6S 72) weqeteals Beqraed, 5 ‘Test Booklet Code Test Booklet No. 2182210 Series : SHC(P) B2Q| sreq-mmert starz / Problem Solving Assessment Zoly ‘Bat ~ XT / Class - X1 Code No. 0113 P| swe oop: a safe se: 60 Tine Allowed : Teo Hours ‘Maximum Maks: 69 wee eee H 28 geo f (ee bee ene awa a oe oe aT aA Oe eek er ETAT | “This Test Booklet contains 28 pages. Do not open this Test Booklet unl you are asked ve do so. seer Pt/tmportant instructions ¢ “Bar eT Ere i act ay se De gate eh ee a or ay, ee ae re, sh Ba-1 a a-2oer 2 aT are ara 8 ‘he Arter Shas 5 inside this Test Booklet Whin you ate dete io open the Test Booklet takeout the Answor Sheet an fl inthe paticulrs on Side ~ 2 and Side 2 earful pth hrfblack ball ne pon nly ‘eee ga fe tee goers was BZ BL MAG me Bh ned fino Gee ale ol MN Aa Das Aa eg veoh gfta& een me) 3, Feel gi a, Pe ae aca Tew Se ee tg a | ‘The Tet Booklet Code for ths Test Bonket s BZ. The candidate should check. caveully tha: the Test BoNlet Code pried on Side ~9 ofthe Answer Sacet i te same a peifed on Tet Bookie. Incase of discrepancy, the candida sosle mediately -eport the matter tothe ivigiter for replatment of both the Tet Uooket snd the Atswer She, dere eo ma Eg, a ate a are er | Pek ec er en tard BU ad 2a ee, ta ae sre seal a ae see | sats mrss (e182) Set ara fh ern st eh a goo (ea as Baa) a a8 (ser. 98 60) ate 3s required to atten! ll the tie Sections. There are 24 questions in Secian A, 18 questions i Section Band I8 questions in Section C. Section A «Langage Con ventions (Questions 1 10 23) To be attemped ether from English Language or from Hind, Language ‘Scion B ; Qualitahve Reasoning (Questions 25 to 42), Secon C Quaniitaive Reaconing (Questins 13 9 €0) asl Ser ait agra mea (McQ) Ale IA ye sre sme he ACOs ze ERR RE ef I (MICOS, Ei a re er ae Fre, Faw a rr Pe A Fae Bow el ree a rR at oe are eM TC her ae efi All the sree Sections contain Multiple Choice Questions {MCQe). Some of these questions are passage based MCQs whereas ‘others aze sand alone MCUs. Each ofthese questions hs four options out of wich only ONE option is correc. A cartidate hos to select the cortact option sné fill the conrespording ruimiber in the Answer Sheet agsinot the juestion see seen ier mets est fe fla to Re sal a a af oe eae Psa ore weit my att rae Frc) Esch Question cares one mace For each corect response the candidate will get one stk There fs no negative marking for any of the questions and unattompied question eatns no fail swe & gr ot oe, Frente ara sere ame, wet / era rater fidhoner ot eierar ara tf ‘Frnfil a-a5 tee geez eS ar A areta Bh etn fhe ket the sonddates MUST HAND OVER THE ANSWER SHEET TO THE INVIGILATOR i he roll ‘he galore re slid oleae hs Tet Book wh Heme rere a8 tare rr ac cee Fr te he Se Re eT A Fa a eH Te Pathan al abr, aT et wt anger ert wea > Skea rR ale A ETH | Tr anda shuld notice te Eeaanton Hal witout ng over tt Arswer Seto ago de the Attendance Sheet Cass whe» cana ts ot sed Bena Shea oS Atos Sheth son on el over enviar sabe Saleagon Unit pase ae ese fre fr a ome ere ce ara ave 0 & dah’ J me ees a aA Te {Ue laf fll pt pen only for wring pater on os poge and wong or mating respons om Anewer She fartal af ec otter car aie Bo at as Up gan on efaueTT a auc wroae safes Ro eer The candids od ence the Anser Sheets ld or camaged Do not me ny say mark one Awe She ‘adi vera if ort seer Sa aE cary eater aah endl oh ai anit eT Sea Aa a erate aN aE a ‘rsa a8 fee fe a Tie cand ae governed yl Rees a Regulations othe Board wi egat other atin the aranaton a AL ‘oe of uni tere wil be Acai wih ac pos Hs and Rygulobns of Bose tire ties/Registatin No.» DOS /4S 72 0005 fra 31 7/Condidates Name i Sate Teer vigilatn'sSigratuaeEguide.com Se: o113 P COTA ™ at - 0 (andra ava: 971 & 24) wtanfiat & ferg frder 1. ae are a Paenfal & fee. 2 sl uta sera (Language Conventions) ws & sala fei faa a wh SaaS 2. 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Ae al gumrea akg 2) ary A Raila sro I el a (1) Sit Fergie al Frere Q) Sage find ant t (3) Maga wfaad a frei & @) Stagrgin ee ‘sued Agee () Aare Q) anda) ) farem are ae sha sigfem ar faa fig fe ae aided (1) Ward 8 tier Q) Grn wed ad aor sit Farrea @) stg ae gis ‘Tarmia 3 een aoe etna et et Gear TeaTeT 2) wate (Horna ata Q) atest @) Thad (G) Stern aie tard fee-fie reat aS B20113 P ‘ar-rira Fryar area at gar wer ater 17 & 24.3 fae farmer on aot Fifer : uhh at age 17 # on aie aed 1s aan met 19 anfiadt a a —20_ ster civil i ameper _21_ ae, ra oa, fea_22 aa Fem BHF 23 aia ‘foq Freefl_24_ ft Bara ont gaa ah ade waa) 17, faa ent 19 Ken aM 7 a & 2) amg @) fe (4) aH 18. Ree ear 17 RH SH 7 wre 2) wee @) atch a wT 19. fea ee 20 aa aT? (ST (2) sar Q) Fe a we 20. fer ear 18 EN se ? qa) amt @ a @) w w & B2 21, 22. 23. 24. = IVR RL For Fa 22H SHTT 7 () ate Q) A @ 4 w a Raa ear 23 TF SH 7 wa Q) aa G3) @ wT Fees art 21 Hae SATA? (za 2) Burr 3) Rear @ wa ‘Ream tar 24 FM SH ? () tet 2) rh 3) we @ aSection — A (Language Conventions : Questions 1 to 24) Note : This Section of the question paper contains 24 questions in the English Language. A student is required to attempt all the 24 questions. (Questions 1 to 8) : Read the following passage carefully and select the most suitable option from each list according to the corresponding number in the passage. 