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Sample Exam

ITIL Foundation

ITIL
Sample examination ITIL Foundation
ITIL Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management
Edition September 2006

Content
3
Introduction
4
Sample exam
14
Answer key
34
The evaluation

EXIN SAMPLE ITILF_3.2_ 0824LC06

Copyright 2006 EXIN


All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be published, reproduced, copied or stored in a data
processing system or circulated in any form by print, photo print, microfilm or any other means without
written permission by EXIN.
ITIL is a Registered Trademark of OGC.
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Introduction
This is the sample examination ITIL Foundation.
This sample examination consists of 40 multiple-choice questions. Each multiple-choice question has a
number of possible answers, of which only one is the correct answer.
The maximum number of points that can be obtained for this examination is 40. Each correct answer is
worth one point. If you obtain 26 points or more you have passed.
The time allowed for this examination is 60 minutes.
No rights may be derived from this information.
Good luck!

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Sample exam

1 of 40
Which ITIL process or function deals with issues and questions about the use of services, raised by end
users?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Availability Management
Service Level Management
Problem Management
Service Desk

2 of 40
What is the difference between a Known Error and a Problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.

The underlying cause of a Known Error is known; the underlying cause of a Problem is not known.
A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure; a Problem does not involve such an error.
A Known Error always originates from an Incident; this is not always the case with a Problem.
With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identified; this is not the case with a Known
Error.

3 of 40
Who coordinates the production of the Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Manager
Change Advisory Board (CAB)
Release Manager
IT Management

4 of 40
Within an organization, who is authorized to establish an agreement with the IT department, concerning IT
Services?
A.
B.
C.
D.

the Service Level Manager


the user of the IT resources
the ITIL process owner
the customer of the IT department

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5 of 40
Where are requirements that influence capacity, recorded?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Capacity Plan
Service Improvement Program
Service Quality Plan
Service Level Requirements

6 of 40
When a new version of a software package is installed in a desktop or client/server environment, it can affect
other software packages already in that environment. Sometimes, these other software packages need to be
installed again.
When installing new software, which ITIL process monitors whether other software must be reinstalled and
tested?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
IT Service Continuity Management
Problem Management
Release Management

7 of 40
The Availability Manager wants to know the trend regarding the recovery of IT components.
From which process or function would he/she request the necessary information?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Service Desk
Release Management
Configuration Management
Service Level Management

8 of 40
Which term means that an incident has departed from the normal service level?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Escalation
Impact
Priority
Urgency

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9 of 40
Problem Control is a sub-process of Problem Management. The first activity of Problem Control is to identify
and record problems.
What is the first step to be taken in identifying a problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.

analyze all existing incidents


classify and prioritize problems
solve problems
provide management information

10 of 40
Which one of the following is the direct responsibility of Change Management to report on a regular basis,
say monthly?
A. number of Requests for Change (RFCs) registered in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
during the measuring period
B. number of Changes raised by Problem Management during the measuring period
C. number of approved RFCs that had their implementation schedule delayed during the measuring period
D. incorrectly registered Configuration Items (CIs) found during the measuring period
11 of 40
From which data repository can statistical information be extracted to gain an insight into the structure and
composition of the IT infrastructure?
A.
B.
C.
D.

the Capacity Database (CDB)


the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
the Definitive Software Library (DSL)

12 of 40
What is another term for Uptime?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)


Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)
Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI)
Relationship between MTBF and MTBSI

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13 of 40
Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management?
A.
B.
C.
D.

informing end users of a system failure


documenting the fallback arrangements
reporting regarding availability
guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date

14 of 40
What is the definition of Confidentiality within the Security Management process?
A.
B.
C.
D.

protection of the data against unauthorized access and use


ability to access data at any moment
the capability to verify that the data is correct
the correctness of the data

15 of 40
What is usually not an activity of the Service Desk?
A.
B.
C.
D.

handling (standard) Requests For Change


handling complaints about the services of the IT organization
determining the root cause of incidents
providing information on products and services

16 of 40
Which of the following documents is an output of one of the tactical processes?
A. user manual for an application
B. newsletter from the Service Desk about an application
C. discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for expansion of an application with the person who
submitted the RFC
D. agreements on the availability percentage of an application

