Question Booklet Sl. No.

gd Pt Azs
v vg
w ES
DEPARTMENT OF STATE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING
NO. 4, 100 FT RING ROAD, BANASHANKARI, 3RD STAGE, BANGALORE-560 085

J.n.J.E./J.JA.JA.J. jPU , A g 2011

NTSE/NMMS EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER 2011

wP II / PAPER II

vgU
w
8 / CLASS 8

AVP
w jP/SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
REGISTER NO :

Ai : 90 U

TIME : 90 MINUTES

http://www.ntsescholars.com

EAV/P q

ENGLISH/KANNADA

CsyUU ZU

1. jP gAsUAq vPt F PAi vUz, jg

Cx Aiiz l Eg, Ev CAU jQvPz.
2.
3.
4.
5.

6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.

12.

Aiiz z PAqAz Cz AgV g PAi

qAivPz.
r N.Ji.Dg (OMR) Gvg wP CqPUArg, 90 Ug
PAi U qVz.
N.Ji.Dg (OMR) n R lz Pg J iwU ( Azt
AS, jP izs, AU, Ai zs, U, zP v w Ev)
jAiiV vA CzP AAz CAQU vAz. ( q iqz)
J U PqAi, w U MAz CAPz.
jP CAi ,
w Ai eUgPvAz Nj.
w U qVg GvgU Q jAiiz Gvg PAq rj.
N.Ji.Dg (OMR) lz w ASU j Az Gvg
Ugw qVg vU Q jAiiz Gvgz v
/P Ai Am iv GAiV Ugv ir.
Gz : 20 Ai j Gvg P .A. 3 DVz N.Ji .Dg
(OMR) lz P A. 20 g Az F jw /P
Am GAiV v Ugv iqz. F PU vjzAv
AtV vAP.
20. 1 2 3 4 (Ez Gzgu iv)
MAz U GvgV MAzQAv Z vU Ugv irz CAv
GvgU vAz jUt CAPU q g.
av PPV U PAi PAi jVz. PAi
Ez Aii sUzAi Aii jwAi Ugv iqvPz.
N .Ji.Dg (OMR) lz Uv z Csy U Por
ZgPg vz iqP.
jP C Vz Avg Gvjz N.Ji.Dg (OMR) l
Por ZgPjU vz MvPz.
jP PorAiU Plg, zgtAi (Ez
JPP GPgtU) vgz z.
N.Ji.Dg (OMR) l sw iq ZU :
wAiAz U MAz MAz jAiiz Gvggvz.
J vU /P Am Az iv vAP,
Gvg vAz z Aiwr.
vUg ASU PtzAv v AtV vAP.
(q iqP )
Gvg wPAi g Aiiz jwAi Ugv/Vl Cx
ZQAiiU iqgz.
Gvg wPAi PAqg gPqU Aiiz Ugv iqvPz.

Uj CAPU
: 90
MAX. MARKS : 90
Instructions to the Candidates

1. Immediately after the commencement of the Examination check that

this question booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing
pages or items etc. If so, get it replaced by another Question Booklet.
2. The sealed question booklet containing 90 questions enclosed
with the OMR answer sheet is given to you.
3. Fill up the general information in OMR sheet such as (Register
No., Medium, Sex, Type of school, category, Disability status
etc.) darken the concerned blocks in OMR sheet for the above
information (Shading).
4. All questions are compulsory, each question carries one mark.
5. During the examination,
Read the questions carefully.
Determine the correct answer from out of the four available
choices given under each question.
Completely darken/shade the relevant oval against Question
No. in the OMR answer sheet, using blue/black ball point pen.
Ex: In an question paper if Sl. No. 3 is correct answer for
Question No. 20, then darken OMR answer sheet using blue/
black ball point pen as follows.
20. 1 2 3 4 (This is an Example only)
6. If more than one oval is darkened for a given question, such
answer is treated as wrong and no marks will be given.
7. Sheets for rough work are appended in the question booklet at
the end. You should not make any marking on any other part of
the question booklet.
8. The Candidate and Room Supervisor should sign in the OMR sheet.
9. Candidate should return the OMR answer sheet to the room
supervisor before leaving the examination hall.
10. The calculator, mobiles and any other electronic equipment are
not allowed inside the examination hall.
11. Instructions to fill up the OMR sheets :
There is only one correct answer for each question.
All entries in the oval must be shaded with blue/black ball
point pen only. Do not try to alter the entry.
Oval should be darkened completely so that the numeral inside
the oval is not visible.
Do not make any stray marks on OMR sheet.
12. No marking should be made on the bar codes appearing in the
OMR answer sheet.

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SAT(K)

AVP
w jP
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

Aia/CONTENTS
SL.NO.

SUBJECT

QUESTION NO.

P. A. A.

Ai

FROM

PAGE

TO

AS

01.

PHYSICS

EAz

.......

12

3-5

.......

13

24

6-8

.......

25

36

9-12

.......

37

48

13-16

.......

49

59

17-20

.......

60

70

21-23

.......

71

90

24-30

sv
02.

CHEMISTRY

gAi
03.

BIOLOGY

f
04.

HISTORY

Ew
05.

GEOGRAPHY

s
U
06.

CIVICS

gw
07.

