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Chemistry Answer
ASSIGNMENTS
ASSIGNMENT-1
Q.1
(B)
CH 3 CH 2 CH CH 2 CH 3
|
CN
Pentane 3 cyanide
Br Cl
| |
CH 2 C CH CH 3
2 chloro 3 bromo 3 butene
[4]
Column II
(Reason)
(P)
(Q)
(R)
(S)
OH
(C)
(D)
3,5-dimethyl octa-1,3-diene
the name
(T)
Q.2
Column II (DOU)
(A)
Azulene
(P)
(B)
Napthalene
(Q)
(C)
Tetralin
(R)
(D)
(S)
(T)
[4]
Q.3
Q.4
Q.5
and
[3]
[Ans.D]
are
[3]
(B*) Metamers
Q.6
Q.7
Explain why 2-methylpyrrolidine boils at a higher temperature than its isomers N- methylpyrrolidine.
[3]
Q.8
Explain why p-dichlorobenzene is more soluble in n-propyl alcohol than methyl alcohol, while
o-dichlorobenzene is less soluble in n-propyl alcohol than methanol.
[3]
Q.9(a) How many metamers (aromatic) are possible for the structural formula of
(b)
[3]
O Et .
Write bond line structural formula for all the possible isomers having the molecular formula C4H6.[4]
[Ans.
(a )
( b)
(c )
(d )
(e )
(f )
Alkane
Alkene
Alkyne
Alcohol
Ether
Aldehyde
Alkane
Alkene
Alkyne
Alcohol
Ether
Aldehyde
Chain
4
4
5
4
5
4
Position
6
4
4
3
4
5
Functional Metamerism
]
2
4
3
ASSIGNMENT-2
Q.1
[4]
Column II
Cl
Br
Cl
(A)
(B)
A pair of metamers
A pair of functional isomer
(P)
&
(Q)
Br
Acetaldoxime & acetamide
CH2OH
OH
(C)
&
(R)
CH3
(D)
(S)
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 & CH 3 CH CH 3
|
|
CN
CN
Cl
(T)
Cl
COC
O
Cl
&
O
Cl
COC
O
Q.2
CH3
(A)
[4]
Column II
(Double bond equivalent)
H
CN
O
O
(P)
(Q)
(R)
(S)
19
(T)
N
COOH
(penicillin)
(B)
(Hexahelicene)
(C)
(Prismane)
O
C
C
(D)
C
O
OH
OH
(Ninhydrin)
Statement-1 : Homologoues are having similar physical properties & different chemical properties.
Statement-2 : They are having different molecular masses & having same F.G.
[3]
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(D) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
Q.4
Statement-1 :
IUPAC name of H2C = CHCH2CCH is pent-4-en-1-yne.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Alkene is preferred over alkyne when they are placed at same position.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.5
[3]
(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
Q.6
Compare water solubility and boiling point of iso-pentyl alcohol and iso pentyl amine.
[Ans. (boiling point i)
(H2O solubility ii)]
Q.7
Boiling point of ethanol (78C) is more than that of ethanamine (16.6C), but boiling point of ethanoic
acid (117C) is less than that of ethanamide (221C). Explain with reasons.
[3]
Q.8
(I)
CH 3
|
(a) CH 3CH 2 CH CH 2 NH 2
[4]
CH 3
|
(b) CH 3 CH 2 CH NH CH 3
CH 3
|
(c) CH 3 CH 2 N CH 2 CH 3
(II)
(III)
(CH2OH)2
A
(CH2OMe)2
B
CH 3
|
CH 3 C CH 3
|
CH 3
neopantane
n-hexane
2,3-dimethylbutane
1-pentanol 2-methyl-2-butanol
[Ans.neopantane < 2,3-dimethylbutane < n-hexane < 2-methyl-2-butanol < 1-pentanol ]
(IV)
[3]
OH
H
OO
NH2
Q.9
NH2
[9]
NH
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
O
Find out the total number of 1 hydrogen.
Find out the total number of 2 hydrogen.
Find out the total number of 3 hydrogen.
Find out the total number of 1 carbon.
Find out the total number of 2 carbon.
Find out the total number of 3 carbon.
Find out the total number of 4 carbon.
Find out the total number of functional groups.
Find out the number of degree of unsaturation.
[Ans. a-9, b-11, c-3, d-5, e-9, f-3, g-0, h-6, i-5]
(g)
&
O
(h)
CCNCCCC
|
H
&
C C NH C C C
|
C
(i)
Et C NH Me
||
O O
&
Me C NH Et
||
O O
(j)
CO
&
CO
[Ans. (a) chain (b) func.(c) posi. (d) func. (e) func. (f) func. (g) posi. (h) chain (i) meta (j) meta ]
[10]
ASSIGNMENT-3
Q.1
H3CCH2CH2 CH2CH2OH
(P)
290C
(B)
H 3C CH CH 3
|
OH
(Q)
138C
(C)
H 2C CH CH 2
|
|
|
OH OH OH
(R)
102C
(S)
82.4C
(D)
CH 3
|
H 3C C CH 2 CH 3
|
OH
Column II
(P)
Tautomerism
(B)
C4 H10 O
(Q)
Positional isomerism
(C)
C4 H8 O
(R)
Functional isomerism
(D)
C2 H5 N
(S)
Geometrical isomerism
[4]
C=C
Statement 1 :
CH3
H5C2
Cl
Br
and
Cl
C=C
Br
[3]
CH3
O
Q.4
NH
Statement 2 : Lone pair of nitrogen will participate in resonance but only E form is stable in its resonating
structure.
[3]
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(D) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
[3]
The terpene ocimene has the IUPAC name (3E)-3,7-dimethyl-1,3,6-octatriene, what is the structural
formula of this compound?
[3]
(A)
Q.8
[3]
(B)
(C)
(D*)
NC
NC
|
|
CH3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 and CH3 C CH3 are
|
CH3
(A*) chain isomers
[3]
(D) none
Q.9
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
[6]
or
C3H8, C2H5OH, (CH3)2O and CH2OHCH2OH
3-methylbutanol, n-Pentane, 2, 2-dimethylpropanol and n-pentanol
Q.10 For each pair of compounds, circle the compound you expect to have the higher boiling point. Explain
your reasoning.
[12]
(a)
(CH3)3CC(CH3)3 and (CH3)2CHCH2CH2CH(CH3)2
(b)
CH3(CH2)6CH3 and CH3(CH2)5CH2OH
(c)
HOCH2 (CH2)4CH2OH and (CH3)3CCH(OH)CH3
(d)
(CH3CH2CH2)2NH and (CH3CH2)3N
(e)
and
(f)
and
N-methylpyrrolidine
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
piperidine
and
tetrahydropyran
cyclopentanol
CH3CH2OCH3 or CH3CH(OH)CH3
CH3CH2CH2CH3 or CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 or (CH3)2CHCH2CH3
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 or CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2Cl
CH3CH2OCH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
[Ans. (a) (CH3)2CHCH2CH2CH(CH3)2, (b) CH3(CH2)5CH2OH, (c) HOCH2 (CH2)4CH2OH,
(d)(CH3CH2CH2)2NH, (e)
, (f)
piperidine, (g)
CH 3 CH(OH)CH 3 ,
(i)
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
,
(k)CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2Cl, (l) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH ]
(j)
cyclopentanol, (h)
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 ,
ASSIGNMENT-4
Q.1
(D)
H 3C CH CH 2 CH 3
|
OH
(S)
0.2
[4]
Column II
OH
(A)
(P)
(B)
(Q)
(C)
(R)
(D)
(S)
(T)
OH
Statement-1 :
Statement-2 :
[3]
[Ans. D]
Q.4
Statement-1 :
Statement-2 :
[3]
[Ans. B]
Q.5
Potential energy barrier for the direct interconversion of the two gauche forms of butane is 3.6 kcal/mol.
What should be the expected potential energy barrier for direct interconversion of the two gauche form
of 1,2-dichloroethane Vander Waals radius of a covalently bond chlorine atom is about the same as that
of a methyl group.
[3]
(A) 2.8 kcal/mol
Q.6
[3]
[3]
NH
CH3
C=C
(A*)
NH
Orientation is E
D
C=C
(B*) H
Orientation is Z
CH3
(C)
CH3
Orientation is Z
CH3
(D*)
CH3
Q.8
Cl
NH
(A*)
(B)
Cl
C=C=C
H
N
(C*)
[3]
CH 3
(D)
H3C
N
H
Q.9(a) Arrange the groups or atoms accroding to their priority order using CIP sequence rules ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
O
(5)
[Ans. (1)
(3)
(5)
(b)
[5]
O,
O
,
(2)
(4)
2>1>3>5>4
10 > 9 > 3 > 6 > 7 > 8 > 2 > 11 > 1 > 4 > 5
Which of the following compounds should have the larger energy barrier to rotation about the indicated
bond?
[3]
(a)
Me3C CMe 3
(c)
CH2 = CH CH = CH2
(b)
Me 3Si SiMe 3
[6]
(b)
(c)
(d)
CH3(CH=CH)3 Ph
(e)
(f)
CH3CCCH=CHCH3
ASSIGNMENT-5
Q.1
[4]
Column II
(Double bond equivalent)
(A)
(P)
12
(Q)
13
(R)
14
(S)
16
N
H
H
(B)
Porphyrin (C20H14N4)
(C)
Ph
(D)
Q.2
Match the following structural formulae with their possible geometrical isomers?
Column I
Column II
(Structural formula)
(Total geometrical isomers)
(A) CH3CH = CH
CH2CH3
(P)
(Q)
(R)
(S)
[4]
CH=CHCH3
(B) CH3CH = C
CH=CHCH3
(C) CH3CH=CH
CH=CHCH3
(D) Cl CH = CH CH = CH CH = CH CH3
Statement-1 :
Van-der-walls forces are present only in non polar compounds
[3]
Statement-2 :
In polar compounds stronger dipolar forces are present.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
O
Q.4
Statement-1 :
[3]
OH
Statement-2 :
across the double bond both the terminals having different groups.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Me
CH3 CD2
CHCH3
C=C
Q.5
14
CH3 CH2
CF3
C=C
CH2Cl
H
Configuration of both the double bond in this compound respectively are
(A) 2E 4E
(B*) 2E 4Z
(C) 2Z 4E
(D) 2Z 4Z
[3]
Q.6
What is the correct stereochemical assignment for each of the following alkenes?
F
(I)
F
(II)
(III)
(A*) I = E; II = Z; III = E; IV = Z
(C) I = E; II = E; III = Z; IV = Z
Q.7
[3]
(IV)
(B) I = Z; II = E; III = E; IV = E
(D) I = E; II = E; III = Z; IV = E
C=N
CH3
[3]
..
(A)
(A*) A is named as syn-p-tolylphenyl ketoxime
(B*) A is named as anti-phenyl-p-tolyl ketoxime
(C*) Compound (A) is Z isomer
(D) Compound (A) is E isomer
Q.8
[3]
CH3
180
(C)
front
carbon
+180
(B)
rear
carbon
CH3
Q.9
How many chiral carbon atoms are present in the following compounds?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
[4]
(f) CH=CH2,
(g) CH2CH2CH2I
[Sol.