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17 of 40
An end-user's PC crashes. This is not the first time that he has had problems with his PC. It also crashed
three months ago. The user reports the crash to the Service Desk.
What type of record should be created for the user's call?
A.
B.
C.
D.

an Incident
a Known Error
a Problem
a Request for Change

18 of 40
Which of the following is an example of a Service Request?
A.
B.
C.
D.

a complaint about the provision of services


an error report
a request for relocation of equipment
a request for documentation

19 of 40
What is an activity within the area of Proactive Problem Management?
A.
B.
C.
D.

handling Requests for Change


performing trend analyses and identifying potential incidents and problems
following up on all incidents and disruptions
minimizing the disruption to services resulting from Changes to the IT environment

20 of 40
Which ITIL process or function makes the most important and most frequent substantive contribution to
keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
Service Desk
Incident Management
Problem Management

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21 of 40
One of the activities of Configuration Management is Control.
What does this activity entail?
A. updating changes to Configuration Items (CIs) and their relationships in the Configuration Management
Database (CMDB)
B. verifying that the CIs and their attributes are specified correctly in the Configuration Management
Database (CMDB)
C. installing all new CIs and their attributes correctly in the operating environment
D. making an inventory and baseline of all CIs and their attributes in the operating environment
22 of 40
Which activity is part of the Availability Management process?
A.
B.
C.
D.

classifying Requests For Change


defining the impact code for incidents
identifying problems with the availability of IT Services
measuring the availability of IT Services

23 of 40
In which ITIL process are rates for IT services negotiated with customers?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Availability Management
Capacity Management
Financial Management for IT Services
Service Level Management

24 of 40
Which attribute in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) would help to ascertain which
Configuration Items are in maintenance at a particular moment in time?
A.
B.
C.
D.

purchase date
owner
location
status

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25 of 40
Which of the following must be individually and uniquely authorized by Change Management before any
action can take place?
A.
B.
C.
D.

regular data entry from Users into a database


changing a password for a User
adding a new User to the human resources system
moving a networked printer to a new location

26 of 40
There have been two incidents on a server. It appears that the server is overloaded due to its multiple
connections.
What kind of action should Incident Management take in this instance?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Ask Capacity Management to expand the Capacity of the server.


Ask Problem Management to look into the Problem right away.
Ask Security Management to check whether too many authorizations may have been issued.
Ask Service Level Management to revise the Service Level Agreements (SLAs).

27 of 40
Which ITIL process includes the matching of incidents with known (documented) solutions as one of its
activities?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
Incident Management
Problem Management
Configuration Management

28 of 40
When the cause of a Problem is known, what status is given to the Problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.

the status 'Incident'


the status 'Known Error'
the status 'Solved'
the status 'Request For Change'

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29 of 40
After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performed.
What is this evaluation called?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)


Post Implementation Review (PIR)
Service Improvement Programme (SIP)
Service Level Requirement (SLR)

30 of 40
Due to a defect, a user's sound card is replaced with a new one, made by a different manufacturer.
Which ITIL process is responsible for registering the new sound card?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
Configuration Management
Incident Management
Problem Management

31 of 40
Where are the contents of software releases maintained?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Capacity Database (CDB)


Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
Definitive Software Library (DSL)

32 of 40
Which of the following is included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A.
B.
C.
D.

arrangements about the services to be provided


availability statistics for the previous period
an action plan for setting up the Service Level Management process
detailed technical descriptions of a network protocol

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33 of 40
Which ITIL process ensures that the IT Services are restored as soon as possible in the case of a
disruption?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
Incident Management
Problem Management
Service Level Management

34 of 40
Which information does the "Financial Management for IT Services" process deliver to Service Level
Management?
A.
B.
C.
D.

the availability of the IT services in a specific period


the costs of the Financial Management system
the total costs of network management
how much has been spent on IT services per client

35 of 40
What is the responsibility of the Security Manager when a new Service Level Agreement (SLA) is created?
A.
B.
C.
D.

translating the Service Level Requirements for data security


determining the Security Baseline in the Service Catalogue
providing guidelines for the Security section of the SLA
reporting on the technical availability of security components

36 of 40
Which ITIL process is responsible for control and management of the implementation of a new software
release?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
Configuration Management
Release Management
Service Level Management

