investment incompletely removed from the casting 1V. A bubble of gold on the casting Y. Removal of a bubble of stone and a bit of the die (The bubble was formed by stone flowing into a void in the impression.) The CORRECT answer is A. 1, IIL De Edy FY, stv),\ 4. / Of the to110win, Vv wedging when the PRIN 4. obtain the desired separation of the teeth B. mark the gingival extent of the Loration €. control gingival hemorrhag objective of interproximal D. depress the gingive ssu E. increase tt a A. noncommunicable insofar as humans are concerned of present knowledge, dental caries i 5 B, definitely communicable in both animals €, communicable in laboratory animals, and D, noncommunicable in laboratory an in human} E, hereditary in all m human ly in mal Gy In planning the location for placement of pin for a J pinretained amalgam, one should provide 1 A. at least 3 mn, of pin extension into the amalgan B. parallelism of the pins if more than one ie use D, 1 mm, of dentin between the pin and the D-E junction E, at least 3 mm. of pin extension into the dentin e PROPER position for a dental assistant at the chair 7 J side of a right-handed operator to assure visibility and accessibility to the operating field i th lock position and he operator. the same height approximately 4 inches higher than the same height } approximately 4 inches higher than 0; approximately 3 inches hi her than 8) One of the advantages of a cast gold inlay is 8 J highly pleasing esthetic qualitie: B. superior caries inhibitory qualities allowance for a cementing medium to be usc apability of restoring anatomic form E. that it prevents further decay 9, Which is the MOST effective means of reducing dental 2. ¥ caries in a community by using topical fluoride? A. Fluoridation of the community water supply B. Routine topi fluoride application to all child 1 the public school \C. Routine topical fluoride application by local dentist and dental auxiliaries D, Giving each family with children fluoride tablets t be dissolved in the children's drinking Giving each family with children fluorid Placed in the children's drinking water aIt B a 12. Whe In Vo lin deg B co D E displacement called A all | happen: either ndens either iner force applied ACCEPTABLE p ‘ates the al tooth, perfo other fac Periodon th hole and pl ir placing a pin. A pin may be placed zine phosphate If no othe slaced in peyond the It is not yeriodontal un unstar cement hole can thi surface ible of solution etch te eteh ¢ phos nt nt ) percent reent lic phosphor hydrofluori phosphor bydrochlori an occlusal walls wall) cavity which’ slightl ees per wou enamel length the amalgam will enamel rods fo length dentin neec enamel margin Tomes’ Fiber th nd supported o: suppo: be 10 sup: would be hape of a c the cedure xterna involvement w 0 extract it be channel prepared for a a NOT the depending upon the depending upon the to follo surfa re when a pin of the tooth and able mean the ev ntual los: ¢ nc oxide-type s hole be used ement ; for this hole used. placed nearby provided there the h place copalite be extension is pin extending question is no into the he is applicable, chnique with composite resins, namel horic in water bufter water in salt © acid cid in acid water algam, y converge occlusally pate weak facial o margins and enamel > margin n dentin would still be full enamel need mare be full norting the rods forming the ngthened that BE 11 tance17, fay 20. can NININIZE the for extensiv prevention of need h substance for A factor which removal of sound too secondary caries i A. hardness of the enamel B. shallow pits and fissures Cy general health of the patient B. low susceptibility to caries E strength of the mo: ari one of the claims for the superiority of restorations over silicate cement restor A, prevent galvanic action are practically insoluble in oral fluids the walls of the cavity better icient of thermal expansion infection omposite resin tions is that + adapt to have a hi E. prevent bact! final removal of fter the cavity has been established form has been established If pulp exposure is carious tooth structure is A. final outline B. resistance and anticipated, accomplished form of the retention rubber dam has been placed cavity has been sterilized E. none of the above the enamel at the gingival cavosurface angle 11 cavity preparation for amalgam is contraindicated because of the low edge strength of provided by a steep cavosurface bevel of the enamel margin unngcessary s. strong nee the remaining tooth structure is provided by planing the cavosurface area to remove nel prisms not supported by dentin not recommended Pulp capping is an indicated procedure when there i 4, an accidental mechanical in a clean, dry exposure . no hemorrhage from the exposure C. pain response to cold D, a large exposure all of the above An ACCEPTABLE medicament for treating sensitive eroded areas in anterior teeth is phenol B. precipitated silver nitrate ©, eugenol or other essential oils D. a paste composed of um fluoride, kaolin, and Y "glycerin E. a ten percent stannous fluoride solution 17,2. Which of the following statements are CORRECT? I. A fixed partial denture, often fixed bridge, is a prosthodontic restoration which is fabricated to replace a missing tooth or teeth and is held in place by crowns or inlays cemented to one or more adjacent natural teeth. Pulp capping is a treatment procedure in which a aterial is placed over an exposed or near-exposed portion of a dental pulp to protect it and facilitate its recovery from the effects of chemical, mechanical, or bacterial irritation. III. Materials commonly used are calcium hydroxide and mixture of zinc oxide and eugenol, or preparations containing these materials as principal ingredients. V. A cement base is a foundation made usually of eithe zine phosphate cement or zinc oxide and eugenol cement, which is placed in the deep portions of cavities. to protect the pulp from chemical, thermal, and electrical trauma. VY. Rubber dam is thin, rubber sheet material used to isolate the teeth and keep them moist during the performance of certain restorative and endodontic procedures ed a bridge or « The CORRECT answer is: Ay Ty IE B, II, IIT Cher, q1t D. IL, Iv, Vv E. 1, 11, Itt, Iv Which of the following statements are CORRECT? 1. Cavity preparation is the term used to describe the process of preparing a tooth to receive a restora- tion. II, It includes the removal of decayed material, the necessary cutting and shaping of remaining tooth structure, and the cleaning (toilet) of the prepared area III. Certain basic principles of cavity preparation, fir advanced by the American dentist, Dr. G.V. Black, in the early part of this century, now no longer serve s standards. IV. These principles provide for convenience in placing the restoration, retention of the restoration, sufficient bulk and strength of restoration and emaining tooth structure, and prevention of further ntal caries. V. The design of the cavity preparation must take into account the location and size of the cavity, the to which it will be subjected, andthe type restorative material to be used. VI. Cavity forms are classified ording to the tooth es involved. t The CORRECT answer is: I, U1, 11 B. 4, 1, 111, Iv I, 1, II, Vv, Vv D. 1, 11, 111, IV, I, 11, Iv,'v, VI23, Which of the following statements are CORRECT? I, Class I cavity preparations (pits and fissu are one-surface preparations which involve the occlus surfaces or the occlusal two-thirds of the facial or lingual surfaces of a posterior tooth or the lingual pits of maxillary anteriors II, Class II cavity preparations are those which invc the proxin urfaces of posterior teeth t III, Class III cavity preparations are one-surface preparations which involve the proxima aces 0} anterior teeth Iv. Class IV cavity preparations are those which invo the proximal surfaces and t neisal angle of anterior teeth VY. Class V cavity preparations are one-surface prepara~ tions which involve the gingival third of the facial or lingual surfaces of any teeth. VI./Class VI cavity preparations are those which invo eas not normally af py dental car such as as edges of anter r teeth. or teeth and his class do the cuspal ot include Dr. G.V, Black's original five classes The CORRECT answer A. I, If, III B. I, II, III, IV G. I; 11, TI) V Di ts Ths 1%, Vv) VI /e. 1, I, II, IV, V 24, Which of the following statements are CORRECT? I. Dental hand instruments are divided into the follow- ng parts: handle, shank, blade, cutting edge, nib, and face or point. Il. Cutting instruments have a handle, a shank, a blade, and a cutting edge III. Noncutting instruments have a handle, a shank, a nib, and a face or point. IV. Dr. G.¥. Black classified instruments according to order names, suborder names, class names, and sub: class names. V. Dr. Black also evolved the instrument formula by / which instruments could be readily duplicated any- VI. For example, the number of a gingival margin trimmer is given as 15-95: R. ‘The first two digits (15) of the formula designate the width of the blade in tenths of a millimeter, the third and fourth digits | ) its length in millimeters, and the fifth digit the blade forms with in hundredths of a 8) represents the angle which the ha ndle expresse irele (centigrades), With the instruments in which he cutting edge is at an angle to the length of the blade, the Sixth and seventh digits represent the angle made by the edge with the axis of the handle, expressed in centigrades. The letter (R or L) signi- fies that the instrument is one of a pair made in gits and lefte in order to work more efficientlyhe CORRECT answer i AA, 111, ¥ B. 11, IV, v1 i, 1, ir, Iv Ty Wy Ty: WV ME. 1, 11, 111, 1V, v, VI 20./ Whigh of the following statements are CORRECT? th Woeal anesthesia is used extensively 1 9 in restorative dentistry to reduce the pain associated with these procedures + The instruments and techniques used in administering a local anesthetic and the duties performed during the procedure are to be closely studied III. Moisture presents a problem many dental operations. in the performance of IV. Moistness of the operative field is essential to the success of restorations and endodontic procedunos V. The use of the rubber dam is the best method nt maintaining a dry field. The CORRECT answer is A. T, U1, UT Be II, tv, v Tp ajay, Da, ti, ¥ ve. 1, It, '111, v KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) c ll. D E 12.0 D 13. 8 A 14. c c 15. D 6.0 16. B 7.8 irae B.D 18. D 9. B 19. A 10. A 20. Dy) OPERATIVE DENTISTRY TEST I DIRECTIONS Each question or incomplete statement ‘ollowed by several sug- gested ansvers or completions. Select th answers thi question or completes the ement. PR HE CORRE ANSWER IN THE SPACE AT THE RICHT 1./wnat is the viwrvar occlusal clearance ina preparation 1 for a porcelain-fused-tommetal restoration? A. 0.5mm B. 1.0mm v€. 1.5 mm D. 2.0mm E mm —“2/watenof the following procedures should be accomplished Es after an inlay is cemented permanently and Derore the cement has set? A, Remo sal interferences B, Deepen the occlusal sluiceways €. Polish the inlay with sand paper d . Burnish all margins for final adaptation E. Complete the polishing by use of rubber cups and fine abrasive é 3. A decrease in wh. Saliva is likely to cause a decreasein 1 ae Slo Dicer: content B betforine copactty & Which of the following materials has fluorides Ase: Patek of the following properties of 3, aries activity? boxylate cement D cement E, EBA-alumina cement wnich of the following conclusions is correcr, if, after 5 six weeks, a pulp-capped tooth aptomatic? A, The pulp capping was a cor success JZ. The lack of adversé symptoms may be temporary in nature and detrimental chai occur at a later time Reparative dentin comple D. The adjacent odontoblasts have proliferated to cover the site of exposure E. The pulp capping was a complete failure 6, After a thorough oxamination, a teen-aged patient is found to have numerous carious lesions. Most of the proximal surfaces of the molars and the premolars are carious to the extent that much of the occlusal enamel appears to be undermined. Of the following courses of t the wrsest to follow? | A, Restore all teeth as rapidly sil 8, Place patient on a prevention regime and delay treatment until the effective evaluatec mation at the exposure si 3 ment, which would be sossible, using ss of home care isRestore all teeth with gold inlays to utilize the strength of this material, “D. Exeavate all carious lesions and place intermedia Restorative ZOE before completing a treatment plan E. Restore all teeth as slowly as possible, using silver malgam 7 activity can be expected to increase in the mouth A. an expectant mother B. 2 lactating mother /. a xerostomatic D. a rachitic E. all of the above The dietary carbohydrate most 1ikely involved etiology of dental caries a. glucose & se C. dextran D. polysaecha 8. that produced by ptococcus mutans Foremost in the general planning of a patient's den! care is the toration of all carious lesions B. comfort and health of the patient C. establishment of an adequate home care regime ide D. All of the above E. None of the above 10. The potential for marginal leakage related to tence 10, ture change occurs to the crearss? oxtent with A. amalgam alloy B. silicate cement “©. unfilled resin D. composite resin . direct filling gold ll. Marginal leakage of an amalgam A. related to the new p B. decrea: storation is u es formed the restoration a out the life of the tial placem| restoration 12, Deatal wax patterns showld be inves toration than at six months ed as soon as Possible after fabrication in order to minimize change in the shape caused by A/ reduced flow B. drying-out of the wax . relaxation of internal stress D. continued expansion of the wax E. increased flow 19f which of following is Nor a factor in the extension 19 of the lingual wall of a maxillary Class pared for direct filling gold? A. Aesthetics B. Occlusion TIE cavity pre C. Access for condensation D. Anatomic form of marginal ridge E. None of the above 1. which of the following agen e used on dentin as 14, a cavity medicament because not irritate the dental pulp? A, Silver nitrate 3. Phenol C. Prednisolone >. Alcohol E. Chloroform Ethyl chloride15, which of the following is the wraKr set analgan? A, Beta-2 B. D. Ganma-2 E 16, In working as a tean, the position of the chairside assistant should be ‘a. lower than the dentist to facilitate visibil Bl at the same height as the dentist because they working as a team 4. higher than the dentist for proper access and visi- bility to the patient's oral cavity [ymin D. varied, depending upon where the dentist is. working E. none of the above fn accurate diagnosis for dental caries can be made without the use of dental radiographs vhen A, only pre-molar teeth are present B, the pationt is pregnant C. only deciduous teeth are present D. all posterior proximal surfaces have been restored phase of the C, Gamma-1 reviously | E. Any of the above “®. None of the above asy In restoring a Class II cavity, an onlay is indicated when the A, need for extra retent B. patient has a high C. opposing tooth has full coverag /D. dentinal support of the cusps is questionable E. tooth is erupting but has not reached functional occlusion F. All of the above G. None of the above 19. On a rubber-dan replacement which isolated the six maxillary anterior teeth, the dentist observed an un- usual amount of wrinkling of the rubber dam between the teeth. This wrinkling is the result of A. punching the holes too small A. punching the holes’too far apart C. punching the holes too close togethe? D, crowding and overlapping of the anterior teeth E, teeth with broad contacts incisogingivally 20/ A posterior tooth under a heavy occlusal load h undermined with caries. The restorative mat joice would be A. cast gold B. silver amalgam C. composite resin D. direet filling E. pure resin & Primary prevention of déntal caries includes each following activities sxcsr7 ‘4. planning. the patient's diet B! prophylactic odontotomy C. topieal application of a fluoride D. extending cavity preparations to prevent recurrence E, None of the above 15 17.22, Pulpal irritation would vor be expected from any 22 J rative material provided the minimal thickness of the material was 0.2mm B. 0.5 mm C. 1.0mm D. 2.0 mm E. 3.0 mm 23. which of the following types of base materials must or ye placed in contact with polymethyl methacrylate be- use it may inhibit the polymerization of the resin? Germicidal coments 3. Zine phosphate cement ©. Zine oxide-eugenol cements D. Calcium hydroxide distilled water paste E. All of the above 24. which of the following statements is rruz regarding 24 hemical adhesion in clinical restorative materials? A. Resins exhibit chemical adhesive properties to ha tooth structure in the mouth adhesion to hard tooth tissue under oral does not ex hniques of acid etching of enamel have produced chemical adhesion to enamel in the mouth ~). Chemical adhesion is demonstrated in clinical per- formance of polycarboxylate cements None of the above e following statements describe composite 25 can be placed and finished at the same appoint HII. They are more color stable than unfilled di tilling resins III, They are similar to amalgam wi respect to co- efficient of thermal expansion IV. The finished surface tends to be somewhat rough. The correct answer is aA. 1, IE B. I, IV c. 1, It, Iv D. IL, If1 E. If, (11, 1¥ F, All of the above KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) dh B 2. D c 3. A ay c 5. B D 6. D 16. ¢ 7. c 7.F 8. B 18. D 9. B 19. B 10. ¢ 20. A 1. D 2. D ae a4 De 35. ¢& / . TEST 2 DIRECT 10NS Sach question or incomplete statement is gested answers or completion Select the one that ai question or completes the statement. Privr rie LETTER ANSWER IN THE SPACE AT THE RIGHT 1/4 young patient received endodontic therapy on the maxillary left central incisor. The tooth now is indicated for anesthetic pin-retained restoration as an interim treatment which of the following kind: Self-threading pias II, Friction-lock pins Ill. Serrated cemented pins IV, Self-shearing pins VY. Non-serrated cemented pins The corx=cr answer is of pins should be used? A. Ty. TIT B. I, ¢, 11, 11 D. I, V II, Iv F. II, ¥ of a rubber dam is most indicated for wiich of the eS a following procedures? I, Removal of carious dentin II. Pulp capping III. Placement of direct filling gold ATV. Removal of an old amalgam restorat ¥. Opening into the pulp chamb o drain an acute periapical abscess The correc? answer is: Vk. 1, II, TIE B. I, I1, v és Ty TET, 1¥ p. ri, Itt, ¥ E. Iv, V 3y «nich of the’ following can aid in the diagnosis of the 3 incipient proximal cariou: ion? I. Separation IL. Radiography Visual examination ‘Transilluminat ion mm deep lesions dental fl : Ir B. I, Il, Iv + itt, ¥ v E. tit,-tv, V Ail of the above 4 ntérior determinant of occlusion is the a, 3 tal and vertical overlap relation of anterior B. horizontal overlap relation of anterior teeth only €. vertical overlap relation of anterior teeth only D. euspal inclination in degrees E. euspal declination in degrees In the preparation of a cavity for restoration with composite resin, all cgvo-surface angles should be A. well-rounded right angles C. acute angles D. obtuse angles EB. ev 6. A frequent cause of interdental papillae protruding from 6 beneath the rubber dam A. edematous gingival tissue.B. holes placed too far apart C, using a light-weight dam B. holes placed too close together E. not using individual ligation of each tooth 1/¥ollowing removal of the gingival retraction cord in ’ preparation for a hydrocolloid impression, a small amount of bleeding from the tissue at the preparation ite is noticed The correct procedure to follow at this point is to A. proceed with the impression because the materia is prepared B, utilize a fulgurating current on the electro surgical unit to control bleeding, them proceed C. place an over-contoured temporary restoration to force the tissue away, and dismiss the patient for impression at the next appointment control bleeding, repack the tissues, and proceed with the impression + None c e above ‘The use of functional occlusal registration presupposes 8 that A. the teeth to be restored are extruded B. the opposing teeth are in need of major restoration it is impossible to make use of an anatomic registra- D. the opposing teeth are in harmony with the remaining dentition E. opposing teeth are in need of minor restoration 8. When placing a matrix band for ass II amalgam 9 restoration, the gingivo-occlusal width of the band should be trimmed A. below the marginal ridge height 0 be equal to the marginal ridge heig > be at least 1 mm greater than the expe D. above the marginal’ ridge height E. ‘not at all; its dimensions should remain the manufacturer. * LO. The purpose of predni cedures is to A. reduce the tendency for an acute inf response within the pulp B. promote healing of the irritated pulp tissue C. serve as an obtundent D. delay healing of the irritated pulp tissue E. ‘All of the above 1f Two adjacent cavities involving the contact may be pre- 11 ment because A. the chances of maintaining contact are gre B. they can be packed with one mix C. this conserves operating time /D. placement and finishing can be completed at the same ppointment E. All of the above ad as made by >lone in conjuncti with opera- 0. ammatory tly enhancedlay The property which most closely describes the ability 12 of a cast-gold inlay to be burnished is A. elastic Limit B, ultimate strength €. percentage elongation D, modulus of resilience E, modulus of elasticity 13. Different micro-structure has been described for each 13 form of pure gold: gold foil, mat gold, and granular or powdered gold. [t has been demonstrated at the micro- scopic level that “. void spaces remain in any compacted gold B, gold foil is more porous than any other torm of gold C! crystalline golds are packed densely more readily than gold foil D. proper compaction can remove all voids from the Connereially-available direct filling golds E, gold foil ig less porous than any other form of gold 14,/The form of a Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam 14 J restoration include: Yt. Extending the cavity to the line angles of the tooth or beyond It. Extending the cavity proximally to clear contact with the adjacent tooth III, Boveling all enamel walls IV. Removing unsupported enamel along the gingival wal V. Rounding the axiopulpal line angle The correct answer is: A. 1, IL, It B. I, If c. EL, QIr, V D. It, ty, ¥ gE. Ut, 1 Ali of 18. Lack of proximal contact of Class If inlay restorat 17. usually results I. Poor marginal fit 1L. Gingival irritation I. Sensitivity to thermal changes VW. Food impaction V. A cleaner interproximal space The CORRECT answer is: A. I only B. II, III, IV ,Wv D. IV only E. V only Direct functions of the mature dental pulp include: 16 I. Enamel formation II. Formation of deatin structure III. To furnish nerve and blood supply of teeth IV. Camentum formation V. Periodontal ligament formation The conrecT answer is: ‘ 4. I, tt, ¥ VB. IL, IIL c. If, ttt, 1 th, Hits ¥ BE, III, Iv, V FP. All of the above For most effective cutting and tong usefulness of a 17 tungsten carbide bur, it should be 4. rotating slowly before contacting the tooth JB. rotating rapidly before contacting the tooth @. placed in contact with the tooth before starting D. rotating rapidly before entering into the oral cavity BE. placed in contact with the tooth after starting18. 