1. Many teens are accused of being lazy by their parents, as 2, they often sleep late into the morning and find it hard to 3. function upon first waking. These same teens are offen also 4, reprimanded for staying up late on school nights. 5. _ However scientific research has shown that addlessents 6. have a very different sleeping pattern to adults. 7, The chemical Melatonin, which is in-charge of 8. inducing sleep, is released later in the day by teenage bodies 9, than it is for adults, This means it can be quite hard for 10. teens to go to sleep early. Italso may mean that teens now 11. have a scientific excuse to sleep in late! 1. Inline7, the words ‘in charge of’ could best be replaced with (1); responsible for 2) guilty of (3) created by (4). incapable of 2. Inline 3, the word ‘function’ could best be replaced (Q) operate (ay work (3) serve (4) behave 3, Which of the following words is the opposite in meaning to the word ‘released’ as used in line 8 ? (1) constrained (2) withheld (3) liberated (4) constricted, Which of the following words shows the correct spelling of the underlined, misspelt word in fine 5? (1) adulescents (2) addiescents (By adolescents (4) adolessents, In line 8, the word ‘inducing’ could best be replaced with (1) encouraging (2) forcing @Q). persuading (4) transmitting In line 11, the word ‘excuse’ could best be replaced with (1) apology 2) alibi (B)- reason (4) pardon Inline 4, the words reprimanded for" could best be replaced with (1) cautioned about (2) punished for (@) disciplined for (4) spoken to about In line 1, the words ‘accused of’ could best be replaced with (1) nagged about (2) blamed for (3) criticised as (4), deseribed as B20113 P (Questions 9 - 12) : Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrase from each list to fill the corresponding gap. I peered at the river through a gap in the roots of the strangler fig. The thick branches of the tree__9 me without really protecting me. I noticed the gentlest of ripples in the water and then something _10 _ began to emerge fram its, depths. An enormous head upon a slender neck rose above the surface. I Jooked into the beasts cold, reptilian eyes. I cauld sense no mind or soul behind them. I had to refrain from letting out a frightened __11__ ! The time for zetreating into the depths of the forest had arrived and I knew that it was 12 9. Which of these fits gap 12 ? (1) _ either sooner rather than later (2) either now or never @) neither now nor never (4) ¢ neither sooner nor later 10. Which of these fits gap 10? (1) magnificent yet terrifying (2) frightening yet scary @) wonderful yet grand (4) amazing yet astonishing 11. Which of these fits gap 11? (Q “Phew!” (2) “Aah” (3) “Aha!” (4) "Ouchi" 12. Which of these fits gap 9 ? @) were hiding Q) hiding (8) hidden (4)- was hiding B2 WMA (Questions 13 - 16) : Read the passage and select the correct form of the missing word/ phrase to complete it. Tt_13 _ that a person’s body is intuitively aware of when it has retumed t birth, I could certainly vouch for this being The sense of calm that _15 my bod) received __16 _ enough to suppress any fee"=gs of being at peace with the world, 13. Which of these fits gap 15 ? (1) would overcome (2) overcome @) had overcome (4) will overcome 14. Which of these fits gap 13? (rhs often been said (2) isbeen said (8) has often said (4) is often been said 15. Which of these fits gap 14? (1) on the other hand (2) after all (3) imaddition (4) at that moment 16. Which of these fits gap 16? (1) should have been 2) willbe (3) shall be (4) might have beenLINN A (Questions 17-20) : Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrase from each list to fill the corresponding gap. Experienced climber Aron Ralston set out ona__17 _ hiking adventure, which proved to be a 18 event. Despite it being a common safety practice amongst climbers to inform others when undertaking unaccompanied hiking trips, Aron had not _19_ anyone of his plans. During his climbing adventure Aron’ right arm became pinned against the canyon wall by a 360kg boulder. Aron was unabie to free himself, and after six days of being _20_he made the decision to break the bones in his forearm and then amputate his arm below the elbow. Once free he made his way down a cliff and walked 8km to seek assistarce, Aron survived. 17. Which of these fits gap 19? (Q) authorised (2) alerted (8) signalled (4) cautioned 18. Which of these fits gap 172 (1) 7 supervised @) solo 3) team (4) shared 19, Which of these fits gap 20? (1) suppressed 2) captive (8) trapped (4) entangled 20. Which of these fits gap 18? (1) breath-taking 2) faibsafe (3) stimulating (A)/ life-changing AB rm caszgnidecom 0113 P (Questions 21-24) : Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrase from each list to fill the corresponding gap. ‘At 7.17 am on June 30, 1908, an explosion erupted in the forests of Siberia, Russia, The massive explosion __21 _. shockwaves on barometers as far away as England. A 22__ number of trees ~ eighty million to be precise- were flattened and lay ina radial pattern. ‘The trees that remained standing _23_ telegraph poles as they had been stripped of their limbs and bark. This explosion is_24 as the “Tunguska event”, and it is generally accepted that this was the result of a cosmic body, such as a meteorite, impacting with the Barth. 