’ 150529325 This booklet contains 24 printed pages. LMN PAPER - 1: PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS Test Booklet Code Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. A Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. Important Instructions : ‘1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Uce of pencil is strictly prohibited. 2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully. 3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 4, The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360. 5, There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response. 6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of ench question. 1% (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question, No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. 7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above. 8. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/hall. 10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in three pages (Pages 21 - 23) at the end of the booklet. 11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 12. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet and also tally the serial number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 13. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet. ‘Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters): SUVAM DAG RollNumber —sinfigures [3]7 14 [oO] 3 [514 5) sinwords vs Examination CentreNumber: | 3|7 | 4|0[0|@ Nae of Examination Centre (in Capital letters): ARHINAV BHARTI HIGH scHOOL Candidate'sSignature: GuveroBGA ___1.Invigilator’s Signature: oev Ah PART A — PHYSICS ‘Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 240 m high with initial speed of 10 m/s and 40 m/s Fespectively. Which of the following graph best represents the time variation of relative position of the second stone with respect to the first ? (Assume stones do not rebound after hitting the ground and neglect air resistance, take g=10 m/s?) (The figures are schematic and not drawn to scale) Y2-y1) a) Go-y)m 240: @) 1) ‘Y2-¥) m Of @) 4-39) The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T = 2n, E Measured value & of L is 20.0 em known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90 s using a wrist watch of 1s resolution. The accuracy in the determination of g is : qa) @) @) @) 2% 3% 1% 5% 3) er] a3" u 3 ae Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown, friction between the blocks is 0.1. and between block B and the walll is 015, the frictional force applied by the wall on block Bis: a) @) 8) @) 100 N 80N 120N 150 N If the coefficient of 7 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK +A particle of mass m moving in the x direction with speed 20 is hit by another particle of mass 2m moving in the y direction with speed 2. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to: gp 44% an 7 A (2) 50% Lande ~ re (3) 56% ve nowt = av (4) 62% a ye w geek wt = 3 wt Distance of the centre of mass of a solid uniform cone from its vertex is zo. If the radius of its base is R and its height ish then 2g is equal to : he O R From a solid sphere of mass M and radius Ra cube of maximum possible volume is cut. Moment of inertia of cube about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to one of its faces is: MR? @ 3am MR? 2 1620 £ 4MR? @ ar 4M? O Nae Froma solid sphere of mass M and radius R, a spherical portion of radiusl is removed, as shown in the figure. Taking gravitational potential V=0 at r= «, the potential at the centre of the cavity thus formed is (G= gravitational constant) i 3h ; YO F - GM ; IR f -=GM fg a = 8 i = 2GM 6) ® RE ; ah? = 2GM ! ® ar eater | A/Page 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK A» el + vie Ste Sina > ee! w\g & Pea wc Seer | | { | \A pendulum made of a uniform wire of ross sectional area A has time period T. When an additional mass M is added to its bob, the time period changes to Tyy. If the Young's modulus of the material of the 1 wire is Y then 7 is equal to : (g 14. 15. A long cylindrical shell carries positive surface charge o in the upper half and negative surface charge —g in the lower half. The electric field lines around the cylinder will look like figure given in : (figures are schematic and not drawn to scale) (€®) aK Auuniformly charged solid sphere of radius R has potential Vj (measured with respect to %) on its surface. For this sphere the equipotential surfaces with potentials A) @ 8) (a) 30, 50, 3¥0 an d * have radius Ry, Suen ~” Ry, Ry and Ry respectively. Then 4) Ry =0 and Ry > (RyRy) (2) Ry# and (R,~R,) > (Ry~R,) +) R,=Oand R, < (R,-R) () 2R ne 2) 1.6x10-7 Om 3) 16x10-6 am © LAT 16x10-3. 