CH2CH3
CCH
CH CH CH 3
|
Br
(a) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4
(b) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4
(e) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4
(f) 4 > 2 > 3 > 1
(see the Cahn, Ingold, Prelog rule)
]
CH CH 2
|
|
CH 3 CH 3
CH CH 2 CH 3
|
Cl
(c) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3
(g) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
[21]
CH3
CH 3
|
C
|
CH 3
CH 3
|
CH
|
CH 3
Dreams ....Are not the ones you see when you get in to the sleep, But are those which will
never let you sleep...Till they are achieved.....
ASSIGNMENT-6
Q.1
Indicate whether each of the following structure has the R configuration or the S-configuration.[21]
(a)
(b)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(q)
(c)
(r)
(d)
(p)
CH3
(t) Br
(s)
CH2CH3
H
CH3
CH2CH3
(u)
[Ans.. (a) R (b) R (c) S
(m) S (n) R (o) S
(u) 2R 3S
]
Q.2
(d) S
(p) S
(e) R (f) S
(q) 2R 3R
(g) R (h) S
(r) 2R 3R
(i) S (j) S
(s) 2S 3R
(k) S (l) R
(t) 3S 4R
Indicate whether each of the following structure has the R configuration or the S-configuration. [26]
(a)
(e)
(i)
(b)
(f)
(j)
(c)
(d)
(g)
(h)
(k)
(l)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
(u)
(v)
(y)
(z)
(w)
(x)
[Ans. (a) R, (b) R, (c) S, (d) S, (e) R, (f) S, (g) R, (h) S, (i) S, (j) S, (k) S, (l) R, (m) S, (n) R, (o) S, (p) S
(q) 2R 3R, (r) 3S 4R, (s) 2S 3R, (t) 3S 4R, (u) 1R 2S, (v) 5R 6S, (w) 3S 4R, (x) 4S 5R,
(y) 2R3R4R, (z) R
]
In time of trouble, don't say "God I have a big problem." say "Hey Problem. I have a big God.
ASSIGNMENT-12
Q.1
[4]
Column II
(Compound)
H
(A)
Plane of symmetry
Me
C
(P)
C
H
Me
Me
(B)
Centre of symmetry
Me
(Q)
Me
H
(C)
Meso Compound
(R)
C
Me
(D)
(S)
(T)
Ph
H
O
Ph
CO
H
H
Cl
H
C=C=C=C
COOH
H
H
Cl
Q.2
Column I
Cl
(A)
Column II
[4]
Me
Me
(P)
(Q)
(R)
Cl
Br
(B)
Br
H
Cl
C
(C)
Cl
(D)
C
H
or axis of symmetry
COOH
H
OH
HO
H
COOH
(S)
(T)
F
Q.3
Statement-1 :
[3]
F
(I)
F
(II)
Q.4
[5]
(A*) H
is optically active
CH 3 CH 2 CH 3
( II)
(B*) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
( I)
About C() C() bonds; (I) has more energy barrier for rotation as compared to (II).
(C*) The boat form of cyclohexane is less stable than chair form due to torsional strain as well as flag
pole interaction.
(D*) In t-butyl substituted cyclohexane, most stable chair conformer has CMe3 group at equitorial
position.
Q.5
(A)
Q.6
(B)
(C*)
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
[3]
(B) It is Z isomer
(D) It has Centre of Symmetry
Consider the following statements regarding the given projection and select the correct statement(s)?
[3]
(W)
(X)
(D)
(A) It is E isomer
(C*) It is optically active
Q.7
[3]
(Y)
(Z)
30.9 g of (+) 2-butanol was taken in a 309 mL solution and was mixed with 15.45 g of () 2-butanol
placed in 154.5 mL and the final solution is passed through 444 mm tube. What will be observed rotation
( in degree) for the final solution if specific rotation of 2-butanol is 13.5.
[5]
[Ans. 0002.00 or 0001.99]
Q.9
(I)
(IV)
(II)
[5]
(III)
(V)
[Ans.
Also II D-sugar
V L-sugar
Sugar I, III and IV are all L-sugar; Any pair of two structure other than II and V are diastereomer pair ]
Q.10 How many stereoisomers are possible for following compounds:
(a)
(b)
CH3 CH = CH CH = CH CH = C = CH2
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
OH OH
|
|
HOOC CH CH COOH
1,2-dichlorocyclopropane
1,3- dimethylcyclobutane
2-bromo-3- chlorobutane
1,3-dimethyl cyclohexane
[Ans. (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 3 (e) 2 (f) 4 (g) 3 ]
Tough Times never last, tough people do.
[7]
ASSIGNMENT-13
Q.1
Column I
Column II
(A)
(P)
Chiral
(B)
(Q)
Plane of symmetry
(C)
(R)
(D)
(S)
E (Entegen)
(T)
[4]
[4]
Column II
Number of Geometrical isomerism
(A)
(P)
(B*)
(Q)
(C)
(R)
(D)
(S)
(T)
Br
Q.3
Statement-1 :
O
||
Resonance energy of CH 2 CH C NH 2 is very high as compaired to
O
||
CH 3CH 2 C NH 2 .
Statement-2 :
Another double bond is introduced in conjugation to C = O.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
[3]
Q.4
[3]
CHO
CH2OH
HO
H
(A*) D, R
(B) D, S
(C) L, R
(D) L, S
HO
H
Me
(I)
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
Me
HO
HO
H
H
OH
Me
(II)
Me
H
HO
OH
OH
Me
H
(III)
(C*) Identical
[9]
OH
(IV)
(D) Positional isomers
(D) None
Compound IV is a vicinal diol, total how many vicinal diol's are possible with the same molecular formula
as IV.
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D*) 6
Q.8
CH2 OH
(A*)
[5]
and
(B*)
Cl
(C) Me CH CH CH Me has four optically active stereoisomers
|
|
|
Cl Cl Cl
Me
H
CH3
CH3 is meso compound
(D) H
Me
Q.9
HO
(a)
[6]
Cl
OH
CHO
&
CH3
Cl
CH2OH
Me
CH3
H
Et
(b)
Et
CH3
Me
Et
Me
Me
&
Et
CH3
& CH 3 O CH CH 3
|
CH 3
Me
Br
OH
(d)
OH
&
Br
Me
OH
OH
(e)
Cl
&
Br Br D
Br
D H Br
&
(f)
[Sol.
Cl
O
O
(a) Diastereoisomers (b) Identical
(e) Geometrical isomer (f) Identical
(d) Enantiomer
Q.10 Among following pairs which will require lower heat of activation for cis to trans interconversion: [8]
(a)
MeCH=CHMe
&
Me3CCH=CHCMe3
(b)
MeCH=CHMe
&
MeCH=CHOMe
(c)
CH=CH
&
CH=CH
NO2
(d)
CH=CH
&
CH=CH
OMe
(e)
O2 N
(f)
Me O C CH CH C O Me
||
||
O
O
(g)
[Sol.
CH=CH
&
NO2
&
O2N
&
Me O C CH CH O C Me
||
||
O
O
(h)
CH=CH
&
Confidence begets confidence. The man who wins is the man who thinks he can
OMe
ASSIGNMENT-14
Q.1
[4]
NH 3
NC
NH2
(P)
Effect
+I
(Q)
(R)
(S)
I
+M
M
[Ans. (A) Q,R,S ; (B) Q ; (C) Q ; (D) Q, R]
Q.2
Match the column-I with column-II. Note that column-I may have more than one matching options in
column-II.
[4]
ColumnI (stability)
Column-II (Reason)
(A)
> CH 3
(P)
Inductive effect
(B)
< CH 3
(Q)
Resonance
(C)
> H3C CH 2
(R)
Hyperconjugation
(S)
steric hindrance
(D)
>
Statement-1 :
Correct order of acidic strength is CH3CH3 > CH2=CH2 > HCCH [3]
Statement-2 :
CH bond energy in ethene is more than ethane but less than ethyne.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Page No.# 1
Q.4
OCMe
OCMe
(A)
&
OCMe
COMe
Me
N
(B)
H
Me
Me
Me
&
C=C=C
H
(D*) None of these
Q.5
Me
&
Me
Me
(C)
[3]
H
C=C=C
Me
[3]
O
N
NH
N
(A) 1
Q.6
(C) 3
(D) 4
(A) 2
Q.7
(B*) 2
H2NN
(B*) 4
[3]
NNH2
(C) 6
(D) 8
(A*)
(C*)
>
>
[4]
(B*)
(D*)
<
>
Page No.# 2
Q.8
Q.9
Which of the following carboxylic acids could be resolved by reaction with an enantiomerically pure
chiral amine?
[3]
(A)
(B)
(C*)
(D)
[4]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
If they are enantiomer answer will be 1, if they are diastereomers answer will be 2, if they are constitutional
isomers answer will be 3 and if they are identical present 4 as the answer. Present sum of answer of each
part a + b + c + d in OMR sheet.
(for example if a, b, c, d are enantiomer then final answer is a + b + c + d = 4).
[Ans. 13]
Q.10 S(+) Mono Sodium Glutamate (MSG) is a flavour enhancer used in many foods. Fast foods often
contain substantial amount of MSG and is widely used in Chinese food. If one mole of above MSG was
placed in 845 ml solution and passed through 200 mm tube, the observed rotation was found to be +
9.6.
[9]
+
COONa
OOCCH2CH2C
NH3
MSG
(a)
(C) 48
(b)
Find out the approximate percentage composition of () MSG in a mixture containing (+) MSG and()
MSG whose specific optical rotation is 20.
(A) 83.3 %
(B) 16.7 %
(C*) 91.6 %
(D) 74 %
(c)
If 33.8 g of (+) MSG was put in 338 ml solution and was mixed with 16.9 g of () MSG put in 169 ml
solution and the final solution was passed through 400 mm tube. Find out observed rotation of the final
solution
(A) + 1.6
(B) + 4.8
(C*) + 3.2
(D) None of these
Page No.# 3
Q.11
[6]
(a)
is dimethyl derivative of a compound 'A' and is fairly stable but most of the molecules of 'A'
(b)
gets converted into another compound 'B' on keeping. What are the structures of 'A' and 'B'. Explain the
reason of conversion A into B.
Write increasing order of CN bond length in following compounds.
(c)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Write increasing order of heat of hydrogenation
(iv)
CH3
CH3
(i)
(ii)
A is
[Sol.(a)
(iii)
B is
(b)
(c)
Challenges of the life should be accepted strongly, Dont say Why me?, instead tell God Try
me!!!
Page No.# 4
ASSIGNMENT-15
Q.1
(a)
Column-I (Carbanions)
(A)
(P)
4.3 108 s
(B)
(Q)
2.5 105 s
(C)
(R)
8.7 107 s
(D)
(S)
1.4 104 s
[4]
[4]
Column II
(Magnitude of heat of hydrogenation)
(A)
(P)
(B)
(Q)
(C)
(R)
(D)
(S)
Page No.# 5
Q.2
Column I
CH3
Cl
H
H
(A)
Column II
H
OH
Cl
CH3
Cl
HO
H
&
CH3
Me
H
Et
Me
&
OH
(Q)
Diastereomers
(R)
Conformer
(S)
Positional
SH
H
Et
OH
H2C
Et
C
H2C
CH
Et
H
Cl
Cl
H
H
&
H
Cl
CH
Me
Cl
Me
&
(D)
Identical
H
H
(C)
(P)
CH3
HS
(B)
H
H
Cl
[4]
H
[Ans. (A) P, (B) S, (C) R, (D) Q ]
Q.3
Questions below consist of an Assertion in column I and Reason in column II. Use the following
key to choose the appropriate answer
[3]
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(B) If Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(D) If Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.
