Brilliant Full Syllabus Test PDF

IIT-JEE 2008
STS X/PCM/P(I)/QNS
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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

PAPER I
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours
10
Maximum Marks: 243
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
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INSTRUCTIONS:
PART A : PHYSICS
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The minimum velocity of electrons which when impinging on hydrogen atom will
produce all the lines of all the series of hydrogen spectrum will be
6
(B) 1.1 10 m/s
(D) 4.4 10 m/s
(A) 2.2 10 m/s
(C) 3.3 10 m/s
2. A ball possessing kinetic energy T collides head on with an

initially stationary elastic dumb-bell as shown in Figure. It
rebounds in opposite direction with kinetic energy T. The
masses of all the balls are the same. The energy of the dumbbell oscillations after collision is
(A) E =
(C) E =
T 3T TT
(B) E =
T 3T 2 TT
2
T 3T 2 T
(D) E =
T 3T 2 T
2
3. A proton, a deutron and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same
potential difference and enter a region of magnetic field B moving at right angles
to B. If the radius of proton circular path is 10 cm, what is the radius of deutron
path?
(A) 10 cm
2
(B) 10 2 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 10 3 cm
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
4. The wavelength of light coming from a distant galaxy is found to be 0.5% more
than that coming from a source on earth. The velocity of galaxy will be
6
(B) 3 10 m/s
(D) 7.5 10 m/s
(A) 1.5 10 m/s
(C) 4.5 10 m/s
5. A glass plate of area A, mass m is hinged along one of its sides. The speed of air
of density that should be blown parallel to its upper surface to hold the plate
horizontal will be
(A) v =
(C) v =
mg
(B) v =
A
mg
(D) v =
2A
2mg
A
mg
4A
6. A thin mica sheet ( = 1.58) is used to cover one slit of a double slit arrangement
used for producing interference. At the central point on the screen is now formed
the previous seventh bright fringe. If = 5550 , what is the thickness of mica
sheet?
(A) 5.5 micron
(B) 6.7 micron
(C) 7.5 micron
(D) 4.8 micron
7. One face of a prism is silver polished. A light ray falls at an angle of 45 on the
other face. After refraction, it is subsequently reflected from the silvered face and
then retraces its path. If the angle of the prism is 30, what is the refractive
index of prism?
(A) 2
(B) 1.6
(C) 1.5
(D) 1.73
8. If the surface of a photoelectric metal plate is successively exposed to radiations

of wavelengths 1 and 2, the maximum velocity of photoelectrons will differ by a
factor of 2. What is the work function of metal?
(A)
(C)
hc
hc
(B)
(D)
hc
hc
9. A force F acts tangentially at the highest point of a sphere of mass m kept on a

rough horizontal plane. If the sphere rolls without slipping, what is the acceleration
of the centre of sphere?
(A)
5F
7m
(B)
10F
7m
(C)
3F
7m
(D)
2F
7m
SECTION II
Assertion-Reason Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation
for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
10. Statement 1:
According to Keplers second law, the radius vector to a planet

from sun sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time.
because
Statement 2:
The law is consequence of conservation of angular momentum.

11. Statement 1:
Forces responsible for uniform circular motion are called

centrifugal forces.
because
Statement 2:
Centrifugal force is considered to be fictious force acting away

from the centre.
12. Statement 1:
A particle fired from the ground describes a parabolic path. The

speed of the projectile is minimum at the top of the path.
because
Statement 2:
13. Statement 1:
The vertical component of the velocity is zero at the top of its

path.
In resonance apparatus, we get stationary transverse waves.
because
Statement 2:
In a gaseous medium, we cannot have transverse waves.

SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16
In the circuit shown below, E = 10 V, R1 = 1 , R2 = 2 , R3 = 3 , L = 2 H.
14. Immediately after the switch is closed, the values of currents i1, i2 and i3 will be
(A) i1 = 3.3, i2 = 3.3, i3 = 0
(B) i1 = 4.5, i2 = 2.7, i3 = 1.8
(C) i1 = 1.8, i2 = 1.8, i3 = 0
(D) i1 = 3.3, i2 = 2.7, i3 = 1.8
15. Find the currents i2 and i3 immediately after the opening of the switch S.
(A) i2 = 1.8, i3 = 1.8
(B) i2 = 2.7, i3 = 1.8
(C) i2 = 3.3, i3 = 0
(D) i2 = 4.5, i3 = 2.7
16. Find the values of current i1, i2 and i3 sufficient time after the switch is opened.
(A) i1 = i2 = i3 = 0
(B) i1 = 1.8, i2 = 2.7, i3 = 4.5
(C) i = 2.7, i = 0, i = 1.8

1
2
3
(D) i1 = 4.5, i2 = 1.8, i3 = 0

An infinite number of charges each equal to q are placed along the x-axis at x = 1,
x = 2, x = 4, x = 8 ... and so on.
17. What is the electric field at the point x = 0 due to these set of charges?
(A)
q
2
(B)
0
q
3
(C)
0
q
4
(D)
0
2q
18. If the consecutive charges have opposite sign, what is the potential at x = 0?
(A)
1
4
2q
0
(B)
1
4
q
0
(C)
1
4
5q
0
(D)
q
4
19. If the consecutive charges have opposite sign, what is the electric intensity at
x = 0?
(A)
1
4
4q
0
(B)
1
4
3q
(C)
1
4
2q
0
(D)
1
4
q
0
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:
20.
Column I
Column II
(A) If v1 is velocity of incident wave in medium 1 and v2, the (p) cot
velocity of refracted wave in medium 2, then the
refractive index of medium 2, with respect to 1 is
A
2
(B) The refracting angle of a prism is A and it produces a (q) 1

minimum deviation of (180 2A). The refractive index of
2
the prism is
(C) The two surfaces of a concave lens are of radii of curvature (r) 25 cm
10 cm and 30 cm. of lens is 1.5, when it is immersed in
water =
4
3
. What is its focal length?
(D) A convex lens forms an image of magnification 1 : 8 on a (s) 60 cm

screen. When the screen is displaced by 5 cm, the image
is refocussed and magnification becomes 2. The focal
length of the lens is
21.
Column I
Column II
dN
(A) Half life of radioactive element
(p)
(B) Average life of radioactive element
(q)
(C) Activity of the radioactive element
(r)
(D) Law of radioactive decay
(s) N
= N
dt
log 2
22.
Column I
Column II
(A) Cut-off wavelength of X-rays
(p)
(B) Energy of photon
(q)
(C) Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
(r)
(D) de Broglie wavelength of electron
(s)
h
mv
hc
hc
hc
hc
Ve
PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
23. Identify the false statement.
(A) Physical adsorption of a gas is directly related to its critical temperature.
(B) Chemical adsorption decreases regularly as the temperature is increased.
(C) Adsorption is an exothermic process.
(D) A solid with a rough surface is a better adsorbent than the same solid with a
smooth surface.
24. The aqueous solutions of four sodium salts NaA, NaB, NaC and NaD had pH 7.0,
9.0, 10.0 and 11.0 respectively, when each solution was 0.1 M. The strongest acid
is
(A) HA
(B) HB
(C) HC
(D) HD
25. A 0.001 molal soution of [Pt (NH3)4 Cl4 ] in water has a freezing point depression
of 0.0054C. If Kf for water is 1.80, the correct formulation for the above complex
is
(A) [Pt (NH3)4 Cl3 ]Cl
(B) [Pt (NH3)4 Cl2 ]Cl2
(C) [Pt (NH3)4 Cl ]Cl3
(D) [Pt (NH3)4 Cl4]
10
26. The number of unit cells present in cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass
5.85 g (Atomic masses: Na = 23, Cl = 35.5) is
(A) 6 10
23
(C) 1.5 10
(B) 6 10
22
22
(D) 3 10
22
27. The separation of lanthanides in ion exchange method is based on

(A) basic strength of hydroxide.
(B) size of the hydrated ions.
(C) charge of the hydrated ions.
(D) solubility of nitrates.
28. Pick out the correct statement.
(A) Pure para hydrogen can be obtained by decreasing the temperature.
(B) Pure ortho hydrogen can be obtained by increasing the temperature.
(C) By decreasing the temperature, pure ortho hydrogen can be obtained.
(D) By increasing the temperature, pure para form of hydrogen can be obtained.
29. When treated with conc. H2SO4,
gives the product(s)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) All the above

11
30. Which of the following ethers is very difficult to be formed?

(A) Ethyl-t-butyl ether
(B) Di-isopropyl ether
(C) Di-n-butyl ether
(D) Di-t-butyl ether
31.
X and Y are respectively

(A) CH3 CH2 CHO in both cases
(B) CH3 CH2 CH2OH in both cases
(C) CH3 CH2 CHO and CH3 CH2 CH2OH
(D) CH3 CH = CH2 and CH3 CH2 CHO
SECTION II
Assertion - Reason Type
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
12
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct

(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
32. Statement 1:
Titanium can be purified by van Arkel process.
because
Statement 2:
33. Statement 1:
TiI is a non - volatile stable compound.