MATHEMATICS

Utv


2

*SATK*

SAT(K)

sv

PHYSICS

g g Pgt
1 . dP CwAi R

1. Sparkling of diamond is due to

1) Refraction of light

1) Q Qs

2) Reflection of light

2) Q ws

3) Dispersion of light

3) Q sd

4) Total internal reflection of light

4) Q At DAvjP

ws

2. The sun becomes visible before the

actual sunrise and remains visible
even after the actual sunset. It is
because of http://www.ntsescholars.com

2 . Ai z A i P v

Ai i z A v g Ai
UZjzP Pgt
1) Q ZzgP

1) Scattering of light

2) Q wPgt

2) Diffraction of light

3) Q Qs

3) Refraction of light

4) Q sd

4) Dispersion of light

zZQA i
3 . MAz 1500 eU
15 P A qU P z g Cz g

3. If a bulb uses 1500 Joules of current

in 15 seconds then its power is

1) 50 W

1) 50 m

2) 70 W

2) 70 m

3) 10 W

3) 10 m

4) 100 W

4) 100 m

4. Speed and Velocity are numerically

equal only in the case of

4 . d v U Egqg ASi

Vgz

1) Linear motion

1) g ZAi

2) Curvilinear motion

2) Q Ai ZAi

3) Periodic motion

3) DvP ZAi

4) Oscillatory motion

4) DAz ZAi
3

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SAT(K)

5 . g Ai vjz EAV

5. Which of the following Capital English

Letters does not show lateral inversion ?

zq CPgU
UA Aiiz?

1) A I O V

1) A I O V

2) O W X M

2) O W X M

3) A W B X

3) A W B X

4) O I M V

4) O I M V
6 . MAz MAmAi zz GvAi 113 F.

6. The body temperature of a Camel

is 113 F. Its temperature in Kelvin
Scale is

P z wAi F GvA i
1) 31 K

1) 31 K

2) 318 K

2) 318 K

3) 321 K

3) 321 K

4) 324 K

4) 324 K

U
PAv
U

Ctz

7 . PV
Pj DAi

7. The molecular theory of magnetic

substances is supported by

1)

g
g
g

g g g
g g g
g g g

4)

g
g
g

g
g

g g g
g g g
g g g

g
g
g

g
g
g

g
g

3)

:3

g g g
g g g
g g g

4)

g
g
g

g
g

g g g
g g g
g g g

v P g z Z A i Czs v
jAi P
zU Zz zg
U l
U Cv
1) 2 :

1) 2 :
:2

g
g
g

g
g

8 . wd r Eg vz

MAz PAi

8. The ratio of distance travelled to

the displacement covered by a
body along circumference of a semicircle of radius r is
2)

3)

g
g

g
g
g

3)

g
g

g
g
g

g
g
g

g
g
g

2)

2)

1)

2)

:2

3)

:3

4) 3 :

4) 3 :
4

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SAT(K)

9 .
gV 30 zg

9. Mohan moves 30 mts in a straight line

towards East and then moves 40 mts
to the South. Find his displacement

Gvg
QU qz
Avg zQt Q PqU

P
v.
gV 40 zg
Uzg C

l

1) 70 mts.

1) 70

2) 20 mts.

2) 20

3) 50 mts.

3) 50

4) 60 mts.

4) 60

10. The type of motion with reference to

friction in decreasing order is

10 . W u A i P r Ai i U A v P V

ZU

jAiiz DAi

1) rolling, static, sliding

1) Gg, , eg

2) rolling, sliding, static

2) Gg, eg,

3) static, sliding, rolling

3) , eg, Gg

4) sliding, static, rolling

4) eg, , Gg

11. The following is not an equation of

motion

11 . F P V U Ai i z Z A i
Pgt
? http://www.ntsescholars.com

1) v = u + at

1) v = u + at

v+u
t
3) v u = at

2) a =

vu
t

4) a =

v+u
t
3) v u = at

2) a =

4) a =

12. In a maximum-minimum thermometer,

the indicator does not come down
when the level of mercury comes down
because

vu
t

12 . MAz U j - P v i P z

zg
z
l Pr DzU ZP PU

EAig Pgt
1) zgz vP ZVz

1) Mercury is heavy liquid

2) Surface of mercury is convex

2) zgz Vgz

3) Surface of mercury is concave

3) zgz Vgz

4) Mercury is a silvery liquid

4) zg MAz Ai z
5

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SAT(K)
CHEMISTRY

gAi

13. Gram molecular mass of Calcium

Carbonate is

13. PAiA Pm Ct gAi

1) 98 UA

1) 98 gms

2) 89 UA

2) 89 gms

3) 100 UA

3) 100 gms

4) 102 UA

4) 102 gms

14. 4, 5, 6 Cx 7 EP U

14. The properties of elements with

4, 5, 6 or 7 valence electrons is

zsvUU iV Eg Ut
1) Ai

1) metallic

2) CAi

2) non-metallic
3) acidic

3) DAi

4) alkaline

4) vAi
15. U
iV wz Eg

15. Metals generally do not react with the

acid

1) Sulphuric acid

1) jP D

2) Hydrochloric acid

2) qPjP D

3) Nitric acid

3) nP D

4) Carbonic acid

4) PP D
16. z P n A i En g v z

16. A copper doll kept in a showcase looses

its shine with time because of the
formation of

UAAiAz Czg Pz
P Pgt C GAmU

1) Oxides

1) DPqU

2) Hydroxides

2) qPqU

3) Chlorides

3) PgqU

4) Sulphates

4) lU
6

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SAT(K)