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37 of 40
Which ITIL process determines relevant counter measures based on an analysis of threats and
dependencies concerning IT Services?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Availability Management
IT Service Continuity Management
Problem Management
Service Level Management

38 of 40
Which Capacity Management activity can be used to influence the usage of computing resources?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Application Sizing
Demand Management
Modeling
Tuning

39 of 40
Which ITIL process is responsible for developing a charging system?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Availability Management
Capacity Management
Financial Management for IT Services
Service Level Management

40 of 40
What is IT Service Management?
A. effectively and efficiently managing the quality of the IT Services
B. organizing the management of the IT infrastructure according to the best practices of ITIL
C. managing the IT infrastructure in a process-oriented way so that the IT organization can provide the
customer with IT products in a professional way
D. promoting an understanding of IT Services among a wider audience

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Answer key
1 of 40
Which ITIL process or function deals with issues and questions about the use of services, raised by end
users?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Availability Management
Service Level Management
Problem Management
Service Desk

A. Incorrect. Availability Management has no direct contact with users.


B. Incorrect. Service Level Management mainly concerns itself with the agreements with the customer for
the IT Services, not with resolving malfunctions or answering users' questions.
C. Incorrect. Problem Management concerns itself with investigating the underlying cause of a Problem.
D. Correct. Dealing with questions about the use or issues with services is the task of the Service Desk.

2 of 40
What is the difference between a Known Error and a Problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.

The underlying cause of a Known Error is known; the underlying cause of a Problem is not known.
A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure; a Problem does not involve such an error.
A Known Error always originates from an Incident; this is not always the case with a Problem.
With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identified; this is not the case with a Known
Error.

A. Correct. An underlying cause will be identified when a Problem is being investigated. This results in a
Known Error.
B. Incorrect. The cause of both a Known Error and a Problem can be located in the IT infrastructure. This
cause will be known in the case of a Known Error, but not in the case of a Problem.
C. Incorrect. A Problem should always have been defined from the registration of one or more Incidents.
D. Incorrect. In the description of a Problem, the Configuration Items involved are not yet known. The
Problem must still be investigated, after which the cause of the error and the relevant Configuration Items
are identified and the Problem becomes a Known Error.

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3 of 40
Who coordinates the production of the Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Manager
Change Advisory Board (CAB)
Release Manager
IT Management

A. Correct. The Change Manager is the only person who can assume ultimate responsibility for the FSC.
B. Incorrect. The Change Advisory Board (CAB) is an advisory body and can give recommendations, but the
Change Manager has ultimate responsibility.
C. Incorrect. The Release Manager uses the Forward Schedule of Changes and may provide feedback and
status reports against it only.
D. Incorrect. The Change Manager is empowered with authority on behalf of the IT Management.

4 of 40
Within an organization, who is authorized to establish an agreement with the IT department, concerning IT
Services?
A.
B.
C.
D.

the Service Level Manager


the user of the IT resources
the ITIL process owner
the customer of the IT department

A. Incorrect.The Service Level Manager belongs to the IT department, and as such cannot establish an
agreement with the IT department.
B. Incorrect. The user of the IT resources has no authorization beyond the daily use for his or her daily tasks.
C. Incorrect. The ITIL process owner belongs to the IT department, and as such cannot establish an
agreement with the IT department.
D. Correct. The customer of the IT department is authorized to establish an agreement with the IT
department, concerning the IT Services he or she may purchase.

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5 of 40
Where are requirements that influence capacity, recorded?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Capacity Plan
Service Improvement Program
Service Quality Plan
Service Level Requirements

A. Incorrect. The Capacity Plan gives a picture of the existing capacity and the expected developments in
the demand for services. It also gives an overview of expected costs.
B. Incorrect. Actions, phases and delivery dates are documented in the Service Improvement Program, the
goal of which is to improve an IT service.
C. Incorrect. The Service Quality Plan contains process parameters for purposes of management
information.
D. Correct. Requirements are laid down in the Service Level Requirements, which form the basis for
designing, developing and constructing the service to be able in the end to safeguard the SLA.