4
Calcium carbide on treatment with water forms acetylene.
because
Statement 2:
34. Statement 1:
It is an ionic carbide.
[OH ] concentration in 0.1 M KCN solution is higher than in 0.1 M

CH3COOK solution.
because
Statement 2:
35. Statement 1:
pK of HCN is higher than that of CH COOH.

a
Secondary alcohol reacts faster with sodium than primary

alcohol.
because
Statement 2:
Primary alcohol is more acidic than secondary alcohol.
13
SECTION III
This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
It was suggested by Luis de Broglie in 1924 that a particle in motion also behaves
like a wave. The wavelength associated with the moving particle is given by the
h
, where h is the Plancks constant, m is the mass of moving particle
equation =
mv
and v is the velocity of the particle. The de Broglie equation was derived on the basis
2
of Einsteins equation E = mc and Plancks equation E = h .

2
mc = h =
=
h
mc
hc
h
p
When the mass of moving particle is appreciable, its momentum is very high and
hence, wavelength of matter is very small.
36. The wavelength of an electron in motion is equal to twice the distance travelled
by it in one second. How fast the electron is moving?
(A)
(C)
2m
h
2m
h
(B)
(D)
h
2m
h
2m
14
23
37. An electron has a kinetic energy 2.91 10

(mass of electron = 9.1 10
(A) 9.1 10
10
(C) 9.1 10
31
J. Its de Broglie wavelength will be
kg)
(B) 4.55 10
(D) 4.55 10
10
38. The accelerating potential that must be imparted to an electron beam to give it
an effective wavelength of 0.01 nm is
(A) 1500 volt
(B) 15000 volt
(C) 750 volt
(D) 7500 volt

On the basis of electrical conductivity, solids can be classified into metals
(conductors), insulators (non-conductors) and semiconductors. Metals are conductors
of electricity as the electrons can move freely without much resistance. Insulators do
not allow electricity to pass through them. Conductivity of semiconductors increases
with rise in temperature. Based upon magnetic properties, substances are classified
into diamagnetic, paramagnetic, ferromagnetic, ferrimagnetic and anti-ferromagnetic
substances.
39. Which of the following is an example of extrinsic semiconductor?
(A) Ge doped with As
(B) Ge doped with Ga
(C) NaCl doped with SrCl2
(D) All the above
40. Which of the following is a ferromagnetic oxide?

(A) TiO2
(B) CrO2
(C) Fe3O4
(D) Mn2O7
(C) BaTiO3
(D) SiO2
41. Ferroelectricity is exhibited by

(A) Fe
(B) FeO
15
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
42.
Column I
(A) 3H2 + N2
(B) 2HI
(C) N2 + O2
(D) 2SO2 + O2
Column II
2NH3
H2 + I2
2NO
(p) forward reaction is exothermic

(q) forward reaction is endothermic
(r) not affected by introducing inert gas at
constant pressure
2SO3
(s) catalyst is not required
16
43.
44.
Column I
Column II
(A) Toluene
(p) + I effect
(B) Phenol
(q) I effect
(C) Anilinium ion
(r) + M effect
(D) Nitrobenzene
(s) Hyperconjugation
Column I
Column II
(A) Atomic radius
(p) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(B) Electronegativity
(q) F > Cl >Br > I
(C) Electron affinity
(r) Cl > F > Br > I
(D) Electropositive character
(s) I > Br > Cl > F
17
PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2
45. The minimum distance between the parabola y = 8x and the circle
2
x + y + 12y + 35 = 0 is
(B) 2 2B1
(A) 2 2
(C)
(D)
2 B 1
46. If the equation ax + bx + c = 0 where a, b and c are the sides of triangle and the
2
equation x + 2x + + 1 = 0, R have a common root, then lies in

(A) (0, 2)
(C) (1, 3)
(B) [0, 4]
(D) ( 2, 0)
47. A solution of log9 (x 1) = log3 (x 3) is

(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 5
48. If f(x) = f(x), g(x) = f (x) and G(x) =
(D) 1
f
x
2
x
g
2
and if G(7) = 8,
then the value of G(8) is

(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 1
49. If in C, sin B cos C =

(A) isosceles
3B1
3
(B) equilateral
and cos B sin C =

(C) right angled
(D) 0
1
3
, then the triangle is
(D) right angled isosceles
18
cos 2
50. If f() =
cos sin
sin2
cos
sin
B cos
A f B
(A) 0
51. If
A
n
1
9
(D) 1
(C) 2
1
10
(A) 5
, then the value of
is
(B) 1
1
8
cos sin B sin
(B) 9
=
n
15
9
n 8 B n , then the value of C is

4
(C) 10
(D) 11
52. In a tennis match, the probability of the server winning his service game is
3
4
1
. A player is said to win a set,
4
if he wins at least 6 games with at least two games more than his opponent. Two
players A and B equally strong participate in a match. Player A won the toss and
elected to serve. The probability of A winning the first set at 6 0 is
and the probability of losing his service game is
(A)
3
4
1
(B)
2
(C)
33
4
(D)
3
4
1
4
53. The tangents at z1, z2 on the circle |z z0| = a, meet at z3. Then
z B z
z B z
z B z
z B z
3
0
1
1
0
3
(A) 0
is equal to
(B) 1
(C) 1
(D) 2
19
SECTION II
Assertion and Reason Type
54. Statement 1:
If x > 0, y > 0 and x > y, then tanB1

equal to
3
4
x
y
x A y
A tanB1
x B y
is
because
Statement 2:
55. Statement 1:
If a, b > 1, then tan
a + tan
b = A tanB1
a A b
1 B ab
If is a root of 9x + 4x + c = 0 and is a root of 9x 4x c = 0,

2
where c is real and 0 < < , then the equation 9x + 8x + 2c = 0

has a root that lies between and .
because
Statement 2:
If f(x) is a continuous function of x and if a and b are real and

f(a) and f(b) are of opposite signs, then there is a root of f(x) = 0
between a and b.
20
56. Statement 1:
The normal at any point P on the parabola y = 4x meets the

curve again at Q. M is the mid point of PQ. Then the product of
the ordinates of P and M is constant.
because
Statement 2:
If the normal at
at 2 , 2at
2
57. Statement 1:
at 2 , 2at
1
, then t = B t B
2
to y = 4ax meet it again at

2
t
If a line makes an angles , and with the three coordinate

axes in space, then cos 2 + cos 2 + cos 2 is equal to 3.
because
Statement 2:
If l, m and n are the direction cosines of a line, then l + m + n = 1.
SECTION III
If there are n independent Bernoullian trials, the probability of success in each
trial is p, a constant , then the probability of x success out of the n trials is
n
P(x) = Cx p q
nx
, where q = 1 p
21
58. In a throw of a dice, getting 2 or 4 or 5 is considered as a success. A dice is

thrown 6 times and this is called an experiment. This experiment is repeated 128
times. The number of times in which 2 success experiment occur is
(A) 40
(B) 30
(C) 20
(D) 120
59. A coin is tossed 5 times. Each time a man calls head. The probability that he
wins the toss on more occasion is
(A)
1
2
(B)
1
3
(C)
1
4
3
4
(D)
60. A coin is tossed 8 times. The chance that the number of times one gets head is not
equal to the number of times one get tails is
(A)
23
32
(B)
93
128
(C)
1
128
1
64
(D)

Consider the set of 3 equations arx + bry + crz = dr , r = 1, 2, 3
a
= a
b
b
c , = d
2
1
2
3
b
b
c ,
2
= a
1. If 0, there is a unique solution given by x =
1
2
3
c ,
2
, z =
, y =
= a
d
d
d
1
2
3
2. If = 0, 1 0, 2 0, 3 0, the equations has no solution that is inconsistent.

3. If = 1 = 2 = 3 = 0 and at least one of the co-factors of is not zero, there are
infinite number of solutions.
22
61. The value of k for which the system of equations x + 2y + z = 1, x + 3y + 4z = k,

2
x + 5y + 10z = k has solutions, is

(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 3
(D) 1
62. The ordered pair (p, q) for which 2x + 5y + pz = q, x + 2y + 3z = 14, x + y + z = 6

have infinite number of solutions, is
(A) (4, 8)
(B) (4, 36)
(C) (8, 36)
(D) (8, 12)
63. The number of solutions of x + 4y 2z = 3, 3x + y + 5z = 7, 2x + 3y + z = 5 is

(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
p
23
64.
Column I
Column II
(A) If in ABC, B = 45, C = 120 and a=40 units,

then the length of the perpendicular from A on BC
produced is equal to
(B) The foot of the perpendicular on 4x + y = drawn
from the origin is M. If the line meets x, y-axes at
BM
A and B respectively, then
is equal to
MA
(C) The line
x B 3
y A 1
z B 2
=
=
intersects
5
7
B2
(p) 16
(q) 10
(r) 20 3 A
the curve x2 Ay2 =k 2 , z = 0. Then the value of k is

(D) The median AD of ABC is bisected at E and BE
AF
meets AC in F. Then
is
AC
65.
Column I
1
3
Column II
(A) The value of x such that 0 x 2 and

4
(s)
(p)
satisfying cos x + sin x = sin x cos x is

2
(B) If 5 cos 2 sin 2 = 0, where

5
7
< <
, then the value of
is
4
4
2
(q)
2
2
3
(C) The least value of 3 sin + 4 cos is obtained

when is equal to
(r) 3
4
(D) The points of trisection of the base BC of ABC

are D and E and opposite angles are 30, 30 and
15. If AEC = , then the value of is
(s)
4
24
66.
Column I
Column II
(A) The number of positive unequal integral (p) 8

solutions of the equation x + y + z = 6 is
x
1B x
,
(B) The minimum value of 16 A 16
x R is
(q) 6
(C) If a and b are real numbers between 0 and (r)

1 such that (a, 1), (1, b), (0, 0) form an
equilateral triangle, then a+b is
(D) In ABC, B = 45, a = 2 3 A 1 , (s)
area = 6 A 2 3 . Then the side b is
4 B 2 3
25
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
C. Question paper format:

10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.
11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason).
Bubble (A)
if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (B)
if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (C)
if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.