21. Which of these fits gap 22? (remarkable (2) fantastic (3) dramatic (4) powerful 22. Which of these fits gap 23 ? (1) represented @) featured (2) resembled (4) surrounded 23. Which of these fits gap 21? () _ presented 0) listed (3) registered (4) expressed 24. Which of these fits gap 24? (1) accounted for (2) ¢ declared (3) indicated (4) referred to B20113 P NE ait at (quer ah; wer 25 # 42) / Section — B (Qualitative Reasoning : Questions 25 to 42) 25. A: Rareere’ heya nh art ecard gan acti git | sein sree ai frat | af: Waite He aR ati stex Risa qa al ot salt ‘weet | Rar Paver fai oma fee’ at care heen &, AP aR or ena aE E Rome a er arate 8 afer a eel a wefefa fear 21 (0) simmer ae Q) Aten a 3) Fame (@) siegptena 26. sm, Saree 8 am fice 3 fay et aS alter seal 8 cif aa ae oe ae 8 fe ah a ure feraertia | FOS & ah a fla a foe Paha a wie BT arco aaa aon areal 2 7 (1) Aare are feeb A ae (2) -iRe ara Aen arg aes Ah aay G) Waar Aad tear (4) arr aga A ee are aaa Ah 27. Bera we eras fae @, fareaaT art St ae tS Bae sgt Seem Blan Bi ET a sel mea Stee an Rect @ thm frafefaa quat a areafier orl arena & 7 “Sattua die a2 frm ere 1” C1) Fe arr peat a test es ofa 8 a aa (2) Se dea sear ath Ue ae eat a ‘Fenn ert | B) SUE meas a site ae fee (4) See Bea a a ad we a B2 25, 26. 27. Kavi: “Well it looks like Ihave to do all the organising yet again. You people are lazy and hopeless.” Sachi: “Since I am the only one here, I can‘thelp feeling upset thatyeu are saying that about me. [believe that Ido my share of work, but if you disagree, I will listen to your reasons.” In this conversation, Sachi expresses himself (1) aggressively (2) passively @ assertively (sarcastically Aamir wants to buy ink cartridges for his printer from a website butis not sure which site is most trustworthy. Which of the following factors is least important in making a decision about this matier ? (2) ‘The number of sales made by the website. (2) The site's money-back offer (3) The wide range of brands being sold. (4) The guaranteed time it takes for delivery. An idiom isa common saying which means something different from what it says. An idiom has a deeper meaning. Which of the four options provides the actual meaning of the following, idiom ? ‘He killed tz00 birds with one sione’. (1) He couldn't save the food crops from pests and birds. (2) He hit a target twice using stones. @) Hedid more than one thing ata time. (4¥ He completed two tasks with one action. .ARIA 28. arta fare site Hae at wee STITT ela e wel Ger Hi, yeh oh ney aA 8 Sat Te wae aa aot ara Det a, FE Fa sm oe fan my ages Fea al “wi a yer ae R? (1) we ear Svea ae oft ae ATE (2) safer Hea fis 3) aed sentra aah (@) ferddi a ses aye 29, aa a Geen gered afk feeafirat a anftiet SAT SSH ad es TE IA TK STA ad Ra ays Sa oH ghee eT @ yah saree a aeetore at aad E | ay ar ares Besfefaa argede d aerceren qa wi wefafa ara? ain ae Weta faa ai se ce Bake ‘Ser aren -aratt are eel aA TT Alief ahaa a aeat arr weye fire Sr are sre wah er we seat a Se i Sea WH HL Racer aoa a aRRTA aT AAT a (1) ert 2) wife @) wi @ FA 30. samedi an saravaer wl fear aren aT Bet 21 ter we aa lar 2 a aE Fea ah gare A aah od lores A sifire arm?! “Para efaera’ refer 8 wef “fama? wtoe A sravaaan Fé 2 | for & agar - efaera - fara ar traci? | Frerferfiaa 82 fom ares Hi gaefia 2 7 () tpherd hea! Q) warm ized | @) Wetter se arp Far | () Qatar | 28. 29. 30, 0113 P Human history extends @ short way into the past. Compared to this, the period from the formation of the Earth enti the first humans is ke Which of these best completes the passage above ? (1) awind that blows events like dust. (2) a sphere floating in space. (3) an unstoppable river in flood. (4) the submerged bulk of an iceberg. Whenever a writer includes words or ‘comments which are based on a personal opinion rather than a known fact, they are showing their bias towards an issue. Bias can be negative or positive. Which word in the following passage shows 2 positive bias? “Indira shines in this movie about a young girl trying to escape from her bullying classmates. The feat, heartbreak, and sadness, felt by children in such situations, are explained through the choice of music and the close-ups of facial expressions.” (1) sadness Q) wying (3) shines (4) escape A tautology occurs when unnecessary words are used. This generally occurs when someone tries to improve a description or dlarify what is meant. “Past history” is a tautology because the word ‘past’ is not required. History — by definition - is an account of the past Which of the following sentences contains a tautology ? (Q) They were completely surrounded. (2) Henearly missed the ball (8) She saw clearly for the first time. (4) The peg fitted loosely into the hole B20113 P eT (31.36): Frente ape at afr war far ay ret & sae dfiry | we eager A aren, Es, ge sass games, Tar oft eft ai aan sara a stor ahs a Rabo ad 3 Retire a eae | ‘wal a