6 of 40
When a new version of a software package is installed in a desktop or client/server environment, it can affect
other software packages already in that environment. Sometimes, these other software packages need to be
installed again.
When installing new software, which ITIL process monitors whether other software must be reinstalled and
tested?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
IT Service Continuity Management
Problem Management
Release Management

A. Correct. Change Management ensures that the risks associated with a Change are assessed and kept to
a minimum.
B. Incorrect. IT Service Continuity Management may be involved indirectly in this matter if there is a serious
problem as a result of the Change, and the IT Service Continuity Plan must be put into effect as a result.
However, this is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management.
C. Incorrect. This is not the task of Problem Management.
D. Incorrect. The actual activities (reinstalling and testing packages) may be the task of Release
Management, but Change Management is responsible for assessing the necessity of these activities, and
monitoring the results and the quality of these activities.

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7 of 40
The Availability Manager wants to know the trend regarding the recovery of IT components.
From which process or function would he/she request the necessary information?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Service Desk
Release Management
Configuration Management
Service Level Management

A. Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of the Service Desk. The Incident Management process does
provide relevant information to Configuration Management by linking incident records to CI's.
B. Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of Release Management.
C. Correct. Data pertaining to the failure rate, duration, etc. can be retrieved from the CMDB as incidents can
be linked to CI records.
D. Incorrect. This is not the responsibility of Service Level Management.

8 of 40
Which term means that an incident has departed from the normal service level?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Escalation
Impact
Priority
Urgency

A. Incorrect. This situation involves an incident; it does not (yet) involve an Escalation.
B. Correct. The Impact is the degree to which the incident leads to a departure from the normal service level.
C. Incorrect. The Priority is determined by Impact and Urgency.
D. Incorrect. Urgency pertains to the rate at which the incident should be remedied.

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9 of 40
Problem Control is a sub-process of Problem Management. The first activity of Problem Control is to identify
and record problems.
What is the first step to be taken in identifying a problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.

analyze all existing incidents


classify and prioritize problems
solve problems
provide management information

A. Correct. Analysis of all existing incidents is the first activity of Problem Management in the Problem
Control subprocess.
B. Incorrect. This is not one of the first steps.
C. Incorrect. This will certainly not be the first step. In order to solve a Problem, Problem Management must
first investigate what the Problem is.
D. Incorrect. Problem Management can only report on the Problem when information is known about the
Problem. This is the last step.

10 of 40
Which one of the following is the direct responsibility of Change Management to report on a regular basis,
say monthly?
A. number of Requests for Change (RFCs) registered in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
during the measuring period
B. number of Changes raised by Problem Management during the measuring period
C. number of approved RFCs that had their implementation schedule delayed during the measuring period
D. incorrectly registered Configuration Items (CIs) found during the measuring period
A. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Configuration Management to report.
B. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Problem Management to report.
C. Correct. This is the responsibility of Change Management to report all exceptions to the Change
schedule.
D. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of Configuration Management.

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11 of 40
From which data repository can statistical information be extracted to gain an insight into the structure and
composition of the IT infrastructure?
A.
B.
C.
D.

the Capacity Database (CDB)


the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
the Definitive Software Library (DSL)

A. Incorrect. The Capacity Database (CDB) contains only capacity and performance data on the IT
infrastructure.
B. Correct. The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) contains a record of the entire IT
infrastructure and its interrelationships.
C. Incorrect. The Definitive Hardware Store (DHS) is the storage location for hardware stocks of
standardized basic configurations.
D. Incorrect. The Definitive Software Library (DSL) contains operational and earlier versions of software, and
documentation on them.

12 of 40
What is another term for Uptime?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)


Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)
Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI)
Relationship between MTBF and MTBSI

A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the average time required to resolve an incident (Downtime).
C. Incorrect. Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI) is the average time between the occurrence of
two successive incidents. This includes MTBF and MTTR.
D. Incorrect. A relationship between two different time indicators produces a factor or percentage as a result.
This has nothing to do with Uptime.

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13 of 40
Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management?
A.
B.
C.
D.

informing end users of a system failure


documenting the fallback arrangements
reporting regarding availability
guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date

A. Incorrect. Informing users of system failure is a Service Desk activity.


B. Correct.
C. Incorrect. Providing reports on availability is an activity of Availability Management.
D. Incorrect. Guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date is an activity of
Configuration Management.