0m © ~ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK - -~ oS “sy eve ene “omy > BRED HG| i tov mn a0 In the circuit shown, the current in the 10 resistor is : (1) 13.4, from P toQ (2) 0A (3) 0.13 A, from Q to P (4) 043 A, from P to Q 19. Two coaxial solenoids of different radii carry current I in the same direction. Let F,_ be the magnetic force on the inner solenoid due to the outer one and F, be the magnetic force on the outer solenoid due to the inner one. Then wer == i (2) iq is radially inwards and B is radially outwards (3) Fy is radially inwards and F =0 (4) Fy is radially outwards and F, =0 20. ‘Two long current carrying thin wires, both with current I, are held by insulating threads of length L and are in equilibrium as shown in the figure, with threads making an angle ‘0’ with the vertical. If wires have mass 4 per unit length then the value of lis : (g =gravitational acceleration) Ag eo | zAsk a) sine mae by cosé (2) 2sine 2 [TE tane aaa rrs (4) {TE tana Ho A/Page 7 x Ay Ar AL (oe SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK24. A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and | 22. 5.cm carrying a current I of 12 A is placed in different orientations as shown in the figures below : 23. If there is a uniform magnetic field of 03 T in the positive z direction, in which orientations the loop would be in (i) stable equilibrium and (ii) unstable equilibrium ? (1) (a) and (b), respectively (2) ) and (), respectively (3) + (b) and (d), respectively (4) @and (0), respectively An inductor (L=0.03H) and a resistor (R=0.15 KO) are connected in series to a battery of 15V EMF in a circuit shown below. The key K, has been kept closed for a long time. Then at t=0, K, is opened and key K, is closed simultaneously. At t=1ms, the current in the circuit will be : (€=150) 03H o15K0 elt AS ee ro *. ’ ee 1 by & (Q) 100 mA Q) 67 mA @) 6.7 mA (4) 0.67 ma Ared LED emits ight at 0.1 watt uniformly around it. ‘The amplitude of the electric field of the light at a distance of Lm from the diode is: . Q) 173 V/m (Q) 245 V/m (3) 548.V/m (4) 7.75.V/m A/Page 8 ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ve at| | 24. Monochromatic light is incident on a glass | 26. Assuming human pupil to have a radius prism of angle A. If the refractive index of of 0.25 cm and a comfortable viewing the material of the prism is w, a ray, distance of 25 cm, the minimum separation incident at an angle 6, on the face AB between two objects that human eye can would get transmitted through the face AC resolve at 500 nm wavelength is : of the prism provided : @ 25 @) tam ye bent? (2) 30 um (3) 100 pm (4) 300 pm miteet [- ae (« ae | 1 }] 27. As an electron makes a transition from an 7 excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen - like atom/ion : @) 0 watt 7 e zt : > 2 + ’ > = ve 428. Match List - I (Fundamental Experiment) | 30. An LCR circuit is equivalent to a damped with List - II (its conclusion) and select pendulum. Inan LCR circuit the capacitor the correct option from the choices given is charged to Qo and then connected to below the list the L and R as shown below List -1 List - R L Al |Franck-Hertz ‘) |Particle nature i |Experiment. g lof light 2 ce |Photo-electric ii) |Discrete energy ia experiment. | levels of atom a [Pavton- Comer wave nate lea student ts graphs of te sauae of ) Experiment. i maximum charge (Qijax) 07 the capacitor with time(t) for two different values L, and Gv) [Structure of Ly (L,>L,) of L then which of the following jatom represents this graph correctly ? (plots are schematic and not drawn to scale) @) A)-@ — B)-@) © - ii) 7 g QQ A-® B-@™ O- mn M lL A nis y LB) @)-G) ®-@ O-Gi +—— @ Aw) 8-G) O-# @ 29. A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated on a carrier wave of frequency modulated TMElz. The frequencies of the resultant signal is/are : °) tt) 2MHz only (2) 2005 kHz, and 1995 KHz (3) 2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz @ (4) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz A/Page 10 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK* PART B ~ CHEMISTRY 34. The intermolecular interaction that is 31. The molecular formula of a commercial dependent on the inverse cube of distance resin used for exchanging ions in water between the molecules is : softening is CgH,SO3Na (Mol. wt. 206). (1) ion - ion interaction t 23 What would be the maximum uptake of QF ion- dipole interaction @ 24 i i ese Ca?