13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is
correct.
14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in
the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to
these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given
at the beginning of the section.
D. Marking scheme:
15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.
16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble
18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles
corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly
bubbled answer.
IIT-JEE 2008
STS X/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS
BRILLIANTS
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS

PAPER I - SOLUTIONS
PART A : PHYSICS
SECTION I
1. (A) All the lines of all the series of hydrogen spectrum appear when hydrogen
atom is ionised. This occurs if the energy of electrons is 13.6 eV.
v
min
2eV
m
B 19
2 1.6 10
13.6
B 31
= 2.2 10 m/s
9.1 10
2. (B) Suppose p and p are the momenta of striking ball before and after collision.
Let p c and Tc are the momentum and kinetic energy of dumb bell as a whole
after collision.
Let E be the oscillation energy.

In accordance with momentum and energy conservation laws
p = p + p c
T = T + T c + E
... (1)
... (2)
IIT/STS X/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 1
2
2
But T = p
2m
Solving the above equations, E =
T B 3T B 2 TT
2
2mV
3. (B) Radius of path =
qB
If r and r refer to the radius of paths of deutron and proton,

d
p
then
r
r
d
p
m q
d p
m q
p d
2
1= 2
1
rd = 2 rp = 10 2
4. (A) Using Doppler shift formula for spectral lines, we get the answer as
v = 1.5 106 m/s.
5. (B)
Consider two streamlines of air AB and CD.

By Bernoullis theorem for any part on AB or CD,
P+
1
2
v = constant,
2
where P is a pressure along AB and CD and is density of air. The air

particles moving along CD slow down as they reach D. The pressure in part
DE in atmosphere.
Applying Bernoullis equation at C and E on streamline CDE,
P0 = P +
1
2
P0 P =
The pressure P0 below the plate is larger than P above the plate. In order to
balance the plate force applied upwards by pressure difference must be equal
to the weight.
(P0 P) A = mg
2mg
v=
6. (B) Before the mica is put, if seventh order bright fringe is formed at distance y
from centre.
y
d
D
y=
= 7
7 D
d
After mica is introduced fringe pattern shifts by a distance.

It is given by y = (n 1) t
D
d
Seventh order fringe also shifts by same distance.

(n 1) t
D
d
t=
7 D
d
7 5550
= 6.7 micron
0.58
7. (A) Light ray must fall normally at silvered face in order to retraces the path.
It is clear from Figure that the angle
of refraction at the first surface is 30.
=
sin 45
sin 30
1
2
2
1
= 2
= 1.414
8. (A) By Einsteins photoelectric equation,

hc
=AA
mv
2
1
where A is work function and v1 is the velocity of photoelectron.

hc
=AA
mv
2
2
where v2 is the velocity in the second case.

A=
hc
2
1
2
2
2
A=
hc
hc
3
hc
3
mv
2
2
2
2
2
1
3mv
, since v1 = 2v2
mv
mv
=
mv
hc
hc
mv
hc
3
hc
3
9. (B) As the force F rotates the sphere, the point of contact

has a tendency to slip to the left so that the static
friction f acts towards right as shown in Figure.
Writing the equation for linear motion,
F + f = ma
... (1)
where a is linear acceleration.

For rotational motion about centre

Fr fr = I ,
where I is moment of inertia and is angular acceleration.
I=
2
2
a
mr , =
5
r
r (F f) =
Ff=
mr
a
r
2
ma
5
From (1) and (2), 2F =

a=
... (2)
7
5
ma
10F
7m
SECTION II
10. (A)
11. (D)
12. (A)
13. (D) Only longitudinal waves are possible in a gaseous medium.
SECTION III
14. (A) When the switch is closed, circuit is completed. But due to electrical inertia of
inductance of the coil immediately after closing S, the current i3 is zero. The
current i1 is equal to i2 as R1 and R2 are in series to form a closed circuit.
R = R1 + R2 = 1 + 2 = 3
i1 = i2 = E = 10 = 3.3 A
R
3
15. (B) After closing S, when there is sufficient time elapsed, the inductance offers
no impedance and current becomes steady in circuit containing R3 and L.
Now R2 and R3 are in parallel.
R =
R R
2
R AR
2
=
3
23
= 1.2
2A3
Effective resistance of whole circuit = R1 + R

= 1 + 1.2
= 2.2
Effective current, i1 = E = 10 = 4.5 A
R 2.2
i =
2
iR
R AR
2
i =
3
iR
2 A3
R AR
4.5 3
4.5 2
2A3
4.5 3
5
= 2.7 A
4.5 2
= 1.8 A
5
16. (A) After sufficient time when the switch is open, the main circuit is broken. The
inductance has no role and currents are zero.
i1 = i2 = i3 = 0
17. (B) Since that the point charges are along the same straight line, the intensities
at x = 0 are also along the x-axis.
E=
1
4
q
4
1A
0
q
2
1
4
q
4
1
16
8
1
64
A ...
A ...
1B
= 4q 1
3 4
=
1
4
q
3
18. (A) If the consecutive charges have opposite sign, the potential at x = 0 is
V=
q
4
4
3
1
16
1B
1
4
q
4
1A
q
4
1
2
q
16
q
32
1
A ... B
A ...
1
8
1
32
A ...
1
1B
1
4
2
3
2q
3
19. (A) If the consecutive charges have opposite sign, the electric intensity at x = 0 is
given by
E=
1
4
q
1
q
4
1B
16
1
256
1
4
16
q
2
A ...
q
16
B ...
1
4
1
64
1
1024
A ...
1
1B
1
16
16 1 16
B
15 4 15
1
4
q
2
q
4
1A
q
4
4q
5
SECTION IV
20. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r)
(A) v1 = 1
v2 = 2
=
v
v
sin
(B) =
1
2
AAD
2
sin
A
2
Here D = 180 2A
sin
=
A A 180 B 2A
2
sin
= cot
A
2
(C) Using the formula
1
f
B1
w g
1
R
1
R
and substituting the values, we get f = 60 cm.

(D) Magnification in the case of convex lens =
v
u
Substituting the values of v and u in the corresponding cases,

we get f = 25 cm
21. (A) (q); (B) (r); (C) (s); (D) (p)
22. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p)
PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
23. (B) Correct version is chemical adsorption increases with increase
temperature.
in
24. (A) Aqueous solution of NaA had a pH 7.0 (lowest value). Hence, HA is the
strongest acid.
25. (B) Given: T = 0.0054C
f
m = molality = 0.001 and K = 1.80
f
T = i K m
f
f
3
i =
5.4 10
0.0054
=
=3
3
1.8 0.001
1.8 1 10
The value of i = 3 suggests that the complex gives three particles in solution.
Hence, the formula is [Pt(NH3)4 Cl2 ]Cl2 .
1
26. (C) Molecular mass of NaCl = 23 + 35.5 = 58.5 g mol
23
Number of formula units in 5.85 g = 5.85 6 10
58.5
22
= 6 10
One unit cell (fcc) contains 4 formula units.

Hence, number of unit cells present = 6 10
4
3+
27. (B) The smallest Ce
22
= 1.5 10
22
ion is hydrated to a large extent and the hydrated Ce
ions are strongly adsorbed on the ion exchange resin. The largest Lu
hydrated to a smallest extent and the hydrated Lu
3
aq
3+
3
aq
ion is
ions are weakly
adsorbed on the ion exchange resin.