17. dPv tP Gzgu

A iAzg

17. An example for hydrated salt is

1) Iron Sulphate

1) Ptz m

2) Sodium Chloride

2) rAiA P gq

3) Calcium Carbonate

3) PAiA Pm

4) Ammonium Chloride

4) CAiA Pgq
18. ZgAAiU x Ag

18. The element which exhibits variable

valency is http://www.ntsescholars.com

zsv AiizAzg

1) Nitrogen

1) gdP

2) Oxygen

2) DdP
3) ddP

3) Hydrogen

4) EAU

4) Carbon

19. gitU PAwAi vgz

19. Magnetic moment of atom is

KPAzg

1) because of electrically neutral

neutrons

1) zzA
gvz m UAz
2) z zs v It

2) Equal number of positively &

negatively charged particles

zzAUAz

Az
3) t dPAz

3) Small nucleus

4) z PPUAz

4) Definite orbits

20. vi P MAz 0 AnU q Eg

AdU q A i P j Eq Vz .
Pg zsV Pz . PP

20. A thermometer is inserted into a

beaker filled with ice at 0C. The
beaker is heated slowly. The
temperature does not rise for some
time. This is because

viPz v ZUgz
PAq gz. Ez KPAzg
1) AdUqAi vtVgvz
2) G
0 A. g AdUq
Az 0 A. g jU
z GAiVq vz

3) j Azv
AdUqV
Av Z
4) j Azv AdUqVAv
Pr

1) ice is very cold

2) heat was used for changing ice at
0 C to water at 0 C
3) the density of water is more than ice
4) the density of water is less than the
ice
7

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SAT(K)

GAmUU
21. Q A igvV t

21. No energy is absorbed or emitted as a

result of mixture formation except in
dissolution processes because

Q A i jP Cx
qUqA iiU. KPAzg
1) tz PtU q gg

1) There is no interaction between the

particles of the mixture

CAvgQAi Egz

2) PtU g WlU v

2) The particles make a separate phase

3) tz WlPU wU

3) There will be a change in the state

of components of the mixture

zu DUz

4) tU WlPU Cz

4) The constituents of the mixture will

be of the same state

wU Egz

22. EP
Azsz
EAz g

22. Electro velant bond is

1) CAiiP Azs

1) Ionic bond

2) Ai Azs

2) Covalent bond

3) Ai Azs

3) Metallic bond

4) q d Azs

4) Hydrogen bond
23. D gzsP JAzg

23. Antacids are

1) vAi AAiPU

1) Basic compounds

2) DAi AAiPU

2) Acidic compounds

3) lU

3) Vitamins

4) nU

4) Proteins
24. GP vAiijPAi UgU
24. Vinegar is used in the preparation of
pickles because it

Pgt, Cz

1) curbs the growth of bacteria

vqUlvz

1) QjAii tUAi

2) provides sour taste

2) Ai gaAi MzVvz

3) enhances the quality

3) Utl avz

4) makes pickles delicious

s vVvz

4) j
8

SAT(K)

BIOLOGY

*SATK*

25. t vAvU iqng z

25. Chromosomes are made up of

1) Proteins and Carbohydrates

1) nU v PgUAz

2) Lipids and Nucleic Acids

2) q (P)U v QP

DUAz
3) QP DU v
nUAz
4) PgU v qUAz

3) Nucleic Acids and Proteins

4) Carbohydrates and lipids
26. The cell organelle which helps in the
manufacture, storage and export of
proteins is

26. nU Gvz, AUu v

UtPA i g
U PtzAU
1) mPArAi
2) Mgmz JAqP
gnPi
3) U AQt
4) Pg

1) Mitochondria
2) Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
3) Golgi Complex
4)

Plasma membrane

27. P g t P A A z A v E U

27. Which among the following is not true

regarding transpiration?

Aiiz jAi ?
1) Pgt vA
Uvz
2) AiA P Dgz
UtPU Ai iqvz
3) ghi P g v
PgVz tU UtPU
Ai iqvz
4) g DAi gz v
gAzsU P fqvz

1) Transpiration cools the plant

2) It helps in the conduction of food
through phloem
3) It helps in the conduction of water
& dissolved salts through xylem
4) Water is lost in the form of vapour
through stomata

28. EU
Aiiz PAid AvvwU

28. Which among the following is not an

example for vegetative propagation?
1) Potato
2) Ginger
3) Coconut
4) Banana

GzguAi?
1) DUq
2) Ap
3) vAU
4)

*SATK*

SAT(K)

t
U
A i Q A iAi
29. fU

29. The process of growth in living

organisms is

1) v Cgv

1) External and irreversible

2) v gv

2) External and reversible

3) DAvjP v gv

3) Internal and reversible

4) DAvjP v Cgv

4) Internal and irreversible

zA iz AiUU Dd
P v
30. i
gP

g
gd iq gP
U

30. The blood vessels which supply

1) zs

oxygeneted blood to the muscles of

human heart

2) j Cz

1) Aorta

3) Pgj CzsU
4) j Czs

2) Pulmonary veins

31. U -

3) Coronary artery

http://www.ntsescholars.com

1) U DdP v

4) Pulmonary artery

Eg EAUz qDPq
gv

31. Plants take in

2) U EAUz qDPq

1) Oxygen during day and Carbon

dioxide during night

Eg DdP

gv

2) Carbon dioxide during day and

3) U DdP j

Oxygen during night

EAUz q DPq qUq

3) Oxygen and give out Carbon

iqv

dioxide during day

4) Eg EAUz q DP q

j DdP qUq

4) Carbon dioxide and give out

iqv

Oxygen during night

10

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SAT(K)

Agz,
32. Aiiz ftPj QtU

32. The digestive juice that does not have

any digestive enzyme but helps in
emulsification of fats is

z JPgt
z Ai iq
ftg

1) Bile juice

1) vg

2) Pancreatic juice

2) zfgP g

3) Gastric Juice

3) dog g

4) Saliva

4) g

33. The hardest substance in the human

body is

33. i
zz

CvAv Ppt
1) qAm

1) Dentine

2)

2) Bone

3) J

3) Enamel

4) z

4) Cartilage

34. g U Dg zs
At (s nP) zs JAz
z

z. KPAzg Ez F PV
Az.