14 of 40
What is the definition of Confidentiality within the Security Management process?
A.
B.
C.
D.

protection of the data against unauthorized access and use


ability to access data at any moment
the capability to verify that the data is correct
the correctness of the data

A. Correct. Protection of the data against unauthorized access and use is the definition of Confidentiality as
used in the Security Management process.
B. Incorrect. Ability to access data at any moment is a definition of Availability as used in the Security
Management process.
C. Incorrect. The capability to verify that the data is correct is part of the definition of Integrity as used in the
Security Management process.
D. Incorrect. The correctness of the data is part of the definition of Integrity as used in the Security
Management process.

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15 of 40
What is usually not an activity of the Service Desk?
A.
B.
C.
D.

handling (standard) Requests For Change


handling complaints about the services of the IT organization
determining the root cause of incidents
providing information on products and services

A. Incorrect. The handling of (standard) Requests For Change is an activity within Change Management, but
it can also be a Service Desk activity.
B. Incorrect. The handling of complaints about the services of the IT organization is an activity within Service
Level Management, but it can also be a Service Desk activity.
C. Correct. Determining the root cause of incidents is an activity of Problem Management.
D. Incorrect. Providing information on products and services can be an activity of the Service Desk.

16 of 40
Which of the following documents is an output of one of the tactical processes?
A. user manual for an application
B. newsletter from the Service Desk about an application
C. discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for expansion of an application with the person who
submitted the RFC
D. agreements on the availability percentage of an application
A. Incorrect. User support for an application is part of the Incident Management process, an operational
process.
B. Incorrect. A newsletter from the Service Desk about an application is a form of communication from the
Service Desk, an operational department.
C. Incorrect. A discussion about a Request for Change (RFC) for the expansion of an application with the
person who submitted this RFC is a form of communication in the Change Management process, an
operational process.
D. Correct. Agreements on the availability percentage needed of an application are made in the Service
Level Management process, a tactical process.

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17 of 40
An end-user's PC crashes. This is not the first time that he has had problems with his PC. It also crashed
three months ago. The user reports the crash to the Service Desk.
What type of record should be created for the user's call?
A.
B.
C.
D.

an Incident
a Known Error
a Problem
a Request for Change

A. Correct. This is an Incident.


B. Incorrect. A recurring malfunction is not necessarily a Known Error. The occurences might have different
causes.
C. Incorrect. A recurring malfunction is not necessarily a Problem.
D. Incorrect. This is not a Request For Change.

18 of 40
Which of the following is an example of a Service Request?
A.
B.
C.
D.

a complaint about the provision of services


an error report
a request for relocation of equipment
a request for documentation

A. Incorrect. A complaint about the provision of services is possibly an Incident, but it is not a Service
Request that can be solved by the Service Desk according to a straightforward standard procedure.
B. Incorrect. An error report is not a Service Request, but it requires Incident Management procedures to
ensure the rapid recovery of services.
C. Incorrect. A request for the relocation of equipment is a Change request.
D. Correct. A request from a user for information, advice, documentation or a new password, for example, is
a Service Request.

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19 of 40
What is an activity within the area of Proactive Problem Management?
A.
B.
C.
D.

handling Requests for Change


performing trend analyses and identifying potential incidents and problems
following up on all incidents and disruptions
minimizing the disruption to services resulting from Changes to the IT environment

A. Incorrect. Handling Requests for Change is the task of Change Management.


B. Correct. Proactive Problem Management concerns itself with trend analysis and identifying potential
incidents and problems.
C. Incorrect. Following up on all incidents and disruptions is the task of Incident Management.
D. Incorrect. Minimizing the impact of changes is not the task of Proactive Problem Management but of
Change Management.

20 of 40
Which ITIL process or function makes the most important and most frequent substantive contribution to
keeping the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) up to date?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
Service Desk
Incident Management
Problem Management

A. Correct. Change Management continuously implements changes in the IT infrastructure and is


responsible for directing changes in the CI registration.
B. Incorrect.The Service Desk may be involved in Configuration Management activities. However, having
Change Management in place is more important for keeping the CMDB up to date than having a Service
Desk.
C. Incorrect. Incident Management consults the CMDB, but does not provide input for keeping it up to date.
D. Incorrect. Problem Management consults the CMDB and links problems and known errors to CIs.