28. (A) Pure para hydrogen can be obtained by decreasing the temperature. Pure
ortho form of hydrogen cannot be obtained.
10
29. (D)
Mechanism:
30. (D) If both the R groups in ether are tertiary, its formation becomes difficult, as
tertiary alkoxide will bring about elimination when treated with tertiary
halide.
LiAlH(t BuO)
3
CH3 CH2 CHO
31. (C) CH3 CH2 COCl
78C
LiAlH
4
CH3 CH2 COCl
CH3 CH2 CH2OH
SECTION II
32. (C) TiI4 is a volatile unstable compound decomposing into elements on heating.
33. (B) All ionic carbides do not liberate acetylene. For example, Al4C3 liberates
methane only.
11
34. (A) pH =
pK pK
a
log c
Since concentration of the solution is same, and since pKa of HCN is higher
than that of CH3COOH, pH of KCN solution is high. Hence, [OH ] will be

greater in KCN solution.
35. (D) With sodium, primary alcohol reacts faster.
SECTION III
36. (B)
h
mv
h
v=
When = 2v, v =
h
2mv
h
2m
h
(or) v =
2m
v =
2
23
37. (C) Kinetic energy of electron = 1 mv = 2.91 10
J
2
23
mv2 = 5.82 10
23
v=
5.82 10
31
0.64 10
9.1 10
= 0.8 104 = 8 103 ms

=
h
mv
34
6.625 10
31
9.1 10
8000
6
8
662.5
6.625
10
10 m
=
72.8
72.8
8
= 9.1 10
12
38. (B) = 0.01 nm = 0.01 10 9 m

= 0.1 10
10
= 0.1
Since =
150
= 0.1 A
V
150
= 0.1 0.1
V
or V =
150
0.1 0.1
volt
2
= 150 10 = 15,000 volt
39. (D) Doped substances behave like extrinsic semiconductors because addition of
impurity results in the formation of holes and/or free electrons which are
responsible for semiconduction.
40. (B) CrO2 is an example of ferromagnetic substance. This phenomenon arises due
to spontaneous alignment of magnetic moments in the same direction.
41. (C) BaTiO3 is an example of ferroelectric solid. In these crystals, the dipoles are
permanently lined up even in the absence of an electric field and the
direction of polarisation can be changed by applying an electric field.
SECTION IV
42. (A) (p) ; (B) (q), (r), (s); (C) (q), (r), (s); (D) (p)
43. (A) (p), (s); (B) (q), (r); (C) (q) ; (D) (q)
44. (A) (p), (s); (B) (q); (C) (r); (D) (p), (s)
IIT-JEE 2008
STS X/PCM/P(II)/QNS
BRILLIANTS

FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS

PAPER II
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours
10
Maximum Marks: 243
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 28 pages.
2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the
space provided on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.
6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS.
SEAL
3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

B. Filling the ORS
8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and
Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else.
9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS.
C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.
D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
I have read all the instructions

and shall abide by them.
I have verified all the informations

filled in by the Candidate.
...............................................
Signature of the Candidate
...............................................
Signature of the Invigilator
IIT/STS X/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 1
SEAL
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR
INSTRUCTIONS:
PART A : PHYSICS
SECTION I
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question
has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A lift performs the first part of its ascent with uniform acceleration a and the
remaining with uniform retardation 2a. If t is the time of ascent, find the depth
of the shaft.
2
(A) at
4
(B) at
3
(D) at
8
(C) at
2
2. An ideal massless spring S can be

compressed 1 m by a force of 100 N. The
same spring is placed at the bottom of a
frictionless inclined plane inclined at 30
to the horizontal. A 10 kg block M is
released from rest at the top of the
incline and is brought to rest momentarily
2
after compressing the spring by 2 m. If g = 10 m/s , what is the speed of mass just
before it touches the spring?
(A) 20 ms
(B) 30 m s
(C) 10 ms
(D) 40 ms
3. A water barrel stands on a table of height h. If a small hole is punched in the side
of the barrel at its base, it is found that the resultant stream of water strikes the
ground at a horizontal distance R from the table. What is the depth of water in
the barrel?
2
(A) R
h
(B) R
2h
(C) R
4h
(D) 4R
h
4. A planet is at an average distance d from the sun and its average surface
temperature is T. Assume that the planet receives energy only from sun and
loses energy only through radiation from its surface. Neglect atmospheric effects.
n
If T d , the value of n is
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C)
(D)
1
4
5. An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end, as a result of which the frequency of
the third harmonic of the closed pipe is found to be higher by 100 Hz than the
fundamental frequency of open pipe. What is the fundamental frequency of the
open pipe?
(A) 200 Hz
(B) 300 Hz
(C) 240 Hz
(D) 480 Hz
2
6. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor 2 cm apart each have an area 2000 cm
3
and potential difference between the plates is 3 10 V. When a sheet of mica of

dielectric constant 3 is inserted, the induced charge on each face of mica is
(A) 35.4 10
(C) 17.7 10
(B) 17.7 10
(D) 3.5 10
7. Four points A, B, C and D are connected by a cell of emf 1 volt and 2 ohm resistor
between A to B and C to D as shown in the Figure. The current through each of
the cell is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
8. A converging lens forms a real image of an object magnified 5 times. The lens is
then moved towards the object at a distance of 10 cm. Now the magnification
becomes 10 times, the image, still being real. The power of the lens is
(A) 1 D
(B) 2 D
(C) 3 D
(D) 4 D
9. The short wave boundary of a continuous X-ray spectrum gets doubled, if the
voltage applied to an X-ray tube is reduced by 23 kV. The initial wavelength limit is
(A) 27
(B) 27 nm
(C) 0.27
(D) 0.27 nm
SECTION II

(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
10. Statement 1:
When a person walks on a rough surface, the frictional force

exerted by surface on the person is opposite to the direction of
his motion.
because
Statement 2:
It is the third law of force exerted by the road on the person that
causes the motion.
11. Statement 1:
In an adiabatic process, the internal energy of the system

decreases exactly by the amount of work done on the system.
because
Statement 2:
12. Statement 1:
When work is done, internal energy increases.

The changes in air pressure have no effect on the speed of sound.
because
Statement 2:
If the temperature is constant,

speed of sound is
13. Statement 1:
is always constant and the
In a closed pipe, the frequencies of the overtones are integral

multiples of the fundamental.
because
Statement 2:
In a closed pipe, only odd harmonics are present.

SECTION III
This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple
The space between the plates of a capacitor is tightly filled with three parallel
dielectric slabs A, B and C of thickness 2 mm, 3 mm and 5 mm with dielectric
constants 5, 10 and 2 respectively. A potential difference of 256 volts is applied to the
plates.
14. What is the charge density on the plates of the capacitor?
2
(A) = 0.5 C/m
(B) = 0.7074 C/m

2
(C) = 0.42 C/m
(D) = 0.6 C/m
15. What is the electric field intensity in each dielectric slab A, B and C?
(A) EA = 16,000 V/m, EB = 8000 V/m, EC = 40,000 V/m
(B) EA = 8000 V/m, EB = 16,000 V/m, EC = 20,000 V/m
(C) E = 12,000 V/m, E = 10,000 V/m, E = 25,000 V/m
A
B
C
(D)EA = 1024 V/m, EB = 2560 V/m, EC = 2048 V/m
16. What is the potential difference across each dielectric slab A, B and C?
(A) VA = 48 V, VB = 24 V, VC = 200 V
(B) VA = 32 V, VB = 24 V, VC = 200 V
(C) VA = 64 V, VB = 72 V, VC = 400 V
(D)VA = 80 V, VB = 96 V, VC = 500 V

A lift with a mass 1200 kg is raised from rest by a cable with a tension 1350 g newton.
After some time the tension drops to 1000 g newton and the lift comes to rest at a
height of 25 m above its initial point.
17. What is the height at which the tension changes?
(A) 10.8 m
(B) 12.5 m
(C) 14.3 m
(D) 16 m
(C) 5.98 m/s
(D) 7.5 m/s
(C) 8.37 s
(D) 9 s
18. What is the greatest speed of lift?

(A) 6 m/s
(B) 9.8 m/s
19. What is the total time of journey?

(A) 5 s
(B) 6.37 s
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
20. Match the quantities in Column I and Column II correctly.

Column I
(A) A prism has a refracting angle of 60. When placed in
the position of minimum deviation, it produces a
deviation of 30. The angle of incidence will be
(B) A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such
that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
3
emergence and the latter is equal to th of the angle of
4
prism. The angle of deviation is
(C) The refracting angle of the prism A is 45 and refractive
index of the material of the prism is cot
A
2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(q) 0
(r) 30
. The angle
of minimum deviation is
(D) The angle of prism is 30. The rays incident at 60 at
one face suffers a deviation of 30. The angle of emergence
will be
21.
Column II
(p) 45
Column I
A heater coil rated at (1000 W 220 V) is connected
to a 110 V line. The power consumed will be
Three equal resistors connected in series across a source
of e.m.f together dissipate 10 W of power. If the same
resistors are connected in parallel across the same
source of e.m.f, the power dissipated will be
A dry cell of e.m.f 1.5 V and internal resistance
0.1 is connected across a resistor in series with a
low resistance ammeter. When the circuit is switched
on, the ammeter reads 2 A. The rate of chemical energy
consumption of the cell will be
Two electric bulbs of 40 W each are connected in
parallel. The power consumed by the combination
will be
(s) 90
Column II
(p) 80 W
(q) 3 W
(r) 250 W
(s)
90 W
22.
Column I
Column II
(A) its centre with 10 revolution per second in a (p) 5 V

uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T with its
plane perpendicular to the field. The e.m.f
induced across the radius of disc will be
(B) A straight line conductor of length 0.4 m is (q) 10 V
moved with a speed of 7 m/s perpendicular
to the magnetic field of induction 0.9 T. The
induced e.m.f across the conductor is
(C) The current passing through a choke coil
of 5 Henry is decreasing at the rate of
2 A/s. The e.m.f developed across the coil is
(r)
2.52 V
(D) A coil having 500 square loops each of side

10 cm is placed normal to a magnetic flux
which increases at a rate of 1 Tesla per
second. The induced e.m.f in volts will be
(s)
0.2 V
10
PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
23. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemical adsorption, where x is the
amount of gas adsorbed on mass m g of adsorbent?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24. The hydrogen ion concentration in mol dm3 in a 0.2 M solution of a weak acid
5
HA [Ka = 2 10 ] is
(A) 2 10
(B) 2 10
(C) 2 10
(D) 2 10
25. At room temperature, the mole fraction of a solute is 0.25 and the vapour
pressure of a solvent is 0.80 atm. The vapour pressure of solution is
(A) 0.60 atm
(B) 0.90 atm
(C) 0.40 atm
(D) 0.45 atm
11
26. Schottky defect in crystals causes