19 maxillary later two 18 life (except natural loss of deciduous teeth) ‘The Grearest percentage of tooth loss in the fir: decades is due to A. periodontal disease B. ted dental caries untreated dental caries D. trauma to teeth from accidents E. none of the above For a 12-year-old, the treatment of choice for a frac 9. tured mandibular lateral incisor involving the mesio incisal angle but net the pulp is A. etching and p ent of a resin restoration B. a lingual dovetail inlay C. g pin-retained metallic restoration DB, a porcelain-fused-to-metal erown E, none of the above one of the sest materials for sedation of the dental 20 pulp is A. cavity varnish B. calcium hydroxide C. zine oxide-eugenol D. zine silicop! ha ement E, a proprietary product of sterilized dentin powder and distilled water During preparation for a cast-gold restoration, the a1 tooth tissue which weakened by the cavity prepara- tion and subjected to damage by the forces of mastica- tinn must be “A. reduced and covered by the cast restoration B, strengthened by the use of cement or an amalgam core C, protected by resorting to full coverage of the tooth beveled, and the patient reminded not to exert undue force on the tooth E. weakened by the use of cement or an amalgam core A mate patient has a fractured distoincisal angle on a 22 L incisor. ‘Tho mesiofacial surface of the lateral incisor had been restored previously with silicate cement. The remaining tooth tissue between the storation and’ the mesioincisal angle contains little bulk and §s of doubtful strength. The patient desires a restoration which will provide the longest period of ser- restoration of choice is cast-gold crown cted gold with pin C. an MID composite resin with pins-etched technique D. an MID cast-gold pin-ledge restoration n-fused-to-metal full crown If caries-prone animals were fed cariogenic di stomach tubes, their caries activity would be the same as it would have been if they had eaten food B. more than if they had eaten the food C. less than if they nad eaten the food ially stopped entially prolongedA. re. E. annealin he was hit c a con A. maxil “C. a faciol D. leakage faulty | E. none of 4 volatilizing re-crystallizing y si B. a mesiodistal ingu and, omentation of the its 24. Direct filling gold is heated pr for the purpose of stablishing re surface contaminants A patient has nonspecific 1 D F ste: its condensation adhesive properties li ning n the permanent maxil- which has occurred he chin ly healthy tooth both clinically ervative MOD inlay and casting shows a quality casting The most probable and Tiodicall tion reveals n adiographically preparation Examination of the cause of the pain is fracture of the tooth 1 fracture of the to therefore, above chemical the alay irritation due KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) A B vavey 22. E 23, D OA OB 25. Ts 16 18. 19 20 D c Anoee nt with) 12 OPERATIVE DENTISTRY wiee: ¥ EXAMINATION SECTION TEST 1 DIRECTIONS Each ques or incomplete statement is followed by several sug- vested answer Jr completions, Select the one that srs? answers the estion or completes the statement. PRINT THE LETTER OF THE CoRREC ER IN THE SPACE AT THE RIGHT. 1, A curer clinical advant. > of the improved zinc oxide- t= eugenol cements over zin. phosphate cement for cementa- tion of cast restorations is A. lower solubility B. lower film thickness Ye, less pulpal irritation D. higher compressive strength adhesion to tooth substance : 2, Clas II cavities prepared for cast gold differ from 2. those prepared for amalgam in principles of proximal extension B. principles of resistance form use of hand-cutting instruments BD, use of bevels E, both A and B above 3, The “os? retentive pin technique is the a A, thread-mate system B, friction-lock system ented system D. All of the above e of the above A (4f te retention for any Class V restoration 1s placed 452 J &. in mesial and distal areas B. in occlusal and gingival areas 4c, at the expense of the axial wall D, in all except the axial walls E, in all except al and distal areas 2 5{ In porcelain-fused-to-metal restorations, the Nos? com- * monly used alloys have a base of 4, tin B, gold ©, nickel D, silver E, platinum F, palladiun 6, A patient complains of sensitivity in a mandibular pre- 6. A well-condensed Class V amalgam restoration was in thet tooth five months previously, with no discomfort for the first four months. Since then, it has become increasingly sensit. The problem probably rela to A. marginal leakage B, fractured restoration ~€. irreversible pulpal damage D. toothbrush abrasion E. none of the above Z 7, A cavity prepared for 2 powdered gold restoration on the 7 proximal surface of an anterior tooth alwa A. includes the contact area B. extends beneath the crest of the gingival tissue . contains a 2-planed lingual wall and a 2-planed facial wall D. ends in the facial embrasure to facilitate finishing / and maintenance of the margins /E. has enamel walls which meet the surface of the tooth by following the general direction of the enamel rodsPeriodontal surgery has exposed 3 mm of the cemental / root surface. Pre-existing coronal Class V restora ions which formerly extended to the cervical line must now be replacedbecause of recurrent carie The design for this replacement requires that the 4. gingival margin be extended to the new location of the gingival sulcus “8. gingival margin be extended to sound tooth structure C. cervical line be placed in the restoration as it originally appeared on this surface of the tooth D. surface of the restoration be over-contoured to pro- tect the newly positioned gingival attachment E. None of the above 9. A reason for replacing silicate ¢ resin restorations in the distal canines is that the restorations A. discolor and are not esthetic B. will not maintain the mesiodistal dimen: tooth and unfilled aces of maxillary on of the be placed to establish contact be properly finished in this area and, thus, suse gingival irritation E. can be placed to establish contact 10f A patient has a toothache. Radiographs show a deep 4 “ carious lesion. There is no detectable pulpal exposure upon excavation of decay The BEsr treatment at this time is A. direct pulp cap B. root canal therapy C. a pemanent restoration after placing a suitable base of a zinc phosphate cement temporary restort B. placement of two coats of cavity varnish and an analg restoration nical separators used in Class III di sold procedures should routinely be stabilized to I. Minimize trauma to the gingival tissues Ir. Afford opportunity for greater amount of separation HII. Provide more rigid resistance to the forces of cone densation - Provide uniform sup The correcr answer ie 11 filling ort during instrumentation 4. 1, IL Bit, ry Cr Tate M. 1, IIL, Iv It, Iv F. All of the aba 12. During restorative procedures in posterior teeth, con- I sideration must be given to the gingival « gingival tissue in a teenager I. Fills the gingival ombra TI. Is pyramidal when viewed in a facilolingual cross etion III, Is "col" shaped (facial and lingual peaks of tissue) when viewed in a faciolingual cross section Fills a space smaller than the occlusal embrasure The correct answer is: A. I only B. I, II, Iv c. D. I, III, Iv III only brasure, The‘The thermal insulating capacity of a cement base is 13 principally related to I. Thickness of the base place II. Density of the base placed II1. Thermal conductivity of the set base IV. Coefficient of thermal expansion of the set base PV. Ponder/liquid ratio of the cement mix The corREC? answer is: A. 1, Tt, 101 B. I, II, 1V ce. 1, 111, ¥ D. It, TI, IV B. Tt, 10, Vv b 14, one of the claims for the superiority of composite resin 14, % restorations over silicate cement restorations is that the resin restorations A. prevent galvanic action /S. are practically insoluble in oral fluids C. adapt to the walls of the cavity better D. have a higher coefficient of thermal expansion fl ite galvanic action 15, Untreated dental caries may cause 1s A. pain B. gingivitis ; dietary deficiency ): occlusal interferences VB. all of the above F. only A and D above D 16. Cohesion of direct filling gold at room teperature is 16.» an example of the principle of A, wedging B. annealing C. adaptab: atomic attraction E. differentiation € 17/4 14-year-old patient has a proximal cavity on a pos- 17 V terior tooth. There are no missing tee Oral hygiene and tooth relationship are excollent The cavity preparation can be limited to the involved proximal surface if A. x-ray examination of the proximal area of the af- fected tooth reveals that the carious process has not reached the dentincenamel junction | B, the facial and lingual cavosuriace margins of the \ cavity preparation can be extended to self-cleansing areas C. the carious lesion does not undermine the enamel at the marginal ridge Di the carious lesion does not involve the contact area B, None of the above (B) tand-cutting instruments classified as angle-formers 18 \Y are used xosr frequently in a(n) A. Class IIT cavity prepared for 4 composite resin restoration B, MO cavity in a molar prepared for an inlay €. Class III cavity prepared for direct filling gold D, Class II cavity prepared for amalgam BE. Class I cavity prepared for amalgan 19, The high copper amalgam dispersion-type alloys are characterized by: I. Low creep 11, Little or no gamma phase present in set amalgam | III, Little or no ganma-2 phase present in set amalgam IV. Less marginal breakdownThe correc answer is A. I, 1 f, xrt @. 1, ut, 1 D. Ii, Iv I, II, rt1, 1y 29: A clinieal amalgam restoration which contains 57 percent mercury would be likely to exhibit: I. Marginal breakdown or marginal fracture Il, Gross delayed expansion III. No unusual behavior TV, Surface deterioration The correcr answer is A. T only B. 1, 11, Iv rE, 21 D. I, Iv E I only 2) Agents used to polish an amalgam restoration should be ¥ moistened to reduc I. Production of heat Scarring of the restoration Cutting action of the abrasive The effects of dehydration Y. The potential for widening the interface between the restoration and the tooth The corr. swer is AT only B, I, II I, III D. I, IV E. If, 111, v II, Iv G. Ail of the above 22. The solubility of zinc phosphate cement is markedly influenced by I, Powder/liquid ratio 11. Diet and oral flora of the patient III. Brand of the material IV. Age of the patient The correct answer is HT, 30 HY a Ci Ty, TIT D. It, IIT E. All bove | The dangers of tho uso of air as ‘a coolant vhile cutting J with ultra high-speed are that ‘it ‘mas: I. Allow the cutting to proceed tee quickly II. Cool the pulp below the danger coset HIt, Dehydrate the tooth {SEY! Couge the tecth oe ne hypersensitive V. Draw the odontoblasts into the dentinal tubu The corecr answer is At nv B. £1, 111 ©, 41, Iv, v D. Tir, Iv, v E. IV, v P. All ofthe aba @4) Separation of the teeth prior to cavity Preparation is “ 4tendod to be a permanent change in the reietion of Sdjacent proximal surfaces in the case of v1 Replacing a partially dissolved silicate cement filling Which is still in contact with the adjacent tooth TI. Accese for a direct filling gold restoration toc an incipient carious lesion {ty Direct wax-up procedures for Class II inlays “TV. Mesial drift of the tooth to be treated, aoa re- sult of the longstanding proximal carious lesion‘The connect answer is: 4 A. 1, 11 B, I, IIL, ZC, ZIV D. I, 111 E. All of the above 25. When working with a chairside dental assistant, whi of the following adjuncts to dental therapy could mos readily be eliminated? The mouth mirror, because direct vision can always be used . The rubber dan, because oral evacuation is a standard procedure with’a dental assistant The cuspidor, because the need to rinse is not so great The bite block, because the dental assistant is sponsible for keeping the patient's mouth open ‘The correcr answer is: a, I, IIT B, IL, III, IV C. ILL ony D, All of the above E, None of the above KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) e D D eG) A B BTEST 2 DIRECTIONS Each question or incomplete statement followed by several d gested answers or completions. Select the one that DzsT answers fs the statement. PRINT THE LETTER OF THE COM SPACE AT THE RIGHT Dental caries incidence may be expect: patient I. Increases in-between-meal eating II. Becomes pregnant IIL. Moves from Massachusetts to Texas IV. Begins eating foney daily Has a removable partial denture placed VI. Gets married The correct answer is a. 1, It B. I, If, IIT @. "Ly TY, ¥, D. I, IV, vr If onty F. If, ,G. All of the above 2/Proper facial and lingual cavity ext V amalgam restoration are determined by: T. Occlusion II. Areas of immunity III, Extent of caries IV. Tooth position in the arch V. Accessibility of the margins for finishing The cores? answer is Re i Bi. fy BE, 201 C. I, If, 111, 1 4.1) 11, wv, v8. tf, tit, Iv, ¥ PF. rf1, Iv, v G. All of the’ above 3. A large carious lesion on the distal surface of a maxil- lary central incisor involving the incisal angle is a nsions for an NOD 2, I, Class I lesion II. Class II lesion II. Class III lesion IV. Pit and fissure lesion W. Smooth surface lesion ee B fyraa Be eee eee eee tant feet geectLL aa Gee ca) vesekrtmei | , Fisteminetion’of pationt's aotivation for centel care A casting is maintained in position on the tooth during peared eeteetbed 1h porte ay a8 aera sharp cavosurface angles se TS er sheer wana Be II or v c. ror v “A.V only s initial visit, the ority considera~sug— s the pRRECT. 6. A patient returned to the office one week after a tooth fep*festored and complained of an intermittent, vague pain in the same quadrant. The thermal reaction test Produced a quick, sharp contraction pain which passed Ryay immediately. The electric pulp test produced more response than normal. The condition described probably is VA. hyperenia B. acute pulpitis C., chronic pulpitis D. chronic inflanmation E/ acute inflammation nhe'nost effective moans of providing maxinum protec- fier against caries activity for a great number of people ig through plaque control prograns Behool Gental health prograns | meticulous toothbrushing and flos: * topical application of a solution of fluoride #, fluoridation of the community's drinking water ¥, a community program using pit and fissure seala An incipient carious lesion on an interproximal surfs is usually located ‘A. at the contact area B. facial to the contact area €! lingual to the contact area HS, gingival to the contact area E, occlusal to the contact area . When considering the acid etch composite resin technique, Meehing of the enamel with acid enhances reteation by {. Creating a chemical bond between tooth and restora- tive material IT. Allowing & mechanical bond between tooth and restora~ tive material ITI, Cleansing the surface of debris The correc? answer is: ‘A. only B. I, IIL C. 11 only A, U1, III E. None of the above Acid etching procedures with a resin system help in “f. Retaining the resin II, Improving the color matching TIT, Preventing thermal exchange VIV; Preventing microleakage \W. Providing a clean enamel surface for the resin ‘The correct answer is Beds tL, x23 B. I, ILI, ¥ , D. I, W, V E. Ail of the above Resistance to proximal displacement in the ideal Class II restoration is provided by ‘The adjacent tooth Occlusal dovetail IIE. Converging proximal walls “Av. Retention grooves in the proximoaxial line angles The corrscz answer is: ALT, 11, TIL . 0, 1, 1v arr >. ui, 1ir ea, rit, Iv I, Iv, v 9.An amalgam restoration was placed in a pre-molar. The If preparation contained large, deep, retentive undercu in the dentinal line angles.’ About one month after sertion of this restoration, the patient experienced definite pain in the region of this tooth The most probable cause of this pain is A. undetected pulp exposure B. excessive delayed expansion of the amalgam C. moisture contamination of the amalgam only after condensation D. moisture contamination of the amalgam after condensation the fact that, although the amalgam was overtriturated, an insufficient amount of mercury was expressed from if during condensation sre and /The outline form of a eavity preparation is the 13 vA. shape or form of the preparation after carious dentin has been excavated B, shape or form the preparation assumes after the re tention form has been completed VE. shape or form of the preparation of the surface of the t00gh D. first step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after the carious dentin has been removed E, next step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after the resistance form has been established 14. The rirst procedure in fitting a gold inlay casting to 1 a tooth is to A. adjust the occlusion B, adjust the contact areas cc. accessible margins D. seat the casting with mallet force E. None of the above 13. A 39-year-old patient has 32 unrestored teeth. The only 15, \/' defects are deep-stained grooves in the posterior teeth er catches in the grooves, but there is no evidence of softness, The treatment of choice is A. application of a topical fluoride compound B. cyanoacrylate pit and fissure sealant C, BIS-GMA pit and fissure sealant D. conservative Class I amalgam E, prophylactic odontotomy yf. no treatment 16./The setting time of polysulfide rubber impression 16) J material is accelerated by A. a slow addition and mixing of the accelerator paste J. increasing the amount of base material used C. raising both temperature and humidity D, adding several drops of oleic acid E. decreasing the amount of base material used 17. Treatment including excavating a deep, carious lesion WI in a sensitive tooth, leaving a small’ amount of decayed dentin in the deepest area, and restoring the tooth temporarily with zinc oxide-cugenol is called y&. indirect pulp capping B. direct pulp cappingC, sub-base treatment somi-permanent treatment BE. permanent treatment Assuming that community water fluoridation is not available, the sos effective means of decreasing enries for a specific 5-year-old child is, probably A, topical applications of 1.23% acidulated phosphate fluoride twice a year B. topical applications of 8% stannous fluoride twice year Uf daily use of a fIuoride-containing toothpaste sodiun fluoride tablets, 2.2 mg daily BE. weekly use of a fluoride-containing toothpaste An MO amalgam restoration is more resistant to fracture pins are placed in the dentin of the cavity preparation an occlusal dovetail is present the unsupported enamel at the gingivo-cavosurtace margin is planed the axio-pulpal line angle is beveled the axio-pulpal line angle is reduced . Dental plaque is believed to adhere to the teeth because 20. A. levans are gunmy vB. dextrans are insoluble and sticky ©. it grows into surface irregularities D. the bacteria secrete a lipoprotein cementing sub- stance E, None of the above After inlay cavity preparation, which of the following would be "ost appropriate to expose margins for a elastic impression? I. Surgical intervention II. Packing with cord impregnated with alum or epinephrine III, Packing with cord impregnated with zinc chloride IV. Packing with zinc oxide-eugenol The correcr answer is 4. 