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21 of 40
One of the activities of Configuration Management is Control.
What does this activity entail?
A. updating changes to Configuration Items (CIs) and their relationships in the Configuration Management
Database (CMDB)
B. verifying that the CIs and their attributes are specified correctly in the Configuration Management
Database (CMDB)
C. installing all new CIs and their attributes correctly in the operating environment
D. making an inventory and baseline of all CIs and their attributes in the operating environment
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. Verifying that the CIs and their attributes are specified correctly in the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB) is a description of Verification, and not the Control activity.
C. Incorrect. Installing new CIs in the operating environment does not describe the Control activity. It is an
activity that is usually executed by Release Management under the responsibility of Change Management.
D. Incorrect. To inventory the Configuration Items (CIs) is a description of Identification and Registration, and
not the Control activity.

22 of 40
Which activity is part of the Availability Management process?
A.
B.
C.
D.

classifying Requests For Change


defining the impact code for incidents
identifying problems with the availability of IT Services
measuring the availability of IT Services

A. Incorrect. Classifying Requests For Change is a Change Management activity.


B. Incorrect. Defining the impact code for incidents is an Incident Management activity.
C. Incorrect. Identifying problems with the availability of IT Services is a Problem Management activity.
D. Correct. In addition to reporting, measurement is the most important activity in the Availability
Management process. The measurement and reporting activities create the basis for verifying service
agreements, removing problem situations and formulating proposals for improvement.

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23 of 40
In which ITIL process are rates for IT services negotiated with customers?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Availability Management
Capacity Management
Financial Management for IT Services
Service Level Management

A. Incorrect. Availability Management does not negotiate with the customer.


B. Incorrect. Capacity Management does not negotiate with the customer.
C. Incorrect. Financial Management for IT Services determines the cost price and sales price based on the
financial policy or negotiations with the customer, but is not directly involved in negotiations.
D. Correct. One of the activities of Service Level Management is 'drawing up and negotiating the agreement'.
Part of this activity involves negotiating on the desired level of services in relation to the costs. Pricing
information is recorded in a Service Level Agreement (SLA).

24 of 40
Which attribute in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) would help to ascertain which
Configuration Items are in maintenance at a particular moment in time?
A.
B.
C.
D.

purchase date
owner
location
status

A. Incorrect. The purchase date of a Configuration Item (CI) has nothing to do with the maintenance of the
CI.
B. Incorrect. The owner does not change if a CI is in maintenance.
C. Incorrect. While the location of a CI may change when in repair, this attribute would not be a useful way to
show all CIs currently in maintenance (there may be multiple maintenance locations).
D. Correct. Selecting on status 'in maintenance', all CIs in maintenance should be shown.

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25 of 40
Which of the following must be individually and uniquely authorized by Change Management before any
action can take place?
A.
B.
C.
D.

regular data entry from Users into a database


changing a password for a User
adding a new User to the human resources system
moving a networked printer to a new location

A. Incorrect. Entering data into a database is not a change based on the ITIL definition of a 'Change',
because it does not change the CI status of the database.
B. Incorrect. Changing a password is not a Change because a password is not a Configuration Item (CI)I.
C. Incorrect. Adding a new User to the system is not a Change, because the CI status of the system is not
changed.
D. Correct. Moving a networked printer is a Change, because the attribute of the location for this Printer-CI
is changed. In addition, the change of the location of this printer can have a certain impact on the way the IT
infrastructure functions. As such, the impact of this change should be assessed, understood , and
authorized. Thus, it should be under the control of Change Management.

26 of 40
There have been two incidents on a server. It appears that the server is overloaded due to its multiple
connections.
What kind of action should Incident Management take in this instance?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Ask Capacity Management to expand the Capacity of the server.


Ask Problem Management to look into the Problem right away.
Ask Security Management to check whether too many authorizations may have been issued.
Ask Service Level Management to revise the Service Level Agreements (SLAs).

A. Incorrect. An inquiry should take place before any expansion to the server is carried out.
B. Correct. The first step is to find out the real cause of the incidents. It is the responsibility of the Problem
Manager to initiate and monitor this. Once it is clear that a lack of capacity is the cause, then several options
can be considered.
C. Incorrect. When the server was put into operation, the number of persons who could log on to the server
was known. The Problem Manager should first carry out an inquiry into the underlying cause.
D. Incorrect. There is no reason to revise the Service Level Agreements.