(A) decrease of density of the crystal.
(B) electrical conductivity to a small extent.
(C) stoichiometric defects.
(D) all the above
27. The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order
(A) C < N < Si < P
(B) N < Si < C < P
(C) Si < P < C < N

(D) P < Si < N < C
28. Roasting is carried out to
(i) convert sulphide to oxide and sulphate.
(ii) remove water of hydration.
(iii) melt the ore.
(iv) remove arsenic and sulphur impurities.
The true statements are
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
29. Consider the following compounds,
(i) CH3 CH2 CH CH3
Cl
(ii) CH2 = CH CH2 CH2Cl
(iii) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2Cl
These compounds are dehydrohalogenated by treatment with a strong base under
identical conditions. The correct sequence of the increasing order of reactivity in
the given reaction is
(A) (i) < (ii) < (iii)
(B) (ii) < (i) < (iii)
(C) (iii) < (i) < (ii)
(D) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
12
30. CH2
CH
(i) C 2 H 5 MgBr
O A. The product A is
(ii) H 2 O, H
O
(B) CH2 CH C2H5
(A) C2H5OH
(C) C H CH CH OH
2 5
(D) CH CH C H
3
2 5
OH
31. Which of the following is anti-aromatic?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SECTION II
Assertion-Reason Type
13
32. Statement 1:
Parkes process used for the desilverisation of argentiferrous

lead is based upon distribution principle.
because
Statement 2:
33. Statement 1:
Molten zinc and molten lead form two phase system.

The decreasing Lewis acid character of boron halides is
BF > BCl > BBr .
3
because
Statement 2:
Back donation of electron by Br to B atom is minimum in BBr .
34. Statement 1:
Enthalpy change is positive when water and ethanol are mixed.
because
Statement 2:
The H O C H OH attraction in solution are stronger than

2
2 5
H2O H2O and C2H5OH C2H5OH attractions in pure solvents.

35. Statement 1:
The rate determining step in Cannizzaro reaction is the transfer
of H ion.
because
Statement 2:
Cannizzaro reaction is shown by aldehydes having H atoms.

SECTION III

This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple
Chemical reactions are generally accompanied by energy changes which appear in
the form of liberation or absorption of heat. The cause for energy change during the
14
reactions is due to the change in bond energy. The reaction may be carried out either
at constant pressure or constant volume.
The different types of enthalpy of reaction are heat of formation of compound, heat
of combustion, heat of dilution, heat of solution, heat of transition etc. According to
Hesss law, thermochemical equations can be added, multiplied, subtracted or divided
just like mathematical equations.
36. Given:
C + 2S CS2 ; H = + 117 kJ mol
C + O2 CO2 ; H = 393 kJ mol
S + O2 SO2 ;
H = 297 kJ mol
The heat of combustion of CS2 is

(A) 1104 kJ mol
(C) 987 kJ mol
(B) + 1104 kJ mol

(D) 594 kJ mol
37. The enthalpies of formation of C2H4(g), CO2(g) and H2O(l) at 25C and 1 atm
1
pressure are 52, 394 and 286 kJ mol respectively. The enthalpy of combustion of
C2H4(g) will be
(A) + 1412 kJ mol
(C) 1412 kJ mol
(B) + 706 kJ mol
(D) 2824 kJ mol
38. AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecules. If the bond enthalpies of A2, AB and B2
are in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1 and enthalpy of formation of AB from A2 and B2 is
1
200 kJ mol . What is the bond energy of B2?

(A) 400 kJ mol
1
1
(C) + 200 kJ mol
(B) + 400 kJ mol
(D) + 100 kJ mol
15

Long form, extended form or Bohr periodic table was designed by Rang and
Werner. In this table, the elements are arranged in the increasing order of their
atomic numbers in such a way that the elements with the similar electronic
configuration falls in the same group (vertical column). Based upon electronic
configuration, the elements are classified into s, p, d and f-block elements. This
classification is based upon the orbital which is occupied by the last electron of the
element which is called differentiating electron. The electronic configuration decides
the properties of the element.
39. s-block elements are
(A) less reactive metals
(B) more reactive metals
(C) less reactive non-metals
(D) more reactive non-metals
40. A reduction in atomic size with increase in atomic number is a characteristic of

the elements belonging to
(A) f-block
(B) radioactive series
(C) high atomic masses
(D) d-block
41. Which one of the following is not arranged in the correct order?
5
(A) d , d , d , d increasing order of magnetic moment.

(B) MO, M2O3, MO2, M2O5 decreasing order of basic strength.
(C) Sc, V, Cr, Mn increasing number of oxidation states.
3+
3+
3+
3+
(D) Co , Fe , Cr , Sc
increasing order of stability.
16
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
42.
Column I
(A) PCl5(g)
Column II
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(B) CaCO3(s)
CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(p) Kp = Kc (RT)
(q) S = positive for forward reaction.
(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g)
2NH3(g)
(r) Kp = Kc (RT)
(D) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)
2SO3(g)
(s) S = positive for backward reaction.
17
43.
Column I
Column II
(A)
(p) carbanion
H
(B) CH CH CH OH
3
(q) carbene
CH3
OH
(C) CHCl3
(r) carbocation
s odalim e
(D) CH CH COOH
(s) benzyne
44.
Column I
Column II
(A) Thermal stability
(p) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(B) Bond angle
(q) BiH3 > SbH3 >NH3 > PH3
(C) Boiling point
(r) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(D) Bond energy
(s) CO2 > NH3 > H2O
18
SECTION I
question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
45. If a, b, c are in G.P., b c, c a, a b are in H.P., then the value of a + c is
(A) 2b
(B) 3b
(D) 4b
(C) 4b
2
46. Given + + = 0, + + = 6, + + = 10. Then the equation with

, , as roots is
3
(B) 3x 10x 10 = 0
(D) 3x 10x + 10 = 0
(A) 3x 9x 10 = 0
(C) 2x x 10 = 0
10
47. If the middle term of

(A) n A B 1
(C) n A B 1
1
x
A x sin x
is equal to 7
7
8
, then the value of x is
, n I
(B) n A
, n I
(D) 2n A
48. If r satisfies the equation

r i A 2 j A k = i B k , then for any scalar t, r is equal to
(A) i B k A t
(C) i A t
i A2j A k
i A 2j A k
(B) j A t
(D) k A t
i A 2j A k
i A 2j A k
19
49. A (2, 3), B (4, 5) and C(x, y) be a point such that (x 2) (x 4) + (y 3) (y 5) = 0. If

the area of ABC = 2, then the maximum number of positions of C on xy plane is
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 4
50. The product of the roots of the equation

1
x 5x + {cos
(cos 3) + sin
(A) 7
(B) 6
(sin 4) + tan1 (tan 7)} = 0 is

(D) 6
(C) 2 + 6
51. The plane 5y + 4z = 0 is rotated through an angle 60 with the line of intersection
at x = 0 in the anticlockwise direction, the equation of the plane in the new
position is
(A) 5y A 4z A
(B) 5y + 4z x = 0
41x = 0
(C) 5y + 4z 2x = 0
(D) 5y + 4z
41 x = 0
52. If f(x) = [x 2] + [x + 2], where [ ] denotes the greatest integer function and
h(x) = f{f(x)}, then h (4) is
(A) equal to 1
(B) equal to zero
(C) equal to 4
(D) does not exist

2
53. The solution of ydx xdy = ny tan
x
y
dx is
(B) cos
(A) x = cos y
(C) sin
= ce
nx
(D)
x
y
x
y
= ce
= ce
nx
nx
20
SECTION II
54. Statement 1:
If
cos
x sin x dx = k
sin
x dx, then the value of k = 2
because
2a
Statement 2:
x dx = 2
55. Statement 1:
lim
x0
x dx, if f(2a x) = f(x).
sin 2x B 2 sin x
x
= 2.
because
Statement 2:
..
sin = B
A
3
5
21
56. Statement 1:
If
x
2
2
25
,
y
is the middle point of the chord of the ellipse
5
2
16
= 1 , then the length of the chord is
41
5
because
Statement 2:
the equation of the chord is
xx
a
57. Statement 1:
If (x1, y1) is the midpoint of a chord of the ellipse x A y = 1 , then

2
2
a
b
1
yy
b
B1 =
x
a
2
1
2
1
B 1.
If , are two values of satisfying the equation

cos
a
sin
b
1
c
, then cot
A
2
a
b
because
2 tan
Statement 2:
sin =
1 A tan
1 B tan
2
2
and cos =
1 A tan
SECTION III
22

(1) A straight line is represented by ax + by + cz + d = 0, ax + by + cz + d = 0. It is
called non-symmetric form.
xB x
yB y
zBz
= r are the equations of a straight line in symmetric

l
m
n
form (x , y , z ) is a point on the line and l, m, n are the direction ratios of the line.
(2)
(1) can be transformed to form (2) by applying the fact, that the line is perpendicular to
the normals to both the planes and a point on the line can be found by solving with z = 0.
58. The lines x = ay + b, z = cy + d and
x = ay + b, z = cy + d are at right angles.
Then aa + cc is equal to
(A) bb
(C) 1
(B) 2
(D) bb + 1
59. The angle between the lines 3x + 2y + z = 5, x + y 2z = 3 and 2x y z = 16,