1, IT B. I, ITI @. Tt, (rrr D. tt, tv ot E. [I1, Iv 22{ In which of the following ways 1s the cast-gold inlay superior to an amalgam restoration? I, Botter adaptation to cavity walls II. Lower thermal conductivity vIII, Better capacity to withstand masticatory forces WAV. More accurate positioning of contact area The corkecr answer is: A. 1, IIL B. I, IV c. rr, Iv E A. 1, Iv All of the above23. which of the following statements relating to instru- ments for local anesthesia is(are) CORRECT? I. The anesthetic syringe is designed to srpport solution from commercially prepared glass carpules. Il. Two differeat cartridge-type syringes are available for local anesthesia. These the harpoon and the thumb-ring. III. Anesthetic needle: and 1 7/8 inch and are fastened to the syringe by ‘“Thremicd-metal-huds of two lengths. IV. Differences in needle length make anesthetic needles suitable for injections in different parts of the mouth V¥. Disposable needles are always sterile, always sharp and less likely to break than other needles ‘The CORRECT answer is © supplied in lengths of 1 inch VIII | Dy TELTIEIY following statements relating to root ele~ 2% ) CORRECT t elevators are instrumen’ r remove roots, root fr or teeth, with forceps signs are available suit different teeth, techniques, and locations in the mouth. III, The Stout A Elevator has a nib which is flat on one side-and rounded on the other, The nib has straight apering walls and a rounded end The Strai Elevator No.34S is straight and shaped a : cross-section, its nib is crescent- shaped and one of the most commonly used elevators Y. Straight Elevator No.301 is similar in shape but smaller than No.348. The CORRECT answer -is A. I only B. V omty C. 1,1I,1I¥ D. I,II,III,1V I, TIL, 1V,¥ s designed to loosen Iv Which of the following statments rela (are) CORRECT? I. Curettes are instruments designed to remove extraneot material from tooth sockets and other spaces in the lveolar bone Their nibs are spoon-shaped and their shanks are angi to reach different areas of the mouth II, Standard curettes include Molt curettes 1,2,4,5L,6R, 9L, and 10R. = IY. Rongeur forceps are cutting instruments designed to cut and contour bone, Springs located between their handles separate their beaks when closing pressure is not being applied V. Rongeur No.1A is both a side- and end-cutting instru ment; Rongeur No.4A is a side-cutting instrument, The CORRECT answer is A. I only B. I,1I E. 1,11,111,1V,V ing to curettes is Ir 1,11, 111 - I,11,111,1VKEY (CORRECT ANSWERS)18 OPERATIVE DENTISTRY EXAMINATION SECTION TEST 1 DIRECTIONS: Each question or incomplete statement is followed by several suggested answers or completions. Select the one that BES the question or completes the tatoment. R OF THE CORREC: y The INITIAL acidity of a zinc phosphate cement restoration may elicit a traumatic pulpal response if T. only a thin layer of dentin is left between the cement and the pulp Nur. a very thin mix of cement is used III, the tooth has already had traumatic injury IV. no cavity v s used ‘The CORRECT answer is: A. 1, TIL, IV B. I, IV C. If o ). Any of the above estorative mater cceptable for use in the distal of anines include: ‘Gold foil Composite resin Silicate or acrylic resin + Gold casting DRRECT answer i Z, 1, tit Li, D. 111, V All ‘The dangers- of the use of air as a coolant while cutting with ultra high speed are that it may T. allow the cutting to proceed too quickly i the pulp below the danger point rate the tooth {cause the tooth to be hypersensitive ¥. draw the odontoblasts into the dentinal tubules The CORRECT answer A. I, IIT, V tag Hr Iv ¥ A. tit, W, Vv Iv, V : of the above (2 The gingival margins of a gold inlay prepar are generally beveled because this T. protects the margin II. helps to seal the cavity Ill, allows for a better impres IV, facilitates finishingThe CORRECT answer i ALU, 11, HI I, III, IV Cc. I onty 1, 111, 1V E, II on All of the above 5. The outline form of a cavity preparation is the A. shape form of the preparation after carious dentin has been excavated B. shape or form the preparation assumes after the retention form has been completed ~C. shape or form of the preparation on the surface of the tooth D. first step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after carious dentin has been removed hext step to be accomplished in cavity preparation after the resistance form has been established 6. Chemicomechanical loss of tooth tissue is termed A. erosion B, abrasion C. attrition D. decalcification E. deminoralization 7. Elastic impression materials, such as reversible hydro- Golloid or rubber base, require proper soft tissue manage- ment. Effective tissue displacement can be accomplished by A. the firmess of the tray mater. terial into the gingival sulcus is into the B, injection of the m 2. placement of chemical-~impregnated cor gingival sulcus D. electrosurgical means 8. A patient has a hypersensitive tooth. Examination réveals shack, Wously leaking gutta-percha temporary restoratjon which, when removed, discloses a good cavity preparation of average depth with no carious debris and no pulpal exposure. Suspecting a possible hyperemic pulp, a dentist should place an anodyne dressing of ‘A. zine oxide-eugenol 8. zinc oxide-eugenol preceded by varnish . calcium hydroxide lining followed by zinc phosphate cement D. another gutta-percha temporary filling which seals the cavity In a Class V cavity prepared for direct filling gold on mandibular canine, retention form is correctly esta blished by undercutting with a 334 inverted cone but in all Point angles at the expense of the axial wall B. accentuating the inciscaxial and gingivonxial line angles undercutting the distoaxial and mesioaxial line angles + the use of a monangle hoe on the axial wall13, 3 cH) The transmissibility, direct or indirect, of dental 10, has been demonstrated to occur from = I. human to human II, animals to animals III. humans to animals Iv. humans V. bacteria to bacteri The CORRECT answer is: 11, 111 lil, 1 li of the above above The properties which are of GREATEST concern in luting 11. agents are T. abrasion resistance II, strength HI. solubility IV. film thickness V. thermal conductivity ‘The CORRECT ANSWER IS: A. 1,V 8, II,III C, I1,11,IV D. a Topical fluoride applications of 1-23 percent acidulated phosphate fluoride two tines per year may reduce dental earies in children I, to the same degree as community water fluoridation II, to the same degree as 1 mg of fluoride per day as a dietary supplement TII. less than community water fluoridation IV. less than 1 mg of fluoride per day as a dietary supplement V. more than community water fluoridation VI. more than 1 mg of fluoride per day as a dietary supplement The CORRECT answer is: A. 1,11 B. I,IV I, VL D, IL,IET BE. 1tjv 9 P, ItI,1v I i1,vl oH. IV,¥ An 11 year-old girl fractures the mesio-incisal angle of a central incisor. There is superficial dentinal involvement, but no pulpal involvement and only slight temperature sensitivity. The treatment of choice would be to A. splint central incisor to adjacent teeth \B. etch the incisal angle and restore it wi C: smooth the rough edges of the fracture only D. begin root canal therapy E. place ZOE in a celluloid crown form resin The permanent teeth which exhibit the HIGHEST incidence 14.__| of dental carious involvement are the /&. maxillary first mola B, maxillary second premolars C. mandibular central incisors D. mandibular second premolars141) 15. For an endodontically treated posterior tooth, the gold onlay is generally the restoration of choice becau A. it makes a much more esthetic restoration B. there is less likelihood of recurrence of caries C. the inere access permits better marginal adaptatioi D. retention of the restoration is increasec %. maximum protection is afforded to the weakened wal of the tooth 16/ When deep caries has been exc SP close tortne pulp, it is eceptablo to A. coat the entire area with cavity varnish and then place a liner of calcium hydroxide followed by a ne phosphate ba, » +B, place a liner of calcium hydroxide followed by a coating of cavity varnish over the entire cavity followed by a zine phosphate base "ea C. place a liner of calcium hydroxide followed by a Coat of cavity varnish followed by a liner of calcium hydroxide and phosphate cement D. coat the deep excavation with prednisolone followed by a coat of cavity varnish followed by a liner of calcium hydroxide and phosphate cement + place a base of phosphate cement followed by the restoration vated and the cavity is 7. The optimal amount of flu ride for public drinking water of most communities is ppm. AL 0.7 B. 0.8 1.0 D. a) 8/ Preparations of Class I cavities for the reception of VY amalgam, direct filling gold and the gold inlay have in A. divergence of the buccal and lingual walls occlu- sally B. divergence of the mesial and distal walls occlusally C. convergence of the buccal and lingual walls occlu sally D, undercutting the mesia and distal walls 19. In the restoration of the proximal surfaces of posterior eeth, periodontal involvement is MOST likely to develop when there is A. insufficient contact B. a flat marginal ridge failure to polish the proximal surface overextension faciolingually of the cavity E. underextension cervically of the gingival wall20. A FREQUENT cause of interdental papillae protruding from beneath the rubber dam is A. edematous gingival tissues ; holes praced too far apart using lightweight dam holes placed too close together not using individual ligation of each tooth I jear-ots tense parsons nea a1 Saciotent Clo Be sre eae Se A. Amalgam B. Cast gold ae eye, 22. An accurate dental diagnosis can be made without the use of dental radiographs in which of the following circum- stances? ‘A. All posterior teeth are missing ‘The patient is pregnant Only deciduous teeth are present 411 posterior proximal surfaces have previously been restored . Any of the above None of the above GY rows tne of ech the fottving wt render 24. The functionally generated occlusal registration in the indirect gold inlay technique is which of the following? A, Centric relation B. Vertical dimension C, Anatohic registration BW Static registration of dynamic occlusion 25/ Which material has bad fluorides incorporated into it by J the use of a fluoride flux in its manufacture? cement. KZine silicophosphate B, Zinc phosphate €. Polycarboxylate D. BIS-GMA E, EBA-alumina KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) 16 ip 18. 19 20.DIR TEST 2 ‘TIONS: Each question or incomplete statement is followed etions. Select wers the question or completes # seve uggested answers or com BEST statement. Hyperemia is a © of pulp involvement characterized ically by dilatation of blood vessels tooth has a hyperemic pulp, which of the following of short duration may occu Tooth may respond at low levels to an electrical pulp test. III, Radiographs do not aid di ly in diagnosis IV. The condition is aggravated by cold water V. The condition is reversible. lecreased current) The CORRECT answer ist A. I, II, Tl B. I, Il, IV CG. Il, 110, WF D. III, Iv, V E. All of the above Which of the following factors must be considered during treatment planning? I. Plaque control II, Age of the patient Ill. Caries susceptibility IV. Occlusion VY. Fluoridation of the water supply VI. Economic status of the patient The CORRECT answer is A. I, II, 111 B. I, III, IV C. II, ir, Iv D. III, 1¥, V E. II, V, VE F. All of the above of a transilluminator is helpful in the detection of I. anterior proximal caries II. occlusal caries III. fracture lines in anteriors “IV. lary sinusitis V. alveolar bone loss The CORRECT answer is: A only B, I, II2) _/ Composite resins have an advantage over convents nal yf acrylic resin restoratives in 1. lower polymerization shrinkage II. bonding with ena HI, lower coefficient of thermal expansion FIV. lower solubility in oral fluids Wi greater strength The CORRECT answer i ” A. I, I B. D. 1, Tits ¥ II, III, IV All of the above 5. A porcelain jacket crown is CONTRAINDICATED when [| "Ti esthetics is essential strength is needed patient is very young : Bly incisal angle involving enamel is missing V. reproduction of anatomic form is desi ¢ CORRECT answer isi ‘Ket, Th, TEL ‘ c, 1, Ir iit, Iv, ¥ I, II, 1V I ily E. II, IV, V {ALL of the above § When pins are included in an amalgam restoration, there is an increase in ly. retention II. Compressive strength Ill, Tensile strength ‘The CORRECT an ist A. 1 only 1, 1 G. 2, aIr D. All of the above 7. Strength properties of zinc oxide-eugenol cements for permanent cementation are upgraded by which of the following agents? 1. Feldspar Sf. Polymers Wt! Ortho-ethoxybenzoic acid IV. Zine acetate ‘The CORRECT answer is: ; ras ies B TIL II, IT D. 41, IV E, s A porcelain fused to metal crown which has had the topetiain fractured off at the porcelain to metal, inter- porceney have had what technical or clinical problems? go ney pa’ to the crown in the mouth with no laboratory error Ar. Dogaseing metal at a temperature which was too 208 Paine coaque coat of porcelain at too low temperature or for too short time Fusing metal conditioning agent at too low temperatu or too short timeB. I, II D. Ii, TI F. All of the abov avity varnish functions in which of the following #9 in the amalgam restoration? A. Improves margin seal II. Prevents discoloration o tin Ill, Provides thermal protection IV. Has a direct medicinal benefit on pulp tissue The CORRECT answer is A. I, 1 B. 1, 11, ITI c. 41, 11,9 D, IL, 11, IV All of the above Dental caries incidence ma a given patient if 1. in-between-meal eating increases Il, patient becomes pregnant III. child moves from an eastern state to a southern expected t state IY. patient begins eating honey daily V. patient has a removable partial denture placed VI. patient get married CORRECT answer is: s Ty de B, I, II, III GI, th. 1 D1, 1V, ¥ Ey. 1, 1%) Vi F. All of the above A tooth with a deep carious lesion and suspected pulpal exposure is asymptomatic and tests vital. The treatment for a teenager would be to I, remove all carious dentin, pulp cap ex it is not too large II, removal all carious dentin, do vital pulpectomy of pulpotomy with appropriate canal and chamber fi1lq low some carious dentin to remain over the pot exposure area, protect the pulp IV. immediately place amalgam as the permanent restorif tion place a strong temporary, allowing a minimum of 1g weeks prior to complete carious dentin removal d area Pi The CORRECT answer i A. I, IV B. Il, IV G, iT1Ty, IV D. 111, V E. Any of thb above are acceptable treatment The pulp has several defense mechanist from irritation, These include: I, Sclerotic dentin II, Interglobular dentit III, Reparative dentin i Vascularity to protect itThe CORRECT ANSWER IS: A. I,11, ILI C, 1,111, Iv E, All of the above Which of the following factors would tend to favor t adhesion of restorative materials to a tooth surface? I. Restorative material with a high capacity for water sorption II, Little difference in the coefficient of thermal expansion between the tooth and restorative material III. A clean tooth surface IV. Tooth readily wetted by restorative mat ‘The CORRECT answer A. I only I, 10 t, Det, IT, iV Ii, WI, Vv Placing cords in the gingival sulcus and removing them prior to making impressions for cast gold restorations should accomplish which of the following? I, Gingival margins of cavity preparations should be yisible II. The gingival tissues should be slightly away the cavity margins to allow a bulk of material to flow into the gingival crevi Til, Blanching of the tissue IV. Control of bleeding from the crevice V. Desiccation of gingival tissue The CORRECT answer is eet, 11 B, I, I, 1It ul, Kets: 11, IV) ¥ E, All of the above What effect does contamination by moisture during mixing or condensation have on amalgam containin “f, A marked expansion Il. A sharp decrease in flow III. Acceleration of the setting reactions IV. No appreciable effect on the physical properti except susceptibility to tarnish v¥, Loss of compressive strength The CORRECT answer is: A. I onty Be met, ¥ De z Powdered gold offers the advantage of reduced chair time for placement over gold foil. This can be attributed to its GREATER A, pellet size malleability . cohesiveness per unit volumeBasically, the faciolingual plane of the axial CJass II cavity preparation should be ‘“. parallel to the dentino-e junction B. placed at the dentino-ena C. straigh D. concave Yatious techniques of pin placement are used with amalgam ports suggest the optimal length of a pin into the is generally recognized that OPTINUM retent on of a f-threading pin in dentin is about mn 1 B, 2 Ce 18 1 cases of deep penetration maxillary posterior teeth, pulp diagnosed radiographically by using a(n) A. occlusal exposure B. panoramic exposure C, wet reading of a bite-wing film ong cone bite-wing exposure E. long cone periapical exposure F. short cone bite-wing exposure G. short cone periapical exposure Th a Class II cavity prepared for amalgam and Lingual proximal walls should be form imately parallel to each other , at right angles to the gingival flooz Slightly diverging as the walls approdch the Proximal slightly diverging surface Shrinkage porosity in dental gold alloy castings associated with the A. sprue diametei B. use of too mich flux C, inadequate casting pressur D. oxidation of alloy during melting Which of the following statements are CORRECT? 1. The restorative section is :the element of a dental service in which decayed, fractured, or unsightly portions of teeth are rebuilt, repaired, or reformed by artificial materials in the form of restorations or crowns In some clinics the restorative section is divided into two services: operative, in which restorations re placed, and fixed prosthodontic, in which crowng and fixed partial dentures fabricated, fitted, and cemented into place. Endodontic treatment, or the treatment of dental Pulps and the filling of root canals is sometimes Performed in the restorative or operative sectionRestorations are artificial replacements for missing portions of teeth. ‘They are retained in place within the confines of tooth structures prepared to receive them. The ideal restoration is one which restores the funetion and normal contours of the tooth; restores normal contact with adjacent teeth; protects the pulp, remaining tooth Structure, and any adjacent periodontal tissues; withstands forces tending to fracture, wear, erode, or dislodge ity and presents an esthetic appearance. ‘Tae CORRECT answer is Wel, 1, IIT, Iv, V,VI feats 11, IV, V, VI Bot, 11, I1t, vr 93,/ Wnich of the following statements are CORRECT? I. A permanent restoration is one which is intended to last for a prolonged period. II. It is made of a type of restorative material having properties which make it relatively durable and resistant to mechanical forces and chemical activity found in the mouth. Ty, Comonty used persanent, restorative materials are silver amalgam, gold alloys (for inlays and crowns), gold foil, silicate cement, and acrylic resin IV. A temporary restoration is one which is intended to protect a tooth between dental appointments or until more definitive and lasting treatment can be performed. V Materials used for temporary restorations include the ! various dental cements, gutta-percha (temporary stopping), and soft metallic or celluloid preformed crowns temporarily cemented into place. The most common temporary restorative material is zine oxide and eugenol cement. Zine phosphate cement and intermediate restorative material are commonly used for temporary restora~ tions, ren The CORRECT answer ist A 1, TIT, IV, Vy VI, VII Wt) Tit, IV,¥, VI git, Ib, 111, IV, Vv DB. 1, MW, 11, IV B. I, iI, ¥, VII ¥, II, Iv, Vi Which of the following statements are CORREC’ I. An inlay is a restoration,usually made of gold alloy, which is cemented into place in a prepared area in a tooth. Steps in the fabrication of an inlay begin with the making of a wax pattera of the prepared arcaw “V. & veneer crown is a full metallic crown with a por- AVI. Steps in the fabrication of the various crowns are The CORRECT answer is: III. The wax pattern is used to form a mold into which melted gold alloy is cast IV. The wax pattern is thus dupli. the prepared area. ed in gold to fit he CORRECT answer A. I, II B. IL, IV 0; It, av D..E, Ef), ELI E. 1, 0, ri, 1v hich of the following statements are CORRECT? I, An artificial crown is a replacement for enamel and other layers of the natural crown of a tooth. II, Crowns are commonly made of metal alloys, acrylic resin, or porcelain Il, They are classified according to the type of materi used in their construction and the number of tooth surfaces which they cover. For example, a three- quarter crown gold alloy is a crown madé of gold all replacing three of the axial surfaces of the natur tooth crown IV. A full porcelain crown (or porcelain jacket) 1s ong made of porcelain replacing all the surfaces of the j. erown of a tooth. celain or acrylic resin veneer on the facial surfad generally the opposite of those for the inlay. A. I, II, V B. II, 1V, VI &. % If, 111) IV, ¥. D. I, Ii, III, IV, VI E. 1, 11, If, 1V, Y, VI KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) 1. EB ll. D 2.7 13. ¢ 8. ¢ 13, E a. B 14.C 5. D 15..¢ 6.4 16, D 75, 6 17. A 8. E 18. 8 oA 19. E 10. D 20. Cc A ry A E tPHARMACOLOGY EXAMINATION SECTION TEST 1 DIRECTIONS: Each question or incomplete statement is oved by several suggested answers or completions. leet the one that BEST answers the question or com statement ER OF THE CORREC CE AT THE Ri 1J Which of the following statements regarding the occupation theory of drug-receptor interaction are TRUE I. The affinity of a drug is dependent on its inherent intrinsic activity The maximum effect of the drug occurs when all receptors are occupied An antagonist has affinity for the receptor but less intrinsic activity than an agonist. . The effect of the drug is proportional to the number of receptors occupied. It does not follow the law of mass action. ‘The CORRECT answer is: ier, Yi, t2t B. II, IIL, \D. 11, IV E. 11, IIT Which of the following contribute to the analgesic effects of morphine? I, Sedation II. Euphoria III, Impairment of nerve conduc IV. Altered threshold of nerve endings ¥. Elevation of nerve thresholds within the CNS ‘The CORRECT answer is: A. I, Il, 11 B. I, II, V DM, IV, V E. 11, Iv, v 3, Thich of the following statements regarding a schedule 11 tion are TRUE? Cannot be prescribed by tele! Must contain both the generic ri a the drug In addition to federal statutes, individual states may have additional requirements Cannot be refilled even with the consent of the preseriber V. Only valid when accompanied by a narcotic registry she! er number eben A, oleh Dolla YE Aranda dened May The CORRECT answer a.