34. The mode of nutrition in green plants

is described as holophytic because
it involves,
1) Manufacture
of
organic
substances from inorganic raw
materials in the presence of
sunlight

1) g Q AiAz

gAi PZUAz
Ai U
vAiigUv

2) Manufacture of inorganic
substances from organic raw
materials in the presence of
sunlight

2) Ai Q AiAz

Ai PZ UAz
gAi U vAiigUv
3) gAiP QAi PAq

3) Synthesis of food using chemical

energy

Dg AvUvz
4) jgP DdP

4) Release of oxygen into the

environment

qUqU

vz
11

*SATK*

SAT(K)

35. z U v Cz P j Ai i V

35. The correct match of type of Algae

AztPA iiU Gzgu

A i,
J

and its example is,

A

i) KPPAi
A) P
U
ii) vAv
B) gUi
U
iii) v (P) C) Pq
U
iv) PAi
D) gUg
U http://www.ntsescholars.com

i) Unicellular algae A) Volvox

ii) Filamentous algae B) Sargassum
iii) Colonial algae

C) Chlamydomonas

iv) Multicellular algae D) Spirogyra

1) i - B, ii - A, iii - D, iv - C,
2) i - C, ii - D, iii - A, iv - B

1) i - B, ii - A, iii - D, iv - C

3) i - D, ii - C, iii - B, iv - A

2) i - C, ii - D, iii - A, iv - B

4) i - C, ii - A, iii - D, iv - C

3) i - D, ii - C, iii - B, iv - A
4) i - C, ii - A, iii - D, iv - C

36. The correct sequence of Level of

Classification is
1
Kingdom

Kingdom Species

36. V P g t z dU ( l U )

jAiiz CP

4
Species

id

id

sz

sz

Class

Phylum

Genes

Family

ew

PlA

Order

Class

Family

Class

Ut

PlA

Phylum

Order

Class

Genes

Ut

ew

Genes

Family

Order

Order

ew

PlA

Ut

Ut

Family

Genes

PlA

ew

id

id

Species

Species

Phylum

Phylum

s z

s z

Kingdom Kingdom

12

*SATK*

SAT(K)
HISTORY

Ew

37. Read the following statements and

identify the correct match.

37. F PV
Jgq PU

N, Png

A) The aim and objectives of Brahma

Samaj founded by Rajaram Mohan
Roy influenced William Bentick to
abolish Sati System in 1829.

J) i d z gegi
gAiigg Dz v
GzU
AiA AnAP
a s jzjAz 1829 g
wz wAi gz U
v.

DAiU

jAiizz DAi ir.

B) The Central Hindu College

started
at
Benaras
by

) CA m g z PAz
Az Pd Az g
Az
zAiv.

Annie Besant became The

Benaras Hindu University later.
1) A is true, B is false

1 ) P J j, v

2) A is false, B is true

2 ) P J v, j

3) Both A & B are false

3 ) P J v Jgq v

4) Both A & B are true

4 ) P J v Jgq j

38. Arrange
the
following
in
chronological order and choose the
correct alternate given

38. F PV WlU PPz

er. Czg jAiiz DAiAi a.

a) Partition of Bengal

J) AUz sd

b) Lucknow Pact

) P MAz

c) Jallianwalabagh Massacre

) dAi sU vPAq

d) Partition of Bengal was cancelled

r) AUz sd gzw

1) a, b, c, d

1 ) J, , , r

2) a, d, c, b

2 ) J, r, ,

3) a, d, b, c

3 ) J, r, ,

4) a, c, b, d

4 ) J, , , r
13

*SATK*

SAT(K)

v Dzs Pj
39. n

39. To Modernise his army, Tippu Sultan

developed friendly relationship with
1) The Portugese

EgAU Gv AAzs
PAq

2) The Dutch

1 ) ZVg

3) The French

2 ) qZg

4) The British

3 ) sAZg
4 ) ng

40. The main cause for the geographical

discoveries in the world is

A Zz sUP Azs
U

U Cw
40.

1) Fall of Constantinople

R Pgt

2) Increased demand for trade

1 ) PmAn v

3) Renaissance

2 ) gP az rP

4) Social and Religious Reformation

3 ) gf
4 ) ifP v zsP zsgu

41. The battle which established the

Supremacy of the English in Bengal
was

41. DAUg
v g
i Pg
AUz

U

Pgtz Aiz

1) Battle of Buxar

1 ) Pg Pz

2) Battle of Plassey

2 ) Pz

3) Carnatic Wars

3 ) PnP AizU

4) Anglo-Marata Wars

4 ) DAU-gog AizU

42. Match the following literary works

with their authors and choose the
correct alternate
A) Arthashastra
1) Charaka
B) Indica

2) Kalhana

C) Rajatarangini

3) Koutilya

D) Bhuddha Charita

4) Megastanes

42. F PU
Png PwU v CU

Pv U
A, jAiiz DAiU


Ugw
J) Cx
1 ) ZgP
2 ) Pt
) EArP
) gd vgA
Vt 3 ) Pn
4 ) U
r) z Zjv
5 ) CW
1 ) J - 3, - 4, - 2, r - 5
2 ) J - 4, - 3, - 4, r - 5
3 ) J - 2, - 1, - 3, r - 4
4 ) J - 1, - 2, - 5, r - 3

5) Ashwagosha
1)
2)
3)
4)

A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 5
A - 4, B - 3, C - 4, D - 5
A - 2, B - 1, C - 3 , D - 4
A - 1, B - 2, C - 5, D - 3
14

*SATK*

SAT(K)
43. The father of the humanism and of

zz v U El
43. iv

Italian literature was

vz dP Aiig?