7x + 10y 8z = 15 is
(A) 60
(B) 0
(C) 30
(D) 90
60. The equations of the line through (1, 2, 3) and parallel to x y + 2z = 5, 3x + y + z = 6

are
(A)
(C)
xB1
B 3
xB1
2
=
=
yB2
5
yB2
1
zB3
4
= zB3
(B) x 1 = y 2 = z 3
(D)
xB1
3
yB2
5
zB3
B 4

If A, B, C are points representing the complex numbers z1, z2, z3 in the Argand
plane AB is rotated to AC by an angle in the anticlockwise direction.
23
Then
z Bz
3
z Bz
2
z Bz
3
z Bz
2
AC
AB
61. Let z , z are the roots of z + az + b = 0, where a, b can be complex. z , z are

1
represented by A and B; AOB =

(A) 1
(B) 2
2
2
and OA = OB, where O is origin. Then a is

3
b
(C) 3
(D)
1
2
62. The points A, B, C are z , z , z on the circumference of a circle drawn on OA as

1
diameter, O being the origin, if AOB = BOC =

(A) z1 z3
(B) 2 z1 z3
(C) 3 z1 z3
. Then 2z
is
(D) 3 z z
1
63. If z1, z2, z3, z4 are the vertices of a square in Argand plane, then z2 z4 is
(A) z1 z3
(B) i (z1 z3)
(C) i (z3 z1)
(D) i (z1 + z3)
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
24
64.
Column I
(A) If a , a , a , ..., a
1
12
Column II
are the 12 A.Ms between
(p) 6
3 and 5 and h1, h2, h3, ..., h12 are the 12 HMs
between 3 and 5, then a5 h8 is equal to
3
(B) f(x) = ax 3x bx + 5 when divided by 2,

gives the remainder 11 and f (x) is divisible by
x 1. Then a + b is equal to
(C) If x = cos + cos cos ( + ),
y = 4 sin
sin
cos
2
2
then x y is equal to
A
2
2xy
h
4
3
(r) 1
,
(D) If the slope of one of the lines represented by

x
(q)
(s) 15
= 0 is thrice the other,
then ab is equal to
h
25
65.
Column I
Column II
(A) If f is a differentiable function such that

x
f x = x A
Bt
2x
(p) e
f x B t dt, then f(x) is
(B) If f is a function from R R such that

f(x + y) = f(x) f(y) and f (0) = 2, then f(x) is
(C) The equation of the normal to
y
(r) x = 1
y = (1 + x) + sin (sin x) at x = 0 is
(D) The equation to the tangent at a point to
xy
x + y = e , where the tangent is parallel
to y-axis is
66.
3
(q) x A x
4
Column I
(A) The set A = {x1, x2, x3, x4, x5},
(s) x + y = 1
Column II
(p) 20
B = {y1, y2, y3, y4 , y5}.

Then the number of one - one mapping
from A to B such that
f (xi) f (yi), i = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(B) x, y, z are positive integers such that
x + y + z 6. Then the number of possible
values of the ordered triplet (x, y, z) is
(C) The solution of
dy
dx
1A y
1A x
at y(1) = 1 is
(D) The curve satisfying
dy
dx
(q) 44
(r) y + 2x = 0
xy
y xA y
x y B x
and passing through (4, 2) is
(s) (1 + x ) (1 + y ) = 4x
26
27
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
C. Question paper format:

10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.
11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason).
Bubble (A)
if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (B)
if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (C)
if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.

13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is
correct.
14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in
the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to
these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given
at the beginning of the section.
D. Marking scheme:
15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble
18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles
corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly
bubbled answer.
IIT-JEE 2008
STS X/PCM/P(II)/SOLNS
BRILLIANTS
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS

PAPER II - SOLUTIONS
PART A: PHYSICS
SECTION I
1. (B) Let OAB be the velocity-time graph of
lift. The ordinate at A represents the
maximum velocity.
Distance travelled = area OAB
=
1
OB
2
AM
AM = v; OM = t1
t1 + t2 = OB = t
MB = t2
AOB =
1
t v = h
2
v t = 2h
... (1)
v
v
=a t =
1
t
a
... (2)
v
t
= 2a t =
2
v
2a
... (3)
IIT/STS X/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 1
Adding (2) and (3)

v
3v
v

=
a
2a
2a
t t =
1
t =
2
3
2h
3v
=
or at = 3h
2a
2a
t
2
at (depth of shaft)
h =
3
2. (A) Applied force on spring F = k.x.
k =
F
x
100 N
1m
= 100 Nm
Let the mass M slide a distance S metre along the incline before hitting the
spring. The spring gets compressed by 2 metres. Hence the mass M slides a
total distance of (S + 2) m along the incline.
Initially M is at a height (S + 2) sin 30 above the bottom of incline
i.e.
S 2
2
= h.
Initial potential energy = Mgh =
Mg S 2
2
When the spring is compressed, the energy has gone into the deformation of
spring.
1
2
kx =
Mg S 2
2
2
or S 2 = kx = 100 2
Mg
10 g
S =
40
g
40
g
2
The mass falls through a height S sin 30 =
S
2
Gain in kinetic energy = Loss of potential energy

1
2
Mv = Mgh or v =
v =
2g S
2
=
2gh
2g 1
2g =
20 ms
3. (C) From Toricellis theorem, v =

depth of water in barrel.
2gd where v is horizontal velocity and d is

2
1
gt .
2
Time t to hit the ground is given by h =

2h
t =
or R = vt =
= 4dh or d =
2h
2gd
= 2 dh
4h
4. (C) Let P be the power radiated by sun and R be the radius of planet.
Energy radiated by planet = (4R2) T4
P
For thermal equilibrium,
4d
R should be equal to (4R2) T4
d
T d
12
1
2
n =
5. (A) Fundamental frequency of open pipe = n 0 =

v
length n c =
4l
2 2l
v
2l
and of a closed pipe of same
Here 3nc = n0 + 100

3n
2
= n 100
0
n0 = 200 Hz
6. (B) C 0 =
A
0
12
8.85 10
4
2000 10
2
2 10
11
17.7 10
2
4
11
= Q = C V =
Charge in each plate
17.7 10
2
8
53 10
2
3 10
8
C = 26.5 10
Induced charge after insertion of dielectric constant k = 3 is

Q =
8
Q k1
53 10
31
3 2
8
= 17.7 10
C
7. (A) A and C are connected to the positive terminals of E1 and E2 (via the internal
resistance). A and B are at the same potential. Similarly C and D are at

the same potential. No current flows along AB or CD.
Now with respect to E1,

Voltage available = 1 V
Total resistance = 3
current through E1 = i =
8. (A) Magnification, m =
u =
f
u f
1 A
3
= 5
6f
5
When the lens is moved towards the object, the magnification is
m =
f
u 0.1 f
f
6f
5
= 10
= 10
0.1 f
Solving; f = 1 m
1
Power of lens =
= 1D
hc
9. (C) eV 1 = h =
hc
eV =
V 23 10
=2
V1 = 2V1 46 10
V1 = 46 kV
=
1
hc
eV
12
= 27 10
= 0.27
SECTION II
10. (D)
11. (B)
12. (A)
13. (D)
SECTION III
st
14. (B) Capacitance of 1 slab

C =
A
0
3
2 10
nd
Capacitance of 2
slab = 0 A
Capacitance of 3rd slab
10
3
3 10
A 2
0
3
5 10
Equivalent capacitance
1
C
3
2 10
eq
3
3
3 10
10
5 10
2
3
3.2 10
A
0
eq
A
0
3
3.2 10
Charge (Q) =
A 256
0
3
3.2 10
Charge density =
Q
A
256
3
3.2 10
4 9 10
= 0.7074 C/m2
15. (A) Electric field intensity in the first dielectric slab =
256
3
3.2 10
= 16,000 V/m
256
Electric field intensity in the second dielectric slab =
3
3.2 10
10
= 8000 V/m
Electric field intensity in the third dielectric slab =
256
3
3.2 10
= 40,000 V/m
3
16. (B) Potential difference across the first dielectric slab, VA = 16000 2 10
= 32 V
Potential difference across the second dielectric slab, VB = 8000 3 10

= 24 V
Potential difference across the third dielectric slab, VC = 40000 5 10

= 200 V
17. (C) Let a1 be the acceleration of lift initially and finally it is decelerated say by a2.
a =
1350 1200
a =
2
1200
g =
150 10
1200
ms
2
2
200 10
5
1200 1000
g =
=
ms
1200
1200
3
Let v be the maximum velocity, t1 is the time of acceleration and t2 is the

time of deceleration.
v = a1 t1 = a2 t2
t
t
t =
2
a
a
3
4
5
3
4
5
4
3
For acceleration part, height reached h =
a t
For deceleration part, height travelled h 2 =

=
5
8
t
1
45
96
5 2
t
8 1
5
9 2
1
t
2
3
16 1
45
96
It is given as
1 1
2
1
t = 25
1
t1 = 4.78
h =
1
5
4.78
8
= 14.3 m
1
18. (C) Maximum velocity = v = a1t1 = 5.98 ms