%, 01, UI B. II, III, 1V D. I, 11, Ill, 1V E. I, Ill, Iv, VWhich of the following compoun¢ abolizinr to form acetaminophen is an ACTIVE analgesic and antipvretic agent? A, Propoxyphene (Darvone) 8. Phenacetin C. Aminopyrine + Phenylbutazone E. Acetylsalicylic acid Which of the following statements regarding drugs are TRUE? I. Drugs usually have more than one generic name. Prescribing a drug by its generic name allows th pharmacist to dispense any brand name preparation Brand name preparations are usually more expensive han the comparable generic aration. All narcotics by law must be prescribed by their brand names. The CORRECT answer is: A. I, II I, 111, Which of the following statements concerning ethyl is TRUE It produces a true stimulation of the central nervous system protects individuals against exposure to cold by preventing heat loss is metabolized primarily by the lungs is partially absorbed in the stomach possesses teratogenic properties A 18-year-old, well-developed, well-nourished young man reports to a dental office for the extraction of a tooth. Normal body temperature and a number of scars on the tongue are noted. Shortly after making an injection of 2 percent Carbocaines, with levonordefrin (Neo-Cobefrins) 1:20,000, using an aspirating syringe through which no blood was withdrawn, the pationt has a convulsion These facts are CONSISTENT with a diagnosis of A. benign syncopy 3. epileptic seizure . febrile convulsion 5. toxic overdose of the anesthetic Prolonged and continued use of which of the following antibiotics will MOST likely result in damace to the VIII cranial nerve? A, Streptomycin B. Aureomycin Penicillin D. Tetracyno side-effect unique with erythromycin estolate (Il A. hypersensitivity response involving the Liver B, staphylococcal enteritis C. bone marrow depression D, cranial nerve damage E, renal damageThe active metabolite of the biotransformation of phenacetin A. aniline B. gentisic acid C. salicylic acid D. acetaminophen E, phenylacetylurea The MOST probable cause for a serious toxic reaction to a local anesthetic is A. psychogenic B. deterioration of the anesthetic agent Cl hypersensitivity to the vasoconstrictor D. hypersensitivity to the local anesthetic E, excessive blood level of the local anesthetic The PRIMARY effect produced by digitalis at theraneutic dose levels is to slow the cardiac rate increase the force of myocardial contraction decrease the venous pressure decrease cardiac enlargement The ONLY local anesthetic which increases the pressor activity of both epinephrine and norepinephrine is A. cocaine B. procaine C. dibucaine D, lidocaine E. mepivacaine Alkalization of tubular urine slows the rate of excretion “AL water B. chlorides C. weak acids weak bases Local anesthetic agents act PRIMARILY A, at a cortical level to decrease the patient's aware~ ness of pain impulses at the myoneural junction to decrease frequency of pain impulses reaching the CNS on the axon membrane to prevent depolarizing voten- tials at ganglionic sites to decrease central pain input none of the above Atropine is DESIRABLE for preanesthetic medication because it prevents vomiting obtunds the cough reflex reduces glandular secretion in the airway creases secretions of the gastrointestinal tract decreases the physiologic dead space of the airway Yhich of tho following would be the drug of choice for the rapid relief of suspected coronary vasoconstriction (spasm) characterized by sharp chest pain, shortness breath, and a story of previous attacks? A. Morphine B. Digitalis ©. Quinidine DL Nitroglycerin F, Pontodarbital sodium/ 8 / A patient receiving propranolol has an acute asthmatie attack while undergoing dental treatment. The MOST useful agent for management of the condition would be A. morphine B. eninephrine C. phentolang D. aminophylline norepinephrine For which of the following conditions would steroids be N used? A. Diabetes B. Acromegaly C. Tuberculosis D. Collagen diseases Iron will be absorbed from the duodenum when pH in the stomach is high the metal is in the ferrous form high concentrations of phosphate are present in the diet the level of ferritin in the mucosal cells is high ‘E. oxidizing agents are present in the duodenum 21 Action of the sympathetic nervous system may be blocked J by which of the following types of agents? A. Ganglionic block agents only B. Curariform agents on] €. Adrenergic block agents only D, Both ganglionic and adrenergic blockine agents An excess of which of the following hormones may be associated with increased sensitivity to epinenhrine? A. Testosterone B. Parathyroid C. Insulin D. Thyroid 23. Which of the followine would LIKELY appear with atropingl overdosage? A, Dryness of mouth and throat B, Pallor of face and neck C. Constricted pupils D. None of the above Which is NOT an estrogenic substance? A. Premarin B, Theelin C. Estradiol D. Stilbesterol ‘ E. Follicle-stimulating hormones 25. Which of following statements describes in part the cardiovascular effects of a pressor dose of epinephrine? A. An inerease in blood pressure is followed by a decrease, i.e., a bivhasic pressure response. B. Total peripheral resistance is never decreased. C. The myocardiun is stimulated by exogenous eninephril only at the sympathetic accelerator nerve endings. All blood vessels are constricted.KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS)TEST 2 DIRECTIONS: Each question or incomple al suggested an one that BEST answe statement, XN THE SPA 1./ The side effects ¥ (such ai > statement is follong wers or completions. Sell S the question or completes associated with the Rauwolfia derivati reserpine) are I, tachycardia Il. na: tuffiness III. postural hypotension IV. potentiation of barbituat and narcotic agents he CORRECT an A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV @. Il, Itt, Iv D. All of the above The concentration of a volatile anesth, 00d depends upon the I. partial pressure of the anes ic ar in the hetic agent in alveol TI, permeability of the alveolar membrane III. respiratory minute volume IV. hemoglobin content of the blood The CORRECT answer is: A. I, IL B. I, IV c. 1, 1, 1 D. TL, Tit, E. All of the above Some general anesthetic agents predispose the patient’td inephrine-induced cardiac irregularities, even when the patient receives adequate amounts of of such agents include + ethylene 11, chloroform ILI, diethyl ether IV. ethyl chloride nitrous oxide VI. trichloroethylene answer i. A. I, I, IIT 1, 111, 1v + D. II, Iv, v II, IV, VI v, WE 4. A hypnotic LIKELY to be allergic to secobarbita A. thiopental B. C. chloral hydrate D 8. propoxyphenc in an individual = pentobs&, flurrentiy avaiiavio 1ocal disinfectants act by T. selective and specific metabolic interference in the growth of only gran-positive orpanisms Il. precipitation of bacterial protein HII. oxidizing bacterial protoplasmic constituents IV. increasing the membrane permeability of the bacterium ‘The CORRECT answer is: A. 1, Il B. 1, IV D. 11, 111, IV E, All of the above The OUTSTANDING advantage of diphenylhydantoin over phenobarbital in the treatment of grand mal epilepsy is that diphenylhydantoin exerts less sedation for 2 given degree of motor cortex depression is effective in a greater percent of cases needs to be given much less frequently does not bring about addiction Both reserpine and chlorpromazine have which following effects? I, Antiemetic II, Tranquilizing III. Muscle relaxation MV. Cause Parkinson-like syndrome The CORRECT answer is: hy IT, Tl . 111 D, 11, 117 +I, 10 . Some antidepressant drugs are known to inhibit the enzyme A. cholinesterase B. choline-acetylase ; C: monomine oxidase D. O-methyltransferase 9, | raich of the following clinical situations are indications for the use of the phenothiazines? I. Neuroses IT. LSD overdosage III. Nausea due to motion sickness IV. Psychoses V. Analgesic potentiation The CORRECT answer ert, If, TIT I c. 11, 11, 1V D. 11, IV, v If a patient requiring an extraction reports that he is on bishydroxycoumarin therapy, the laboratory test that Would be MOST valuable in evaluating the surgical risk is A, clotting time B, bleeding time C. sedimentation rate D. complete blood count E. plasma prothrombin time1a. 18s, Prolonged use of which of the following drugs may predispose to postoperative bleeding? I. Acetylsalicylic acid 11. Diphenylhydantoin III. Chlorpromazine . IV. Bishydroxycoumarin V. Phenobarbital VI, Tripelennamine ‘The CORRECT answer is: Ae I, 1¥. B. I, Vv D. I, Iv B. It, vr II, 11 Which of the following clinically useful agents is acti against fungi but NOT bacteria? I. Nystatin II, Neomrein TI1. Cephalott IV, Griseofulvin Y. Amphotericin B ‘The CORRECT answer is: A. I, II, 11 B. I, II, ¥ c 1, 1, ¥ D. I, Wr, IV E. 11, 11, Dilantin is the drug of choice for A. Jacksonian epilepsy B. relief of visceral pain C. relief of peripheral pain D. grand mal epilepsy E. petit mal epilepsy Which of the following agents should be available for treatment of emergencies in the dental office? 1, Oxygen II. Epinephrine III. Isoproterenol IV. A long-acting vasopressor V. Aromatic spirit of ammonia VI. An injectable antihistaminic VII. Hydrocortisone sodium suecinate The CORRECT answer i A. 1, II, 1V I, Iv, v D. 11, ILL, VI IV, Vi, VIT G.V, VI, VIL Which is NOT a general anesthetic? A. Benzylalcohol — B. Cyelopropane C. Ethylene D. vinyl ether E. Trichlorethylene Which of the following are IMPORTANT criteria for an adequate clinical evaluation of the efficacy of a new drug? I. Control groups II. Placebo indieation III. Double blind experimental design IV. Comparison with a standard drug V. Evaluation of toxicity7 The CORRECT answer is: Meal, 11, 11] II, 111, 1V Iv, D, I, IT All of the above Which of the following should NOT be administered to patient with myasthenia gravis A. Atropine B. Curare C, Insulin D, Digitalis E. Prostigmine Muestions 18-25. DIRECTIONS: The sentences in Questions 18 through 25 consist of 24 two main parts: a statement and a reason for the statement, Which of the following describes cach item? Both statement and reason are correct and related. Both statement and reason are correct but NOT related. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT. The statement is NOT correct but the reason is an accurate statement. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct. Procaine may cause cardiovascular collapse because procaine 18. blocks autonomic ganglia. In clinical testing of a new drug, the double blin design is not usually necessary because few druge—possess & true placebo eff F Dimercaprol (BAL) is effective in early poisoning by mercuric salts keeause it successfully competes with essential sulfhydryl groups in the body for the binding and subsequent excretion of mercuric ions. Acid medium will increase the local anesthetic potency of procaine HCI tecause the undi procaine can penetrate easily the nerve membrane. Nitroglycerin can increase the coronary blood flow because it blocks the sympathetic nervous system. Epinephrine is contraindicated in asthmatic patients heeause epinephrine exerts a beta adrenergic effect on bronchial smooth muscle. he available evidence supgests that drurs penetrate or enter into cell membranes at the most rapid rate when they are in the unionized form because unionized drugs possess maximal water solubility.The plasma lovel of weak organic acids may be odium bicar this alkalizing agent the renal elimination of such acids, jonate deca KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS)PHARMACOLOGY EXAMINATION SECTION TEST 1 DIRECTIONS: Each question or incomplete statement is followed by several suggested answers or completions. Select the one that BEST answers the question or completes the statement. PRINT TRE LETTER OF TRE CORRECT ANSWER IN THE SPACE AT THE RIGHT. @ Drugs may be excreted in_unchanged form through the I, lungs ie okin III, saliva IV. kidneys V. colon ‘The CORRECT answer is: A. 1, III, 1V B. I, IV, V (eit, ttl, IV, V D. III, V B. All of the above Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the adrenergic receptors? I, Activation of the B-receptor results in cardiac stimulation. Il, Activation of the a-receptor results in vasoconstriction III. A number of effects of the catecholamines are mediated by altering tissue levels at cAMP. IV, The enzyme adenylcyclase may be a receptor for certain adrenergic drugs. Y. Increased tissue levels of cAMP occur invariably with B-adrenergic stimulation. The CORRECT answer is? Hex, 1, 11 : eos, IL, IV B, All of the above Cholinergic crisis may be produced by I. neostigmine II, scopolamine III. organophosphate insecticides IV. pilocarpine ¥. isoproterenol ‘The CORRECT answer is: I, 11, M1 4,/tuich of the following effects characterize drugs used for preanesthetic medication? I. Morphine and other narcotics tend to prolong the anesthetic state. @ The barbiturates may contribute to postanesthetic Jy excitement, particularly in the preseace of pain.2 (#1) III. Atropine may cause cardiac acceleration. IV. Seopolamine tends to obscure eye signs ¥. The phenothiazines predispose to v The CORRECT answer is: A. 1, I, IIL, 1v Bi 1, C. It, iin, 19 D. If, ¥ E. rit, Iv, v Administration of a(n) causes dry mouth, a decry in secretory and motor activity of the gastroistestem Wract, mydriasis and difficulty in accommodation, NI. antimuscarinic drug “II. ganglionic blocking agent III. anticholinesterase IV. B-adrenergic agonist V. indirect-acting adrenergic drug ‘The CORRECT answer is Ay Ty SI Bi. 1, If Cc. i, 111 D. IV, Vv E. Any of the above Which of the following are characteristics of morphint meperidine and methadone? They I, cause depression of respiration II. cause constipation III. are effective in the relie? of severe paia IV. cause mydriasis Vv. are antagonized by nalorphine The CORRECT answer is: AJ T,:I1, II, Iv B c » IV, Vv D. E. 11, rir, iv, v - Ey IEs. LT, ¥ I, ILI, Iv, V Which of the following are TRUE regarding the cephalosporin antibiotics? They (1. are chemically related to penicillin G “II, have a broad spectrum of activity II. are effective against penicillinase-producing “” microorganisms IV, are possibly cross-allergenic with penicillin V. are bacteriostatic ‘The CORRECT answer is: AT, II, 116 B. 1, c. II, air, rv D. II, V E. III, Iv, Vv Which of the following determine the rate of passive diffusion of a drug across the intestinal wall menbr I. Size of the drug molecule II. Degree of ionization of the drug III. Concentration of the drug in the intestine IV. Degree to which the drug is bound to plasma pro‘The CORRECT answer is: feet, 11, 111 8.4, Wy Iv Its; TIE, X¥ met; Itt, IV D. E, All of the above Which of the following statements describe the pharmaco- Togie and toxicologic properties of ethyl alcohol? pelts effects on behavior are the result of depression 5 of higher cortical centers, $t aids in the c nservation of heat, which explains the feeling of warmth that attends its use. Blood levels of 100 m % or hi ver are generally ‘taken as medicolegal evidence o: drunkenness. Delirium tremens are regarded by some investigators as a physiologically disruptive withdrawal syndrome. . Chronic gastritis and cirrhosis of the liver are common in the alcoholic, possibly because of nutritional deficiencies. 5 The CORRECT answer is: Ber, IL eT) 1 ¥, et, It, IV D. T, 10, Iv. V ieotv, Vv Which of the following penicillins are readily INACTIVATED 10.__ by B-lac-amase (penicillinase)? 1, Pen: -illin G Il. Phenoxymechyl penicillin Mil, Methzeillin Iv, Ampieillin Y. Cloxacillin ‘The CORRECT answer is: Kot, 11, Tt B. 1, I, IV Ge, 0. V 11, Ir, IV B. II, Iv, v Which of the following characterize nitrous oxide? Slow recovery : Good analgesia Respiratory rate stimulation Poor skeletal muscle relaxation trations of 80% The CORRECT answer is: A. 1, U,V B, I, III, c. i, WW, Vv D. 11, 1 BE. All of the above Which of the following compounds is a ganglionic blocking agent? ‘Atropine Hexamethonium Succinyleho: ine Gallamine triethiodide E, Diisopropy1fluorophosphate4 (#1) Administration of which of the following drugs is most tékely to PROLONG clotti ng time? 4. Morphine B. Vitamin K C. A barbiturate D. Acetaminophen E. Acetylsalicylic acid 14. If a narcotic Ot low nee chosen for intravenous sedatit which of the foil feast Wes should be available as ths antagonist of choice? A. Naloxone B. Doxapram Cc. Pentazocine D. Fentanyl =. Diphenhydramine 18. Which of the following is a frequent side effect of antihistamine therapy? A. Anemia B. Anuria C, Diuresis D. Drowsiness E. Autonomic nervous system overactivity 16. Which of the following is a local anesthetic inactivation by plasma esterasec? A. Procaine B. Lidocaine €. Prilocaine D. Mepivacaine E. Bupivacaine ubject to Methoxylation of which of in the formation A. Morphine B. Codeinone + Oxycodone the following compounds resul| Of codeine? Methy1morphine E. Diacetylmorphine 18. Which of the following drugs is used Principally tor its diuretic action? A. Aldosterone B. Angiotensin C. Meprobamate D. Vasopressin E. Chlorotniazide 19} Which of the fgilowing is a predictable result of V0 a-adrenergic blockade? + Mydriasis Xerostomia Bronchoconstriction Lowered blood pressure Dryness of the nasal mucous membranes moomy j Bi-adrenergic blocking a Vv the following actions A. Glycogenolysis B. Cardiac acceleration €. Vasoconstriction i D. Vasodilatation E. Bronchodilation ents will antagonize which of of epinephrine? a gastrointestinal vasculature of skeletal muscle vasculature5 (AL) 3) Which of the following may be useful as an infiltrative 21. local anesthetic in a patient allergic to both amide and ester anesthetic derivatives? 4. r Which of the following is an IRREVERSIBLE side effect 70 B, Bupivacaine enylephrine D, Diphenhydramine Ethylaminobenzoate a resulting from long-term administration of phenothiazine antipsychotics? A, Sedation B. Xerostomia ©. Infertility D. Parkinsonism E. Tardive dyskinesia Withdrawal of a patient from which of the following 23. drugs is often attended by changes in the electro- encephalogram and convulsions? A. Heroin B. Cocaine . Morphine D, Secobarbital E. Methamphetamine Which of the following drugs applied topically would 24. produce mydriasis of short duration with no cycloplegia? A. Atropine B. Ephedrine ¢. Homatropine D. Isoproterenol E. Diisopropylfluorophosphate It is a general rule in using antibiotic combination 2s.__| therapy to NEVER combine agents. two bactericidal Bl two bacteriostatic C, a bactericidal with a bacteriostatic D. two analgesic E. an analgesic with a bactericidal KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) 1.5 ll. c 2, 8 12. B 3. B 13, E aa 14.4 5. A 15. D 6. B 16. A 7. B 17 A 8.5 18. E 9.D 19. D 10. 