1) Aurispa

1 ) Oj

2) Boccacio

2 ) PAi

3) Petrarch

3 ) mP

4) Dante

4 ) qAm

44. Discovery of Sea Route to India :

Vasco-da-Gama :: Southern most tip

44. s g v P z i U z C u :

of African Continent: _____________

-q-U :: DP RAqz zQt

vvv
: _____________

1) Christopher Columbus
2) Bartholomew Diaz

sg
PA
1 ) Q

3) Ferdinand Megallan

2 ) v Ai qAii

4) Amerigo Vespucci

3 ) sjAq U
4 ) CjU

45. If Babar had not defeated Ibrahim

Lodhi at the battle of Panipat in 1526

Pz
z

g
45. Q.. 1526 g tv

A.D. then

EA Ai z Ez g

1) Delhi Sultanate would have

1 ) g idz Cw

declined

GAmUwv

2) Mughal dynasty would not have

A iiUwg

2) W id

been established

3 ) AUg sgvz z

3) Mongols would have attacked

iqwzg

India

4 ) Cgg sgv DPwzg

4) Arabs would have occupied India

15

*SATK*

SAT(K)
46. The leader of the Reformation

46. d sU sAvjz

Movement who translated the Bible

zsP zsguA i AiP

into German language was

1 ) CjZ eAV

1) Ulrich Zwingle

2 ) in xg

2) Martin Luther

3 ) e P

3) John Knox

4 ) f P

4) Jean Calvin

Z F EArAii PAAi ZjvA i

47. sA

47. The year 1664 is important in the

history of the French East India

Q. . 1664 Z v q
z . KPAzg

Company because

1 ) Aig sAZg ng

P zg

1) The French defeated the British

Navy in Europe

2 ) sgvz sAZg ZVg

zg

2) The French defeated the Portuguese

in India

Z F EArAii PA
3 ) sA

3) The French East India Company

vv

was established

4 ) Ar Pzz sAZg

4) The French lost the battle at

lg

Wandiwash

48. Ff

48. The art of writing of the Egyptian

U j P v A i

Pz

Civilization was called

gt
U
A i U PgA ivg

1) Cuneiform

1 ) PsgA

2) Hieroglyphics

2 ) gVP

3) Ideographic

3 ) LrAiUP

4) Pictographic

4 ) PUP
16

*SATK*

SAT(K)

sU

GEOGRAPHY
49. The group of planets in the ascending
order of their size is
1) Mars, Mercury, Venus, Earth
2) Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth
3) Venus, Mars, Earth, Mercury
4) Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury

49. U
U

UvU

Dzsgz Dgt

P
z erVg UA
1 ) AU, zs, P, s
2 ) zs, AU, P, s
3 ) P, AU, s, zs
4 ) s, P, AU, zs

50. The Local time of the place X is

9 P.M. today.What should be the local
time and day of place Y if it is 1650
East of X ?

50. X JA MAz z
Ai Pi
gw 9 UAmAiiVz YJA
X
Az 1650 zg, D z
,
Ai v
PAq rj.

1) 10 A.M. of the next day.

1 ) ig z 10 UAm U

2) 8 P.M. of the previous day

2 ) A z 8 UAm gw

3) 8 A.M. of the next day

3 ) ig

z 8 UAm U
4 ) A z 10 UAm gw

4) 10 P.M. of the previous day

51. People in Australia celebrate
Christmas in Summer. The geographical reason involved in this is
1) Australia lies in
Southern
hemisphere
2) Its terribly cold in Australia during
winter
3) Australia lies in the eastern
hemisphere
4) Summers are moderate and
pleasant in Australia

51. DAiiz
dg Q

U Pz DZ j v g . Ez g

CqP
Vg sUP CA
1 ) DAii zQuzs Uzz

2 ) DAiiz CwZ ZAz

Prz ZUgvz

3 ) DAii zsUzz
4 ) DAiiz vAz U

vPgz U Egvz

52. F PU Png RAqU gU

52. One of the below mentioned continents

doesnot lie in the tropical zone at all.
Its

MAz RAq i v G Ai z
Eg. Cz
1 ) K
2 ) Aig
3 ) Gvg CjP
4 ) DAii

1) Asia
2) Europe
3) North America
4) Australia
17

*SATK*

SAT(K)

53. Ne Ai F PU Png

53. The Ozone layer is found in one of

following layers of the atmosphere.
Identify it.
1) Troposphere
2) Stratosphere
3) Ionosphere
4) Mesosphere

AiAqz gU MAz gz
Ez. Cz Ugw
1 ) jv Aq
2 ) Aq
3 ) CAii Aq
4 ) zsAvg Aq

54. Identify the figure showing right

direction of winds caused by Coriolis
Force and Ferrels law.

Q v s g Ai zs j
igvU Z P jAiiV
vjz. Cz Ugw.