Assertion : n-propyl carbocation is more stable than ethyl carbocation.
Reason : n-propyl carbocation rearrange to give 2 carbocation.
[Ans. D]
Q.4
H
(A)
CO2H
OH
HO
CH3 H
CO2H
H
OH
OH
(B*)
CH3
C=C
C
Br Br
H
C=C
H
CH3
CO2H
CH3
Et
Cl
Cl
OH
HO
SH
HS
Et
CH3
H
CO2H
(C)
[3]
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
(D)
CH3
Page No.# 6
Q.5
(C)
>
>
>
[3]
>
(D*) None
Q.6
(A*)
(B*)
[4]
O
||
(C*)
CH 3CCOOH
(D*)
Q.8
[3]
N
|
H
[4]
O
(A*)
(B)
COOH
CH3
COOH
is more acidic than
(C*)
(D*)
O
||
O is more stable than Me C O
Page No.# 7
Q.9
Following figure give Potential energy of different types of isomers of unsaturated compound CnH2n2.
Potential Energy
There are three isomers shown is the following figure with there H of (standard heat of formation),
which involves two alkynes and one alkadiene, with 5 carbon atoms. Usually alkynes are less stable than
isomeric alkadienes as sp-hybridisation state is relatively less stable than the sp2-hybridisation state.
Based on it answer the following questions.
[9]
(a)
(b)
(c)
Which are of the following is not the isomer of the compounds shown is figure:
(A)
(B*)
(C)
(D)
Q.10 Observed the following compound and answer the following questions.
Me
NH2 c
b
N
H a O
(a)
(b)
(c)
[9]
O
d
Me
OH
e
(D) 8
(C*) 7
Success is waiting for you. Difficulties are blocking the path. Take the weapon of confidence and
reach your success every day!.....
Page No.# 8
ASSIGNMENT-16
Q. 1
[4]
Column I
Column II
(Number of planes of symmetry)
Me
(A)
Me
CCl4
H
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Me
(B)
(C)
(P)
CH3 CH3
(D)
H3C
Q.2
Q.3
[And. D] [3]
Page No.# 9
Q.4
[3]
OEt
OEt
(A)
(B)
OEt
(C*)
OEt
(D)
Cortisone
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
[3]
(C*) 6
(D) 7
[3]
(D) 128
I.
Q.10
[3]
II.
III.
[5]
For the following compounds, arrange the labelled proton in increasing order of their case of deprotonation:
C CH3
(a)
(b)
CH2
H1
(c)
[5]
H2
[Ans. (a) 2 < 1 < 3
There isn't any problem which is without a gift for you in its hand.
Page No.# 10
ASSIGNMENT-17
Q.1
Four compounds are given in column I, match these with their pK a1 values given in column II. [4]
Column I
Column II
(Compound)
( pK a1 )
(A)
CH3COOH
(P)
4.87
(B)
COOH
|
COOH
(Q)
4.76
(C)
ClCH2COOH
(R)
2.86
(D)
CH3 CH2COOH
(S)
1.2
[Ans. (A) Q, (B) S, (C) R, (D) P]
Q.2
Statement-I : A tertiary carbocation is more stable than a secondary carbocation which is more
stable than a primary carbocation.
Statement-II : The inductive effect operates through -bonds and decrease rapidly with increase
in distance.
[3]
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(D) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
Q.3
Q.4
(a)
OH
[3]
(b)
COOH
O
(e)
HO3S
(A) c < f < d < a < b < e
(C) f < c < d < b < e < a
(d)
(c)
HCH2 CH2H
(B) f < d < c < b < e < a
(D*) c < d < f < a < b < e
Page No.# 11
Q.5
O
COH
(C*) In CH2
COH
O
OH
OH
Q.6
OH
is less than
[3]
(I)
(III)
H
(P)
(Q)
N
H
(II)
H
H
(A*) III > I > II
Q.7
[3]
(R)
N
N
(C) R > P > Q
O
(A) HN
,
OH
(B*)
H
N
OH
OH
N
H
OH
Cl
F
OH
(C*)
(D*) CH3C CH
OH
H2O
OH
Cl
OH
F
Br
,
Br
Cl
Br
[3]
HF
Page No.# 12
Q.9
(1)
(2)
[6]
C 4 H 24
(3)
tBu
(4)
tBu
(5)
(6)
tBu
[Ans. (1)Quasi
(4)Quasi
(6) Quasi
Azulene
(2) Quasi
(3) Quasi
(5) It is antiaromatic but does not undergos dimerisedue to bulky t-Bu groups.
]
Q.11
[5]
(d) PhCH3
(e) NH3
(f)
[6]
CH3CO2 H
CF3 CO2 H
HCN
and
HCO2H
PhOH
NH3
CH3OH
PhNH2
CH2=CHOH
[Ans. (a) 1 < 3 < 4 < 5 < 2 (b) 4 < 3 < 2 < 1
(e) 2 < 4 < 3 < 1
(f) 4 < 1 < 3 < 2 ]
HC COH
(c) 3 < 2 < 4 < 1
Don't repeat what you have already done, unless you can do it in a better way
Page No.# 13
ASSIGNMENT-18
Q.1
[4]
Column I
Column II
(A)
H3O+
(P)
(B)
CH3CO2 H
(Q)
(C)
NH 4
(R)
4.76
(D)
H2SO4
(S)
9.4
Statement-1 :
Statement-2 :
S
is more stable than
[Ans. D]
O
O
Q.3
Statement-1 :
Statement-2 :
Q.4
[Ans. D]
[3]
Correct order of basicity is
(A) 3>1>2>4
(B) 3<1<2<4
(C) 3<4<1<2
(D*) 3>4>1>2
Page No.# 14
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
(A)
and
(C)
and
[3]
(B*)
and
(D)
and
(II)
(III)
[3]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
[3]
Q.8
[5]
(i)
(ii)
(a)
[Ans. (a)
(b)
Q.9
(a)
(b)
(b)
Carboxy H is more acidic than hydroxy or thioxy hydroxy, between OH and SH, latter H
is more acidic thus the order of acid strength is: c < b < a
x>y>z
]
In which solution F
[5]
will be more reactive and why?
Page No.# 15
Q.10
(a)
Write correct order of acidity of a to e marked in structure of vitamin B6.
[6]
(b)
(c)
Write the correct order of pKa of marked position CH bond in following compound.
Q.11
(a)
[6]
Ordinarily the barrier to rotation about a carbon-carbon double bond is quite high but compound A
have a rotational barrier of only about 20 K cal / mole
What is the reason for this ?
(A)
(b)
(c)
Among
&
[Ans. A < B]
forms.
You can't get different fruit, if you keep doing the same things.
Page No.# 16
ASSIGNMENT-19
Q.1
Match the names of carboxylic acids in column I with pka value in column II.
Column I
Column II
(A)
Benzoic acid
(P)
4.17
(B)
Ethanoic acid
(Q)
4.14
(C)
(R)
4.74
(D)
p-flourobenzoic acid
(S)
3.91
[4]
Br
NO2
[3]
z
NO2
Q.3
[3]
Q.5
[3]
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Energies of three resonating structures of a compound are E1, E2 & E3 respectively and energy of real
molecule is E0 . If E1 > E2 > E3 then the resonance energy will be:
[3]
(A) (E + E2 + E3) E0
(B) E1 E0
(C*) E3 E0
(D)
E1 E 2 E 3
3
Page No.# 17
Q.6
(A)
(C*)
Q.7
>
>
[3]
(B)
>
(D)
>
In which of the following the 2nd structure having more resonance energy.
(A*)
(B*)
[4]
vs
vs
(C*) CH2=CHCH=CH CH 2 vs
(D*)
Q.8
(a)
vs
[3+3]
In which of the following pairs, indicated bond is of greater strength.
O
||
(i) CH 3 C Cl & CH3 CH 2 Cl , (ii)
(b)
&
(iii)
&
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page No.# 18
Q.9
[4]
Q.10 Which of the following pairs is stronger acid. Suggest a suitable explanation in each case.
(i)
(ii)
and
and
Q.11
(a)
[4]
[8]
Page No.# 19
(ii)
Opportunities are better recognised not when they are coming but when they are going.
Page No.# 20
ASSIGNMENT-16
Q. 1
[4]
Column II
(Number of planes of symmetry)
Me
(A)
Me
CCl4
H
CH3 CH3
(D)
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Me
(B)
(C)
(P)
H
H3C
Question No. 2 to 3 ( 2 questions)
Questions below consist of an Assertion in column I and Reason in column II. Use the following
key to choose the appropriate answer
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(B) If Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(D) If Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.
Assertion
:
Heat of hydrogenation of trans-2-butene is more than cis-2-butene.
[3]
Reason
:
Trans-2-butene is more stable cis-2-butene.
Assertion :
Reason :
[3]
[3]
OEt
(A)
OEt
(C)
(B)
OEt
(D)
Page No.# 1
Cortisone
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
[3]
(C) 6
(D) 7
[3]
(D) 128
I.
Q.10
[3]
II.
[5]
III.
For the following compounds, arrange the labelled proton in increasing order of their case of deprotonation:
C CH3
(a)
(b)
CH2
(c)
[5]
H2
H1
There isn't any problem which is without a gift for you in its hand.
Page No.# 2
MARKS:42
DATE : 02-03/09/2009
Four compounds are given in column I, match these with their pK a1 values given in column II. [4]
Column I
Column II
(Compound)
( pK a1 )
(A)
CH3COOH
(P)
4.87
(B)
COOH
|
COOH
(Q)
4.76
(C)
ClCH2COOH
(R)
2.86
(D)
CH3 CH2COOH
(S)
1.2
Q.2
Statement-I : A tertiary carbocation is more stable than a secondary carbocation which is more
stable than a primary carbocation.
Statement-II : The inductive effect operates through -bonds and decrease rapidly with increase
in distance.
[3]
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(D) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
Q.3
Q.4
(a)
OH
[3]
(b)
COOH
O
(e)
HO3S
(A) c < f < d < a < b < e
(C) f < c < d < b < e < a
(d)
(c)
HCH2 CH2H
(B) f < d < c < b < e < a
(D) c < d < f < a < b < e
Page No.# 3
Q.5
O
COH
(C) In CH2
COH
O
OH
OH
Q.6
OH
is less than
[3]
(III)
H
(P)
(Q)
N
H
(II)
H
H
(A) III > I > II
Q.7
(I)
[3]
(R)
N
N
(C) R > P > Q
O
(A) HN
,
OH
(B)
H
N
OH
OH
N
H
OH
Cl
F
OH
(C)
(D) CH3C CH
OH
H2O
OH
Cl
OH
F
Br
,
Br
Cl
Br
[3]
HF
Page No.# 4
Q.9
(1)
(2)
[6]
C 4 H 24
(3)
tBu
(4)
tBu
(5)
(6)
tBu
Azulene
Q.11
[5]
(d) PhCH3
CF3 CO2 H
HCN
(e) NH3
(f)
and
HCO2H
[6]
CH3CO2 H
PhOH
NH3
CH3OH
PhNH2
CH2=CHOH
HC COH
Don't repeat what you have already done, unless you can do it in a better way
Page No.# 5
ASSIGNMENT-18
Q.1
[4]
Column I
Column II
(A)
H3O+
(P)
(B)
CH3CO2 H
(Q)
(C)
NH 4
(R)
4.76
(D)
H2SO4
(S)
9.4
Statement-1 :
Statement-2 :
S
is more stable than
O
O
Q.3
Statement-1 :
Statement-2 :
Q.4
[3]
Correct order of basicity is
(A) 3>1>2>4
(B) 3<1<2<4
(C) 3<4<1<2
(D) 3>4>1>2
Page No.# 6
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
(A)
and
(B)
(C)
and
(D)
[3]
and
and
(II)
(III)
[3]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
[3]
Q.8
[5]
(i)
(ii)
Consider the following compound. Rank the labeled proton in increasing order of acidity
(a)
Q.9
(a)
(b)
(b)
[5]
NaF is dissolved in (CH3)2SO and CH3OH. In which solution F will be more reactive and why?