3 20. B 21. D 22, B 23, D 24. B 25. CDIRECTIONS ly Administration of wiich of the following drugs 1NcRa the likelihood of toxic responses to dict nves? A. Reserpine B, Diazepam C. Lidocaine D. Spironolactone E. Chlorothiazide AS T ST 2 Each question or incomplete statement soveral suggested answers one that BEST answers the Statement TRE is or completions. question or comple PRIUT DYE LETTER OF CHE CORRECT All SPACE AT THE RIGH grain aspirin tablet contains milligrams of the drug. approsimately AL 78 B. 150 325 Dd. 500 BE. 700 Excitement and rium are commonly present in sta of ether anesthesia, Aa B. II C. IIT, plane 1 D. III, plane 3 E. IV Which of the following drugs is sate to administer to, patient who suffers from atrial tachycardia, is allerg congestive heart fal Quinidine D. Procainamide to quinine and has no evidence of A. Digitoxin C. Epineparine E. Acetylcholine Which of the following types of drug responses is Lk Predictable in occurrence? A. Side-effe B. Idiosyncrasy C. Tachyphylaxis D. Therapeutic action EB. Ov ge toxicity Which of the following drugs has tory activity? A. Prednisone €. Prednisolone E. Triamcinolc the LEAST anti-inti B, + Aldosterone D. Hydrocortisone Which of the following drug venously, is LEAST likely depression? + when administ to produce respiratory A. Fentanyl B. Diazepam C. Thiopental D, Meperidine E. Pentobarbital which of the following is NOT a property of te. racyell antibiotics? A. Absorption is impaired wher taken with milk. B. They predispose t. © monilial superinfection al2 (#2) 63 . They form a stable complex with the developing ) tooth matrix. Dd They have a low tendency for sensitization, but a high therapeutic index. E. They effective substitutes for penicillin in subacute bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis Which of the following drugs is an analgesic and an oe antipyretic but does NOT have significant anti-inflammatory properties? A, Indomethacin B. Phenylbutazone C. Acetaminophen D, Sodium salicylate E. Acetylsalicylic acid Pollowing administration of 1% lidocaine, the patient feels faint and light headed and begins to wheeze. The injection of.0.5 cc. of 1:1,000 epinephrine subcutaneously produce ail of the following effects EXCEPT . Sedation ; bronchodilation cardiac acceleration {ncreased systolic blood pressure none of the above The blood level of a drug reflects all of the following EXCEPT. A, absorption B. protein binding C. mechanism of action D. amount of drug given E, metabolism and excretion gach of the following drugs is subject to hydrolysis by esterases EXCEPT ‘a. procaine B. epinephrine C. tetracaine D. acetylcholine E. suecinylcholine - e i 6) Excessive does of acetylsalicylic acid can produce each of the following EXCEPT tinnitus hypothermia hyperventilation | metabolic acidosie gastrointestinal irritation ts, factivaty of the hepatic drug metabolizing enzymes may be enhanced by each of the following EXCEPT 4, dicumarol B. meprobamate . phenobarbital D. acetylcholine E. cigarette smoking Administration of tricyclic antidepressants may cause of the following EXCEPT xerostomia orthostatic hypotension immediate relief of acute depression side-effects similar to those of the phenothiazines inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake by specific central nervous system adrenergic neurons16/ & Each of the following is a naturally occurring local mediator in man EXCEPT A. endorphin B. histamine C. bradykinin D. prostaglandin E. tetrahydrocannabinol Propranolol is CONTRAINDICATED in each of the followi clinical conditions EXCEPT A. hypoglycemia B. bronchial asthma atrial tachycardia D. congestive heart fail E. preexisting A-V block Hach of the following drugs may result in blood dyscrasias EXCEPT A. codeine B. phenytoin C. indomethacin D. phenylbutazone E. chloramphenico1 The prostaglandins produce all of the following pharmacologic actions EXCEPT A. pyrexia B. uterine contraction C. increased gastric secretion D. increased capillary permeability E. pain when injected intradermally Which of the following is NOY characteristic of the thiazide diuretics? They &. increase renal exeretion of sodium and chloride B. increase renal excretion of potassium C. exacerbate oxisting diabetes D. cause hypokalemia E. cause hypoglycemia Tpichiet the following is NOT true about acetaminophel It A. is a non-prescription drug B. is cross-allergenic with aspirin C; Possesses both analgesic and antipyretic eftects ND. may induce methemoglobinonia oe high doses E. may be the pharmacologically active form of acetophenetidin (phenacetin) Watch of the following antibiotics is cross-allergenté Wath penicillin and should NOr be administered tothe Ppenicillin-sensitive patient? A. Ampicillin B. Erythromycin C. Clindamycin D. Lincomyein E. Tetracycline whasenCf the following is NoT true regarding succiayls choline? A. It is structurally related to acetylcholine “B. It is generally administered intravenously. It is metabolized by pseudocholinesterase. Its most serious toxic effect is apnea Tt is antagonized by anticholinesterases,4 (92) 33 ‘The sulfonylurea hypoglycemic drugs are usually NOT useful in childhood diabetes because they are antagonized by ACTH they have low therapeutic indices few pancreatic islet cells are active they inhibit the physiologic production of insulin none of the above pyene Adrenal steroids are used successfully to treat all of the following conditions EXCEPT A. gastric ulcers B. Addison disease , lupus erythematosus D. rheumatoid arthritis E, aphthous stomatitis KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) 72 al 6 2. 12, B 3. 8 13. B 4.D 14. D 5. B 15. ¢ 6. 3B .&E 7.28 7 ei 8.5 A 9. c 10. A E 21. B 22. A 23, E 24. 25. ADIRECTIONS: Nitros pecto: vos E PHARMACOLOGY a G7 EXAMINATION SECTION TEST 1 Each question or incomplete statement is followed by several suggested answers or completions. Select the one that BEST answers the question or completes the statement. PAINT THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER IN TRE SPACE AT THE RIGHT. glycerin dilates the coronary arteries in angina as ris by decreasing the heart rate reflexly increasing the metabolic work of the myocardium direct action on smooth muscle in the vessel walls increasing the effective refractory period in the atrium blocking beta-adrenergic receptors 2: ‘The probable mechanism of the bacteriostatic action of sulfonamides involves A B. Ci D E In ai will A B Ch D. E The a lo Be G D E. ‘The germicidal action of benzalkonium chloride is rapidly REDUCED in the presence of disruption of the cell membrane coagulation of intracellular proteins reduction in oxygen utilization by the cells inhibition of metabolism by binding acetyl groups competition with para-aminobenzoic acid in folic acid synthesis ngina pectoris, the MOST rapid and dependable relie? be provided by oral glyceryl trinitrate oral isosorbide dinitrate | oral erythrityl tetranitrate . sublingual glyceryl trinitrate oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate WOST probable cause for a serious toxic reaction to cal anesthetic is psychogenic deterioration of the anesthetic agent hypersensitivity to the vasoconstrictor hypersensitivity to the local anesthetic excessive blood level of the local anesthetic B. water ‘A. soap C. fluorides D. inorganic matter E. cationic detergents Amide-type local anesthetics are metabolized in the A. serum B. liver C. spleen D. kidneys EL axoplasm2 (#1) Erbattont with grand mal epilepsy would zikely be under treatment with A. meprobamate B. pentobarbita. C. trimethadione D. eth E. phenytoin uximide Phenothiazines are used to A. produce muscle relaxation B, alter psychotic behavior C. suppress coughing D. produce analgesia produce hypnosis Cardiovascular dose of A. a r collapse elicited by a high c local anesthetic may be caused by syncope B. vagal histamine D. reulating release stimulation medullary stimulation myocardial depression The PRINCIPAL central action of caffeine 1s on the A. cerebral cor} B. corpus callosum C. hypothalamus D. spinal cord E. medulla Pigitoxin is effective in the treatment of cardiac failure because it is primarily a diuretic reduces the ventricular decreases D. produces E. has a rate abnormal cardiac rhythms peripheral 3 a positive vasoconstriction ardiae inotropic action Quinidins Ay c E. is used to treat hypertension atrial fibrillation congestivi B. angina pectoris D ventricular fibrillation heart failure Diazepan is preferred to barbiturates as an agent because diazepam A. produces no sedation B. is a very short-acting drug C. is substantially less expensive D. does not potentiate CNS depressants E. has less addiction potential antianxiety In general anesthesia, depressed is the A. medulla B. cerebrum C. midbrain D. cerebellum E. spinal co the LAST part of the CNS to be he onZy local anesthetic wh ch increases the pressor activity of both epinephrine and norepinephrine is cocaine B. procaine dibucaine D. Lidocaine vacaineler lon 16 18. aS 3 (#1) The penetration of a local anesthetic into nervous tissue is a function of the ‘A. length of the central alkyl chain B. lipid solubility of the ionized form lipid solubility of the unionized form ester linkage between the aromatic nucleus and the alkyl chain amide linkage between the aromatic nucleus and the alkyl chain The antagonist of choice in the treatment of opioid overdosage is A. naloxone B. nalorphine C, pentazocine D. levallorphan E, propoxyphene Iphalation general anesthetics possess relatively LOW a athe! / therapeutic indices, but their clinical safety is rest INCREASED Dy A, rapid renal excretion B. rapid liver metabolism C. extreme ease in reversing tissue concentration D. ready reversal of effects by antagonists E, none of the above Therapy with nonendocrine antineoplastic agents is associated with A. mutagenicity B. bone marrow depression C. decreased immune response D. gastrointestinal and oral ulcerations E, all of the above —— = Cardize arrhythmias are MOST commonly seen during administration of A. thiopental B. halothane C. ethyl ether D. nitrous oxide E, none of the above The drug of choice for initial therapy for mild hypertension is— ‘4. reserpine B. guanethidine C. phenobarbital D. chlorothiazide E. alpha-methyldopa The inorganic ion which is primarily implicated in hypertension is A. sodium B. fluoride C. potassium D. magnesium E. ammonium ‘The NOST common clinical cause of bacterial resistance is improper antibiotic selection faulty gastrointestinal absorption of antibiotics use of antibiotics when they are not indicated failure to use culture and sensitivity tests none of the above4 (#1) 7 Neostigmine can stimulate denervated skeletal muscle because it is a congener of acetylcholine is a competitive blocking agent has no effect on acetylcholinesterase is more potent than diisopropyl fluorophosphate is capable of acting directly on the end-plate Propranolol is of value in treating angina pectoris because it has a direct action on vascular smooth muscle blocks autoregulatory mechanisms in the heart inhibits oxygen metabolism in cardiac cells provides relief within seconds of an acute anginal attack prevents chronotropic responses to endogenous epinephrine emotions and exercise KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) 1. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16 17. 18. 19. * 20.25. om CG D, E. B. zg. A. ¢ ry HONS: Each question or incomplete statement is followed by B. af The oral contraceptives exert their primary effect by . blocking implantation D. decreasing uterine motility BE. stimulating FSH release from the pituitary S.J Amphetamine acts by a A. promoting storage of the mediator B. causing a rapid release of the mediator C, causing a slow depletion of the mediator D. combining with a receptor substance on the effector 4.) The drug MOST commonly used to treat severe mental depression is The mechanism of the antipyretic action of salicylates probably results from A. TH TEST 2 Several suggested answers or completions. Select the one that BEST answers the question or completes the statement. PRINT THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER IW THE SPACE AT THE RIGHT. Signature portion of the prescription contains 1 the full personal signature of the doctor the drug name plus the unit dosage instructions to the pharmacist concerning dispensing tae drug instructions to the patient regarding taking the medication age, sex and address of the patient inhibiting ovulation spermatocidal action cell interfering with the response of the receptor to the mediator sodium B. imipramine chlorpromazine D. tranyleypromine dextroamphetamine inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis in the CNS affecting hypothalamic temperature regulation inhibition of bradykinin in the periphery leading to sweating depression of oxidative enzymes leading to decreased heat production Suppression of cholinergic mediators in the hypothalamus stimulation of norepinephrine in the hypothalamus2 (#2) Th Idiosyncracies to drugs are related to A. species B, genetic factors C. age of the patient D. allergies E. all of the above Gastric acid secretion has been shown to be MOST effectively reduced with the use of adrenal stenosis anticholinergic drugs serotonin antagonists Hy histamine receptor antagonists Hg histamine receptor antagonists The ratio of the median lethal dose (LDsq) to the median effective dose (EDs9) is the A. morbidity index B. mortality index C. anesthetic ratio D. therapeutic index E. none of the above In a patient being treated with an oral anticoagulant, thrombin solution (applied topically) would be an effective accelerator of the blood clotting process because A. thrombin promotes fibrinolysis B. thrombin combines with the anticoagulant and prevents the local actions of the drug C, thrombin antagonizes those effects of the anticoagu- lant resulting in a decreased synthesis of plasma factor VII by the liver the effect of thrombin is independent of whether thrombin exists in the plasma thrombin acts directly to accelerate the formation of plasma thromboplastin The sole therapeutic advantage of penicillin V over penicillin G is A, greater resistance to penicillinase B. broader antibacterial spectrum C, more reliable oral absorption D. slower renal excretion E, none of the above The use of vascconstrictors in combination with local anesthetics is CONTRAINDICATED in a dental patient with angifia ‘pectoris who is hypertensive who has had rheumatic fever who has had a myocardial infarction with Parkinson disease who is on levodopa therapy The blockade produced by d-tubocurarine is characterized 12, by a(n) yar Getect in the conduction mechanism of the nerve decrease of the end-plate potential to 30 percent or less of its original value failure of the axon terminal to synthesize acetylcholine failure of the axon terminal to release acetylcholine initial stimulation, followed by a stabilization, of the postsynaptic membranef distinct advantage that tetracyclines have over peni- ¢illins is that tetracyclines have no side effects do not cause superinfections are safer to use during pregnancy |. have a wider range of antibacterial activity | produce higher blood levels faster after oral administration The occupational theory of Grug-receptor interaction states that I. the magnitude of the drug response is proportional to the number of receptors occupied If, a partial agonist has intrinsic activity but no affinity for the receptor site IIT. an antagonist drug has affinity but no intrinsic activity j4y. the rate at which the drug-receptor complex associates and dissociates determines drug efficacy y. the degree of drug action is dependent on the law of mass action The CORRECT answer is: II, IIL ir, V Bid, 5 IEE, IV Di, Tha ¥ I, Iv, v Therapeutic effects of aspirin include I, analgesia II. tranquilization Ill, pyretic action IV. anti-inflammatory action Y, antirheumatic action ‘The CORRECT answer is: Ay L, 1%, ITT CO. U1, Vv E, Ii, Iv, Vv ‘The beneficial effects of digitalis in congestive heart failure result in part from the fact that digitalis causes a(n) I, deorease in end-diastolic volume Il. decrease in end-diastolic pressure Ill. increase in stroke volume and cardiac output IV. decrease in central venous pressure V. decrease in rate of the heart where tachycardia oxi'sts The CORRECT answer is: Ay Ty Ey TIT Buel, Gc. 1tt, D. V'only E. All of the above anaphylactic reactions to penicillin occur . when the drug is administered orally in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy20. 4 (#2) 74 IV. when the drug is administered parenterally V. within minutes after drug administration ‘The CORRECT answer is: A. 1, II, IV B. 11, 11r, IV Cy thy TY, V. D. Tl, ¥ Eo Itt; 14, ¥ Blood-alcohol level is determined primarily by I. rate of metabolism IT, body weight III. mind-set IV. presence of food in the stomach V. rate of urinary excretion ‘The CORRECT answer is: Ay Ty Xt, TTT B. I, II, IV er iv, ¥ D. II, Til, Iv E. 11, Iv, v Based on its known mechanism and sites of action, scopolamine should theoretically be useful in treatment of peptic ulcer providing euphoria and amnesia prior to surgery relieving bronchoconstriction relieving some of the symptoms of Parkinson's disease visualization of the retina ‘The CORRECT answer is: A. I, IL, IV, Vv G. 1, 115 E, All of the above Drugs which are additive with or potentiate the effects ot acetylcholine include I. methacholine . scopolamine IIL. pralidoxime > neostigmine V. pilocarpine ‘The CORRECT answer is: A. 1, 11, UIT C1, Ivy, ¥ E. ILI, Iv, v After pretreatment with phentolamine, intravenous administration of epinephrine should result in I. relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle II. positive chronotropic and inotropic effects IIL. splanchnic vasoconstriction IV. dilation of skeletal muscle vascular beds AV. secretion of a mucoid viscous saliva ‘The CORRECT answer is: A.D, 00 O11; V5 ¥ E. tir, Iv, v#2) f8 Therapy with reserpine may result in / I. an increas ary secretion) Il, a”decrease in 111, nasal congestion IV, sedation V. mental depression ‘The CORRECT answer i Wot, 11, 111 B. C. if, Iv, v D. E, Ali of’ the above 23,/ Important steps in the treatment of barbiturate poisoning include I. maintaining an open airway II. increasing the input of afferent stimuli III. maintaining respiration 1V. administering a narcotic antagonist *¥. administering a central nervous system stimulant The CORRECT answer is Ant, IE B. 1, 11, 111, V 1, 113 Db. it, v B. IV only M./ Therapeutic doses of morphine administered intramuscular- ly may produce I. constipation Nir. euphoria STII, aysphoria IV. mental clouding V. decreased response to pain The CORRECT answer is A. I, II c. 1, Iv, v EB, All of the above 2% Enhancement of the specificity of drug action may be achieved by structural manipulation of the drug molecule id; aleeriug the dove of the drug III, altering the route of administration of the drug IV, administering the drug with another agent which specifically antagonizes certain of the drug's effects The CORRECT answer is: Ae Uy. Wy. TET c, 1, 1¥ E, All of the aboveKEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) dt 12, 13. 14 15. 16. 1% 18. 1g. 20.PHARMACOLOGY EXAMINATION SECTION TEST 1 PIRECTIONS: Hach question or incomplete statement is followed by several suggested answers or completions. Select the one that BEST answers the question or completes ¢: statement. PRINT TRE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER IN THE SPACE AT THE RIGHT. ‘The MOST frequent cause of fainting associated with local anesthetics used in dental practice is 4, psychic factors B. hypersensitivity reactions €, excessive alkalinity of the injected solution D. excessive acidity of the anesthetic solution E, deterioration of the anesthetic solution Lidocaine is more widely used than procaine in routine dental practice because lidocaine A. is a vasoconstrictor B. does not cause CNS stimulation C. causes fewer allergic reactions D. is less likely to cause cardiovascular collapse is 50 times more potent as a local anesthetic The two instances in which epinephrine is indicated in dental office emergencies are A. anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest B. acute hypotension and respiratory arrest C. hypovolemia and myocardial infarction D. respiratory arrest and extrapyramidal reactions to phenothiazines A patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease is scheduled for a dental procedure. \ccording Guidelines published by the American Heart Association in 1977, the patient should receive what dosage of penicillin ve A. 250 mg. B. 500 mg. C. 750 mg. D. 1 gram E. 2 grams statin may be used to treat oral infections due A. herpesvirus B. candida albicans C. treponema pallidum D. streptococcus pyogenes E. bacteroides melaninogonicus Which of the following drugs should be available for treatment of emergencies in the dental office? I. Oxygen 11, Epinephrine III, Ephedrine IY, Amy] nitrate2 (#1) Aromatic spirits of ammonia An antihistamine Norepinephrine CORRECT answer is: 1 af, Int, v B. , It, 1V,'v, vr D. IL, 1¥, vi, vii I, qs, e Ay Gs EL 7.f Which of the following statements describe the properties of nitrous oxide? 1. It has no analgesic properties, II, It has a nauseating odor: Liy, [f,has a low blcod/gas partition coefficient. MTV. Its potency as a general anesthetic te sor" V. It 48 highly soluble in 1ipias. ‘The CORRECT answer is: A. I, IL B. I, rr, C. If, 111, 1 D. Ift, Iv E. III, IV, v Ilr Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the fluoride ion? ji Saleium fluoride is poorly absorbed from the Our, TI. Only calcified tissue has a greater o, fluoride than plasma TIT. Mottling of dental enamel occurs only at concentrations greater than 4 ppm, TV. Acute fluoride intoxication is not possible due to rapid renal excretion, fystemic ingestion protects from dental caries by. formation of fluorohydroxyapatite The CORRECT answer is: a. I, Il, QT ; Guy ‘ Iv E. III, 1¥ Which of the following drugs is NOST often used to dry ecretions in the oral cavity? A. Diazepam B. Promethazine C. Physostigmine D. Propantheline Diphenhydramine Which of the following disease states is a CONTRAINDICA- TION to the use of nitrous oxide-uxygen? A. Epilepsy B, Hypertension C. Angina pectoris D. History of recent myocardial infarction E. None of the above Which of the following conditions is a CONTRAINDICATION to the use of atropine to reduce salivation> A. Glaucoma B. Peptic uleer C. Bladder disease D. Parkinson disease Cardiovascular dis:#2, Which of the following is nor a Problem encountered by breesentist in treating a patient on crrenee adrenal corticosteroid therapy? A Signs of inflammation are masked B. Tendency to bleed is increased € Susceptibility to infection is increased D. ability to withstand stress is decreased E, None of the above ,/ fosgttai patient on clonidine therapy tor hypertension MOST often complains of A. restlessness B. xerostomia G. severe postural hypertension D. frequent visits to the bathvoom B. none of the above iB treating infections of the oral eavity, penicillin is usually the drug of choice because Ni penicillin is both bacteriostatic and bactericidal, depending on dosage Fenieriaiee © OFeaAisms are most susceptible to Penicillin Penicillin is unlikely to cause superinfection penicillin is very effective when used topically in the oral cavity darge doses of penicillin can be administered Without toxie reactions CORRECT answer is I, If, IIt, ¥ I, iv, v E. All of ‘the above M5. Yaich of the following antiepileptic drugs causes hyper- Plasia of the gingiva? A. Phenytoin B. Valprote acid C. Ethosuximide D. Carbamazepine E. Trimethadione U6. /Administration of which of the following drugs will NoT inhibit secretory activity in the oset cavity? A. Atropine B. Ephedrine C. Scopolamine \D, Mecamylamine \E. Diphenhydramine H Pronedication of the dental patient ig directed toward gr Broviding patient safety and comfoce vrocecs3g ease for the operator to perform technical Procedures lessening patient anxioty all of the above Rone of the above18. 