* ions by the resin when expressed in ae e Fe mole per gram resin ? (4) hydrogen bond s ' - ) F953 35. The following reaction is performed at Q xg 298 K, : 2NO(g) + On(g) = 2NO2(g) © x5 The standard free energy of formation of : NO@) is 86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K. What is ® a the standard free energy of formation of ‘| NO,(g) at 298 K? (K,=1.6x10!2) (1) R(298) In(1.6x 1012) — 86600 32. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred > - cubic lattice with a unit cell edge of 429A. (2) 8600+ R(298) In(1.6% 1017) The radius of sodiim atom is in (16x 1082) approximatel ®) ~~R@98) as way ‘ips Te (4) 0.5[2x 86,600 — R(298) In(1.6 x 10!2)] 2) 4A 7 @) ete ° 36. ‘The vapour pressure of acetone at 20°C is ny ay 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile a4 substance was dissolved in 100 g of acetone reel at 20°G, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. 33. Which of the following is the energy of a ‘The molar mass (g mol~1) of the substance possible excited state of hydrogen ? a () +136 ev @ 32 we 12) -68 ev wer Q) 64 @) -34eV 43) 128 (4) +68 eV erro $ (4) (488 A/Page 11 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /) ce Leaf wo Cree erry Hed v (Sx $8 2 son EF ay eH Sse 10 a Reo 18h (sa S8337. The standard Gibbs energy change at | 40. 3 g of activated charcoal was added to 300 K for the reaction 2A = B+C is 50 mL of acetic acid solution (0.06N) in a flask. After an hour it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is 2494.2. Ata given time, the composition 7 1 of the reaction mixture is [A] = 7 Bl=2 and (C] ; The reaction proceeds in () 18 mg the : [R=8.314 J/K/mol, e=2.718] Q) 36 mg (1) forward direction because Q > K, @) 42mg (2) reverse direction because Q > K. (@) 54mg LI" forward direction because Q < K, (4) reverse direction because Q < K, . 41. Theionic radi in A) of B=. QP and oe aE are respédtively: WEG) 38. Two Faraday of electricity is passed > through a Solution of CuSO,. The mass of (1) 1.36, 1.40 and 171 copper deposited af the cathode is : (2) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40 it. mass =63.5 - fe fone Cee ome «| A) 171 140 and 1.36 @ 0% 2b) par®” ee = ak (8) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40 WA 855 o co @ 28 is (4) 1278 42. Inthe context of the Hall - Heroult process for the extraction of Al, which of the following statements is false ? 39. Higher order (23) reactions are rare due : to: UBT CO and CO, are produced in this B) low probability of simultaneous Lcarvaent collision of all the reacting species (2) Al,O; is mixed with CaF, which (2) increase in entropy and activation lowers the melting point of the energy as more molecules are mixture and_brings involved (3) AIS+ is reduced at the cathode to ) shifting of equilibrium towards form Al reactants due to elastic collisions oR eae OG” oss of active species on collision : aie a wr? ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ! we = 5 eee aw & ° - 2 Sa, Age ~*7 anne es > % quest = PFO in & an 32| 43. From the following statements regarding | 46. Match the catalysts to the correct | H0,, choose the incorrect statement processes : i Catalyst Process & It can act only as an oxidizing agent (A) TiC) Wacker process ' (®) PdCh ii) Ziegler - Natta (2) It decomposes on exposure to light polymerization (3) Ithas to be stored in plastic or wax (© CuCl, — ii) Contact process : lined glass bottles in dark (D) Vj0; (iv) Deacon's process ® A= Gi, &) - Gi, (Q - iv), (0D) - i) (4) _Ithas to be kept away from dust 2) (A)- Gi). (8), (0-0), Oi 8) (A) - i), (B) - (ii, (© - (iv), (D) - @) (4) (A)- Gi, B) - @, ©) - (ii), (CD) - iv) 44, Which one of the following alkaline earth ‘metal sulphates has its hydration enthalpy 47. Which one has the highest boili int ? greater than its lattice enthalpy ? ® oe | i | () He \ i () Caso, (2) Ne j @) kr : (2) Beso, WA) Xe (3) BaSO, 48. The number of geometric isomers that can | (4) S10, exist for square planar [Pt (Cl) (py) (NH) S i (NH,OH))* is (py = pyridine) : : (Qy) 2 { Q 3 45. Which among the following is the most a4 reactive ? ® 6 A Cy 49. The color of KMnO, is due to: 2) Bry (1) M-— L charge transfer transition 2) d= d transition 8% (3) LM charge transfer transition 4) Il (4) © - o* transition A/Page 13 ‘SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK tert50. Assertion : Nitrogen and Oxygen are the | 53. Which compound would give main components in the 5 - keto - 2 - methyl hexanal upon atmosphere but these do not ozonolysis ? react to form oxides of nitrogen. Reason : The reaction between nitrogen Hy and oxygen requires high w cH temperature. CT UA) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct ae explanation for the assertion 7 (2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the wy € correct explanation for the assertion CH (8) The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct CH (4) Both the assertion and reason are : incorrect ® om te ar 7 CH; fA 51. In Carius method of estimation of halogens, 250 mg of an organic compound =a gave 141 mg of AgBr. The percentage of _ bromine in the compound is : (4) HC. (at, mass Ag =108; Br =80) Q) 24 Q) 36 @) 48 54. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best (4) 60 accomplished by : 52. Which of the following compounds will (1) Free radical fluorination exhibit geometrical isomerism ? \)1- Phenyl -2-butene (2) Sandmeyer’s reaction (2) 3- Phenyl -1-butene (3) Finkelstein reaction (3) 2- Phenyl -1- butene , (4) 1,1- Diphenyl - 1 - propane (4) Swarts reaction ‘A/Page 14 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK “ Poe at® cue 4 é55. Inthe following sequence of reactions : Toluene SOL 4 S00 AYN the product C is: (1) CgHs;COOH, @) GHSCH, @) CgHsCH,OH Uap CsH3CHO 56. In the reaction NH, SAOUHS y _OEROL yy, CH, the product E is: COOH @) CH @ we-Co>-cH, CN wer CH, ‘CH, 57, 58. 59, 60, Which polymer is used in the manufacture of paints and lacquers ? (1) Bakelite 2) Glyptal (3) Polypropene we Poly vinyl chloride Which of the vitamins given below is water soluble? = Q) Vitamin C Q) Vitamin D (3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin K Which of the following compounds is not an antacid ? (1) Aluminium hydroxide (2) Cimetidine (3) Phenelzine (4) Ranitidine Which of the following compounds is not colored yellow ? (1) ZmgfFe(CN),] (2) Ks[Co(NO,),] G3) (NHy)s [As (Mos Oy9),] (4) BaCro, A/Page 15 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKPART C — MATHEMATICS 61. Let A and B be two sets containing four and two elements respectively. Then the number of subsets of the set AXB, each having at least three elements is ww & wee l (2) 256 Q) 275 (4) 510 219 ently 62, A complex number z is said to be unimodular if [z|=1. Suppose z, and zp a - 2% 2= 22 are complex numbers such that is unimodular and 2, is not unimodular. Then the point 2; lies on a: @ (2) straight line parallel to y-axis. straight line parallel to x-axis. (3) _ circle of radius 2. (4) circle of radius ¥2. 63, Let a and 8 be the roots of equation x2-6x-2=0. If a,=a"—B", for n> 1, 1 2 2] 64. If A=|2 1 -2 [is a matrix satisfying a2 »| the equation AAT=9I, where I is 3x3 identity matrix, then the ordered pair (a,b) is equal to: , @ @-) @ (29 8@ @D ua) (-2, -D 65. The set of all values of & for which the system of linear equations 2xy—2xytey= dey 2xy — By + 2x, vy (2) isasingleton. (3) ‘contains two elements. (4) contains more than two elements. 66. The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can be formed, using the digits3, 5, 6, 7 and & without repetition, is : ! @ 76 6Le- wage! Q) -6 ya 192 7 @ eB) 3 (3) 120 t “@ -3 (@ 72 yy! SAS! A/Page 16 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK |, a6 ETL B (gs SKS ma —— apc geet 1) and G,, Gy and G, are three geometric means between I and n, then Gi +2G4+G$ equals Q) 4Pmn Gr OR Q) 4 Inn Sat Ah 59 8) 4 mn? ons Jan (4) A Pmt? gy Eden 71. lim (1 = cos 2x)(3 + cosx) is equal to: 0 ‘x tan4x w 4 wPrs 22 Q) 3 > eS wy XA) nin If the function. ke F1 , Osxs3 eet {ns +2. Pex ss is differentiable, then the value of k-+m is : wr kw ovha we QF Ss RP ee 2» eben @ 3 ae ae er se @ 4 5 Bel ye ee 72. The normal to the curve, x24 2xy~3y2=0, 69. The sum of first 9 terms of the series ath: , Bi v+2 Rae Ged (1) does not meet the curve again. 10 143°" 74345 *> (2) _ meets the curve again in the second quadrant. Qo7 (3) _ meets the curve again in the third Q) 96 quadrant, 3) 142 : (4) _ meets the curve again in the fourth @ 192 quadrant, A/Page 17 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Cs aa 2 & ie ole @73. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree four | 76. The area (in sq. units) of the region having extreme values at x=1 and x=2 described by It tin i) <3, then f(2) is equal (ey) Ps grand y > 4 rol ia to (io -8 — @ 5 Q) -4 Q @ aa ® & 4) 4 @) 64 (ent ' 9 O 37 pew® 74, The integral ky sy enh 77. Let y(x) be the solution of the differential x vation 0 ( equa dy 1 (logs) SE + y = 2 logs, (x > D- 0 at eerie Then y(e) is equal.to es @ -atentse @ e ate So Sy let & 1 @Q 0 até wre 4 sft oe w | 41) 46 @) 2 @ ~t ¥ ar 2e a.dvte poe x oa a 75. The integral 4 78. The number of points, having both ; log x7 7 co-ordinates as integers, that lie in the Wg alg Osta) interior of the triangle with vertices (0, 0), ee (0, 41) and (41, 0), is = is equal to = a q@ 901 q@ 2 4 (2) 861 wot (3) 820 @) 6 (4) 780 ‘A/Page 18 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK c ev yo. tt an | 102 ee le Geet >t 79. Locus of the image of the point (2, 3) in the line (2x—3y+4) +k (x~2y+3)=0, keRisa: (1) straight line parallel to x-axis, (2) straight line parallel to y-axis, (3) circle of radius JZ, (4) circle of radius /3. 80. The number of common tangents to the circles x? +y2—4x~6y-12=0 PHY + 6x4 18y4 260, ig | VF SHAN me Q 2 @) 3 @ 4 81. The area (in sq. units) of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents at the end points of the Iatera recta to the ellipse pee x i are =Lis: 85, 27 Cs (2) 18 27 @ F (4) 27 82. Let O be the vertex and Q be any point on the parabola, 12=8y. Ifthe Point P divides the line segment OQ internally in the ratio 1:3, then the locus of P is : Q) ay Q pax GB) y=2x (4) x2=2y A/Page 19 be, mm gD we 83, 84, SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK The distance of the point (1, 0, 2) from the Point of intersection of the line 7 ee 3 and the plane q att Tyte=16 is: eye yA © oe eee 2 8 Ba owarsel 4 Cs, Br me i ‘The equation of the plane containing the Tine 2x~Sy+2=3; x+y442=5, and Parallel to the plane, X43y+62=1 is q @) 2x+6y+122415 ate 3) iia Q) x+3y+62=-7 a4 un ¢ Q) -x+3y+62=7 (4) 2x+6y+122=-13 Let a, b and ¢ be three non-zero vectors Such that no two of them are collinear and (2x B)x f= TBAT eis the angle between vectors b and ¢, then a value of sin is : 2y2 SHEE =f Oitan 2 @ 5 @ 28|e EEE eee 6, IF 12 identical balls are to be placed in 3 | 89. Ket identical boxes, then the probability that ‘one of the boxes contains exactly 3 balls 4 oe -a(_2x ; tan"ty = tan! x + tar | is: ae 55(2\7 1 a 3G) where jx] valued 16 is deleted and three new _ observations valued 3, 4 and 5 are added ” 3z4x to the data, then the mean of the resultant cae data, is iae (Q) 16.8 “p20 ® ay ye 90, ‘Thenegation of ~s v (~ 48) is equivalent 15.8 : to: @) 14.0 ae (Ql) saver 88, If the angles of elevation of the top of tower from three collinear points A, Band Q) sa@an~s) C, on a line leading to the foot of the tower, are 30°, 45° and 60° respectively, @) sv@v~s) then the ratio, AB : BC, is 4) SA a Bt eee @ 2 @ 18 ® 23 -000- __ er A/Page 20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKSPACE FOR ROUGH WORK A/Page 21| sine SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK vga f ee Cet ee eee ae es a 7 Ble EB coy Cen FOP 4 ee Q “I atSPACE FOR ROUGH WORK A/Page 23Read the following instructions carefully : 1 a 10. nh 12. 13. 14. 15. L “The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pex only. “The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet. ut ofthe four options given for each question, ory one option is the correct answer. For each incorrect response, one-fourth (A) of the total marks allotted to the question vould be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total scorer however, will bbe made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no efreumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Anstoer Sheet Code), another set will be provided. “The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet, All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose vn the Test Booklet itself, marked ‘Space for Rough Work’, This space is given at the tion of each page and in three pages (Pages 21 - 23) at the end of the booklet. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent oF Invigilator, should leave his/her seat. “The candidates should not eave the Examination Hall without handing ove! their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a condidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will Be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair méans F306. ‘The candidates ave also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendartce Sheet. Use of Electronic/ Manual Calculator and any Electronic device like mobile phone, pager etc. is prohibited. ‘The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the JAB/Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the JAB/Board. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination room/ hall. ‘A/Page 24