Explain why iso octane is less viscous than n-octane.
Page No.# 7
Q.10
(a)
Write correct order of acidity of a to e marked in structure of vitamin B6.
[6]
(b)
(c)
Write the correct order of pKa of marked position CH bond in following compound.
Q.11
(a)
[6]
Ordinarily the barrier to rotation about a carbon-carbon double bond is quite high but compound A
have a rotational barrier of only about 20 K cal / mole
What is the reason for this ?
(A)
(b)
(c)
Among
&
forms.
You can't get different fruit, if you keep doing the same things.
Page No.# 8
MARKS:46
DATE : 07-08/08/2009
M atch the names of carboxylic acids in column I with pka value in column II.
Column I
[4]
Column II
(A)
Benzoic acid
(P)
4.17
(B)
Ethanoic acid
(Q)
4.14
(C)
(R)
4.74
(D)
p-flourobenzoic acid
(S)
3.91
I
O2N
Q.2
Br
NO2
[3]
z
NO2
Q.3
[3]
Q.5
[3]
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Energies of three resonating structures of a compound are E1, E2 & E3 respectively and energy of real
molecule is E0 . If E1 > E2 > E3 then the resonance energy will be:
[3]
(A) (E + E2 + E3) E0
(B) E1 E0
(C) E3 E0
(D)
E1 E 2 E 3
3
Page No.# 9
Q.6
Q.7
[3]
(A)
>
(B)
>
(C)
>
(D)
>
In which of the following the 2nd structure having more resonance energy.
(A)
(B)
[4]
vs
vs
(C) CH2=CHCH=CH CH 2 vs
(D)
Q.8
(a)
vs
[3+3]
In which of the following pairs, indicated bond is of greater strength.
O
||
(i) CH 3 C Cl & CH3 CH 2 Cl , (ii)
(b)
&
(iii)
&
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page No.# 10
Q.9
[4]
Q.10 Which of the following pairs is stronger acid. Suggest a suitable explanation in each case.
(i)
(ii)
and
and
Q.11
(a)
[4]
[8]
(c)
(ii)
Opportunities are better recognised not when they are coming but when they are going.
Page No.# 11
ASSIGNMENT-20
Q.1
Column I
Column II
[4]
Cl
(A)
Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
(P)
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Cl
Cl
(B)
Cl
(C)
Q.2
Q.3
(B*)
(D)
COOH
NO2
[3]
Q.4
Give number of the products including stereoisomers formed in the following reaction.
[3]
CH2 NBS
h
(A) 5
Q.5
(B*) 6
(C) 7
Percentage of hydrate
[3]
OH
|
+ H2O l H C OH
|
H
OH
|
+ H2O l CH 3 C OH
|
CH 3
X & Y respectively is
(A) X = 0.2 %, Y = 99.95
(C) X = 0.2%, Y = 0.2%
Q.6
(A) a
Q.7
(D) 4
(B) b
[3]
(C) c
(D) d
O
||
Me C O CH 2 CH 2 N H 3 NaOH
Q
[3]
Q is:
Q.8
O
||
(A) Me C O CH 2 CH 2 NH 2
O
||
(B*) Me C NH CH 2 CH 2 OH
(C)
[3]
Q.9
o-nitrobenzoic acid (Pka = 2.21) is stronger acid than 3,5-dinitrobenzoic acid (Pka = 2.80) in water
whereas in ethanolic solution the opposite is true (their respective Pka in ethanol are 8.82 and 8.09).
Suggest a possible reason for this.
[5]
(b)
(c)
(d)
/ hv
CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH3 Br
2
(A)
|
CH 3
( C H CO ) O
+ NBS 6 5 2 (B)
hv
CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 + Me3COCl
(C) + (D)
CH 3
|
CH 3 C O Cl /
|
CH 3
Remember you are born to live not living because you are born.
[5]
ASSIGNMENT-21
Q.1
Column I
(Molecular formula)
Column II
(Theoritically possible isomers)
(A)
C2 H5 N
(P)
Tautomers
(B)
C3 H6 O
(Q)
Functional isomers
(C)
C2 H4 O2
(R)
Geometrical isomers
[4]
(S)
Optical isomers
[Ans. (A) P,Q,R (B) P,Q,R,S (C) P,Q,R,S ]
Q.2
Q.3
Which of the following is/are the chain termination step during photochlorination of ethane?
(1)
[3]
CH3 CH 2 Cl CH3CH2Cl
Cl Cl Cl2
(4)
Cl H HCl
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
Q.4
(C*) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2
300C
(A) There are four possible products ; three are optically active one is optically inactive
(B) There are five possible products ; three are optically inactive & two are optically active
(C*) There are five possible products ; two are optically inactive & three are optically active
(D) There are four possible products ; two are optically active & two are optically inactive
[3]
OH
Q.5
2RCOONa
2RCOOH
(A*)
(B*) CCl3CH(OH)2
[3]
ONa
ONa
OH
[3]
(C)
(D)
Q.7
When an aqueous solution containing MeCOOK and Me3CCOOK is electrolysed, possible product(s)
is/are:
[5]
(A*) Me Me
(B*) Me4C
(C*) Me3CCOOCMe3
(D) CH2 = CH2
Q.8
CH3NO2 when dissolved in NaOH it forms salt. When the Na salt is acidified at low temperature there
is not always an immediate separation of oily drops (of nitro form). On standing however the acidified
solution slowly deposits oily drops. How you explain the time factor in this observation.
[3]
Q.9
(a)
O
||
(b) CCl 3 C H
O
||
(d) CF3 C CF3
O O O
|| || ||
(e) Ph C C C Ph
(ii ) H 2SO 4 ,
Na
(ii)
dry ether
14
* C)
(C
I
(iii)
(c)
[6]
i ) Mg ( Hg )
(
(i)
[5]
Cu
Q.11
Each of the following carbocations has the potential to rearrange to a more stable one. Write the structure
of the rearranged carbocation.
[8]
(a)
CH3CH2CH2+
(c)
(CH 3 )3 C CHCH 3
(b)
(CH 3 ) 2 CH CHCH 3
(d)
(CH3CH2)3CCH2+
(e)
(f)
(g) C H 2 CH 2 CH 2
|
CH 3 CH 2 O
(h)
Every bad situation will have something positive. even a stopped clock
shows correct time twice a day... so be positive in life.
ASSIGNMENT-28
The reaction of alkene or Alkyne with ozone (O3) followed by hydrolysis is known as
ozonolysis.
It is two types : (I)
Reductive ozonolysis In presence of reducing agent
(II)
Oxidative ozonolysis In presence of oxidising agent
Reducing agents :
Zn, H2O or Zn, CH3COOH or (CH3)2S or (Ph)3P etc.
OZONOLYSIS :
Oxidising agents :
Example 1 :
step I
70C
O3
C=C
R
+ RCH
C=O
Reductive
ozonolysis R
Oxidative
ozonolysis H2O2
RCR + RCOH
O
Mechanism :
R
R
R
C
C=O
H
H
R
R
R
R C
RCO
O
R
O=C
H
O
R
RCR + RCH
O
H
Note : In case of oxidative ozonolysis aldehyde (not ketone) further undergoes oxidation which
gives acid as product.
Q.1
(i)
i ) O3
H2C = CH2 (
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
H
[Sol.
H
O + O=C
[7 2 =14]
(ii)
i ) O3
CH3CH = CH2 (
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
[Sol.
(iii)
O
H
||
CH 3 C H + H
C=O ]
CH 3
|
i ) O3
CH 3 C CH 2 (
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
CH3
[Sol.
CH3
H
+
C=O ]
i ) O3
(
(iv)
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
O
[Sol.
O
H]
H
i ) O3
(
(v)
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
H
[Sol.
i ) O3
(
(vi)
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
O
[Sol.
(vii)
+ H
i ) O3
H2C=CHCH2CH=CHCH3 (
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
H
[Sol.
Q.2
(i)
C=O + O C CH 2 C O + O C CH 3 ]
|
|
|
H
H
H
Find out the structure of reactant.
H
i ) O3
X (
CH 3 CH 2 C H
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
||
O
[Sol.
[11 2 =22]
H
(ii)
(i ) O3
O +
X
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
H
[Sol.
]
H
H
O+
(iii)
(i ) O3
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
H
[Sol.
]
O
(iv)
(i ) O3
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
H
H ]
[Sol.
(v)
i ) O3
X (
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
[Sol.
O
(vi)
i ) O3
X (
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
[Sol.
CH3
C=O +
H3C
O
(vii)
i ) O3
X (
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
[Sol.
C=O
(viii)
i ) O3
(
X
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
C10 H12
[Sol.
O + HCHO
O
O
(ix)
[Sol.
(x)
(i ) O
X 3
C12H18 (ii ) Zn / H 2O
+ O=C=O + O
+ HCHO
CH3
C=CC=CH2
CH3 ]
i ) O3
C 6 H 4 (
C3H2O3
(
ii
)
Zn
/ H 2O
( X)
[Sol.
(xi)
i ) O3
(
X
(ii ) Zn / H 2O
C12 H18
+ HCHO
O
[Sol.
Q.3
(i)
O3 ( )
X 3 O
Zn
H
O
[Sol.
[3 2 =6]
O3
(ii)
Zn / H 2 O
Only one
]
O
3/
O
(iii)
Zn / H 2 O
CH3
C
+
C
O
O
C
C
H
O
C
C
H
When it rains all birds occupy shelter, but eagles, the only bird, avoids rain by flying above the
cloud....Problem is same but ATTITUDE makes a DIFFERENCE.
ASSIGNMENT-29
OXYMERCURATION-DEMERCURATION (OMDM)
OMDM is a hydration process of alkene according to Markawnikoffs rule with no rearrangement of
cyclic mercuinium ion. In oxymercuration, the alkene is treated with mercuric acetate in aqueous
tetrahydrofuran (THF). When reaction with that reagent is complete, sodium borohydride and hydroxide
ion are added to the reaction mixture.
(i ) Hg ( OAC ) 2 , H 2O,THF
R CH CH 3
RCH = CH2
(ii ) NaBH4 ,HO
|
OH
R CH CH 3
|
OMe
AcO = CH3COO
Mechanism for oxymercuration:
OAc
OAc
CH3CH = CH2
+ Hg OAc
Hg
CH3CH CH2
H2 O
CH3CHCH2HgOAc
+
OH
+ AcO
H
OAc
CH3CHCH2HgOAc
OH
+ AcOH
Sodium borohydride (NaBH4) converts the carbon-mercury bond into a carbon-hydrogen bond. Because
the reaction results in the loss of mercury, it is called demercuration.
4 CH 3CHCH 3 + Hg + AcO
CH 3CHCH 2 HgOAc NaBH
HO
|
|
OH
OH
OCH3
(i ) Hg ( OCOCH 3 ) CH 3OH
Q.1
[Ans.