4c) $0 top tient with acute suppurative pulpitis is scheduled for tooth extraction. Because of a history of rheumatie heart disease, 2 grams of penicillin V ave administered ore nour prior to an anesthetic of 2 percent lidocaine Yate i5100,000 epinephrine. Fitteen minutes lates te ave cdevatnat Periorbital tissue and lips of the paticnt are edematous, but no other symptoms are observed’ These facts are consistent with a diagnosis of A, angioneurotic edema B. hematoma formation C. congestive heart failure D. am acute anaphylactoid reaction E. none of the above For the dentist, the MOST reliable method of detecting a patient's atlergy to penicillin 1s by A. injecting penicillin intradermally 8. taking a thorough medical history C. placing a drop of penicillin on the eye 2. having the patient inhale a penicillin aerosol E, injecting a small amount of penicillin intravenously brigs which are commonly used in the control of excessive Salivation include I. meprobamate II. atropine II1, methantheline IV. codeine V. chlorpromazine The CORRECT answer is: Ay: Ty DE Gi ob, 117 z. IV, Vv According to federal law, a CORRECT prescription for a Schedule II drug MUST contain the I. address of the patient II, address of the dentist TIT. state license aumber of the dentist IV. DEA number of the dentist V. generic name of the drug The CORRECT answer is: ‘Ae BFR) EEE ek Iv G. v Iv E. Administration of which of the following drugs would Produce vasoconstriction of the gingival vasceles L. Levonordefrin Il. Phentolamine TIL. Epinephrine IV. Propranolol V. Phenylephrine The CORRECT answer is A. 1, II Bs ot, tt Cc. 1, tr. v D. 1, Iv, v E. If, IvWhich of the following clinical situations are PROPER indications for the prophylactic use of antibiotics? I. History of rheumatic heart disease II, Prevention of localized osteitis (dry socket) III, History of congenital heart disease IV. Prior to osseous bone grafts in periodontal therapy Y. History of intracardiac pros The CORRECT answer is A. I, I, IIL . HI, v c. 1,9 . IT, Il, Iv E. III, tv, Vv In providing the pregnant patient with dental treatment, which of the following principles should be followed 4. No drugs, especially general anesthetics, should be administered during the first trimester Local anesthetics, as far as is currently known, may be safely administered during pregnancy Beyond the first trimester, 211 drugs may be safely administered All dental treatment should be postponed until the end of pregnancy The patient should not be administered any analgesic during the entire pregnancy. Which of the following drugs is moet likely to dry secretions in the oral cavity? A. Diazepam B. Promethazine C. Physostigmine D. Propantheline E. Diphenhydramine KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) ll. a 12. B 13. B 14. 4 15. A 16. B 17, D 18. A 19! B & 20DIRECTIONS plete statement is followed by several suggested answers or completions. Select ti one that BEST answers the question or completes ths statement. PRINT THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSVER I THE SPACE AT THE RIGHT. Which of the following antibiotics is LEAST toxic? A. Vancomycin B. Streptomycin C. Erythromycin D. Chloramphenicol E. Oxytetracycline Which of the following anticoagulants is NOT therapeutical- 9 ly effective when administered orally? A. Bishydroxycoumarin B. Warfarin sodium C. Heparin sodium D. Anisindione E. None of the above Which of the following regarding propoxyphene is NOT TRUE? “A. A Schedule IV drug cB. Often formulated with aspirin or APC c. Prepared as hydrochloride and napsylate salts D. analgesic efficacy comparable to morphine E. Side effects include drowsiness and disorientation Nhich of the following is NOT characteristic of the phenothiazine group of compounds? A. antiemetic B. Antipsychotic C. Anticonvulsant “D. Antiadrenergic ~E. Anticholinergic Which of the following drugs and adverse effects is INCORRECTLY paired? “A. Phenylbutazone ~ gastric bleeding 5. Halothane — hepatic necrosis C. Streptomycin - eighth cranial nerve damage D. Penicillin G - blood dyscrasias EB. Clindamycin ~ pseudomembranous colitis The use of ganglionic blocking agents in the treatment ot hypertension has DECREASED because of the occurrence of disturbing side effects which include all of the following EXCEPT A. constipation B. blurred vision C. urinary retention D. excessive sweating E. postural hypotension Excessive doses of acetylsalicylic acid can produce each of the following EXCEPT’ A. tinnitus B. hypothermia C. hyperventilation D. metabolic acidosis E. gastrointestinal irritation42 (#2) Any of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmia EXCEPT 4. phenytoin B. lidocaine C. quinidine D. propranolol E, epinephrine ” ©, guanethidine D. alpha-methyldopa 1), Each of the following exerts its MAJOR pharmacologic effect by some action on prostaglandins EXCEPT A. aspirin B. probenecid C. indomethacin D. phenylbutazone E. none of the above il,/ By law, a prescription for meperidine must contain all of the following information EXCEPT patient's age patient's name patient's address prescriber's address DEA number of prescriber £2) Ganglionic blocking drugs produce all of the following effects EXCEPT A, diuresis SB. xerostomia C! constipation ; blurred vision E. postural hypotension 18.) Use of ethyl alcohol is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT A. development of fatty liver B. continuous aepression of the Nc. development of limitea tolerance b. occurrence of peripheral neuropathies cutaneous vasoconstriction following ingestion All of the following actions are associated with the use of chlorpromazine EXCEPT Na. jaundice ~B. photosensitivity C. excessive salivation D, anticholinergic effects E, antiadrenergic effects Be) te dosage of & wiven drug 1s davernined by all of the following EXCEPT + its EDs otency half-life allergenicity rate of its biotrans formation 46. Each of the following agents has been associated with gastric irritation EXCEPT A. aspirin B. alconol C. ibuprofen D. indometh E, acetaminophench pnonne following is an undesirable effect assoctat With phenytoin EXCEPT A. ataxia B. nystagmus C. photophobia D, blood dyscrasias E. gingival hyperplasia Ueveriopa therapy for Parkinson disease may result ia of of the following effects EXCEPT A. development of abnormal, involuntary movements, especially in the face ® extreme sensitivity to sympathomimetic drugs exacerbation of an acute psychosis D. nausea and vomiting extrome sedation Bich of the following is a predictable adverse offect of drugs that block the sympathetic nervous system EXCHST A. gastrointestinal disturbance B. postural hypotension C. nasal congestion D. urinary retention E, miosis fymptoms of poisoning by an organophosphate insecticide include all of the following EXCEPT A. skeletal muscle fasciculations B. excessive salivation €, bronchoconstriction D. hot, dry skin E, diarrhea KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) ll. a 12. a 13. E 14, c 15. D 16 17, 13. 19, 20. Benes sauvadPROSTHODONTICS 2 EXAMINATION SECTION TEST 1 DIRECTIONS Each question or incomplete statement is followed by several sug- gested answers or completions. Select the one that #£57 answers the question or completes the statement. PRINT THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSKER IN THE SPACE AT THE RIGHT 1. In comparing clasp arms of the same diameter, contour and 1 length, the srrrresr would be made of 4. cobalt-chromiun alloy B. Type II gold alloy €. Type III gold alloy D. Type IV gold alloy E. none of the above 2, In planning fixed prostheses, traumatic occlusion in the existing dentition should be eliminated A. before construction of fixed restorations after all fixed restorations are cemented Just prior to cementation of fixed restorations at no time, unless the patient complains of pain which can be related to traumatic ocelusion None of the above - The setting rate of an irreversible hydrocolloid may be slowed safely and effectively by A. increasing the spatulation time decreasing the ratio of water to powder decreasing the temperature of the mixing water using a2 percent solution of potassium sulfate instead of water for preparing the mix none of the above . The as? impression technique for recording loose maxil- lary anterior hyperplastic tissue in an edentulous patient involves A. registering the tissue in its passive position with ninimum distortion B. using high-fusing modeling compound C. a closed-mouth technique D. maximum pressure E. none of the above .|When establishing balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of the maxillary posterior teeth of the balaacing side should contact the A, buccal inclines of the lingual cusps of the mandibular posterior teeth B. lingual inclines of the lingual cusps of the mandibular posterior teeth C, central fossae of the mandibular posterior teeth D. lingual inclines of the buccal cusps of the mandibular posterior teeth E. None of the above In constructing a fixed bridge, if the gingival tissues cannot be successfully retracted, the materiel of choice for taking impressions would be A. modeling plastic in copper bands B. rubber-base impression materialge C. reversible hydrocolloid D. irreversible hydrocolloid E. none of the above ‘Ty Failure of partial dentures due to poor clasp desiga can eest be avoided by clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and nommal bone support altering tooth contours as indicated by using a sur- veyor providing bracing arms D. employing bar-type clasps BE. employing stress breakers 8/ A tooth which has not been in function and is now being VY used as an abutment may become symptomatic. This most likely results from A. overstress B. a pulpal reaction €. localized ostecelastic activity D. change in trabecular pattern >) ,,B+ reaction within the periodontal ligament @© me'iitting ofa mandituiar partial denture with distal gf extension bases may be corrected by A. narrowing the teeth B. correcting occlusion C. tightening the bracing arms D, tightening the retention arms , _B. reduciag overextended borders 10/ In order to compensate for the contraction of gold alloy, 10, modern dental investments make use of A. hygroscopic expansion _B. thermal expansion C. setting expansion D. all of the above , only A and B above F. only A and C above 11j In denture construction, the patient is likely to experi- 11 ence the “ost discomfort trom A. nonanatomic teeth B. excessive vertical opening C. having the vertical dimension closed more than normal D. a slight error in centric occlusion E. all of the above 12. In processing methyl methacrylate, the resin may show porosity if the flask is placed in boiling water. This of porosity is most likely to occur throughout the denture in the thickest part of the denture in the thinnest part of the denture + close to the surface of the denture + close to the back of the denture <9. 4 thin application of cavity varnish over the cut sur— face of a prepared tooth just prior to the cementation of a crown or a bridge with zinc phosphate coment will impede the seating of the restoration insulate the tooth against thermal change Jacrease the possibility of thermal sensitivity reduce the possibility of irritation of the pulp increase the possibility of leakage of the restoration xcessive vertical dimension may result in uM. drooping of the corners of the mouth creases and wrinkles around the lips excessive trauma to the underlying supporting tissues poor denture retention =. loss of muscle tone¥hich of the following combinations will probably in the icast occlusal wear? 4. Glazed porcelain against acrylic resin B. Glazed porcelain against gold C. Unglazed porcelain against gold D. Acrylic against gold Gol ainst gold M6. which of the following is necessary to solder success- fully two adjacent metal alloy A, At least one of the metal alloy structures should be heated to its fusion temperature B. Both of the metal alloy structures to be joined should ne heated to their fusion temperatures €. Neither of the adjoining motal alloy structures is heated to its temperature D. The bulkier structure should be heated to its fusion temperature E. None of the above VW, where should grinding be accomplished if the following 17 conditions exist? The distobuecal cusp of the mandibular right first molar strikes prematurely in centric occlusion in the central fossa of the maxillary first molar; same cusp is found not to be premature in working or balancing occlusion. . Grind the central fossa of the maxillary molar Grind the distobuccal cusp of the mandibular molar Adjust the cusp tip and the fossa Either A or B above is acceptable All of the above What is the function of the face-bow with an intraorbital 18 indicator? It records the ntric relationship of mandibular teeth to maxillary teeth distance between the infraorbital plane and the oc- clusal plane relationship of maxillary occlusal surfaces to the axis-orbital plane relationship of occlusal surfaces of mandibular teeth to the temporomandibular joint and the infra- orbital plane E. All of the above 3) In the oral examination of a complete denture patient, why should the saliva be evaluated? a4) A thin watery saliva does not afford lubricating pro- “tection for the mucosa A thick ropy saliva interferes with obtaining an adequate impression Xerostomia hinders adhesion and produces poor retention All of the above E. None of the above “ich of the following groups of muscles is influential 20 jolding the lingual border of the final mandibular pression for an edentulous patient? sus, mylohyoid, medial pterygoid, digastri Mylobyoid, styloglossus, medial pterygoid, depressor anguli oris Palatoglossus, superior pharyngeal constrictor, mylohyoid, genioglossus 19.D. Genioglossus, mylohyoid, middle pharyngeal con posterior belly of the digastric None of the above hould the greatest possible bearing a dibular denture be used? To increase tongue space and to improve retention ovide balanced occlusion and to increase mprove esthetics and to aid in orienting of occlusion withstand forces of mastication and to inc effectiveness of the border seal E. All of the abov 22. What is the Parwary reason for having full-mouth radio graphs for an edentulous patient? To aid in determining the denture-bearing area any general systemic debility that is af- ing the tissues of the mouth feveal any retained roots or residual areas of infectigl Feassure the patient that his previous dental care was adequate E. None of the above 2/ running tap water over final casts of dental stone should 23 “be minimized because the completely set stone is soluble in water. A. Both statement and reason are correct and related 5. Both statement and reason are correct but yor related C. The statement is correct but the reason is wor D. The statement is vor correct but the reason is an accurate statement E. wertwer statement nor reason is corre. 24. Maxillary anterior teeth will give the best esthetic effect in a complete denture if arranged A: jabially to the ridge B. lingually to the ridge C. over the crest of the ridge D. to articulate with the mandibular anterior teeth placed I over the crest of the ridge E, None of these 25} When a reverse (buccal) 3/4 crown is indicated on 25; mandibular molars, this is because 4. the reverse 3/4 crown is more esthetic 5. the buccal surface offers more retention than the lingual on the mandibular arch it is easier to make a reverse preparation anatomic form of the tooth and functional relation- ships determine the design of the restoration All of the above F. None of the above KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) ll. B 12 13, 4. 15TEST 2 DIRECTIONS Each question or incomplete statement is followed by several sug- fested answers or completions elect the one that 26ST answers the question or completes the statement RINT THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER IN THE SPACE AT THE RIGHT 1,/The partial veneer crown is superior to a full crown es geet rs ee eer see cna: cant ae pore ae eens Bare ae Ns force ex pute, Fe cas oe san aitaciue pee rr es 2st ee 2. During postinsertion adjustment, errors in occlusion may Sear cess Serene ve cul Bin bedsores ee rae AP acts xe cater aca « transfer record to the articulator key een nee Bee a acorns lls ect an. mount casts and new interocclusal records Panes! ieee ad ee bp wknd Sie hin et pees aera Fete ED alta de ioe geet act Sean Tn sie mee ae reg ap ye ne c. ‘ial and error using a face-bow with fully adjustable RE Se mise ea deiner an Saeed ea aed Rx ec aces 4./The Mosr important factor in selecting the proper shade Nof artificial teeth for complete dentures is the See a ore aa es C. hair coloring and complexion of the patient Sec at ele re acer ee 5] Diagnostic casts are used for helping to determine I, which teeth should be extracted JI, which teeth require recontouring III, which teeth require restorations Bee Ste pee cic ee ets A. I, TI, and III B. I, III, and IV ee ae ee fate oe he chi\t paring a posterior tooth for a partial veneer the proximal reduction should converge 2°-5° gingivocelusally diverge 2°-5° gingivoce usally ught beyond the contact point buccally revent the display of metal be carried sufficiently buccally into cleanable areas a5CT answer is: A. Landy B. I and 317 T and tv DL Ir and air El T1-ana Iv \ fixed bridge is verrvirsry contraindicated when I. an opposing molar has extruded moderately into the edentulous space the space length will require, tor rigidity, a beam of such dimensions that embrasures will be greats reduced in area the bridge cannot be constructed so that it ean be kept clean by the patient to prevent caries sag Periodontal involvement one of the abutment teeth has been eadodontically treated The corrscr answer is: A. I, TI, and Iv B. II and TIL C. TIl and Iv D. Ail of’ the above E. None of the above Excessive wear on occluding surfaces of teeth usually results trom a. old age B. mastication of food dishamony between occlusion and eentsic resey on D. abrasive food contaminants E\ none of the sbove The function of the ligmanets around the temporo- mandibular joint is to A. iimit the movements of the mandibio B. maintain contact between articulating surfaces C. hetp in the opening movenent of the mandibie help in the lateral movement of tus mandibte provide muscle attachnonts In removing occlusal discrepancies to re-establish ceatral ocelusion in complete dentures, hastore ee restored generally by deepening foscae. However. cusps may be ground if they 7 A. do not contribute to working or balancing occlusion 8. interfer n balancing position C. interfere in working position D. All of the above None of the above An advantage of a metal-ceramic restoration as coupared 11 with an acrylic-faced crown is that the 4. dimensional stability of porcelain is better B. metal used can be cast and handled more easily G. technique of construction is easier then with’ acrylic D. All of the above E. None of the above In addition to gold, platinum, and palladium, the com= 12. position of alloys for the metal-coramic restos rics neludes T. Fe 11. In Tr. sn 1! 