ag ge area ar ama a8 8, ar after Sour Rta & aden a ge Rea a aah gen on 7a awa ai Fae sulle TT cate ait sea is od 1 gers Fata smh TENG, We fara Aaa wih she ara er A area 3 mer ar ate Den al aes gf sien afte esr ser ga 1 1919 8 aa & df oe see BO ae ata ersit ah ae fre ha eet a he gs Pace 3 sare & sheommeaey sel ad ange a afar er Rear var 1 Frew a geq words Riek some are ‘afta 42 erga fare ane oeaia Hen ge Pe caer dftae dias Ti a aM Te aad shee Frage Rohan A gat a ae wae | ‘ret 9 aa aera et, ee erg 3 fees Ram ae emalie aor fe TE aT se ‘uoraradt on re meet a a en wr hese tt A reece ea eek he Pee ag A 8 of a9 angfias ame 3 agra oy oH 4 om ‘sacra fa ar 193 weea er | B2 ‘Questions (31 ~ 36) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow : Following the end of World War 1, France, Britain, USA, Japan and Italy, met in Paris to develop a plan for the future based on peace and justice. Although these nations appeared to support this goal, most had different motives. ‘The European leaders (who blamed Germany for causing the war) wanted a financial payzrent and German Jands from the Germans in return for their wartime losses. In contrast, the American President, Woodrow Wilson, promoted the need to establish global peace and justice and in doing So received worldwide praise and support. ‘The European leaders got what they wanted through the signing of the Treaty of Versailles in 1919 and Woodrow Wilson’s efforts led to the writing of the Covenant for The League of Nations in the same year. ‘The widespread support that Wilson received resulted in 42 countries, including India, joining The League of Nations in the belief that a global organisation of nations could maintain peace and prevent a repetition of the horrors of the First World Wat. Although it had many successes, once the Second World War broke out it became obvious that the League of Nations was not as powerful as was first thought and that changes were needed. Nevertheless its goals and ideals were sound and these provided the basis for the formation of the modern day United Nations Which currently has 193 member states.TEN 31. 32. 33, 34, 35. aa-araec aif anil cies aad ates Waftla arr? 7 (1) afin Q) Axia (3) afew (4) xf ge ag Fa a tm at 8 Fea Poe () Fem fasehtat gk saach snare tt Q) Fear waa (3) Fathead fier ogee (4) Fate Pe taiet are? | orn tard reat a sere, ea area & for cyithta ar asia udia 9 7 (1) seas ste Seabee Q) dane steer @) Wau she Revert @) ae sitar ‘Sifter Tee aT F “Sa Pach site ea wart? (1) fiefia faxa-aa Q) ara @) WRT ) TE Ta aey TE see ah? eae aa a ar frvare on - (1) Teta frews aa Brea az tes et Q) Fae arta wg a anfia eon afte (3) WETS ate wife seer oft) (4) Siren Reyer arate uw 31. 32. 33. 35, 0113 P Which word best describes the European leaders’ goal ? (1) compensation (2) amends (3) revenge (4) retribution ‘The text suggests that Woodrow Wilson (1) felt that Germany needed a second chance. (24 sought praise following the war, (GY felt differently from the European. leaders. (4 thought that being friendly was important. Based on the information above, what goals did the European leaders appear to support ? (1) independence and legality (2) honesty and equality (3) harmony and fairness (4) growth and responsibility “Although it had many successes..." What does ‘it’ refer to in the first sentence of ast paragraph ? (@) The Second World War (2) India (3) United Nations (4)r_ League of Nations The text suggests that members of the League of Nations believed that (1) President Wilson could prevent another world war. (2) only European nations should join. (3) peace between nations wasimportant. (4) Germany should pay to become a member. B20113 P 36. we-ta Ta ea gan? Q) WAR Resi shears femgee Bens after & ae Q) seer thea Re @) saatica% stir caer ge, G) RNa Aare & seh a ey site wel AY wir 3 fore Per Seer 37-42): frmafefarr ogee at efgy wa fey ay weit a see Sify | manent it carrer achat si Ph me a % fer ce eet & eee 2 fore Beit ead sa af 9572006 8 fea et oa ze E | manta saree Stat pir ter aquag act gti aheltie eR ‘abet wo sete, ge Factor 3 goer sori aoe wea dar’ ea ate, such agate of, sr rare eae Samed Riga atl arate camera: Anyahiaat stormed ste hel & geome yee syftrer Aurel #1 anf og, psf 70%, @ oie wet A son 1 emer aac, StF fea 90% eA afl rfl € | fara A ori I ag wh 8 Re a6 wach 3 eer fire ohe ses aqui A sre & aa 8 ane we at wraiea a2 nyafteal sta @ of Pra arate elm @ - Wet fe dana recap aftadal a1 ae eee S | B2 2 IIMADAR TA 36. When was the League of Nations formed ? (1) following President Wilson’s campaign for peace and justice for all countries (2) when the countries met in Paris (GY when the Treaty of Versailles was signed (4) _ before the European leaders met to claim money and land from Germany. Questions (37 ~ 42) : Read the following Passage and answer the questions that follow: Since 2006, commercial colonies of bees used to make honey and pollinate crops have been collapsing, The loss of hes is a major threat toagriculture. The use of industrial scale methods in agriculture seems to be one of the main causes of the crisis. Meanwhile, wild bee species are also collapsing due to the destruction of their