[2]
OH
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 , H 2O
(
Q.2
[Ans.
[2]
CH3
Q.3
H3C
( ii ) NaBH 4 , HO
[Ans.
OCH3
] [2]
OCH3
i ) Hg (OAc ) 2 ,CH3 O H
(
Q.4
[Ans.
[2]
OH
Q.5
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 , H 2O
(
[Ans.
[2]
CCH
COCH3
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 , H 2O
(
Q.6
[Ans.
[2]
Q.7
How could each of the following compounds be synthesized from an alkene by OMDM?
OH
(i)
OCH2CH3
(ii)
CH 3
|
(iii) CH 3CCH 2CH 3
|
OH
CH 3
|
(iv) CH 3CCH 2CH 3
|
OCH 3
OH
[Sol.
(i)
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 , H 2O
(
OCH2CH3
(ii)
(iii)
CH 3
|
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 , H 2O
(
CH 3CCH 2CH 3
|
(ii ) NaBH 4 ,OH
OH
(iv)
CH 3
|
i ) Hg ( OAc ) 2 ,CH 3OH
(
CH 3CCH 2CH 3 ]
|
(ii ) NaBH 4 ,OH
OCH 3
HYDROBORATION-OXIDATION
Hydroboration has been developed by brown as a reaction of tremendous synthetic utility because alkyl
boranes are able to undergo a variety of transformation. Hydroboration is a one step, four centre, cis
addition process in accordance with M. rule but after oxidation it seems to be appear to violate M.rule.
OH ,H2 O2 , H2O
Hydroboration oxidation
(i ) BH3 THF
CH3CH2CH 2OH
CH3 COOH
Hydroboration reduction
AgNO3
Dimerisation
CH3CH2CH 3
CH3CH2CH 2
NH2Cl
CH2CH2CH 3
CH3CH2CH 2NH2
Cl2
CH3CH2CH 2Cl
Mechanism of Hydroboration:
H
an alkylboran e
(CH3CH2CH2)3 B
More stable
transition state
Mechanism of oxidation :
HOOH + HO l HOO + H2O
R
RB
R
+
OOH
RBOOH
R
RBOR
OR
ROBOR
HO
+ OH
OR
ROB OR
OH
3 ROH + BO3
OR
OR
ROH + ROB
RO +
ROB
Q.1
(i ) BH
CH2 = CH2 3
(ii ) HO ,H 2O 2 , H 2O
Q.2
,THF
BH
3
H 2O / OH
OH
[Ans.CH3CH2OH]
H H
[Ans.
H
]
OH
[2]
[2]
CH3
Q.3
(i ) BH
[Ans.
CH3
H ]
OH ,
(ii ) HO ,H 2O 2 , H 2O
OH
CH3
OH
,THF
BH
3
Q.4
OH
H ]
CH3
CH3 ,
[Ans.
H 2O / OH
[2]
[2]
CH3
BD3, THF
Q.5
[2]
CH3COOH
BH3, THF
CH3COOD
BT3, THF
CH3COOD
CH2D
[Ans. (i) CH 3 CH CH 2 ,
|
|
D
H
(ii) CH 3 CH CH 2 , (iii) H
T
|
|
CH3
H
D
CH2D
T
H ]
CH3
CH2CHO
CCH
Q.6
i ) BH3 ,THF
(
(ii ) H 2O2 / HO
[Ans.
[2]
When God solves your problems, U have faith in his abilities. When he doesnt solve ur problems,
It means he has faith in ur abilities.
ASSIGNMENT-30
Q.1
[4]
Column II
Me
H
CCl4
Br
2 /
(A)
Me
(B)
(C)
(P)
Optically active
(Q)
Diastereoisomers
H /
OH
(R)
Optically inactive
CCl4
Br
2 /
(S)
Meso
(T)
Enantiomers
CCl4
Br
2 /
CH3
H
Me
(D)
Me
Statement 1 : 1,1,1-trideutero-2-propanol reacts with conc. H2SO4 at high temperature to give only
one alkene, 3,3,3-trideutero propene.
[3]
because
Statement 2 : CD bond is stronger than CH bond.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.3
Me
Et
HBr
Product.
Peroxide
Q.4
Et
[3]
Me
How many product will be formed in above reaction.
(A) 2
(B*) 4
(C) 6
(D) 5
Conc . H SO
2
4 A.
Q.5
[3]
Product A is:
(A)
Q.6
(B)
(C)
(D*)
Rate
determinin g step
[3]
+ CH3OH
Based on the above information, rationalize the relative rate of hydrolysis of compounds A to D below:
(I)
[Sol.
Q.7
(II)
(III)
(IV)
[5]
(A) can be
Q.8
(A*)
(B*)
(C*)
(D)
Which one of the following compounds gives acetone (CH3)2C=O as one of the products of its ozonolysis?
[3]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
Q.9
[4]
HO
14
14
Q.10 The Corey-House Synthesis a way for coupling the alkyl groups of two alkyl halides to produce an
alkane:
[9]
several
R X + RX R R
steps
( 2 X )
diethyl
ether
RX + 2 Li
+ LiX
RLi
Alkyllithium
Alkyllithium
Lithium
dialkylcuprate
R 2CuLi + R 'X
Lithium
dialkylcuprate
Alkyl halide
Alkane
For the last step to give a good yield of the alkane, the alkyl halide RX must be either a methyl halide,
a primary alkyl halide, or a secondary cycloalkyl halide.
(i)
(B)
Et 2O
Li
CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
(D) CuI
Et 2O
CH CH CH CH CH Br
2
2
22
(F)
(E) 3
[Sol.
(b)
(a)
CuLi + MeCl
(c)
CuLi + MeCl
(c)
(b)
CuLi + MeCl
(iii)
(b)
14
[Sol.
(a)
CH 3 C CH 2 CH 3
||
CH 2
(b)
CH 3
|
CH 3 CH 2 C CH CH CH 3
|
OLi
14
U may get Delayed 2 reach ur Targets. , But Every step towards target is equal 2 victory.
ASSIGNMENT-31
Q.1
Column II
(Product)
[4]
Br
Mg, 35C
Et2O
(A)
Product
(P)
Racemic mixture
(Q)
Diastereomers
(R)
(S)
(T)
CH3
(B)
H
H
CH3
(C) H
H
(D) CH3
H
CH3
Br
H
CH3
Mg, 35C
Et2O
Product
CH3
Mg, 35C
Br
Et2O
CH3
C2H5
CH2 Br
CH3
H
CH3
Mg(1 eq.)
35C, Et2O
Product
Product
CH2 Br
Q.2
Q.3
[3]
CH I
CH3 I
LDA
M
L
3
NaH
X Y (LDA = lithiumdiisopropyl amide)
298 K
273 K
(A)
(C*)
Q.4
and
and
(B)
and
(D)
and
NaNO
2
CH 3CH 2 C CH 3
?
HCl
||
O
[3]
(D) CH 3 CH 2 C CH 3
||
N OH
Among the following compounds which liberate two equivalent of CO2 gas on oxidative ozonolysis
followed by heating ?
[3]
(A)
Q.6
O
||
(B) CH 3 CH 2 C CH N OH
(B*)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(C*)
[3]
(D)
Q.7
HOCl
HCCH A
[3]
( excess )
CH3CCH HOCl
B
( excess )
H X
Q.8
[3]
X is:
(A*)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.9
Me2C CHCH2CH 2CH CHMe react with H2SO4 to give five structural isomer, C9H16, that react
with one eq. of H2/Pd. Give their structural formulas and account for their formation.
[Ans.
[5]
(a)
+ HBr A
(c)
[7]
H SO
(b)
( i ) CH MgBr ( excess )
E
(e) COOEt 3
(ii ) H
|
COOEt
2
4 B
(d)
HBr
(f)
HNO
2 F
H
G
(g)
[Sol.
(a)
(b)
, (c)
, (f)
If the 1st button of a shirt is wrongly put, all the rest are surely crooked. So always be careful on
your 1st step. Rest will come correct....
ASSIGNMENT-32
Q.1
[4]
Column II
(Type of reaction)
(P)
Regioselective
(Q)
Stereoselective
(R)
Stereospecific
(S)
Anti Addition
(T)
Syn Addition
CH3
(B)
Cl
+ HBr
CH=CH2
CH3
C=C
(C)
(D)
CH3
H
+ Br2 CCl
4
( i ) B 2H 6
+ H2
(ii ) AcOH , H 2O
by hydride shift.
[3]
Q.4
Q.5
[3]
(A*)
(B)
(C)
CH 3
|
(D) CH 3 C CH CH CH 2
(B*)
(C)
[3]
(D) none of these
Q.6
Q.7
(C) R
(D*) S
(C) R
(D) S
Q.8
Which will give product showing no optical activity, when treated with HBr.
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D*) all of these
Q.9
[4]
(a)
HCl
(b)
[Sol.
1equivalent
(c)
CH2=CHCHDCH=CH2
C
(d)
Ph C(OH ) C(I)Me 2
3 D
|
Me
(a)
[8]
AgNO
(b)
(d) Ph C (Me2) CO Me
Challenges are high, dreams are new, the world out there is waiting for you dare too dream dare
too try, no goal is too distant, no star too high !!
ASSIGNMENT-33
Q.1
Column I
(Reaction)
Column II
(Type of intermediate formed)
[4]
(A)
HO
PhCHCl2 (A)
(P)
Carbocation
(B)
Na
RBr
dry ether
(Q)
Carbanion
(R)
Free radical
(S)
Carbene
(C)
O
||
(i ) Mg / H 2O
CH 3 C CH 3
( ii ) H 2SO 4 ,
(D)
Statement-1 :
Propane on photochlorination gives 2-chloro propane as major product.
Statement-2 :
2 carbocation is more stable than 1 carbocation.
[3]
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.3
Q.4
Statement-1 :
Me MgBr give CH4 with acetone.
[3]
Statement-2 :
H of carbonyl compounds are active.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
||
Q.5
(B)
[3]
(A)
(B*)
(C)
(D)
Me
O3
A+ B ;
Q.6
[3]
Total two type of Molozonides are formed identify relation between them?
(A) Diastereoisomers (B) Geometrical isomers (C*) Enantiomer
(D) Identical
OMDM
Q.7
[3]
OH
(A)
Q.8
OH
(B)
OH
OH
(C)
(D*)
Sentene ozonolysis
[3]
(B)
(C*)
(D)
The following equilibrium is driven to the right if the reaction is carried out in the presence of maleic
anhydride. What is the function of maleic anhydride?
[3]
Q.10
(a)
Prepare mechanism for following conversion.
[7]
( i ) CH MgBr
3
( ii ) H 2O
(b)
2O
+ HNO2 + H2SO4 H
(1,2-dione)
1,2-cyclohexadione
When God leads you to the edge of the cliff, trust him fully. Either he will catch you when you
fall or he will teach you to fly.
ASSIGNMENT-38
OXIDATION OF ALKENES, ALCOHOLS & CARBONYL COMPOUNDS
(I)
OXIDATION OF ALKENES
OsO4
RCH=CR2
RCHCR2
H2O
OH OH
Cold dil.
alkaline
KMnO4
RCHCR2
OH OH
*
Cold dil. alkaline KMnO4 is called as Bayers reagent.
*
Overall syn addition
*
Given by alkenes & alkynes
*
Benzene & Cyclopropane can not give this reaction.