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27 of 40
Which ITIL process includes the matching of incidents with known (documented) solutions as one of its
activities?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
Incident Management
Problem Management
Configuration Management

A. Incorrect. Change Management deals with submitted Requests for Change, and with processing them.
B. Correct. Matching is an activity that is part of the Incident Management ITIL process.
C. Incorrect. Problem Management deals with investigating the underlying cause of one or more incidents.
D. Incorrect. Configuration Management deals with the registration of CI information.

28 of 40
When the cause of a Problem is known, what status is given to the Problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.

the status 'Incident'


the status 'Known Error'
the status 'Solved'
the status 'Request For Change'

A. Incorrect. The status 'Incident' does not exist. Several incidents together make up a Problem.
B. Correct. If the cause of the Problem is known, it gets the status Known Error.
C. Incorrect. The status 'Solved' is not a correct term in the ITIL descriptions. The Problem must still be
solved after its cause is known.
D. Incorrect. A Request For Change (RFC) may be the logical consequence of a Known Error. The Known
Error may be solved by applying for and implementing an RFC.

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29 of 40
After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performed.
What is this evaluation called?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)


Post Implementation Review (PIR)
Service Improvement Programme (SIP)
Service Level Requirement (SLR)

A. Incorrect. A Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC) is not an evaluation, but a calendar with a schedule of
the coming changes.
B. Correct.
C. Incorrect. A Service Improvement Programme (SIP) is not an evaluation. A SIP can, however, be the
consequence of an evaluation (from Service Level Management).
D. Incorrect. Service Level Requirements (SLR's) are the expectations of the customer for a (new) service.
They do not involve an evaluation.

30 of 40
Due to a defect, a user's sound card is replaced with a new one, made by a different manufacturer.
Which ITIL process is responsible for registering the new sound card?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
Configuration Management
Incident Management
Problem Management

A. Incorrect. Change Management is responsible for the Change, but not for registering the new
Configuration Item (CI) in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB).
B. Correct. Configuration Management registers new Configuration Items (CIs) in the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB).
C. Incorrect. Incident Management registers the Incident and its development, but does not register the CI in
the CMDB.
D. Incorrect. Problem Management may have concluded that the sound card had to be replaced, but it is not
responsible for registering the CI.

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31 of 40
Where are the contents of software releases maintained?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Capacity Database (CDB)


Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
Definitive Software Library (DSL)

A. Incorrect. The Capacity Database (CDB) consists of technical data, business data and all other data that
is important for Capacity Management.
B. Incorrect. The Definitive Software Library (DSL) can be part of the Configuration Management Database
(CMDB).
C. Incorrect. Hardware quantities are stored in the Definitive Hardware Store (DHS), particularly with regard
to standardized basic configurations.
D. Correct. The contents of software releases are maintained in the DSL.

32 of 40
Which of the following is included in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A.
B.
C.
D.

arrangements about the services to be provided


availability statistics for the previous period
an action plan for setting up the Service Level Management process
detailed technical descriptions of a network protocol

A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. The availability statistics are described in reports.
C. Incorrect. The agreement to establish and/or execute the action plan may be included in a Service Level
Agreement (SLA), but not the plan itself.
D. Incorrect. Detailed technical descriptions of services are not included in a good SLA (customer language),
let alone a technical description of a network protocol.

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33 of 40
Which ITIL process ensures that the IT Services are restored as soon as possible in the case of a
disruption?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
Incident Management
Problem Management
Service Level Management

A. Incorrect. Change Management can sometimes be involved in the solution procedure.


B. Correct. Disruptions (Incidents) are reported through Incident Management. Incident Management tries to
resolve the disruptions as soon as possible.
C. Incorrect. It is only after it has become clear that one or more disruptions have a structural cause - that is,
there is a Problem involved - that Problem Management tries to resolve the Problem.
D. Incorrect. Service Level Management does not resolve disruptions. This process records the
arrangements made about service levels in a Service Level Agreement (SLA).