habitats, ‘These bees also play a vital role in pollinating crops and plants gerterally. According to scientists, bees pollinate more than 70% of the crop species that supply 90% of the world’s food. Given that the world’s population is rapidly growing, more bees are needed to pollinate food crops. Scientists are calling for significant changes to how humans manage the planet so that honeybees survive and the world’s food sources are protected.aT = Cee Aas arom te afl esa Ce S Bra cre aaa sare ERE A orion a aici 8B fe Fett ral Brarerar Para a Le end er A aT eT a ere a safe 8, ah fe Par ote fi ead at 8 area er a Fre sete ake eral 3 fore frees, cared Reg ar ace tee cer uit afta ot ofr a eter ads ea a | sata ae Br ae ea ee a oe at ae Peart aera #8 eat dena & 1 37. Prefered 9 a faa giant & fore ante art ee? Q) agaftad den at an & farce aera Aa TIT ETAT AT wart Stn i te a faega aT rag fir ae ne (gee 9 eae a 3, sa aa ar @) @) a 38. wRaag Sorgen, Safdar ger atemcaer8 ? 0) apie a werien aft ara-angi A eae ara A sacha atid aarti ama webie eT a3 ta oe pe el aL A afer aa @) 3) @) 13 Scientists worldwide are joining forces to pressure governments to implement measures to restore bee populations. The strategies being proposed include incentives that encourage farmers and landowners to restore habitats that are friendly to pollinators, stringent controls on chemical use and manufacture, and stricter quarantine measures between countries. The collapse of honeybee colonies is a worldwide phenomena and this collapse is likely to continue 37. Which one of the following strategies are scientists involved in ? (1) breeding programs to increase bee numbers (2) encouraging 2 global approach (3) expanding crop planting and harvesting, (4) changing how humans manage the planet 38. According to the text, whatis the scientists’ main concern ? (1) ~ safeguarding bee populations and food supplies @) human survival (3) gathering additional scientific evidence (4) lack of variety in large scale farming methods BZ0113 P 39, 40, a1. 42, B2 ‘arefl senfRadi a waa ee aren oH TST ae - () wait she dhl ar rom a sree | 2) agaisert at met a ath | (3) Safar Fafa | (4) atl ae = pf eat “rat % tra site orf asic arta ards” seifea Pie sae #1 Q) wh ost a ded wert an are a Ferm Q) wal at Raa ar ae & fee a act * fem (3) TSE ara weet A ender Fae 2a % fem (4) arr caer gore sea 3 fore wom sigede aor eT ara Tee ) Basra HS) 2) wynitadt frgaat a8 3) crane Baat ae) (4) Peaere angie wie si freed 98 ay an fret ee ord oo ‘onanraeg & aif ara eh aad fer et af aqam? QO) aera Asniendaaa agra (2) eis Safest a eetin at fem ota 3) sane ReanBaltercth oni aad | (4) Wa ae Re oa ae 1 sieve eae at ‘faq ara 4 39, 40. 41, 42, ‘OL A key factor affecting wild bees is (1) _ inability to pollinate crops and plants. (2) bee raising practices. (3) environmental degradation. (47 industrial scale agricultural methods. “Stricter quarantine measures between countries” are being proposed to (1) combat countries. contamination across (2) _ persuade countries to work together. (3) _ assist crop sharing between countries. (4)y prevent countries’ misuse of chemicals. ‘The main idea of the first paragraph is that (1) the agricultural industry is under threat. (2Y’ bees are disappearing. (3) commercial interests are at risk. (4) world food supplies are decreasing, ‘Which of these options would best complete the concluding sentence of this information text ? (1 if the world’s population continues to grow at a rapid rate. @) because scientists are not being supported. (3) while companies focus on Jong term profits. (4) unless an international approach is taken on this issue.VAT af - oh (nearer ath: suet 43 60) / Section—C (Quantitative Reasoning : Questions 43 to 60) er (43-46): Preafefers aqede at ofa var fee ama weit & gar afr | Ba Ts - Hatta: ae wes eta 8 Rave Fe gra aaa ater ar, mR ae arya acl A oH EL raed ar saarT a ser Vel cil, Bea eT aSTSAT aera fire fen reer | sayin ara en are areget Fi fa aida -sredl ot ufafie aaa B, 3 gut ae % andi ate ear fi qa ae & | eH ea eee, fren Segara ceri fee Sa ea fora ser, panic are ray @ Lag a aura, ee wa aT Te 8 sfare 3 ara seh weer (wR, cfr, weer a ale sreret) Bork A are ee el sara A eRe ea Aug aad $1 ae dott um eranferd sianda % aa Prelit A one 8 (cm ie wee Ah ae, seri ee ry eae ot ice, eT eT HAT, Ua eal AY SaEAT 3 aga ePrice lat A go we sage TT UA € 3k sig afi ant 2 wales sa aus & oe ade pea ls ecard Ran ira safe | aifeer areas ft arr safle ais # a aval a wer A orl 2 1 0113 P Questions (43 ~ 46) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: Passwords ~ literally words that had to be spoken to a guard in order to be allowed to pass = have been used since ancient times to keep people, areas, and ideas secure. In the modern world, the passwords that we enter into computers protect our bank accounts and identities. A password that is easy for someone else to guess is said to be “weak”. Many websites help us keep our information secure by advising us of our password’s strength rating (weak, moderate, strong ot very stfong) as we enter it. ‘This rating is determined by an automatic scoring system. A password’s security score depends on