If we use acidic KMnO4 or warm KMnO4 or too concentrated KMnO4 the oxidative cleavage of
Glycol occurs resulting in mixture of Carboxylic acids & Ketones.
H ,KMnO 4
RCOOH + R2C = O
RCH = CR2
Hot acidic KMnO4, Hot acidic K2Cr2O7 & hot acidic NaIO4 gives same result with alkene. The effect
is similar to that of oxidative ozonolysis on alkenes.
Preilschaive reaction :
Epoxidation of alkenes is reaction of alkenes with peroxyacids.
O
O
||
||
CH2=CH2 + CH 3 C O O H CH2CH2 + CH 3 C OH
O
With the decrease in nucleophilicity of double bond, rate of reaction decreases.
With the decrease in er withdrawing substituents in leaving group, rate decreases.
R
CH
CH2
dil.H2SO4
CH
R
H2OCH
CH2
OH
R
H+ HOCH
CH2OH
CH2OH
H2O
RCO3H
RCO3H
H 3O
HCO3H
OH
R
CH +
OH
CH2
OH
OH
1 O Ag
2 2
R
CH
CH2
(II)
(1)
OXIDATION OF ALCOHOLS
Oxidising agents
Cu / 300C (or Red hot Cu tube)
(2)
(3)
(4)
d
N CrO3 Cl or
CrO3 + HCl
(5)
Collins reagent
(
(6)
(7)
N
PDC
( Pyridinium dichromate )
(8)
(10)
Cr2O7
(9)
RCH2OTs
RCHO
RCH2OH
s DMSO
NaHCO3
Ts Cl
R2CHOTs
R2CO
R2CHOH
s DMSO
NaHCO3
DMSO
Ts
Cl
R3COTs
R3COH
s
NaHCO3
(11)
Periodic cleavage
(12)
A similar oxidation is obtained incase of HIO4
known as periodic cleavage.
(13)
O
RCHOH
+
HOI=O
R2COH
O
O
O
RCH
+
R2C=O
+
HIO3
R CH O I = O
R2COH
NBS
Openaur oxidation
R CH R
Al(OCMe3)3
O
OH
CH3 C CH3
O
RCR
3R2C=O + (Me2CO)3 Al
O
Al (OCMe3)3
acetone
Different oxidising agents are used to oxidise alcohols in corresponding carbonyl compounds and carboxylic acids.
e.g.
(I)
(II)
mild oxidising
R C H (Aldehyde) eg. 1,4,5,6,7,8,9,12
R CH 2 OH
agent
||
1alcohol
O
O
OH
||
|
mild oxidising
R CH R ' R C R ' (Ketone)
2alcohol
(III)
(IV)
(V)
(VI)
agent
strong oxidising
R C OH
R CH 2 OH
agent
||
1alcohol
O
CH 3
|
Cu 300C
CH 3 C OH
|
CH3
CH 3
eg.1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,12,13
eg. 2,3
CH2
C
CH3
(III)
1.
RCHO + [Ag(NH3)2]OH
RCOOH + NH3 + Ag
Aldehyde acts as reducing agent, they can reduce mild oxidizing agents like Tollens Reagent. Tollens
test Gentle Heating for 20 to 25 mins.
2.
Fehlings Solutions
Fehlings A
aq. CuSO4
COONa
OH
Fehlings B
OH
H
Alk. solution of Roschelye
salt (sodium potassium tartrate)
COOK
It acts a carrier for Cu2+ as it make reversible complex with Cu2+
This test is also used is Blood and Urine test.
H 2O
RCOOH Cu
RCHO + Cu2+
3.
Benedicts solution
Sodium Citrate + NaOH + NaHCO3 + CuSO4
H 2O
RCOOH Cu
RCHO + Cu2+
4.
5.
Schiffs Reagent
Schiffs Reagent is aq. solution of following base decolourised by passing SO2.
Aldehyde restore pink colour of Schiffs reagent.
NH2
NH2
SO 2
Colourless RCHO
solution
(Schiffs Reagent)
+ NH
2 Cl
p-Rosaniline Hydrochloride
Magenta colour (Fuschin)
Ketons are not easy to oxidize so they do not give these 5 tests. These five tests can be used to distinguish
aldehyde and ketones. Both gives 2,4 DNP test
KETONES ARE DIFFICULT TO OXIDIZE
Ketones can be oxidized from their enolic form at high temperature with very strong oxidizing agent.
Oxidation of ketones is sometimes governed by Popoffs rule. According to this rule carbonyl group
remains with the smaller alkyl group. More electron rich alkene will be easy to oxidized.
O
[O]
MeCHO + CO 2 + H 2O
Allylic oxidation
SeO2 is a selective oxidizing agent with converts CH2 group agjacent to carbonyl group into carbonyl
group.The reagent, in general, oxidises active methylene and methyl groups to ketonic and aldehydic
groups respectively.
Me C Me
O
O
O
O O
|
|
|
|
|
|
||
||
SeO2
SeO2
C CHO
CH 2 C C C ; C CH 3
Double bonds, triple bonds and aromatic rings may also activate the methylene group.The methylene or
methyl group to the most highly substitued end of the double bond is hydroxylated according to the
order of preference of oxidation CH2 > CH3 > CH groups.
OH
|
SeO 2
CH
CH
CH
CH3= CHCH3
2
2
2 C H > 1 C H > 3 C H
Rate of reactivity order
SeO2
HOCH2
CH CH3
CH3
CH3
HO
SeO2
Q.1
H / KMNO
CH2 = CH2 4
(i)
(ii)
H / KMNO
CH3CH= CH2 4 [11]
/ KMNO 4
H
(iii)
/ KMNO 4
H
(iv)
/ KMNO 4
H
(v)
/ KMNO 4
H
(vi)
/ KMNO 4
H
(vii)
/ KMNO 4
H
(viii)
/ KMNO 4
H
(ix)
/ KMNO 4
H
(x)
/ KMNO 4
H
(xi)
Q.2
(i)
H / KMNO
A 4 MeCOOH as the only product
[7]
(ii)
H / KMNO
B 4
(iii)
H / KMNO
C 4 MeCH2COOH as the only organic (iv)
H / KMNO
D 4
O
||
H / KMNO 4
HOOC
C
C C C C COOH
E
||
O
(v)
(vi)
Q.3
H / KMNO
C10H10 4 HOOC C C C COOH
|
C COOH
1% alkaline
(i)
H / KMNO
(vii) F 4 acetone + ethanoic acid
mCPBA
(ii)
KMnO4
[6]
mCPBA\hydrolysis
Me
mCPBA
hydrolysis
(iii)
C=C
(iv)
Me
Me
Me
mCPBA
C=C
(v)
Me hydrolysis
H
Q.4
(i)
C=C
(vi)
H
KMnO / OH ,
?
CH3 CH2 CH2 OH 4
or KMnO 4 / H ,
K2Cr2O7 / H ,
or conc. HNO 3,
Me
Ph
mCPBA
hydrolysis
Ag2O or 2Ag +
1
O
2 2
[2]
(ii)
OH
|
KMnO ,H
?
CH 3 CH CH 2 CH 3 4
[1]
or K 2Cr2O 7 , H
OH
HO
(1)
(2) or (3)
(iii)
OH
HO
Q.5
[4]
?
?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
OH
|
(i ) Dil NaOH
CH 3 CH CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH PCC
(A) (B)
[9]
( ii )
OH
PCC
(iv)
(v)
CH2OH
OH
(vi)
MnO
CHCH2 CH2 OH 2 ?
Acetone
CH3O
CH3O
(vii)
Q.6
CH 3
|
MnO 2
?
CH C CH C CH 2 OH Acetone
OH
|
(viii) C 6 H 5 CH CH 3 MnO
2 ?
(ix)
TsCl NaHCO3
C 6 H 5 CH CH CH 2 CH CH 2 OH DMSO
?
|
CH 3
(i)
HO
(ii)
OH
|
tert butoxide
CH 2 CH CH 2 CH CH 3 Aluminium
tert butoxide
Aluminium
?
Acetone
CH2OH
(iii)
tert butoxide
Aluminium
?
p benzoquinone
CCl 4
[3]
Q.7
[3]
OH
|
(B) CH 2 CH CH 2 CH CH 3
OH
|
(C*) CH 3 CH CH CH CH 3
Q.8
(i)
[9]
HIO
Me CH CH 2 OH 4
|
OH
HIO
(ii) Me 2 C CH Et 4
|
|
OH OH
OH
HIO
4
(iii)
OH
(v)
CH 2 CH CH 2 CH 3 HIO
4
|
|
OH
OH
(vii)
CH 2 CH CH CH 2 HIO
4
|
|
|
|
OH
OH OH OH
(ix)
Me C C Me HIO
4
| | ||
O O
Which will give the Tollen test.
Q.9
(i)
OH
H
(ii)
O
Q.10 (a)
(viii)
Me C CH Me HIO
4
|| |
O OH
[3]
OMe
O OH
|| |
(iii) R C CH 2
Me2CHCMe
HO
(iv)
HO
[O]
C C C C
(b)
CH 2 OH HIO 4
(iv) HO CH 2 CH 2 CH
OH
(vi)
CH 2 CH CH CH 3 HIO
4
|
|
|
OH
OH OH
[O]
[Ans. 2CCOOH ]
[4]
O
[O]
(c)
O
[O]
Me CCOOH + CO
HO
Me3CHCMe
Me +CHCMe
[Ans. Me3CCOOH + CO2 + H2O ]
O [O]
(d)
O [O]
[Ans.
]
O
Q.11
(a)
SeO2
CH3CHO
CH CHO
SeO
[Ans. CH CHO ]
[10]
O
(b)
Me2CO
SeO2
SeO
[Ans. Me C C H ]
O O
(c)
SeO2
CP1 CHCPBA
C
C P2 LAH
C C C C
P3
O
C C C C]
[Ans.
O O
O SeO
2
(d)
O SeO
[Ans.
]
O
HO
SeO2
(e)
O
CH3
(f)
CH3 CH = CH2
2 step
(1) step etard
(g)
Acrolein
SeO2
CH2 CH = CH2
MnO2
OH
SeO2
H C CH = CH2
OH
CH2
(h)
C H
CH3 C H
O O
SeO2
CH3 C C H
conc. NaOH
MnO2
P1
H /
P2
[2]
[1]
Success in not permanent & failure is not final. So, never stop working after success & never
stop trying after failure.
ASSIGNMENT-39
Give major products of following reactions:
Q.1
Py
Me C Cl ROH
||
O
Q.2
MeCOCl + EtOK
Q.3
MeCOCl + NH3
Q.4
Ph NH2 + MeCOCl
Q.5
Ph NH2 + PhCOCl
Q.6
PhOH + PhCOCl
Q.7
RNH2 + PhSO2Cl
Q.8
R2NH + PhSO2Cl
Q.9
ROH + KCN
Q.10 ROH +
Q.11
EtCOCl + EtCOONa
2
Q.12 EtCOOH + EtCOOH
4
KCN
Conc . H SO
Q.13
Q.14
H O
Q.15
3
Me C O C Me
||
||
O
O
Q.16
NaOH
Q.17
Me C OMe EtONa
||
O
Q.18
+ MeNH2
Q.19
Ph C NH 2 Me 2 NH
||
O
Q.20
Q.21
Q.23
Q.22
NH
Me C NH 2 NaOH
||
O
History proves that winners win because they refuse to be discouraged by temporary defeats!