34 of 40
Which information does the "Financial Management for IT Services" process deliver to Service Level
Management?
A.
B.
C.
D.

the availability of the IT services in a specific period


the costs of the Financial Management system
the total costs of network management
how much has been spent on IT services per client

A. Incorrect. This information is reported from Availability Management.


B. Incorrect. This information is reported to IT management.
C. Incorrect. These costs are not customer-related and therefore not useful to Service Level Management.
D. Correct. This is one of the cost-related items that are reported to Service Level Management.

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35 of 40
What is the responsibility of the Security Manager when a new Service Level Agreement (SLA) is created?
A.
B.
C.
D.

translating the Service Level Requirements for data security


determining the Security Baseline in the Service Catalogue
providing guidelines for the Security section of the SLA
reporting on the technical availability of security components

A. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of the Service Level Manager. The Service Level Manager does,
however, obtain input on this subject from the Security Manager.
B. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of the Service Level Manager. The Service Level Manager does,
however, obtain input on this subject from the Security Manager.
C. Correct. The actual execution of this activity is the responsibility of Security Management.
D. Incorrect. Reporting on availability is the responsibility of Availability Management.

36 of 40
Which ITIL process is responsible for control and management of the implementation of a new software
release?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Change Management
Configuration Management
Release Management
Service Level Management

A. Correct. Control and management of the distribution of releases are the responsibility of Change
Management.
B. Incorrect. Configuration Management does not manage the distribution of releases. It is, however,
involved in providing Configuration Item information and in modifying that information as a result of the
distribution.
C. Incorrect. Release Management does not manage the distribution of releases, but it does provide contentrelated information about releases and the schedule.
D. Incorrect. Service Level Management does not manage the distribution of releases, but it does provide
the user with reports on releases.

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37 of 40
Which ITIL process determines relevant counter measures based on an analysis of threats and
dependencies concerning IT Services?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Availability Management
IT Service Continuity Management
Problem Management
Service Level Management

A. Incorrect. Availability Management provides data about the requisite availability of components in the IT
infrastructure and their mutual dependency. This data is used for the analysis of threats and dependencies in
the IT Service Continuity Management process.
B. Correct. IT Service Continuity Management analyzes the threats and dependencies and determines the
relevant countermeasures.
C. Incorrect. Problem Management investigates the IT infrastructure in order to detect the causes of
(potential) malfunctions in the provision of services. However, external threats are not considered to be
malfunctions or errors in the IT infrastructure.
D. Incorrect. Service Level Management presents a transparent account of the roles and responsibilities
regarding the IT Services.

38 of 40
Which Capacity Management activity can be used to influence the usage of computing resources?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Application Sizing
Demand Management
Modeling
Tuning

A. Incorrect. Application Sizing is the discipline that predicts the hardware capacity necessary for running
new or adapted applications.
B. Correct. Demand Management is the management of capacity demands.
C. Incorrect. Modeling is used to make predictions of infrastructure 'behavior'.
D. Incorrect. Tuning is the optimal adjustment of systems to the actual or expected workload based on the
data that has been measured, analyzed and interpreted.

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39 of 40
Which ITIL process is responsible for developing a charging system?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Availability Management
Capacity Management
Financial Management for IT Services
Service Level Management

A. Incorrect. The task of Availability Management is to manage the availability of the IT Services.
B. Incorrect. The task of Capacity Management is to facilitate the expected demand for IT Services.
C. Correct.
D. Incorrect. The task of Service Level Management is to make agreements about IT Services.

40 of 40
What is IT Service Management?
A. effectively and efficiently managing the quality of the IT Services
B. organizing the management of the IT infrastructure according to the best practices of ITIL
C. managing the IT infrastructure in a process-oriented way so that the IT organization can provide the
customer with IT products in a professional way
D. promoting an understanding of IT Services among a wider audience
A. Correct.
B. Incorrect. IT Service Management is much broader than the ITIL method.
C. Incorrect. IT Service Management focuses on IT services rather than on IT products.
D. Incorrect. IT Service Management restricts itself to people who are working or are involved in the
specialized field.

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The evaluation
The table below shows the correct answers to the questions in this sample examination.
number answer

points

number answer

points

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

10

30

11

31

12

32

13

33

14

34

15

35

16

36

17

37

18

38

19

39

20

40

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