how many characters are used, the type of character, and the order in which the characters are arranged. Some of these aspects are considered favourable and attract points, while others attract penalties. Fach of these aspects needs to be considered independently. The final score is calculated by subtracting the penalties from the points gained. B20113 P re arferen A us afte aia ares orp vale aA zea | The following table shows a lypical password scoring system ‘Rafal farri ai fae ona é / Aspects which need to be considered sete /Symbol ‘/ Points 'S/Penalties| ‘cant at em (farmfia-faart % el afea) Number of characters (includes punctuation marks) c cxa ORE Ey BEAT Number of uppercase letters U ux2 ehat-aa sen Al den Number of lowercase letters Le Sel A) we Number of digits (numbérs) am oft aifn cian & aia sat A eer Number of digits between first and last characters Wea-wee Fae Hen Password has letters only id-wee Ft dae Heats Password has digits only eed cam A pugh 4 den Number of times that the same character is used aorta % gana seat ft den (FA PLA, AGB) Number of consecutive uppercase letters (e.g. PLA, AGB) cu Cu x2 ehat a & sparre set Ht tien (88 way, xe) Number of consecutive lowercase letters (e.g. way, xe) a cl x2 sirgafia: arertt at Geet (94 abc, EFGH) Number of sequential letters (e.g. abc, EEGH) gates sit & den (88 2.3.4.5) Number of sequential digits (eg. 2,345) sd Sd x2 %/%8 / Points/Penalties ‘Sif eae / Final score ‘wraia/Score | 2931/29 or less 30 - 59 60 - 79 80 aT f&r#/80 or more waerm/Strength gda/weak ‘agiea/moderate| Yaa/strong aft waeI/very strong B2 16[SEE Sse sereund, en adi ae 2a ane 8 Fe aa “DOGI23" aH aa few HR eT The following example shows how the password DOG123 would be scored. (are fife Pe fart feeaterai er vee al gan 8 Fe eraiee faa eT 21) (Note: The aspects that don’t apply to this password have been shaded) ‘ae fas oe Fram Para ara ae / Aspects which need to be considered Fa / Points ‘@ / Penalties | sano At Fea Number of characters Cxde6 x48 wore seal At ea Number of uppercase letters Ux2=3 «2-6 ctarha seat fi deat Number of lowercase letters, ate Al wet Number of digits (numbers) Dx4=3 «4-12 war 3k oifam cent & ata sat fi teat Number of digits between first and last characters Mx2=2 x2=4 reese Hae ee Password has letters only. Hoa Tee A Fae se eS Password has digits only aaa creme Al raha Ay ea E = Number of reg thar the aie drastic ed pare sere arent A eT Number of consecutive uppercase letters same thas sett A ett Number of consecistive lowercase lett sorgatier aan Fis Bs Number of sequential letters sagas aia A deat Number of sequential digits Sdx2=3 «2-6 35/8 / Points/Penalties 46 12 ifaH areata / Final score 46 - 12=34 sifan arate 34 = arf 8 DOG123 aaa Tae H soa K wae Aol F aglera oH saan 8 | A final score of 34 means that DOG123 has a “moderate” strength rating in this scoring system. 7 B20113 P 43. THe 10 agate socks sal, 38 ABCDEFGHY), & a1@ | ar ae A sere ar HoH ea we a 0) stirrer (2) waite 3) agra 4) 3a 44, tt, veerad a um aaa A aig we ET sree & | ea i aR HT BH aT MTB ? Q) 38 @Q 2 @ 24 (4) 34 B2 18 43. 44, A password is made up of 10 sequential, uppercase letters. eg. ABCDEFGHIJ What is the highest security rating that this password can have ? (1) very strong (2) weak @) moderate (4) strong ‘Veera wants to use veera? as a password. Whats the security score for this password ? a) 38 2) 22 (3) 24 @ 34{IO MCANLA 45, Af 6 cer a ade cant a oar ea Te aa area | Fea 8 a ata ‘ha-wee 3A watea eT adie were OT ? (1) 72702 @) 555555 (Q) rer (4) RRRRRR 26, BRR a Set seared site EMSA eT 6 TET aT Sa ee AT | Ts TAT TA Tee iT Ma AG, He wo AT A ae Ata TT TATE Te Av13G? afi ae are 8 Fe aif cr Fre e aFa Fi eghh @ otk ger Ge aT 42 aT ifm cramer _cer et | Q) WANG ev QB) @ addins 19 45. 46. 0113 P Rohith wants to use a 6-character password made up of identical characters. Which of the following passwords would give him the highest security score ? (ly 777727 (2) 585555 )orererr (4) RRRRRR Supipi created a 6 character password made up of letters anc numbers only. A week later, she recalls the first 5 characters but has forgotten the 6! character as shown: Av13G? Supipi remembers that the last character is ‘a repeat of one of the other characters and that the security score was 42. ‘The last character would have been. (1) either Aor G Q) (3) (4) either 1or3, B20113 P 47, oral Rrra wees frend & vitae orate ta aroha agar feard azar 2: ora 3 att fale ord & feu 80 stay wa fare | See She area 72 E 1 aman [Pitesti] 2 ae 20% 80% SEH gvT AT Bea A we foe Ty ais Es (88 2) 56 (3) 64 (4) 70 48. B2 feat wie aa = 20 elem arian aise sear 9 eet SaMTETRR Zlgett 8 ea aT BT 1 saree ager A parca Qa Hy wT ake 2 sik ae sets orca ager i ad yo & 2h wae HURT Zee A BHA gaat GH cians Fea ? Qa) se (2) 1h (3) 3a (4) 4a 20 48. 