2)

1)

3)

55. a)

avU


MAz PjAii
54. F PV

1)

2)

3)

4)

4)

55. J) PP

v z i Am
J Aig Cw Jvg

z
vtAiiVz

The highest mountain peak in

Europe is Elbrus in Cancusus
mountains

) Aq ggU
q JAz PgAivg

b) Finland is called the land of

thousand lakes

) U A JA G zP
s v EAUAqU
q EAV PqAi
P jAivz

c) Gulf stream, a warm current flows

through the English channel
between France and England

r) Ai Aig Cw
Gzz
PU

Aiiz jAiiVz ?
1 ) J, ,
2 ) J, , r
3 ) , , r
4 ) J, , r

d) Volga is the longest river in Europe

Which of the above statements are true?
1) a, b, c
2) a, c, d
3) b, c, d
4) a, b, d
18

*SATK*

SAT(K)
56. F PV
PU
Nj :

56. Read the following statements :

A) They are the flowing mass of ice

J) CU Z gU

B) they transport huge boulders to

) CU zq UAqU
zgzgU Vv

great distances

) CU v PAiz U
DPgz PtU GAmUv

C) They produce U shaped valleys

during erosion

r) CU v PAiz
U QvvUAiv

D) Plucking of rocks is a process of

erosion caused by them

F P V Ai i z z
PtU Az?

Which of the following represents the

above mentioned characteristics?

1 ) U

1) Glaciers

2 ) U

2) Rivers

3 ) Ai

3) Loess

4 ) Ad

4) Snow

57. J) Gv g Az U g z

U ZUz Z
P gz QU zv

57. A) Ocean currents in the Indian Ocean

in northern hemisphere change

) vzP U zQuzs
Uz zQtAz Gvg QU
jAiv

their direction twice a year

B) The direction of flow of cold
currents in the
Southern
hemisphere is from South to North

) GU zszAz
sdP vz PqU jAiv

C) Warm currents move from poles to

the equator
Which of the following Group is correct ?

F PV
Gvg
U


Aiiz jAiiz
GvgU UA?

1) A is true, B & C are false

1 ) J j, v v

2) A & B are true and C is false

2 ) J v j. v

3) A & C are true, and B is false

3 ) J v j. v

4) B & C are true and A is false

4 ) v j. J v
19

*SATK*

SAT(K)

vjztz
58. U: sdP vz
PqU :: vU : ................................

58. Mahagony : Equatorial evergreen

forests :: Teak : _________

1 ) v Aiz tv

1) Temperature deciduous forests

PqU

2) Tropical deciduous forests

2 ) GAiz J Gzg

3) Mediterranean Forests

PqU

4) Coniferous forests

3 ) rlgAi PqU
4 ) at PqU

59. Column A consists of certain

concepts in economics. Colum B has
their meanings in conscise form.
Match the concepts with their
meanings :
A
B
(i) Supply
(ii) Demand

(iii) Consumption

( iv) Barter Sysem

59. J nA
i P Cx jPU



P q Vz . n A i C U
Cx AQ gz
PqVz.

jP U CU CxzAU
A.
J

a) exchange of goods
for goods
b) satisfying wants by

(i) gP

using goods and

services
c) desire and ability
to buy goods &
services

(ii) rP

(iii) GsU

d) desire to possess
goods & services

J) MAz zV
EAz
Pqz
) gP v U
AiPU
v U V
z
) AiP v P QU
AAiU

(iv) Ai

e) goods and services

meant for sale

r) UV AiP
E) igliq
vgqng gPU

The correctly matched group is

F PV
Aii UA jAiiVz?

1) i - d, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c

1)

i-r, ii-J, iii-r,

2) i - e, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

2)

i-E, ii-, iii-, iv - J

3) i - d, ii - e, iii - a, iv - b

3)

i - r, ii-E, iii-J, iv-

4) i - c, ii - d, iii - c, iv - b

4)

i - , ii - r, iii - , iv -

20

iv-

*SATK*

SAT(K)

gw

CIVICS

Vg
60. Azsz 51A Ai CqP
MAz s
v Pv
Ugw.

60. Which one of the following is your

Fundamental Duty as stated under
Article 51A?

1) AiZ U CAiU
P
r
z

1) To express your views or ideas

2) sgvz Aiiz zz

2) To seek employment and reside in

any part of India

GzU qAiz U
z

3) To form associations and to

become the member of any
association

3) AW AU gaz

4) To develop scientific temper,

humanism and the spirit of enquiry

4) eP s, fe

U Aiiz AW Cx
AAi zv qAiz
v zsgu zAi
Pz

61. In which form of Government the

61. Aii MAz Pgz PgU P

change of Government is possible

periodically in peaceful manner?

PP AwAiv jwAi Pgz

zuU

U CPgvz
?

1) Democracy http://www.ntsescholars.com

1) esv

2) Military rule

2) lj Dqv

3) Monarchy

3) gdsv

4) Dictatorship

4) Pgv
62. Ag 2011g P Zu

62. The elections conducted in Koppal

Pvz

qz
ZuA i PU
wg
Aii UAi ZuU Gzgu
DVz ?

Constituency in September 2011 is an

example for

1) wP Zu (General

1) General election

election)

2) By election

2) GZ u (By election)

3) Panchayat election

3) AZAiv Zu

4) Party election

4) P Zu
21

*SATK*

SAT(K)

A U P
63. UVj, zd, av

63. The authority vested with the powers

to enquire the probelms related to
slavery, torture and arrest of persons
without valid reasons is

Pgtz AzsP MrAv

U U Zgu q
CPg

Ag A
1) s
v P U
gPu
AiU
2) e PU Aifv U
3) i P U
AiiAU DAiU
4) i PU DAiU

1) Fundamental Rights Protection

Authority
2) The Commission for the Rights of
the People
3) Human Rights Judicial Authority

wg Aii MAz MAzz J

64. PU

4) Human Rights Commisison

CAU

UgzU gU
q tz
AizU U Ct Gvz
nAi vqU
l
z?