2n vl cu VEL ag4b Birr a1 s. = The conrecr answer is: A. T, 11, and 111 B, I, 11%, and 1¥ c. 1, 1V, andy D. if, Tit, IV, and VE EL rv, V, and VI B/Attoring erown form to allow effective clasping ‘may 13 include NI. producing flat planes areas Il, changing the location of the height of the contour Il. adding additional bulk to the tooth The correct answer is AI only B, I and IC, 1 and TID. 11 onty 2 E. Il and III F. I1f only G. All of the above e q Mj Absence of favorable contours for clasp design on an ia. (abutment tooth, can be overeome by on I. recontouring the enanel : Pu. changing the path of insertion used for surveying HII. gingiveccony ; IV. constructing a crown The corner answer is A.T, II, and IIT B. 1, TIT, and IV Eo and Iv D. ti and Iv BE. All of the above 15, Normal speech usually returns to a prosthetic patient 15. vithin a few days after dentures are inserted.” Problems that do occur may result from A. improper tooth placement B. excessive bulk FF C. contour of the denture bases D. all of the above E. none of the above The vost accurate material with which to record the 16. occlusal surfaces of the maxillary teeth when obtaining a face-bow transfer is 4. soft wax B. hard wax C. modeling plastic 9. D, zine oxide and eugenol paste used alone 7 4 E, modeling plastic refined with zine oxide and eugenol paste nf on anterior teeth, the ost favorable area of placing a 17. continuous bar which is being used as an indirect Tee tainer is A. on the cingulum, bo. B. close ro the ineisal edge 7 C. close to the gingival margin D. midway between the incisal edge and the gingival margin E. none of the above 18/Pacial margine of an anterior 3/4 crown should be 18. A. lingual to the contact area B. hidden in the contact area so the gold will not be visible from the facial aspect 1 extended facially to a cleanable area without . y destroying the facial contour of the tooth well-extended to the facial surface to provide a sufficient area for a sound solder joint EB. lingual to the facial area Which of the following characteristics is common to both 19. alginate and hydrocolloid impression materials? A. Gelation of both materials is retarded by temperature D. inereases B. Inaccuracies in the final impressions ean be caused by fracture of the fibrils during gelation 7C. Both materials can be stored in humidors without any significant dimensional chang D. Both materials can be converted from gels to sols E. None of the above what would be the effect of drying the prepared tooth with aleohol and warn air before cementation of a crown rather than wiping it dry? A. Possibilities of pulp damage are decreased B. Possibilities of pulp damage are increased C. The set cement has increased crushing strength D. The cement sets more rapidly The cement sets less rapidly Which is Mos? important in making a record of centric relation for complete dentures? A. Allowing the patient to register his accustomed oc~ clusal position in wax Sing central bearing plates and a tracing device Having the patient in a relaxed, slightly reclining position D. Using stable recording bases E. Using translucent recording bases Which of the following occlusal contacts should be cor- rected rrxsf when doing selective grinding on a complete contacts B. Protrusive contacts C. Working side contacts D. Balancing side contacts Lateral protrusive contacts Imbibition, syneresis, and hysteresis are properties common to A. plaster of paris B. alginates (irreversible hydrocolloids) C. reversible hydrocolloids 0. silicone rubber base E. polysulfide rubber base Trial dentures were constructed and balanced for pro~ trusive occlusion on an adjustable articular with the condylar guidance set at 25° on both sides. When the trial dentures were tested in the mouth, the anterior teeth interfered when the patient protruded. This suggests that the patient's condylar inclination was greater than 25° the patient's condylar inclination was less than 25° cusp inclinations of the posterior teeth were ground too much for protrusive balance the compensating curve was not inclined enough anteriorly E, None of the above The ridge lap of a pontic becomes enveloped with in flamed gingival tissues several weeks after cementation of the bridge. Discomfort is increased by biting pressure Bleeding oceurs while brushing. This condition is usually caused by A. a loose retainer B. tissue displacement by the pontic C. insufficient gingival embrasuresD. ¢? lack of sufficient contact with the ridge nan ical ii A D c c c B ¢ arritation caused by notae PROSTHODONTICS EXAMINATION SECTION TEST 1 ECTIONS: Bach question or incamplete statement is followed by several sug- sted answers or completions. Select the one that sEST answers the Muestion or completes the statement. PRINT THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT PNSWER IN THE SPACE AT THE RIGHT 1, A dentist may advocate complete crowns on partial denture abutments. The 2st reason for this treatment is that A. the caries problem is eliminated B. periodontal problems can be controlled C. more adequate occlusion can be achieved . abutment morphology can be controlled E. None of the above In Using occlusal indicator wax to idontify occlusal discrepancies between a removable partial denture and the natural dentition, it is azs7 to A. insert the wax bilaterally B. use a double thickness of wax C. insert the wax alternately between the right and the left sides D. introduce the wax into specific areas of the mouth where suspected deflective occlusal contacts exist B, None of the above fin the metal-ceramic technique, "degassing," the casting is required to I, eliminate residual surface oil II, remove gaseous impurities III, oxidize trace elements in the metal IV. eliminate oxidation The correc? answer is: ALT and IT B. I and IIT c. 1 and Iv D. I, II, and III E. I, II, andiv | a cold-curing denture resin, the activator is \/ I. hydroquinone I. present in the liquid III. sodium sulfide IV. present in the powder V. a tertiary amine ‘The corRecT answer is: A. Iand II B. I and IV II and IIT D. IT and V BE. Iv and V 5,/vhich of the following are causes of fracture or separa- tion of porcelain from metal in the porcelain-fused-to- gold technique? I. Poor design of the metal framework II. Excess thickness of the opaque layer © III, Occlusal contacts on porcelain IV. Contamination of metal before application of the opague layer V. Centric occlusal contacts at the junction of metal and porcelain YI. Failure to use one of the metal conditioners before applying the opaque layer yfA The correct answer is: oie eet Bs. Ty ve and yc. TV, cand O eRec Te e eee ts Tee TV, and vr PF. Tite Ty aaa why Should the embrasure onthe’ lingual between the Zaxiliary lateral incisor and the maxillary canine be partes curing mouth preparation for a maxillary Partial denture? To Br Bzevent the partial denture trom slipping distally e: Brevent the partial denture fron slipping mesisiae pb, 2revide additional retention for the partial dentyre ; provide adequate space for a reciprocating am (| + None of the above waich is the wosr appropriate procedure to correct oc- clusal discrepancies present in the procossed dentucce? A. Selective grinding after B G- Selective grinding in the mouth after the dentures are polished D. There is no need techniques have e B. None of the above 8/ During examinatio “ dentures, the tis: usually b: This clenching his teeth having an insufficient intake of ascorbic acid eating and drinking foods that are too hot using a mouthwash to which he is sensitive None of the above 9 In Soldering, the warN reason for leaving a narrow space § “ between parts to be joined is to allow fer A. expansion of the solder on solidification B. cleansing of the parts C. themal expansion of the parts D. uniform application of heat E. thermal contraction of the parts then @ non-rigid connector is used, the path of inser- of the ear into the keyway should be parallel co A. the path of insertion of the retainer carrying che keyway B ic with the keyway D. all of the above E. none of the above 11, A precision attachment removable partial deateeo’g n ’ preferred when abutment teeth are well supported epeth are present on both ends of the edentulous areas the patient is able to pay for the service ho posterior abutment teeth are present abutment teeth require restorationsaz. inten of the following considerations is Leasr important 12 in fabricating a removable partial denture? A. Esthetics B, Mouth preparation C. Stress distribution D. Choice of a partial denture alloy B, None of the above asf which of the following is the east important reason for making temporary aluminum protection on a prepared tooth? To A. guard against chipping or fracturing of bases in the tooth B. guard against sensitivity of the tooth C. maintain mesiodistal relationships D. maintain occlusal relationships E. All of the above Exposure of a partial denture cast to tap water should be minimized because A. the cast will be weakened B. eroding of the cast will result C. dimensional changes will occur in the cast D. the surface of the cast will acquire a chalky appearance E. None of the above It is often desirable to reduce occlusal interference in 15. the existing dentition before constructing a fixed pros- thesis. The #azV purpose for doing this is to ‘A. prevent trauma to the restoration B. reduce the amount of adjusting of the restoration after insertion C, maintain a more accurate anatomic occlusal surface on the restoration D. prevent duplicating the deflective occlusal contact in the restoration EB. None of the above The incisal guide on the articulator is the 16. A, mechanical equivalent of the horizontal overlap and vertical overlap mechanical equivalent of the compensating curve ©! same as the condylar guidance D. horizontal guidance E, None of the above For the forces from a removable partial denture to be is properly directed through an abutment tooth, the seat for fan occlusal rest should be prepared so that its floor is A. parallel to the plane of occlusion B. at right angles to the minor connector Cl at right angles to the long axis of the tooth sloping apically from the center of the occlusal surface None of the above The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension 18. of a complete denture that has been worn for a long time is A. epulis fissuratum B. pyogenic granulom: C. papillary hyperplasia D. giant cell reparative granuloma E. none of the above 19,,Meating gypsum casting investments above 1900°F in the presence“of carbon results in0 ay A. shrinkage porosity B. fine grain size C. sulfur gases being released D. oxidation of castings EB. none of the above In order to obtain GRreaTesT accuracy of dies, a rubber- base impression of prepared abutment teeth is taken directly with A. as much bulk of impression material between the tray and the teeth as possible B. a tray which has been formed from a previously made cast of that patient €, the smallest possible bulk of impression material D. a stock tray E. none of the above Major connectors of a maxillary partial denture may be beaded in order to A. produce a stronger framework B. aid in retention of the denture C. retain the acrylic to the metal framework D, produce a positive contact against the tissue E. form a finish line between metal and acrylic 4 Type III gold alloy casting, which is quenched from a temperature of 1300°F, exhibits A. a solid solution and is in the softened condition B. an eutectic mixture and is in the hardened condition C. an intermetallic compound and is in the hardenea condition D. an intermetallic compound and is in the softened condition E. none of the above For both the "'sh" and "s" sounds, the tongue makes contact with the A. canines B. hard palate C. maxillary premolars D. maxillary second molars E. soft palate A factor which determines the effectiveness of condensa- tion in the prevention of porcelain shrinkage is the A. shape and size of the particle B. thickness of the paltinum matrix C. speed of increase of furnace heat D. use of a powder containing particles that are all the same size E. None of the above A child, 14 years of age, has all teeth present, normal 25. ocelusion, Wolar roots not fully calcified. The mandibular right first molar has“ pathologic pulp exposure, endo- dontics is contraindicated, and the tooth must be extracted, The subsequent treatment indicated would be to place a removable partial denture place a fixed partial denture place a space maintainer place any one of the above appliances do nothing and observeTest 1/KEY KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) 12 23 14 7.TEST 2 ONS: question or incomplete statement is followed by several sug- ansvers or completions. Select the one that s&s7 answers the Hon or completes the statement. PRINT THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT Mm TH space az THe RIGHT. Would a gold alloy from the Type IV group wor be ected for a simple inlay? . This alloy is too ductile and would, therefore, teadily distort plastically in service. Hardness is so high that it would cause dangerous tooth abrasion Elongation qualities are too low to allow for marginal adaptation. The melting temperature is considerably higher than that of Class II gold alloys Elastic streagth is too high Which of the following maxillomandibular records permits the least variation and is the most reproducible record? 4, Centric relation B. Lateral relation ¢, Protrusive relation D, Occlusal vertical dimension B, Band C above Of the following, the least likely reason to recall Of patients treated with fixed bridges is to A check tissue adaptation B. check retainers for wear . check home care check occlusal condition of bridge adjust occlusal disharmonies “ dental plaster (50 m1. water/100 gm. plaster) and 4) improved stone (densite) (23 m1. water/100 gm. stone) are(y/ compared, dental plaster 4. has ‘the higher dry compressive strength B, has the higher wet compressive strength C, bas the higher setting expansion D. causes a higher temperature rise during setting per unit volume B. None of the above Tho lateral pterygoid muscle functions to I, elevate the mandible Il, protrude the mandible III, lift the mandible trom the pterygoid plate IV, move the mandible to the opposite side The correcr answer is 4, I ond II B. I and III c. I and Iv D. IT and IIL E. II and IV FP. III and IV Which of the following mos? influence cast positioning in surveying for removable partial denture designing? I. Location of undercuts for retention 11. Number of missing teeth MII. Esthetic requirements IV. Ease of insertion and removal V. Relation to the opposing cast ‘The correct answer is 4.1, II, and IV B. I, III, and IVC, I and IV D. If and Iv E. Iir andV F. All of the above 6Hf Ridge tissue tolerates some materials better than others. which of the following are TavE? I, Highly glazed porcelain is tolerated better than highly polished gold Highly polished porcelain is tolerated better than higbly polished acrylic Highly polished gold is tolerated better than unglazed porcelain Highly polished acrylic and highly polished gold are about equally tolerated The correc? answer is A. I, TI, and III B. 1, I1, and IV C. 1, Tir, and Iv D. Ii and Iv E. 1, 12,10 In placing a’ fixed bridge in one quadrant of a dental arch where conditions are asymptomatic, a dentist should) routinely A, equilibrate the entire occlusion B. construct the replacement to conform with the exist ocelusion C. equilibrate the opposing quadrant and construct th bridge to its occlusal pattern D. record contrie relation to permit evaluation of the occlusion prior to fixed prosthodontic construction E. None of the above 9, Radiographs are an aid to determining prognosis because the reaction of the bone that supports the abutment teetil can be judged by the A. shape of the roots of the abutment teeth B. amount of bone loss due to extractions C. reaction of the bone to previously induced stresses D. All of the above E, None of the above )/ In establishing the proper tilt of the surveyor table when surveying casts, the dentist would Firs? A. use an arbitrary tilt to create undercuts B. locate undercuts with casts placed on a horizontal plane C. adjust the tilt to permit the establistment of parald lel bracing planes D. establish an anterior tilt for the maxillary cast and a posterior tilt for the mandibular cast E. None of the above 11. The constituent of cobalt-chromium alloy which makes its corrosion resistance equal to that of gold is A. silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. tungsten E. chromit fd) atter the maxiilary cast has been correct iy mounted on “the articulator, the funetinally correct relation of the mandibular cast to the maxillary may be established by using A. an index made in centric relation but short of tooth contact B. the cusps and the sulci of the remaining teeth as a guide for relating the mandibular cast to the maxilla C. a musbbite wax index in which the pationt has brought the mandibular teeth into maximal contact with the opposing teetha wax index into v the postural (r wax to tooth contact L E. none of the above Ag? In a posterior fixed bridge, a pontic should be in 1 A. infraocelusion to reduce the load placed on the appliance B. supraocelusion to insure good function C. occlusal contact in centric, in working and in balancing D. contact in centric occlusion, may or may not be in contact in working, but not in contact in balancing » BE. None of the above 14 The size of posteridr teeth for complete dentures is L Y primarriy determined by A. the size of anterior teeth B. the circumference of the maxillary arch C. the distance fran the canines to posterior denture borders D. a combination of the anterior tooth space and the posterior tooth space h the patient has closed from tion just penetrating the useful posterior tooth space and characteristics of denture-supporting tissues scoring of the palatal bar on the cast is as necessary to give the major connector the required rigidity B. carried across the entire len: palatal bar ¢. carried across of the posterior the entire length of the anterior bar D to the areas of soft displaceable ti E the above 16. A denture patient who complained of a tingling sonsa- 16 tion in the lower lip would most likely need t have the mandibular denture relieved in the area of the A, labial trenun B. mental foramea C. sublingual gland D. centric forane E. None of the above Elastic materials used for impressions of prepared n abutment teeth are UWABLE to licate the ridge ace gingival tissue C. develop a good stone cast D. flow properly around the teeth E. None of the above mination of an edentulous patient reveals tuberosi- 18 sting retronolar pads when the mandible is at acceptable treatment plan would Ex ties contal rest position. The mo: be to A. proceed with denture construction and increase the vertical dimension for the necessary clearance B. proceed with denture construction and trim the retro- molar pad areas from the finished mandibular denture to eliminate interference C. reduce the retromolar pad areas surgically to gain adequate clearance before proceeding with construc- tion of the denturess surgically to gain adequate ding with construction of the D. reduce the tuberosit clearance bfore proce dentures E, None of the above Patients wearing partial dentures should return for 19 periodic examinations PRIMARILY because ‘A. adjustment of retainer arms may be necessar B. caries may be present under the retainer ams C. oxidized metal surfaces may need polishing D. changes in supporting tissues may have occurred E, None of the above Bracing of the partial denture framework is EST ac- 20 complished by the ‘A, rigid reciprocal arm and the body of the cla: B. rigid reciprocal arm and the flexible part of the retentive arm of the clasp C. rigid reciprocal am of the clasp D. retentive arm and the occlusal rest E. None of the above a renoveble partial denture 1e preferable to a fixed © 21. bridge when A Gapatulous areas are munerous Bi edentulous areas are iong Ci. abutnont teeth are short D. abutments are rotated B. abutsent teeth are tipped an-open vertical dimension may ADVERSELY affect 22. watgerention -B. protrusionC. centric relation “D. balanced occlusion £. interocclusal clearance A protrusive relation record 1s used to 23, Rrigjost the face-bow. B. record central relation C. adjust the incisal guide D. mount the mandibular cast E. adjust the condylar inclination After partial dentures are processed and before them trom the master casts, possible errors in o| showld be checked by A. remounting the dentures on the articuls removing 24. lusion or using previous mounting B, remounting the dentures on an articulator after registering a new centric relation record in the patient's mouth C. having the patient use sn abrasive past in the mouth D. checking the cuspal interference in the mouth using articulating paper B. either Cor D above faai'other conditions being normal, the Jpontie is constructed of i. gold exclusively posterior B, gold with a resin facial surface C. gold with a fused porcelain facial surface D. porcelain on the occlusal surface and gold approxi mating the ridge gold on the ocelusal surface and glazed porcelain ap~ proximating the mucosalog KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS)st 7 PROSTHODONTICS / i 3 Ve - wo EXAMINATION SECTION —?™2—T. TEST 1 , Each question or incomplete statement is followed by several suggested answers or completions. Select the one that BEST answers the question or completes the statement. PRINT THE LE F THE CORPECT ANSWER I HE SPACE AT THE RIGHT. llecting anterior teeth for complete denture pati onsiders the paticnt's facial size, shape and form age sex Physical features CORRECT answer et, 11, 111 5 11, 1V et, IV of the above 3 and soreness, limited to the crest of the edentu- Tidge supporting a removable partial denture, are festive of a @ lateral prematurity during the working movement during the nonworking movement II_onty III only f All of the above None of the above tors which influence the functional harmony of fixed thetic restorations includ: M, Obtaining an accurate centric relation registration M. Eliminating poor masticatory habit fi. Establishing connectors of maximum occlusogingival dimension r i, Developing maximum occlusal contact L The adaptive ability of oral tissues CORRECT answer is: nM, 1V rder to achieve optimum casting results in fal-ceranic technique, it is necessary to use a gypsum-bonded investment bonded inve! | properly adjusted W. carefully cleaned crucibl been limited to Type III goldCORREC I onl Tl ont I, TIT I 1 Two days after insertion of a distal extension saddle partial denture, which appeared le at the time of insertion, the prosthesis displays obvious tissueward movement. The cause may be I, an inaccurate master cast impression Il, high occlusion requiring correction Ill, changes occurring in the ridge form cast impression was made nce the master The CORRECT answer is: A. 1 ont B. 1, 1 c. IL D. II, [tI E. All of the above F, None of the above Properly mounted diagnostic casts facilitate planning for I. abutment preparation design to assure retentive preparations II, axiel alignmont of abutment preparati of treatment procedure aesthetic considerations and s uate crown-root ratios correction of existing occlusal disharmonies ppraisal of tissue contour in pontic areas and presence of pericdontal pockets and sequence lection of pontic type SORRECT answer is: I, If, If1, IV eh I, IL, Il, vi Ly If, Il ay Ebi II, IV Eb, In planning a fixed prosthe: amount of bone suppor sund the roots of abutment is of major con: IMPORTANT to this evaluation I. root length I. crown length III. number of roots IV. properly devitaliz Vv. fused or bifure d pulp car 1 roots. ‘The CORRECT answer is LIL B. I, III, V v D ut, Iv v : ail of the above (TS) The nonrigid connector may be used in fixed bridges in G those cases involving an bridges replacing two or more teeth t span bridges replacing one missing tooth where the prepared abutment teeth are not in parallel alignmentong span bridges opposing, a mucosa-borne partial denture where the anterior retainer of the bridge strikes an opposing natural tooth, but the distal portion of the bridge is in occlusion with the removable partial denture ong or short span bridges where one of the abutment teeth has limited periodontal support Pree-way space is synonymous with A. physiologic rest position B, interocclusal distance C. interdental arch space D, intermaxillary space BE, both A and B above Effects of cooling the mixing slab prior to cementation include: Increasing the amount of powder that can be incor- porated into the mix Increasing the setting tim the nouth Increasing