47. Fadi's teacher scores each students final j mark according to the given table. For his assignments, Fadi received a mark of 80. His final marks were 72. [Assessment Weightaze Tests 80% Assignments 20% What marks did he get for his tests ? a) 38 (2) 256 @ 64 @® 70 A small area can be covered by 20 identical square tiles or 9 identical rectangular tiles. The length of the side of each square tile is @ whole number, and this is 2 cm shorter than the longer side of each rectangular tile. What is the length of the shorter side of the rectangular tile ? Sem Q) lem @) 3om () 4em50. i <— 700m —> ae tard a er anata 8 re HA caret 3 orfaen, st hell tera cre Te BTA, 700 Hix A aR Ge A, Fee SA TT | saft A are 350 m / Baws ofl 1 fern gra A aA arse Boas ae, erst a Fig fe nes oe a A 700 Hier He Saga Te ae BHT Lees A atten are a of 7 (1) 44 nyiters Q) 2 mats 3) 35 mars (4) 37 mites 100 Tat Ai es yearn a, YS 2 Sk SER STA am paiva, gs 4 sits car 7s 6 37 “yee ara & | gu eco greet gee a ae th Ae | ardamd Saget arated ae @ 99 2) 90 3) 95 (4) 97 21 49. 50. 0113 P fa! This train blew its whistle as it came out of the tunnel. Fathima, who was standing 700 metres from the tunnel beside the straight railway line, heard it. The speed of the sound was 350 m/sec. Righteen seconds after Fathima heard the whistle, the train reached the point at which she was standing beside the track. What was the train’s average speed over that 700 metre railway line? (1) 44 mis 2) 2s (3) 35 mis (4) 37 m/s In a 100 page book, pages 2 and 3 face each other. Similarly, pages 4 and 5 and 6 and 7 face each other. This pattern is repeated to the end of the book. ‘The sum of two facing pages could be ic () 99 6 7 @ 9% sen oeras GB) 95 @) 97 B2i 0113 P BL. 52. 53. B2 ‘ae ae nb, ween 3 ih i & 2 ws ‘it sees 2c ari fas frre (CIM) RE rar 18i, eA aan deta 7 qd) 50 (2) 12 @Q) 25 ) 31 ‘Aeon ae aah i clad ara 20 WHA et et Ge eel ort A arg om 25 ei @ aga | art 88 ahaa Fert ue? | (1) fea & 10 wt at ae ciong 8 ott arg 15 FH AS | (2) fem ara age a #7 80% 21 (3) Rear aga aT 120% 2 | (4) Remar aga & a ar 125% 8 i ard aeqall at & fay, go get a oer fit € 1 Reel eet Bote diol 1 a 100 ae ofa Fem a Sod at wad a & faq Glen en ta mrt ft Se He 5 Hire ae at fe | {a7 ane si ara IK se a eee @ ir ce geile a ae ga a a ser are ia fg ea wees ete a ita Stan diem a sifra a1 ra oh on at & am, fred ater ga m? GQ) 60 Q) 10 3) 40 (4) 50 51, 52. 53. ae eceseeride com ERA Ina car park, there are 2 white cars for every 3 blue cars and for every 2 blue cars there are 5 silver cars. What is the least number of cars in the car park ? a) 50 Q) 12 @) 25 @ 31 Disha measures the length of a classroom with 20 of her paces, Anuj measures the length of the same classroom with 25 of his paces. Which one of these statements is true? (1) Disha’s 10 paces are the same length as Anujs 15 paces. (2) Disha’s pace is 80% of Anus pace. (3) Disha’s pace is 120% of Anuj's pace. (4) Disha’s pace is 125% of Anuy’s pace. Lockers for storing small items are found in some schools. The lockers in-a school ‘were numbered 1 to 100. These were all opened for cleaning, Mano} came past and closed every 5! locker. Arvi then came past and closed every even numbered locker that was open, and opened every even numbered locker that Manoj had closed. How many lockers were left open after Manoj and Arvi had both gone past ? a 60 @ 10 3) 40 @) 50: 1 Be ry cB Se uidecom © (INDENT 0113 P 54. ara Alad cad ar ee ame afer a aia | 54. Partof India’snew tax scale is shown below, me | ‘Taxable Income Tax Rate ‘Up to 2,00,000|Nil = 2,00,0007% lead 2,00,001 to. |20-+10% of income s = 5,00,000 above Z 2,00,000 1% 2,00,001% |X 0 +F2,00,0008 a I= 5,00,000 am |-Ft str #F 10%, zsono0r to [f80.00-+20% of 2 10,00,000 income above 7 500,001 8 —|% 30,000 +2 5,00,000 8 : 5,00,000 I= 10,00,000 ata |rve at SITE AT 20% anieye % 1,30,000 + 30% of '= 10,00,000 income above & % 10,00,000 4 | 1,30,000 + € 10,00,000) “ 10,00,000 [sae [a sre sl See aT 30% iq age 8% 20,000 afte a Ren Anshu pays € 20,000 more tax than Batuk. cafe ay se fara af § & 5,00,000 afta eet If Anshu earns % 5,00,000 in that financial year, how much does Batuk earn? 8, dager Pa ais ara ¢ (1) & 4,00,000 (2) © 4,00,000 (2) % 1,00,000 (2) % 1,00,000 (3) © 2,00,000 (3) © 2,00,000 (4) %3,00,000 (4) %3,00,0000113 P 55. fetacere tsar acs fom, wwe eT a aaa 5 ize ak elt A saree Bie | sare a fa cat a8 | aR a aC eT a) i, time ot Day feo Dawe tye fp Rat tn Bem af 3a sera # ciaong 4 waar eee se ae fe BIEN R, OH sal Al afarne saftey Hen aa ‘ehh fori ae aaene Hee wae? qd) 12 @ 2 @) 6 a 8 Hebe ae 56. wa Reh ore % fore 19 goa eter are | wae © aR Tear a cet eT AAA | <1 atten sean fen en ante 1 9 aa wa yee Sar ane | va faa) erat pet cathe wart? aia 2) @) (4) B2 24 55. To enter a harbour, the captain of a ship needs the water to be at least 5 metres deep. ‘The tide chart is shown below. Water Level above Seabed) ot If the ship was to enter and leave the harbour on the same day, what would be the approximate maximum number of hours that it could remain in port ? a 12 @ 2 @) 6 @ 8 56. Sana wants to buy 19 balloons for a party. ‘Of these * most balloons need to be red. + 11 need to be blue or yellow. at least one needs to be pink, How many pink balloons can Sana buy? ama 2 of @ nowae (57-60): farnfatoa arqeee St afeq aa Re amg wad & gee Sire | wa ofteatie a aig vitae 2 fasta aoe RHA oor sae eg FAT AAA A BE TT H Fer, age EAE wane: aeqat aA al eT RE ? ae ae 2 fae yeah wy fate ac ett tte Ben tos, get re eh gees a TE Gea FAL tee are Bec ae Post Af ra es cae fea sna