19. (C) t 2 =
3
4.78 = 3.59 s
4
Total time = 4.78 + 3.59

= 8.37 s
SECTION IV
20. (A) (p); (B) (r); (C) (s); (D) (q)
(A) = 2i A
30 = 2i A
30 = 2i 60 or 2i = 90
i = 45
(B) i1 = i2 =
3
60 = 45
4
= i1 + i2 A = 90 60 = 30
A D
2
sin
(C) =
= cot
A
sin
2
sin
A D
= cos
cos
A
2
sin
A
2
= sin
A D
A
2
A
2
D = 90
(D) = i1 + i2 A
30 = i1 + i2 30
30 = 60 + i2 30
i2 = 0
21. (A) (r); (B) (s); (C) (q); (D) (p)
2
(A) E = 1000
R
R = 220 220 = 48.4
1000
When E = 110
Power =
110 110
48.4
= 250 W
(B)
= 10 i.e., E = 30
3R
R
When connected in parallel; resistance =
R
3
3E
= 90 watt
R
3
(C) 3 watt
(D) When connected in parallel the resistance becomes halved and power = 80 watt
22. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p)
2
(A) e.m.f induced = 1 BR
2
BR 2 n
2
1
2
0.1 0.1 2 10
(B) Induced e.m.f = Blv

= 2.52 volts
(C) L
(D) nA
di
= induced e.m.f = 10 volts
dt
dB
dt
= 500 100 10
= 5 volts
10
PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
23. (B) The extent of chemisorption first increases upto a certain temperature and at
still higher temperature, it begins to decrease.
+
24. (C) [H ] = c = K a c
B5
2 10
0.2 =
B5
2 10
3
or [H ] = 2 10
25. (A)
P B P
o
B1
2 10
= 0.25
Po P = 0.25 Po
= 0.25 0.80 = 0.20
P = Po 0.20 = 0.80 0.20

= 0.60 atm
Vapour pressure of solution = 0.60 atm
26. (D) In Schottky defect, since anions and cations are missing in equal number, the
formula of the substances does not change. Hence, it is a stoichiometric defect.
27. (C) Electronegativity increases along the period and decreases down the group.
Hence, the order is Si < P < C < N.
28. (A) Roasting is carried out to remove arsenic and sulphur impurities. It is also
carried out to convert sulphide to oxide and sulphate. Removal of water is not
the aim of roasting.
alcoholic
29. (C) CH2 = CH CH2 CH2Cl CH2 = CH CH = CH2 is most

KOH
reactive as the product is stabilised by resonance. The secondary chloride is

more reactive than primary chloride in elimination.
alcoholic
CH3 CH2 CH CH3
CH3 CH = CH CH3
KOH
Cl
alcoholic
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2Cl CH3 CH2 CH = CH2

KOH
11
30. (C)
31. (B)
is anti-aromatic. It is less stable than buta-1, 3-diene.

is planar and has 4n-electrons. According to Huckels 4n rule, it is
anti-aromatic.
SECTION II
32. (A)
33. (D) Order of Lewis acid character is BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3.
This is due to decreasing back bonding tendency from F to Br atom.
34. (C) The H2O C2H5OH attraction in solution are weaker than
C2H5OH C2H5OH and H2O H2O attractions in pure solvents.
35. (C) Absence of H atom is a must for Cannizzaro reaction.

SECTION III
36. (A) The required equation is
CS2 + 3O2 CO2 + 2SO2 ; H f = ?

C + O2 CO2
H = 393 kJ mol1
f
2S + 2O2 2SO2 ;
H = 2 ( 297) = 594 kJ mol1

f
CS2 C + 2S
H = 117 kJ mol1
f
Adding
CS2 + 3O2 CO2 + 2SO2 ;
H = 393 594 117

f
1
= 1104 kJ mol
12
37. (C) C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)

H = Hf Hf
(products)
(reactants)
= [2( 394) + 2 ( 286)] [(1 52) + 3(0)]

= [ 788 572] 52
1
= 1412 kJ mol
38. (B) Bond energy of A2, AB and B2 are 2x, 2x and x respectively.
1
2
A2 +
1
2
B2 AB; H = 200 kJ mol

f
H = Bond energy of reactants Bond energy of products

B 200 kJ mol
200 = x +
x
2
B1
2x
2x =
1
2
1
2
B 1 2x
x
2
or x = 400 kJ mol
Bond energy of B2 = x = 400 kJ mol
39. (B) s-block elements are more reactive metals. They are alkali and alkaline earth
metals. The last electron enters into ns-orbital. All the inner orbitals are fully
filled with electrons.
40. (A) Since the differentiating electron enters into (n 2) f-orbital, the size of
f-block elements decreases with increase in atomic numbers.
41. (A) Correct order of magnetic moment is d5 > d4 > d3 > d1 (decreasing order).
SECTION IV
42. (A) (q), (r); (B) (q), (r); (C) (p), (s); (D) (s)
43. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (p), (q); (D) (p)
44. (A) (p), (r); (B) (p), (s); (C) (q); (D) (p), (r)
13
SECTION I
2
45. (D) b = ac
2 (ab ca b2 + bc) = (a c)2
2 (ab 2b2 + bc) = (a c)2
2
2b a A c B 2 ac = B
a B
a A
2
2b
a B
=B
a B
a A
2b = B
a A
2b = B a A c A 2
ac
2b = (a + c) 2b
4b = (a + c) a + c = 4b
46. (A) Sum of the roots = 0
Now, ( + + )2 = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 ( + + )
+ + = 3
3
+ + = 0 + 3 + 3 = 3
=
10
3
the required equation is x3 0x2 3x
10
3
=0
3x3 9x 10 = 0
th
47. (A) If 6
term is the middle term.

5
T6 =
10
10
1
5
sin x =
x sin x
sin x
63
8
1
2
x = n + ( 1)n , nI
6
14
48. (B) Let r = x i A y j A z k

Then y B 2z i A z B x j A 2x B y k = i B k
y 2z = 1 ; z x = 0 ; 2x y = 1
y 2z = 1 ; x = z ; y 2x = 1
The two equations are same. There are infinite number of solutions.
y = 1 + 2z ; z = x
Put x = t y = 1 + 2t; z = t
r = t i A 1 A 2t j A t k
= j A t
i A 2j A k
49. (C) From the given equation, it follows that C is a

point on the circle and AB as diameter.
Now, radius = 2
Area of ABC =
1
2
AB altitude
1
2 2 altitude
2
2 altitude = 2
altitude =
2
2
2 = Radius
There are two positions of C, i.e., C and C

1
(cos 3) = 3, because 3 lies in the range of cos
(sin 4) 4, 4 >
50. (B) cos

sin
Let 4 = +
sin
(sin 4) = sin
{sin ( + )} = sin
{sin ( )}
==4
tan
(tan 7) 7, 7 > 2
Let 7 = 2 +
15
tan
(tan 7) = tan
{tan (2 + )} = tan
(tan )
=
= 7 2
1
cos
(cos 3) + sin
(sin 4) + tan
(tan 7) = 3 + 4 + 7 2
=6
Equation is x 5x + (6 ) = 0
product of the roots = 6
51. (A) Any plane through the line of intersection is 5y + 4z + kx = 0
Direction ratios of the normal to the plane are k, 5, 4.
k
Direction cosines are
41 A k
41 A k
Direction ratios of the given plane are 0,
5
41
41 A k
,
4
41
Angle between the planes = 60

1
2
25 A 16
41
2 41 =
41 A k
41
41 A k
4 (41)2 = 41 (41 + k2)

4 41 = 41 + k2
2
k = 3 41
k= 3
41
the required plane is 5y + 4z + 3
41 x = 0
52. (D) f(x) = [x] 2 + [x] + 2 = 2 [x]

h (4 + h) h(4) = f {f(4 + h)} f {f(4)}
= f(8) f(8) = 0
0
= 0
h
h0
Right hand derivative = Lt
h (4 h) h(4) = f {f(4 h)} f{f(4)}

= f(6) f(8)
= 12 16 = 4
Left hand derivative = Lt
h0
B 4
B h
h (4) does not exist.