ASSIGNMENT-40
Q.1
3 A
(a)
(c)
(e)
(g)
+ PhCH2Cl 3 G
AlCl
3 C
AlCl
3 E
AlCl
AlCl
3 I
(i)
(k)
Me
|
AlCl
+ Me C C Cl 3 K
| ||
H O
AlCl
3 M
(m)
(o)
(q)
(s)
AlCl
3 O
AlCl
3 B
(b)
(d)
(f)
+ CH2Cl2 3 F
(h)
+ CH2Cl2 3 H
(j)
(l)
(n)
AlCl
3 D
AlCl
AlCl
AlCl
+ Me C Cl 3 J
||
O
Me
|
AlCl
+ Me C C Cl 3 L
|
||
Me O
AlCl
+ Me C O C Me 3 N
||
||
O
O
AlCl
3 P
(p)
H
Q
+ HNO2
(r)
. H 2SO4
+ C C C OH conc
. H 2SO4
+ C C = C conc
(t)
. H 2SO4
+ PhCH2CH2CH2CH2OH conc
(a)
(b)
VO
2 5
500C
(c)
VO
VO
(d)
2 5
2 5
500C
(e)
H K Cr O
H K Cr O
H KMnO
2 2 7
H K Cr O
(h)
2 2 7
H K Cr O
(f)
2 2 7
(g)
(i)
500C
2 2 7
4 Me3CCOOH
(l)
(m)
(n)
H KMnO
H KMnO
H KMnO
(m)
(o)
H KMnO
isophthalic acid
H O
(n)
KMnO 4
KMnO 4
Etard oxidation:
CrO Cl
2 2
AcOAc
2 8
2
terephthalic acid
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
ASSIGNMENTS
ASSIGNMENT-2
Q.1
What is the ratio of average formal charge of oxygen and Bond order of in CO32 .
(A*) 0.5
(B) +0.5
(C) 1.0
(D) None
[3]
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
Compound X has eight atoms which has only four bond no -bond, no ionic bond, no-coordinate
bond, no H-bond.
[3]
(A) C2H6
(B*) B2H6
(C) C2(CN)6
(D) All the above
Q.4
Q.5
Statement-1 : S2F2 exist-in two forms where as S2Cl2 exist only is one form.
[3]
Statement-2 : Due to steric repulsion between two Cl and also in between S and S their is double
bond.
(A*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.6
Calculate the percentage ionic character for flouride molecule where electronegativity of electropositive
element is 2.1. Write your answer in integer 1.
[3]
[Ans. 6]
Q.7
Which compound has 14 bond, 2 bond four coordinate bond and four hydrogen bond as well as
ionic bond :
[3]
(A*) Blue vitriol
(B) Glauber salt
(C) Candy fluid
(D) Norwagian salt petere
Q.8
Identify the element of third period whose successive I.E. are given below :
I.E1
I.E2
I.E3
X
513
4562
6920
Y
738
1451
7733
Z
1521
2666
3931
[3]
Q.9
[3]
(C) Both
[3]
(D) None
Q.10
Element A has 3e in the valence shell and its principal quantum number for last e is three and element
B has 4e in the valance shell and its principal Q.N. for last e is 2 what is the number of atom A and
number of atom B in compound of AB and what is this compound.
[3]
[Ans. 43]
Q.11
The X X bond length is 1.0 and C C bond length is 1.54 if electronegatives of X and C are 3.0
and 2.0 respectively. C X bond length is likely to be.
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-4
Q.1
Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the central atom.
(A) ClOF4
(B) ClOF2+
(C) BH4
(D*) XeOF2
Q.2
If y-axis is the approaching axis between two atoms, then which of the set of orbitals can not form the
bond between two atoms in general.
[3]
(A) pz pz
(B) px px
(C*) px py
(D) None of these
Q.3
The maximum number of bond and -bond can be formed between two atoms are respectively.[3]
(A) 4, 3
(B*) 3, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 3, 1
Q.4
Which of the following set of overlap can not provide -bond formation.
(A) 3d and 2p
(B) 2p and 3p
(C) 2p and 2p
(D*) 3p and 1s
[3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
(B) 2,
1
2
(C*)
1 1
,
2 2
(D)
[3]
1
,2
2
[5]
(B) -bond
(D) Never Nor -bond
(D) H2Se
[4]
(P)
Column II
(Sequences)
Si, Mg, Al, Na
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Se, S, O, F
[Ans. (A) Q, (B) S, (C) P]
ASSIGNMENT-5
Q.1
Explain type of hybridisation, shape, bond angle and geometry of the following compounds.
[18]
(1)
XeF2
(11) IF7
(2)
XeF4
(12)
OF2
(3)
XeF5
(13)
NO 3
(4)
XeOF4
(14)
ClO 4
(15)
SF4
(16)
I3
(17)
ClO 3
(18)
OCl2
(5)
(6)
(7)
PCl3
PCl5
SF2
(8)
SF6
(9)
IF3
(10)
IF5
Q.2
Q.3
What is the difference between bond angles in cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state. [3]
(A) 60
(B) 10928
(C*) 0
(D) 90
Q.4
[3]
(D) 72, 90, 180
Q.5
Q.6
[3]
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.10
Q.11
(D) XeF6
[3]
Statement-1 :
CH4 and CH2F2 are having regular tetrahedron geometry.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Both are having same hybridization.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Paragraph for question nos. 10 to 12
Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbital of comparable energy and the number of hybrid orbitals
formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals mixed up and hybrid orbitals are occupied by bond pair and lone pair.
[9]
3
Which of the following geometry is most likely to not form from sp d hybridisation of the central atom.
(A) Linear
(B*) Tetrahedral
(C) T-Shaped
(D) See-Saw
The orbital is not participated in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) px
Q.12
(C) XeF5
Which of following pair of species is having different hybridisation but same shape.
(A) BeCl2 and CO2
Q.9
(B) XeF4
[3]
(B*) dxy
(C) d x 2 y 2
(D) pz
"The hybrid orbitals are at angle of X to one another" this statement is not valid for which of the
following hybridisation.
(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C*) sp3d2
(D) sp
ASSIGNMENT-6
One or more than one correct:
Q.1
Select the correct statement for non polar molecule.
[3]
(A*) On time average the molecule is non-polar but at the particular moment it act as a dipole which is
equally probale in all directions.
(B) On time average the molecule is polar but at the particular moment it does not act as a dipole.
(C) On time average the molecule is non-polar and the particular moment it must not act as dipole.
(D) All are incorrect
Q.2
[3]
(C) BF3 = BMe3
Q.3
Which molecular geometry are most likely to result, from a octahedral electron geometry?
(A*) square planar
(B*) square pyramidal (C) linear
(D) Vshaped
[3]
Q.4
The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species
NH3, XeO2F2, SeF4, NO2+
[3]
Q.5
Halogens form compounds among themselves with the formula XX', XX & XX '7 (where X is the heavier
halogen) which of the following pair(s) represent(s) correct geometry with polar and non-polar nature
(theoretically)
[3]
(A*) XX' Linear Polar
(B) XX Linear Polar
(C) XX' Linear Non-polar
Q.6
In molecules of the type AX2Ln (where L represents lone pairs and n is its number) there exists a bond
between element A and X. The X A X bond angle.
[3]
(A) Always decreases if n increases
(B) Always increases if n increases
(C*) Will be maximum for n = 3, 0
(D) Generally decreases if n decreases
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
NO 2
and
NO 2
[3]
ICl4
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.11
Q.12
Spin pairing and overlapping theory can not explain the equal bond length as well as equal bond angles
in CH4 molecule. To explain the above facts we are in need of hybridization theory. Hybridization is the
mixing of atomic orbitals of comparable energy and the number of atomic orbitals involved is equal to the
number of hybrid orbitals formed of equal energy.
[3 3 = 9]
(i)
According to hybridization theory, the %s character in sp3d hybrid orbitals is
(A) 25%
(B) 33.33%
(C*) 20%
(D) 16.66%
(ii)
The number of axial and equitorial positions in octahedral geometry having sp3d2 hybridization
(A) 2, 4
(B) 4, 2
(C) 3, 3
(D*) 0, 0
(iii)
Column II
(i)
IOF4
(P)
See-saw
(ii)
IO2 F2
(Q)
Trigonal bipyramidal
(iii)
XeO64
(R)
Linear
(iv)
XeF2
(S)
Square bipyramidal
ASSIGNMENT-7
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[3]
[3]
Q.5
^ bond angle
(B) ONO
:
NO3 > NO 2 > NO2
(C*) Second ionisation energy :
O>F>N>C
(D) C F bond length
:
CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
Which of the following compounds is/are polar as well as non planar?
[3]
Cl
(A*) S2Cl2
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
(B) B2H6
(C*) PCl2F3
(D)
Cl
C=C=C=C
H
[3]
(D) (CH3)3PO
[3]
(D) 90 only
[3]
(D*) zero
ASSIGNMENT-4
Q.1
Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the central atom.
(A) ClOF4
(B) ClOF2+
(C) BH4
(D*) XeOF2
Q.2
If y-axis is the approaching axis between two atoms, then which of the set of orbitals can not form the
bond between two atoms in general.
[3]
(A) pz pz
(B) px px
(C*) px py
(D) None of these
Q.3
The maximum number of bond and -bond can be formed between two atoms are respectively.[3]
(A) 4, 3
(B*) 3, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 3, 1
Q.4
Which of the following set of overlap can not provide -bond formation.
(A) 3d and 2p
(B) 2p and 3p
(C) 2p and 2p
(D*) 3p and 1s
[3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
(B) 2,
1
2
(C*)
1 1
,
2 2
(D)
[3]
1
,2
2
[5]
(B) -bond
(D) Never Nor -bond
(D) H2Se
[4]
(P)
Column II
(Sequences)
Si, Mg, Al, Na
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Se, S, O, F
[Ans. (A) Q, (B) S, (C) P]
ASSIGNMENT-5
Q.1
Explain type of hybridisation, shape, bond angle and geometry of the following compounds.
[18]
(1)
XeF2
(11) IF7
(2)
XeF4
(12)
OF2
(3)
XeF5
(13)
NO 3
(4)
XeOF4
(14)
ClO 4
(15)
SF4
(16)
I3
(17)
ClO 3
(18)
OCl2
(5)
(6)
(7)
PCl3
PCl5
SF2
(8)
SF6
(9)
IF3
(10)
IF5
Q.2
Q.3
What is the difference between bond angles in cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state. [3]
(A) 60
(B) 10928
(C*) 0
(D) 90
Q.4
[3]
(D) 72, 90, 180
Q.5
Q.6
[3]
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.10
Q.11
(D) XeF6
[3]
Statement-1 :
CH4 and CH2F2 are having regular tetrahedron geometry.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Both are having same hybridization.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Paragraph for question nos. 10 to 12
Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbital of comparable energy and the number of hybrid orbitals
formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals mixed up and hybrid orbitals are occupied by bond pair and lone pair.
[9]
3
Which of the following geometry is most likely to not form from sp d hybridisation of the central atom.
(A) Linear
(B*) Tetrahedral
(C) T-Shaped
(D) See-Saw
The orbital is not participated in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) px
Q.12
(C) XeF5
Which of following pair of species is having different hybridisation but same shape.
(A) BeCl2 and CO2
Q.9
(B) XeF4
[3]
(B*) dxy
(C) d x 2 y 2
(D) pz
"The hybrid orbitals are at angle of X to one another" this statement is not valid for which of the
following hybridisation.