Ese O Sah ae a aa eT TAT eT saps mem aed € | yeti oe, fens are Pros ‘ater i of deems sedle cre 9.8 m/s A aE ah aft? reed ee a 2 Ser Ped oe A are A ea ee ae are aera eater A aT se Fr “aah oA fe a ee ens ea ATT 9.8 m/s, Faas [FPRTA aTS 19.6 m/s ehh atte ae ea eR gel TET sre fee Rudi 3a wen, ad cer oa wei stoi pate é, a Aa A AA GT gic a rae oh werd 8 fed ae & ps HE fs ‘ra ape eet a aque ear Bae a ee Re segura te see Boar at 3s aya et 8 ona aE ne Pare sen eat A fear (6400 km) aunt, wea pre saa RS pal Bena ar seater eho | aid ae Ferra Rea BEAT A RINT (6 x 10% kg) WA A BMA AR, se ees al yeea A era Fees cheng de sere fare, saa a ast yal A ge BY, aa 8 | eae Pree rn ag eeltgr ea A ger adhe are 8 Hoge ae fd ae Baws Fact 16 avs A glk Soh | gees, TEE ES eat A ger 3 af pT afew ae 8, Hest se saftre diaan 2 fiftor sik fee guar seh ret # whe favs 24.5 m/s Al ofa thf amet 1 25 Questions (57-60) : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow : Everyone knows the expression whiat goes np. must come davon but have you ever wondered exactly why things must come down ? The fact is that all objects on and near the Earth are pulled towards the Barth’s centre by the Earth’s gravity. ‘The force of gravity makes all falling objects travel faster and faster the longer they are falling. This is called gravitational acceleration. On Barth, the speed of a dropped object progressively increases by about 9.8 m/s for every second that it falls. ‘This is just like what happens to a car's speed asit accelerates away from a stop sign. A dropped hammer will have a speed of 9.8 m/s after its first second of travel, a speed of 19.6 m/s after two seconds and 50 on. Other large masses such as the Moon, the Sun and other planets also have gravity, although it may be stronger or weaker than on Earth. The gravity that an object experiences on a planet's surface is directiy proportional to the planet's mass, and inversely proportional to the planet's radius squared, So, a planet that has the same radius as the Earth (6400 km) but has twice the mass will have gravity that is twice as strong as the Earth's. ‘A planet that has the same mass as the Earth (6 102! kg) but twice the radius will have gravity that is four times weaker than Earth's, ‘The Moon's gravity, forexample, is one-sixth. that of the Earth’s. A hammer dropped on the ‘Moon will fall much more slowly there than it ‘would on the Earth — it would increase in speed by only 1.6 m/s every second that it fell. On Jupiter, where gravity is two and a half times greater than on Karth, the hammer would fall more quickly, increasing its speed by 24.5 m/s every second it fell B20113 P 97. $8 Rane ent dhe wwsa Sree ger ote SrA fsa a fra ae 2 WE Ron 3 a Rear qe ey 1 mere? ; a ‘ 2) gat . @) af @ Jeg 58. Sie me ST Zena yeh sora a Ya we Bi ge 6) var rel & | ore ier 35 RAR aS ea Feng a eure Te em. @ 2.5 Q) 0.2 @ 04 @) 5.0 B2 YOR 57. The graph below indicates the mass of the planets in our solar system against their radius, (compared to Ear radius) Which one of the following planets has sravity that is half that of Jupiter's gravity ? @ (2) Mercury Earth (3) Saturn (@) Neptune ‘Mars has one-tenth of the Earth's mass and " a radius thatis one-half of the Earth’s radius. Therefore, the value of Mars gravity divided by Earth gravity will be w ey °@ ay 50 25 0.2 O4IE 59. 60, aden eets at sam sit yea oe fiteen ara? | wate & fel ge UH dans & wea, wes wh aa sat frou am & fg Fete aa wed ahead en orf 1 age 05 Have & aftore “anferar H eniqre 8 | 0113 P 59. Identical hammers are dropped on the moon and on the Earth. At the end of each second that the hammers fall, the falling speed of each hammer is measured. The results for the first 5 seconds are shown in the table, aR ec a cafe (Ht fears) Time after / Speed (metres/second) area(s) | gai [sama release (seconds)/ On Earth | On Moon 0 oo on 1 98 16 oO 0.0 0.0 2 196 32 A 98 16 a 294 48 2 19.6 32 + 3a2 64 3 294 48 | 5 49.0 80 4 39.2 64 a rir a ache eee) pel athe sea 5 49.0. 8.0 am Sard othe aea. game Freese Ina second experiment, the hammers are droy on the Earth and the Moon from (we aren eer ema Pra 68.6 ms the come beige at exactly the same time. ae afar ay . ‘The Earth hammer was travelling at a speed Saar are echt A ret a reat ATT gest aT of 68.6 m/s when it hit the ground. whe & ae fied ara Aafia aaa Which of the following is the nearest to the mem? speed of the Moon hammer when the Earth @) taave hammer strikes the ground ? (1) 12 m/s @) 4mis Amis @) 6 m/s @) 6 mis (4) 11 ms @) lms aitvan fetta, fererzomrrph eae, | 60, A rock is dropped on a planet that has the wend aA 8) fea age are wae same mass as the Farth. Its speed increases 1.09 mnjs gfe aft 21 by 1.09 m/s every second that it falls, ARS ean we a ape ee A Which of the following statements is true ? 0) REA Ren gat A fen oh & 2) FoR A fen gel fen da ph (3) Trait atest ueited @) Frveitton iG Resta gt -000 27 Q) The planethas radius 9 times smaller than the Earth's radius. The planet's radius is 3 times larger than the Barth's radius, The planet's radius is 3 times smaller than the Earth’s radius. The planet has a radius 9 times larger than the Earth’s radius. 2) (3) (a) o0o- B2