16
53. (C)
ydx B xdy
y
x
y
= n tan
x
y
= n tan
dx
y
dx
= n dx
tan
y
x
Integrating, log sin
+ log k = nx
log k sin
x
k sin
nx
=e
y
x
sin
nx
1 nx
e = ce
k
SECTION II
= nx
54. (A) I =
=2
B m
sin x cos x
m
sin 2x
=2
sin
=2
dx
Put t = 2x dt = 2dx
dx
sin
0
dt
2
dx
2
=2
Bm
sin
xdx k = 2
17
2x B
55. (D)
2x
Lt
2x
B ... B 2
x 0
x
= Lt
B 8 A2 A
B ...
5
x
x0
x B
32 B 2 A ...
= 1 + 0 + ... = 1
56. (A) The length of the chord is 4x + 5y = 4
Solving with the equation of the ellipse, x2 x 12 = 0
4, B
points are
12
5
Length of the chord =

57. (D) Putting t = tan
B 3,
16
5
41
5
, we get
(ab + bc) t2 2act + (ab bc) = 0
tan
cot
A
2
A
2
2ac
ab A bc
=
ab B bc
1 B
ab A bc
=
a
b
b
a
SECTION III
58. (C) Equations of the two lines in symmetric forms are

z B d
z Bd
x B b
x B b
= y =
= y =
and
a
c
a
c
If they are perpendicular, then
aa + 1 + cc = 0
aa + cc = 1
18
59. (D) If l1, m1, n1 are the direction ratios of the I line, then
3 l1 + 2 m1 + n1 = 0
l1 + m1 2 n1 = 0
By the rule of cross multiplication,
l
B 5
7
1
Direction ratios of I line are 5, 7, 1
If l2, m2, n2 are the direction ratios of the II line,
2 l2 m2 n2 = 0
7 l2 + 10 m2 8 n2 = 0
l
2
1
3
Direction ratios of the II line are 2, 1, 3
Now l1 l2 + m1m2 + n1n2 = 10 + 7 + 3 = 0
the angle is 90
60. (A) Let l1, m1, n1 be the direction ratios of the line.
Then l m + 2n = 0
3l + m + n = 0
Direction ratios are 3, 5, 4
Direction ratios of the parallel line are 3, 5, 4
Equations of parallel line is
61. (C)
z
z
z
z
OB
OA
i
2
= e
= cos
z Az
1
x B1
y B2
z B3
=
=
B 3
5
4
A i sin
1 A cos
=
A i sin
19
B a
z
= 2 cos
= 2 cos
A i 2 sin
cos
cos
A i sin
Squaring,
a
z
2
2
= 4 cos
cos
=4
A i sin
2
1
a = 3 z1 z2
= 3b
2
a =3
b
62. (C)
z
z
OB
OA
But in OAB,
i
= cos 30 e
3
e
=
2
z
z
3
1
OC
OA
cos 30 =
OA
i
6
... (1)
i
3
But in OAC,
i
= cos 60 e
= 1 e
2
OB
i
3
cos 60 =
OC
OA
... (2)
20
Squaring (1),
z
3
2
2
2
2
z
z
3
=
e
4
2
2
1
2
2
... (3)
3
2
z z
1 3
2
2 z = 3 z1z3
2
63. (B) Rotation about B in anticlockwise direction

i
z1 z2 = (z3 z2) e
= i (z3 z2)
z1 i z3 = z2 (1 i) = z2
2
1 A i
2 z2 = (1 + i) z1 i (1 + i)
... (1)
= (1 + i) z1 (i i2) z3
= (1 + i) z1 + (1 i) z3
Similarly rotation about D gives
2 z4 = (1 i) z1 + (1 + i) z3
... (2)
Subtracting the equations,

2 (z2 z4) = (1 + i) {z1 z3} + (1 i) {z3 z1}
= (z1 z3) (1 + i 1 + i)
= 2i (z1 z3)
z2 z4 = i (z1 z3)
64. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (q)
(A) Let 3, a1, a2, a3, ... a11, a12 5 be in A.P
... (1)
1 1
1
1
1
1 1
are in A.P.
,
,
,
, ....,
,
,
3 h h
h
h
h
5
1
i.e.,
1
5
1
h
12
11
1
h
11
1
h
12
...
10
1
h
1
h
1
3
are in A.P.
Multiplying by the LCM 15,

21
3,
15
h
15
12
15
11
, ...
10
15
h
15
h
, 5 are in A.P.
... (2)
From (1) and (2), equating 6th terms

a =
5
15
h
a5 h8 = 15
(B) By remainder theorem f(2) = 11, f (1) = 0
8a 12 2b + 5 = 11
4a b = 9 and
... (1)
3a 6 b = 0
3a b = 6
... (2)
Solving (1) and (2) a = 3, b = 3

a+b=6
A
(C) x = 2 cos
2
A
= 2 cos
2
A
= 2 cos
cos
cos
, 2 sin
2
B
2
B 2 cos
B cos
sin
A
2
A
2
A1
A1
A 1
=y+1
xy=1
(D) The slopes are m, 3m
2
h
B
m + 3m =
B 2b
h
b
4m =
B 2b
h
m=
B b
2h
22
1
a
m 3m =
b
b
4h
ab
h
b
a
4
3
65. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r)

x
(A) f(x) = x +
B x B t
f {x (x t)} dt (Using (a x) rule)
=x +e
f t dt
Differentiating with respect to x,

2
f x = 3x A e
B x
f x
e f t
t
dt B e
B x
(by Leibnitz rule)
f(x) + f (x) = x3 + 3x2 + f(x)

f (x) = x3 + 3x2
... (1)
Integrating the equation (1)

4
f x
3
x
A x A k
4
f(0) = 0 k = 0
4
3
f(x) = x A x
4
(B) From the rule, f(0) = 1

f x =
Lt
h0
Lt
h 0
f x A h B f x
h
f x f h B f x (By the rule)
h
23
=f x
f h B f 0
Lt
h0
= f(x) f (0) = 2f(x)

f x
= 2
f x
Integrating, log f(x) = 2x + log k

f(0) = 1 0 = 0 + log k
log k = 0
log f(x) = 2x
2x
f(x) = e
(C) At x = 0, y = 1
Point is (0, 1)
Differentiating w.r.t. x
y = 1 A x
y log 1 A x A
y
1A x
1
4
2 sin x cos x
1 B sin x
At (0, 1)
y = 1
Slope of the normal =
B 1
=1
1
Equation to the normal at (0, 1) is

y 1 = 1 (x 0)
y=x+1
x+y=1
(D) x + y = exy
1 A
dy
dx
= e
xy
y A x
dy
dx
xy
dy
y e B 1
=
xy
dx
1B x e
24
Parallel to y-axis
xy
1xe
=0
1 x (x + y) = 0
point (1, 0)
x = 1, y = 0
Equation to the tangent is x = 1

66. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r)
(A) The problem is equivalent to placing 5 letters in 5 addressed envelopes so that
no letter goes to the right envelope.
General formula =
Here, 5
= 120
1B
1
1
1
n
1
1B
1
1
1
2
1
1
3
1
4
B ...
1
5
1
1
1
1
B
A
B
2
6
24
120
= 60 20 + 5 1 = 65 21 = 44
(B) x + y + z = n, where n = 3, 4, 5, 6
Number of positive integral solutions of x + y + z = n
=
nB 1
Required number of solutions

=
nB 1
C A C A C A C
2
= 1 + 3 + 6 + 10
= 20
25
(C)
y
1 A y
y
1 A y
2y
1 A y
dx
dy =
x 1 A x
1
x
B
2
x
1 A x
dy =
2x
dy A
1A x
dx =
dx
2
x
dx
log (1 + y ) + log (1 + x ) = 2 log x + log k

2
(1 + x ) (1 + y ) = kx
y(1) = 1 4 = k
(1 + x2) (1 + y2) = 4x2
(D) (xy3 x2) dy (xy + y4) dx = 0
y3 (xdy ydx) x (xdy + ydx) = 0
x2 y3
xdy B ydx
x
y
x y d
y
x
x (xdy + ydx) = 0
x d (xy) = 0
x
y
d xy
2 2
= 0
x y
Integrating,
2
1
xy
= C
Curve passes through (4, 2)

1
1
B
= CC=0
8
8
y3 = 2x
3
y + 2x = 0

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IIT-JEE 2008

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

Maximum Marks: 243

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

I have read all the instructions

I have verified all the informations

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(B) 1.1 10 m/s

(D) 4.4 10 m/s

(A) 2.2 10 m/s

(C) 3.3 10 m/s

2. A ball possessing kinetic energy T collides head on with an

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(D) 7.5 10 m/s

(A) 1.5 10 m/s

(C) 4.5 10 m/s

(B) 6.7 micron

(C) 7.5 micron

(D) 4.8 micron

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8. If the surface of a photoelectric metal plate is successively exposed to radiations

9. A force F acts tangentially at the highest point of a sphere of mass m kept on a

According to Keplers second law, the radius vector to a planet

The law is consequence of conservation of angular momentum.

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Forces responsible for uniform circular motion are called

Centrifugal force is considered to be fictious force acting away

A particle fired from the ground describes a parabolic path. The

The vertical component of the velocity is zero at the top of its

In a gaseous medium, we cannot have transverse waves.

Linked Comprehension Type

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(B) i1 = 4.5, i2 = 2.7, i3 = 1.8

(C) i1 = 1.8, i2 = 1.8, i3 = 0

(D) i1 = 3.3, i2 = 2.7, i3 = 1.8

(B) i2 = 2.7, i3 = 1.8

(D) i2 = 4.5, i3 = 2.7

(B) i1 = 1.8, i2 = 2.7, i3 = 4.5

(C) i = 2.7, i = 0, i = 1.8

(D) i1 = 4.5, i2 = 1.8, i3 = 0

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19

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(B) The refracting angle of a prism is A and it produces a (q) 1

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. What is its focal length?

(D) A convex lens forms an image of magnification 1 : 8 on a (s) 60 cm

(A) Half life of radioactive element

(B) Average life of radioactive element

(C) Activity of the radioactive element

(D) Law of radioactive decay

(A) Cut-off wavelength of X-rays

(B) Energy of photon

(C) Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons

(D) de Broglie wavelength of electron

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(B) [Pt (NH3)4 Cl2 ]Cl2

(C) [Pt (NH3)4 Cl ]Cl3