64. The wars between the Nations and the

competition in the production of
nuclear weapons can be put to an end
if we honour the provisions of

1) Pgt MAz
2) P z vz

1) Disarmament treaty

AiAvu MAz

2) The seabed arms control treaty only

3) P P MAz

3) The outer space treaty only

4) AqAU z CAU

4) Provisions of Bandung Conference

65. Z P C P g z A i

65. The court vested with the powers of

advisory jurisdiction

Ag AiiAi

AiiAi
1)

1) Sessions Court

2) Z AiiAi

2) Supreme Court

3) g AiiAi

3) Revenue Court

4) P Czv

4) Lok Adalat

As i f CPg
66. gd zs

66. The powers to dissolve the State

Legislative Assembly is vested with
1) The President of India
2) The Governor of the State
3) The Prime Minister
4) The Chief Minister

Agg
1) sgvz gzsPg
2) gdz gdg
3) zs Aw
4) RAw

22

*SATK*

SAT(K)

67. vzz AiwAi 21

UAz
18 UU PrUz Azs

67. The Constitutional Amendment by

which the voting age was reduced
from 21 years to 18 years
1) 42 nd

2) 44 th

3) 61st

4) 74 th

wzr
1) 42
2) 44
3) 61
4) 74

68. Who among the following can take

part in the discussions of Zilla
Panchayat but does not have right to
vote? http://www.ntsescholars.com

68. f AZAiv sU vzz

C P g Ag z P Z Z U
sU
CPg
Agg

Aiig?
1) f AZAiv CzsPg
2) f AZAiv GzsPg
3) f AZAiv Zv
wU
4) R PAi uPj
Cx as JPPn
Dg (CEO)

1) The President of Zilla Panchayat

2) Vice-President of Zilla Panchayat
3) The elected representatives of Zilla
Panchayat
4) Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
69. Supposing you are cheated by a
merchant by selling a defective
material you can file a petition against
the merchant in

Utlz


69. M jAi P
U igl ir U
z. Dv
gz zg zRzz
AiiAi
1) t d AiiAi
2) AiiAi
3) UPg AiiAi
4)
AiiAi

1) Small Causes Court

2) Civil Court
3) Consumer Court
4) Sessions Court

70. Ai i P U g z A g 22
(g Ugg), 2011 gAz qz

70. The important event held on 22nd

(third Thursday) of September 2011
at New York was
1) General Assembly Session of U.N.
2) The Independence Day Celebration
of U.S.A.
3) Celebration of U.N. Day
4) Celebration of UNESCO Day

MAz
R i gAs
1) AAi wP sAi
C

2) CjP AAiP Az

vA
v Zgu

3) AAi Zgu
4) Ai
(UNESCO) Zgu
23

*SATK*

SAT(K)

Utv

MATHEMATICS
71. The sum of two numbers is 161. If one

71. Jgq ASU v 161. MAz

of the numbers is 30% more than the

other, find the two numbers

ASAi vA z ASVAv 30% g

Zzg
Jgq ASU
PAq rj

1) 231 and 230

1) 231 v 230

2) 70 and 91

2) 70 v 91

3) 161 and 70

3) 161 v 70

4) 91 and 161

4) 91 v 161

19
then the
2
2
value of 3(x+y) + (x y) 2 is

72. If x2 + y2 = 47 and xy =

19
Dz g
2
A i

72. x2 + y 2 = 47 v
3(x+y)2 + (x y) 2

xy =

1) 170

2) 217

1) 170

2) 217

3) 226

4) 86

3) 226

4) 86

73. The value of 7 + 5x ( 3) (6 2) 2 is

73. 7 + 5x ( 3) (6 2) 2

1) 10

2) 16

1) 10

2) 16

3) 20

4) 38

3) 20

4) 38

74. One year ago, a mans age was

z Az M QAi Ai
74. MAz
v U AiVAv 8 l ZVv.

8 times as old as his son. Now his age

is equal to the square of his sons age.
The present age of the son is

FU Dv Ai C U Ai
U
zz. Uzg U Ai

1) 5 years

1) 5 U

2) 6 years

2) 6 U

3) 7 years

3) 7 U

4) 8 years

4) 8 U
24

*SATK*

SAT(K)
75. The factors of

1 2
y +y 14 are
7

75.

1
1) ( y 1) (y 14)
7

2)

1 2

U

y +y 14 Ezg Cv
7
1
1) ( y 1) (y 14)
7

1
y) (y 14)
7

2)

1
y) (y 14)
7

1
3) ( y + 1) (y + 14)
7

1
3) ( y + 1) (y + 14)
7

1
4) ( y 1) (y + 14)
7

1
4) ( y 1) (y + 14)
7

76. Here is a list of numbers 42.2, 28.4,

76. E ASU MAz nAi Pnz.

47.0, 36.4, 33.2, 40.4, 36.1 and 32.3. If

42.2, 28.4, 47.0, 36.4, 33.2, 40.4, 36.1

the number 47 is replaced by 51 in the

v 32.3. F Utz 47 ASAi zV

list, then the mean of the numbers is

51 jzg, F ASU gjAi

1) 37

1) 37

2) 37.5

2) 37.5

3) 51.5
3) 51.5
4) 38.5
4) 38.5
77. If 18 oranges are bought at the rate
of Rs. 15/- and

77. 15 g.UU 18 Qv
tU

PAq,

15 are sold

at the rate of Rs. 18/-, then the profit

tU

ijzg,
18 g.UU 15 Qv

% is

g Pqg s

1) 40%

2) 42%

1) 40%

2) 42%

3) 44%

4) 46%

3) 44%

4) 46%

25

*SATK*

SAT(K)
78. The measure of angles MON and
POR are http://www.ntsescholars.com

78.