the working time on the slab Decreasing free acid in the set cement Only A and B above Only B and C above ; Only C and D above All of the above After extractions and healing, the maxillary bearing discloses bony undercuts in both tuberosity areas Usually, the BEST treatment for this condition is to A. surgically reduce the undercuts just enough to allow a path of insertion do no surgical trimming on the ridge, but reduce the ture base in the undercut area use soft liner inserts in tuberosity areas of maxillary denture reduce both bony undercut tuberosities so no bony undercut exists anywhere on the ridge Dental plaster powder differs from dental stone powder PRINARILY in chemical formula crystal structure solubility in water physical nature of the particle The strength of a soldered joint is BEST increased by 13. A. using a higher carat solder as B. increasing its dimension in a direction parallel to the force to be applied to it increasing its dimension direction to the line of force to be applied to it increasing the width of the joint by having a of at least 0.05 inch between the parts to be electroplating the joint with gold to prevent corr Ae 9 big perpendicularThree weeks after insertion of a fixed bridge, marked discomfort tq heat and cold but not sweets occurs The MOST likely cause is gingival recession unseating of the bridge deflective occlusal contact torsional forces on one abu incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth In arranging prosthetic teeth for balanced occlusion, increasing the incisal guidance A. inereasee the condylar guidance B. decreases the height of the cus} C. inereases the compensating curve D. inereases the plane of orientation The GREATEST cause of porosity in a porcelain jacket crowa is A. moisture contaminat B. excessive firing temperature i » to anneal the platinum matrix ve condensation of the porcelain te condensation of the porcelain To impart a softening heat_troatment to a dental gold alloy, the BEST method would be to A. pickle the casting in a weak acid B. quench the hot casting in cold water ©. bench cool # ting temperature to room tempera- ure D. reheat the cooled casting to 700°F, hold at that temperature for 90 minutes, and bench cool patient complains of pain when brushing a tooth which te veneer cast gold crown. MOST probable cause of this pain is occlusal interference in centric and working relations failure of the restoration to cover prepared dentin overheating the tooth during ation open mesial or distal contacts cast-wrought combination clasp is DESIRABLE because it cannot be re-adapted only when used with extension base partial dentures because it offers no stress-breaking action because of its ability to flex in all directions none of the above Porcelain bonded to metal is STRONGEST when it is A. slowly fired B. under tension C. under compression D. fired several times before completionteeth together as abu to B distribute occlusal load | improve retention of the prosthesis § facilitate plaque control | preserve remaining alveolar support mum design of embrasures stage impression technique may be considered for ial denture construction PRIMARILY beca it provides a more accurate impression of the abut ment teeth , it provides a more detailed impression of the soft tissue resilient and nonresilient tissue involved D, it enables the dentist to border mold B, both 3 D above F. none of the above Patient in excellent health ring complete features complains of 2 burning sensation in the anterior kely caused by inamide deficiency ive occlusal contact €. failure to relieve the incisive papillae area D, excessive thickness of the denture in the rugae area hinge axiec on a patient, one should use e fac atic faci ic records D, centric relation registrations For posterior abutments with acceptable crown-root ratios, average crown length and normal esthetic requirements, the retainer of choice is a crown. A, full B. partial veneer C. resin veneer gold D. metal-ceramic bonded{I TEST 2 DIRECTIONS: Each question or incomplete statement is followed by veral suggested answers or completions. Select the one that BEST answers the question or completes the statement. PRINT THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER IV THE SPACE AT THE RIGHT. A patient has a complete maxillary denture against natural teeth. He complains of pain in the area of the left temporomandibular joint. Examination of the posterior teeth indicates that these teeth contact first on the right side. Patient then slides forward and to the left to effect good cusp interdigitation. What treatment procedure should be instituted to relieve this patient's symptoms? A. Markedly reduce the cusp height of the mandibular posterior teeth on the right side B. Grind the right posterior teeth to a flat plane C. Re-evaluate and correct the posterior occlusion D. Reduce the occlusal vertical dimension Why would a clear surgical template be used for an imme- diate denture? ‘To the dentist in placing sutures To prevent bleeding for the first 24 how As an aid in trimming bone to fit the immediate denture To facilitate shortening the borders so the denture will fit securely Where should grinding be accomplished if the following conditions ‘exist? 5 The distobuccal cusp of the mandibular right first molar? strikes prematurely in centric occlusion in the central fossa of the maxillary first molar; the distobuccal of the mandibular right first molar is not premature in working or balancing occlusion. A. Grind the central fossa of the maxillary molar Grind the distobuccal cusp of the mandibular molar ust the cusp tip and the fossa ither A or B above is acceptable; ridge tissue tolerates highly polished gold better than unglazed porcelain glazed porcelain better than highly polished gold polished porcelain better than highly polished acrylic IY. polished acrylie and highly polished gold about the The CORRECT answer is: A. I only D. IL ondyfesiobuccal cusp of the mandibular left first molar in deflective occlusal contact in centric occlusion Gt not in lateral excursions i might be spot-ground to effect a balanced occlusion? mandibular right first molar |, Mesiobuceal cusp of the ary first molar and marginal ridges of the maxil second promolar nesiobuccal cusp of distolingual cusp of the mandibular the maxillary left first molar left first molar x inserting a relined distal exten- ial prosthesis, vertical movement of the base is I, Ridge tissue changes occurring since the reline impression Il. Failure to properly orient the metal contacted teeth during reline impression procedures III. Premature ocelusal contacts framework to the The CORRECT ans A, I onty Bet, © Seat, 111 Ds II, ILE B, IIt onty F. All of the above be executed in Which of the following procedures must sts from order to obtain the NOST accurate possible c alginate impressions? A, Box the impression before pouring B. Pour the impression immediately C. Leave the cast in the impression at least one hour before separating D, Store the impression in water for one hour before pouring E, Store the impression in a pouring F, None of the above humidor for one hour before i L| Te amount of effective setting expansion of investment may vary depending on the I. type of sprue pin type of gold all . III. type of casting ring used NIV. composition of the wax and type of pattony~ The CORRECT answer is: Ac 1, Ty IV D. II, IV G. IV only the above a casting2) Wd 9./ Selective grinding is a procedure used ROUTINELY J A. to reduce the vertical dimension of occlusion B. to reduce the inclination of condylar guidance C. for final correction of any existing occlusal disharmony in dentures D. to improve the esthetics of the final arrangement of the anterior teeth A maxillary permanent first molar has extruded 14 mm beyond the plane of occlusion into the space where the corresponding mandibular molar is missing. This situation would be CORRECTED by A. constructing a mandibular fixed bridge to the existing occlusion B. extracting the maxillary extruded molar and construct- _, ing fixed bridges for both space A. restoring the maxillary molar to a satisfactory plane of occlusion with a cast restoration, then construct- ing the mandibular bridge cutting the maxillary extruded moler off the working cast, constructing the mandibular bridge and equili- brating the maxillary molar to the new occlusal plane after the mandibular bridge is cemented carefully reshaping and repolishing the maxillary molar to an acceptable occlusal plane by selective grinding, then constructing the mandibular bridge The MOST reliable method of recording centric occlusion when constructing a mandibular bilateral distal extension partial denture occluding with natural teeth is to con- struct a stabilized occlusion rim A. for the mandibular master cast and record the rela- tionship with baseplate wax for the mandibular master cast and record the rela~ tionship with utility wax for the mandibular master cast and record the rela~ tionship with zine oxide-eugenol registration paste attached to the finished partial denture framo and record the relationship with zine oxide-eugenol registration paste Elements contributing to a satisfactory bond between casting and porcelain in the metal-ceramic technique (Coramea-typealloy) are “he Au, Cu, Ag B. Au, Pt, Pa Cc. Pt, Pd, D. Fe, Cu, Au BE. Fe, Sn, Au An ADVANTAGE of a wide, thin palatal bar as compared a narrow bar is that the wide bar A. can be adequately rigid with less apparent bulk B. is easier to polish + is more stable D. is less irritating to the soft tissue4 (#2) me MOST important / {e'molding 1s trays for accurate musc . stability B. a tight pos C, stability and le D, a tight peripheral erior sea ck of displacement disregarding G1S¢ seal ement trees or non-rigtd type A broken st indicated when A. retainers can b ties ne designed to have equal retentive qi p. dwo or three missing teeth are to be replaced B. constructing a mandibular fixed partial bridge only C- Sted splinting involves two or three abutment teeth e. retainers cannot be prepared to together with- put excessive tooth reduction when a patient wearing complete dentures makes a whistling 16 When "bile enunciating the 9 sound, {t 1s used by und We anterior teeth being placed too 722 labially B. the anterior teeth being placed too faF Tingually Cl too great a vertical overlap * the palatal vault being too high and narrow 1 extension of a of the distobucea determin impression is The shape and amount omplete mandibular a during border molding by the ‘Ae ramus of the mandible 3. lateral pterygoid muscle tone of the buccinator muscle tion of the buccal frena 1 of the masseter mus edentulous size and lo position and act s. | the calcium sulfate type of investment for gold castings 18. The Gr generally heated above 1300°F because it'may expand too much the gold will expand excessive the Golfticient of the thermolinear expansion changes ee Goosition will cause corrosion of the gold o| tn recording contric relation, the mandible can be 70- 18. J truded by having the patien truded by bene jaw muscles while the dentist manually manipulates the chin up and down t izontal ‘comp: gingival thir middle third of distal undercut D. in a mesial undercut the abc time der ratio physiologic rest position as related to C. vertical alloys A. are Les! B. are gene C. melt at D. have a with go: tion dime rally softer a higher tempe 2 hydrocolloid by a alloys, the t and vertical C, vertical dimension, centric relation, and degree sating curve fossa and meniscus for removable partial so that the retentive clasp the crown the sett B. centric oc D. protru vtur wer tensile strength attacked by mec KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS) 16. i7 18 19 has pract tissue properly to rior teeth overlap and dentures should be 22, tips can be placed of the crown tering the obalt-chromium casting A D E cal significance 24, evaluation of maxillomandibular relations, ive occlusion the complete the muscula time of an 3 lusion64 PROSTHODONTICS EXAMINATION SECTION // TEST 1 tion or incomplete statement i ested answers or completic 7 followed by RECTIONS: Each que s, Select the several sugi One that BEST answers the question or completes the statement. Pi EQPER OF THE CORRE WER I ACE AT Both porcelain and acrylic resin teeth are used in 1] prostheses. Both are secured to the base during processing. The CORRECT anchorage i A. Both are chemically united with the resin base. B. Both are held to the base mechanical bond. * The anchorage of both kinds of teeth is both chemical and mechanical. D. Resin chemically bonded to the base and porcel are mechanically held to the base. E. Resin teeth are mechanically held to the base and porcelain teeth are chemically bonded to the base. 2, Within practical limits, using LESS water in mixing “ps product that B. is stronger D. is less brittle plaster will result in a A. contracts ¢. is more porous E. is more flexible eugenol impression a, The ing time of a zinc oxid paste may BEST be accelerated by : adding a drop of oleic acid to the mix B. chilling the mixing slab and the spatula C. adding a drop of water to the mix D. increasing the amount of eugenol E. increasing the amount of zine oxide 4] Heating a gypsum cast at a temperature of 110°C one } hour will ve off its excess gauging water only B. have minimal effect on its crushing strength C. weaken it because its water of crystallization ven off the D. strengthen it because it is a recorded fact th dry crushing strength of gypsum is high when compared with the wet crushing strength E. none of the above 5. Asbestos is used as a lining in a casting ring to A. insulate against thermal conductivity - B. allow for expansion of the investment C. prevent fracture of the investment during heating D. facilitate removal of the investment after casting E. all of the aboveHeating gypsum casting investments above 1300° presence of carbon results in A. fine grain size B. shrinkage porosity C. oxidation of castings D. sulfur gases being released E. all of the above A Type III gold alloy casting which is quenched from a temperature of 1300°F exhibits a(n) A. intermetallic compound and is in the hardened condition B. intermetallic compound and is in the softened condition C. outectie mixture and is in the hardened condition D. solid solution and is in the softened condition E. solid solution and is in the hardened condition base-metal partial denture alloy is RESISTANT to tarnish and corrosion because of its A. passivity B. high hardnes: C. high fusion temperature D. high noble metal content E. activity For a MORE rigid structure, a base-metal ial denture alloy should be selected rather than a Type IV gold because | alloy has a A. lower elongation B. higher modulus of elasticity C. more favorable tensile strength D. higher hardness number EH. higher ductility DISADVANTAGE of a polyether impression material is its A. low modulus of elasticity low coefficient of thermal conductivity consistency very similar to the reversible hydro~ colloids + dimensional instability in the presence of moi + low ductility What is the ADVANTAGE of using higher-fineness gold solders rather than lower-fineness gold solders? A. Greater hardness B. Lower melting range C. Greater resistance to tarnish D. Greater response to hardening heat treatment E. All of the above In processing methyl methacrylate, the resin may show porosity if the flask is placed in boiling water. Where in the denture is this type of porosity MOST likely to occur? A. Throughout B. In the thickest part C. Near the borders D. Close to the surface E. On the tissue surresult polysulfide impression materials set FASTER of I. low relativ 11. decreasing the dew point 111. decreasing the temper: pumidity fhe temperature of the mixing { the room ture of the mixing slab pad below iV, a high ambient temperature ‘ he CORRECT answer we Ae Ty Ay 1 II onty Dp. ik, 1 nique, the bond between porcelain 14. In the metal-ceramic the noble-metal alloy is I. proper matching of coe Pt metal and porcelain 11. formation of ba 111, formation of noble iV. surface roughne dependent on the ficients of thermal expa and 1 oxides metal oxides of the alloy rhe CORRECT answer is: A. LE ondy Be Ty GT FE It, IV E. Ul, /ia casting the metal substructure for & metal-ceramic casttign, it is necessary to use & ded investment { investment sr other gold, Til. gas: ot_been used fo IV. erucible which has alloys : ‘he CORRECT answer ist A. I, U1 I, IV ©. Il only D. If, Tit B11, 1¥ g. In patients with complete dentnccs, fissures found at 16. In Peorners of the mouth are MOST froau ntly caused by {, avitaminosis 11, insufficient vertical dimension TI. blood dyscrasias Iv. general hyperactivity The CORRECT answer ist A. I, I B. I 1, Ut p. Ii, LII E. I LT. fixed partial denture on 17{ The forces i abutment tooth sl Ccgsible-at right angles to the tong axes far as of the teeth 1I._parall Ill. by dec Iv. by decr vi in a mesial will offer ng_axes of the teeth faciolingual dimensi Sing the mesiodistal dimension firection so that teeth nearer additional, support n of pontic of the pontic the midlineThe CORRE Ke ty D. ty In order to maintain the health sue beneath pontic, it is DESIRABLE ape the ridge area on the cast and use gold for the ridge contact IL. scrape the ridge area on the cast for the ridge contact have passive contact with and use porcelain the ridge tissue with no blanching apparent when the restoration is placed in the mouth have slight blanching of the ridge tissue when the restoration is placed in the mouth have minimal tissue coverage ‘The CORRECT answer is A. I, IV B. 1, V D. TI, V E. Iv, A permanently cemented fixed partial denture may become / loose because of I. insufficient retention II. deformation of the metal casting on ‘IIT. lack of ombrasure space IV. torque V. passive contact of the pontic to the ridge lap in the abutment preparation the abutment ne CORRECT answer 1 Re 14 1 B. I, II, D. Tit, Iv, E. IV, ¥ 20, o./ The posterior palatal seal for a maxillary denture u +I. is placed immediately posterior to the vibrating line II. helps to compensate for the lack of adaptation caused hrinkage of acrylic III. is not necessary if a metal base is made IV, will vary in outline and depth according to the palatal form encountered The CORRECT answer Ae Ia Td D. If, IV From properly mounted diagnostic casts, determinations can be made for fixed prosthodontic treatment planning concerning T. axial alignment of abutment teeth ®\I1. paysical condition of abutment teoth }aL. gingival tissue contour and pocket depth IV. tentative design of abutment preparations ‘The CORRECT answer is A. I only By dg Tt Cot D. It, IV E. All of the above2, For achieving a natural appearance in complete dentures, the anterior teeth must appear separate and distinct from one another. This may be accomplished by employing I. diastemata 11. the shadow effect 11. different shades of teeth IV. wedge-shaped spaces at the incisal thirds ‘The CORRECT answer is: A. I, II ? Oe die 133, D. II, I1f, IV the above In partial denture construction, a dental surveyor should determine the path of insertion determine design conjunction with mouth preparation determine the depth of rest seats ‘The CORRECT answer is: A. I only B. I, II iG. D. ih) F 1 ALL of the above 2. fhe closing movement of the mandible 1s effected by the J synergistic action of lateral pterygoid and depressor muscles IL. relaxation of the lateral pterygoid muscle III. synergism of retracting portions of masseter and temporal muscles and the retracting components of the depressors IV. contraction of the deep portion of masseter and posterior fibers of temporal muscles combining forces with’ the depressors (digastric and geniohyoid) contraction of the elevators Tae CORRECT answer is: Be Ly Th, IE B. I, 11, 1¥ c. 1, Iv, V D. II, it, V E. If, Iv, Vv To be acceptable for repair, an existing removable partial denture should have a(n) ‘acceptable fit of the metal to the teeth rigid major connector properly located with relation to teeth and tissues acceptable design IV. framework that can be positioned positively and predictably without the missing part The CORRECT answer is: : Ae Ly, Ty TIE 1, 11, 1 G.. ty THs IV D. II, Ifl, IV All of the above —_—KEY (CORRECT ANSWERS)TEST 2 incomplete statement is followed by ‘s or completions. Select th completes the Each question or several suggested answer: one that BEST answers the question or PR BOPER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER Mtering crown form to allow effective clasping may include ], producing flat planes 11. Ghanging the location of the h til, adding bulk to the tooth ght of contour The CORRECT answer ist a. 1, II B. 1, IL c. U1, 11 B, All of the above D, III on ie reciprocal arm of a circumferential clasp should oo LWAYS = T. contact a guiding plane near its tip re eeeeeet a guiding plane near its attachment to the minor connector tir. contact a guiding plane approximately 180° around the tooth from its tip Iv. be rigid V. be flexible The CORRECT answer is A. 1, IV B. I, V . 11, IV D. 1, V E. Ur, IV 3./ At the trial try-in of maxil and mandibular complete ee ‘/ Atatures, the f sound disclosed the upper incisal of seotieeth just making contact with the vet-Line of ieser lip. Production of the sibilant sound suggests thet the mandibular anterdor teeth are in a protrusive relation with no vertical overlap. It may be concluded that length h are correctly set fo: eth are set with insufficient ; maxillary anterior t 11. maxillary anterior t fdcial fullnes' III. vertical dimension of occ] IV, mandibular anterior teeth are ve on is too great et too far facially pular anterior teeth are too long The CORRECT answe A. 1, I 1, IV @. 21, Tit TI, V D. II,