MON v POR PU
CvU

1) 90 , 80
1) 90 , 80
2) 80 , 90
2) 80 , 90
3) 110 , 70
3) 110 , 70
4) 70 , 110
4) 70 , 110
2 2

79. The value of

1)
2)
3)
4)

79.

2 4

(3 ) (4 )
is
(122 )3

4
9/16
3
16/9

( 32 ) 2 ( 42 )4
Ai
(122 )3
1) 4
2) 9/16
3) 3
4) 16/9

80. The

descending
order
1 14
14.5, 14 ,
and 1.45 is
5 5

1)

of
80.

14
1
, 14 , 1.45, 14.5
5
5

2) 1.45,

1)

14
1
, 14 , 14.5
5
5

14
1
, 14 , 1.45, 14.5
5
5

2) 1.45,

14
1
, 14 , 14.5
5
5

1 14
3) 14 , , 1.45, 14.5
5 5

1 14
3) 14 , , 1.45, 14.5
5 5
4) 1.45,

1 14
14.5, 14 ,
v 1.45 g EP P

5 5

14
1
, 14.5, 14
5
5

4) 1.45,
26

14
1
, 14.5, 14
5
5

*SATK*

SAT(K)
81. The area of a rectangular field is
x2 40x 129 sq. mtrs. If one of the
sides is (x+3) mtrs, then the perimeter
of the field is

81. MAz DAivPgz zz t

x2 40x 129 Z.. zz MAz

v
A i
(x+3) .Uzg, Czg v

1) (4x2 80) mtrs

1) (4x2 80) mtrs

2) (4x2 + 80) mtrs

2) (4x2 + 80) mtrs

3) (4x 80) mtrs

3) (4x 80) mtrs

4) (4x + 80) mtrs

4) (4x + 80) mtrs

82. What is the smallest number by which

13,500 is to be multiplied to make the
product a perfect cube ?

82. 13,500 jt W

V iq

Ut
Pz P AS

1) 2

1) 2

2) 3

2) 3

3) 4

3) 4

4) 5

4) 5

83. By how much is the sum of (a 5)

(a 2) and a2 + 6a + 7 is greater than
a2 2a + 1 ?

83. (a 5) (a 2) v a2 + 6a + 7 v
a2 2a + 1 QAv J ZVz ?

1) a2 a + 16

1) a2 a + 16

2) a2 a 16

2) a2 a 16

3) 3a2 + a + 16

3) 3a2 + a + 16

4) 2a2 + a +16

4) 2a2 + a +16
84. 50 jAz 58 g
Pq zu J?

84. What is the percent of change from 50

to 58 ?

1) 40% Z

1) 40% increase

2) 40% Pr

2) 40% decrease
3) 16% increase

3) 16% Z

4) 16% decrease

4) 16% Pr
27

*SATK*

SAT(K)

85. ABCD MAz DAiv. AB = 10 cm

BC = 8 cms. Ugv irg Pvz

85. ABCD is a Rectangle. AB = 10 cm

BC = 8 cms. Find the area of the

t J?

shaded figures

A.
1) 66 Zzg
1) 66 Sq. cm
2) 76 Zzg A..
2) 76 Sq. cm

A.
3) 64 Zzg
3) 64 Sq. cm
4) 74 Zzg A..

4) 74 Sq. cm
86.

kx a
then x = ?
86. The value of x in y =
x 1

y=

kx a
Dzg x
x 1

1)

ya
ky

1)

ya
ky

2)

ay
yk

2)

ay
yk

3)

ay
ky

3)

ay
ky

4)

ya
yk

4)

ya
yk

28

*SATK*

SAT(K)
87. In the given figure, if length of the
sides are tripled, then the ratio
between new surface area and old
surface area is http://www.ntsescholars.com

87. Png avz U CvAi

gg

Vzg, t
v tU v

1) 8 times

1) 8 l

2) 12 times

2) 12 l

3) 27 times

3) 27 l

4) 54 times

4) 54 l

88. O is the centre of the circle.

AB = CD = 8.4 cms.The area of
the shaded region of the figure
( in Sq. cm is)

PAz. AB = CD = 8.4 cm.

88. O vz
Png avz

Ugv irg Pvz

Pv

s (Zzg
AnlgU
)

1) 42.42
1) 42.42
2) 46.62

2) 46.62

3) 48.64

3) 48.64

4) 41.58

4) 41.58
29

*SATK*

SAT(K)

89. Lz U

zRz GvA i gj
33.5 A . U G v
29.5 A ., 31 A ., 34.5 A . v
33.5A. DVzg EAz z GvA i

89. The average temperature recorded in

five days in a place is 33.5C. If the
temperature of four days is 29.5C,
31C, 34.5C and 33.5C, then the
temperature on the other day is

1) 27C

1) 27C

2) 28C

2) 28C

3) 39C

3) 39C

4) 30C

4) 30C
90. A cubical card board box has the inner
dimensions of 30 cm, 9 cm and 4 cms.
How many cubes of 3 cms can be fit
inside the box ? http://www.ntsescholars.com

90. MAz DAiv WPwAi qz DAvjP

CvU

30 A .., 9 A . . v
4 A.. Ez. Ezg
3 A.. CAZ

J WPwU
erz ?
1) 35

1) 35

2) 38

2) 38

3) 39

3) 39

4) 40

4) 40

30