(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C*) sp3d2
(D) sp
ASSIGNMENT-6
One or more than one correct:
Q.1
Select the correct statement for non polar molecule.
[3]
(A*) On time average the molecule is non-polar but at the particular moment it act as a dipole which is
equally probale in all directions.
(B) On time average the molecule is polar but at the particular moment it does not act as a dipole.
(C) On time average the molecule is non-polar and the particular moment it must not act as dipole.
(D) All are incorrect
Q.2
[3]
(C) BF3 = BMe3
Q.3
Which molecular geometry are most likely to result, from a octahedral electron geometry?
(A*) square planar
(B*) square pyramidal (C) linear
(D) Vshaped
[3]
Q.4
The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species
NH3, XeO2F2, SeF4, NO2+
[3]
Q.5
Halogens form compounds among themselves with the formula XX', XX & XX '7 (where X is the heavier
halogen) which of the following pair(s) represent(s) correct geometry with polar and non-polar nature
(theoretically)
[3]
(A*) XX' Linear Polar
(B) XX Linear Polar
(C) XX' Linear Non-polar
Q.6
In molecules of the type AX2Ln (where L represents lone pairs and n is its number) there exists a bond
between element A and X. The X A X bond angle.
[3]
(A) Always decreases if n increases
(B) Always increases if n increases
(C*) Will be maximum for n = 3, 0
(D) Generally decreases if n decreases
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
NO 2
and
NO 2
[3]
ICl4
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.11
Q.12
Spin pairing and overlapping theory can not explain the equal bond length as well as equal bond angles
in CH4 molecule. To explain the above facts we are in need of hybridization theory. Hybridization is the
mixing of atomic orbitals of comparable energy and the number of atomic orbitals involved is equal to the
number of hybrid orbitals formed of equal energy.
[3 3 = 9]
(i)
According to hybridization theory, the %s character in sp3d hybrid orbitals is
(A) 25%
(B) 33.33%
(C*) 20%
(D) 16.66%
(ii)
The number of axial and equitorial positions in octahedral geometry having sp3d2 hybridization
(A) 2, 4
(B) 4, 2
(C) 3, 3
(D*) 0, 0
(iii)
Column II
(i)
IOF4
(P)
See-saw
(ii)
IO2 F2
(Q)
Trigonal bipyramidal
(iii)
XeO64
(R)
Linear
(iv)
XeF2
(S)
Square bipyramidal
ASSIGNMENT-7
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[3]
[3]
Q.5
^ bond angle
(B) ONO
:
NO3 > NO 2 > NO2
(C*) Second ionisation energy :
O>F>N>C
(D) C F bond length
:
CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
Which of the following compounds is/are polar as well as non planar?
[3]
Cl
(A*) S2Cl2
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
(B) B2H6
(C*) PCl2F3
(D)
Cl
C=C=C=C
H
[3]
(D) (CH3)3PO
[3]
(D) 90 only
[3]
(D*) zero
ASSIGNMENT-4
Q.1
Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the central atom.
(A) ClOF4
(B) ClOF2+
(C) BH4
(D*) XeOF2
Q.2
If y-axis is the approaching axis between two atoms, then which of the set of orbitals can not form the
bond between two atoms in general.
[3]
(A) pz pz
(B) px px
(C*) px py
(D) None of these
Q.3
The maximum number of bond and -bond can be formed between two atoms are respectively.[3]
(A) 4, 3
(B*) 3, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 3, 1
Q.4
Which of the following set of overlap can not provide -bond formation.
(A) 3d and 2p
(B) 2p and 3p
(C) 2p and 2p
(D*) 3p and 1s
[3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
(B) 2,
1
2
(C*)
1 1
,
2 2
(D)
[3]
1
,2
2
[5]
(B) -bond
(D) Never Nor -bond
(D) H2Se
[4]
(P)
Column II
(Sequences)
Si, Mg, Al, Na
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Se, S, O, F
[Ans. (A) Q, (B) S, (C) P]
ASSIGNMENT-5
Q.1
Explain type of hybridisation, shape, bond angle and geometry of the following compounds.
[18]
(1)
XeF2
(11) IF7
(2)
XeF4
(12)
OF2
(3)
XeF5
(13)
NO 3
(4)
XeOF4
(14)
ClO 4
(15)
SF4
(16)
I3
(17)
ClO 3
(18)
OCl2
(5)
(6)
(7)
PCl3
PCl5
SF2
(8)
SF6
(9)
IF3
(10)
IF5
Q.2
Q.3
What is the difference between bond angles in cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state. [3]
(A) 60
(B) 10928
(C*) 0
(D) 90
Q.4
[3]
(D) 72, 90, 180
Q.5
Q.6
[3]
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.10
Q.11
(D) XeF6
[3]
Statement-1 :
CH4 and CH2F2 are having regular tetrahedron geometry.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Both are having same hybridization.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Paragraph for question nos. 10 to 12
Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbital of comparable energy and the number of hybrid orbitals
formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals mixed up and hybrid orbitals are occupied by bond pair and lone pair.
[9]
3
Which of the following geometry is most likely to not form from sp d hybridisation of the central atom.
(A) Linear
(B*) Tetrahedral
(C) T-Shaped
(D) See-Saw
The orbital is not participated in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) px
Q.12
(C) XeF5
Which of following pair of species is having different hybridisation but same shape.
(A) BeCl2 and CO2
Q.9
(B) XeF4
[3]
(B*) dxy
(C) d x 2 y 2
(D) pz
"The hybrid orbitals are at angle of X to one another" this statement is not valid for which of the
following hybridisation.
(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C*) sp3d2
(D) sp
ASSIGNMENT-6
One or more than one correct:
Q.1
Select the correct statement for non polar molecule.
[3]
(A*) On time average the molecule is non-polar but at the particular moment it act as a dipole which is
equally probale in all directions.
(B) On time average the molecule is polar but at the particular moment it does not act as a dipole.
(C) On time average the molecule is non-polar and the particular moment it must not act as dipole.
(D) All are incorrect
Q.2
[3]
(C) BF3 = BMe3
Q.3
Which molecular geometry are most likely to result, from a octahedral electron geometry?
(A*) square planar
(B*) square pyramidal (C) linear
(D) Vshaped
[3]
Q.4
The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species
NH3, XeO2F2, SeF4, NO2+
[3]
Q.5
Halogens form compounds among themselves with the formula XX', XX & XX '7 (where X is the heavier
halogen) which of the following pair(s) represent(s) correct geometry with polar and non-polar nature
(theoretically)
[3]
(A*) XX' Linear Polar
(B) XX Linear Polar
(C) XX' Linear Non-polar
Q.6
In molecules of the type AX2Ln (where L represents lone pairs and n is its number) there exists a bond
between element A and X. The X A X bond angle.
[3]
(A) Always decreases if n increases
(B) Always increases if n increases
(C*) Will be maximum for n = 3, 0
(D) Generally decreases if n decreases
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
NO 2
and
NO 2
[3]
ICl4
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.11
Q.12
Spin pairing and overlapping theory can not explain the equal bond length as well as equal bond angles
in CH4 molecule. To explain the above facts we are in need of hybridization theory. Hybridization is the
mixing of atomic orbitals of comparable energy and the number of atomic orbitals involved is equal to the
number of hybrid orbitals formed of equal energy.
[3 3 = 9]
(i)
According to hybridization theory, the %s character in sp3d hybrid orbitals is
(A) 25%
(B) 33.33%
(C*) 20%
(D) 16.66%
(ii)
The number of axial and equitorial positions in octahedral geometry having sp3d2 hybridization
(A) 2, 4
(B) 4, 2
(C) 3, 3
(D*) 0, 0
(iii)
Column II
(i)
IOF4
(P)
See-saw
(ii)
IO2 F2
(Q)
Trigonal bipyramidal
(iii)
XeO64
(R)
Linear
(iv)
XeF2
(S)
Square bipyramidal
ASSIGNMENT-7
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[3]
[3]
Q.5
^ bond angle
(B) ONO
:
NO3 > NO 2 > NO2
(C*) Second ionisation energy :
O>F>N>C
(D) C F bond length
:
CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
Which of the following compounds is/are polar as well as non planar?
[3]
Cl
(A*) S2Cl2
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
(B) B2H6
(C*) PCl2F3
(D)
Cl
C=C=C=C
H
[3]
(D) (CH3)3PO
[3]
(D) 90 only
[3]
(D*) zero
ASSIGNMENT-4
Q.1
Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the central atom.
(A) ClOF4
(B) ClOF2+
(C) BH4
(D*) XeOF2
Q.2
If y-axis is the approaching axis between two atoms, then which of the set of orbitals can not form the
bond between two atoms in general.
[3]
(A) pz pz
(B) px px
(C*) px py
(D) None of these
Q.3
The maximum number of bond and -bond can be formed between two atoms are respectively.[3]
(A) 4, 3
(B*) 3, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 3, 1
Q.4
Which of the following set of overlap can not provide -bond formation.
(A) 3d and 2p
(B) 2p and 3p
(C) 2p and 2p
(D*) 3p and 1s
[3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
(B) 2,
1
2
(C*)
1 1
,
2 2
(D)
[3]
1
,2
2
[5]
(B) -bond
(D) Never Nor -bond
(D) H2Se
[4]
(P)
Column II
(Sequences)
Si, Mg, Al, Na
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Se, S, O, F
[Ans. (A) Q, (B) S, (C) P]
ASSIGNMENT-5
Q.1
Explain type of hybridisation, shape, bond angle and geometry of the following compounds.
[18]
(1)
XeF2
(11) IF7
(2)
XeF4
(12)
OF2
(3)
XeF5
(13)
NO 3
(4)
XeOF4
(14)
ClO 4
(15)
SF4
(16)
I3
(17)
ClO 3
(18)
OCl2
(5)
(6)
(7)
PCl3
PCl5
SF2
(8)
SF6
(9)
IF3
(10)
IF5
Q.2
Q.3
What is the difference between bond angles in cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state. [3]
(A) 60
(B) 10928
(C*) 0
(D) 90
Q.4
[3]
(D) 72, 90, 180
Q.5
Q.6
[3]
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.10
Q.11
(D) XeF6
[3]
Statement-1 :
CH4 and CH2F2 are having regular tetrahedron geometry.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Both are having same hybridization.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Paragraph for question nos. 10 to 12
Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbital of comparable energy and the number of hybrid orbitals
formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals mixed up and hybrid orbitals are occupied by bond pair and lone pair.
[9]
3
Which of the following geometry is most likely to not form from sp d hybridisation of the central atom.
(A) Linear
(B*) Tetrahedral
(C) T-Shaped
(D) See-Saw
The orbital is not participated in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) px
Q.12
(C) XeF5
Which of following pair of species is having different hybridisation but same shape.
(A) BeCl2 and CO2
Q.9
(B) XeF4
[3]
(B*) dxy
(C) d x 2 y 2
(D) pz
"The hybrid orbitals are at angle of X to one another" this statement is not valid for which of the
following hybridisation.
(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C*) sp3d2
(D) sp
ASSIGNMENT-6
One or more than one correct:
Q.1
Select the correct statement for non polar molecule.
[3]
(A*) On time average the molecule is non-polar but at the particular moment it act as a dipole which is
equally probale in all directions.
(B) On time average the molecule is polar but at the particular moment it does not act as a dipole.
(C) On time average the molecule is non-polar and the particular moment it must not act as dipole.
(D) All are incorrect
Q.2
[3]
(C) BF3 = BMe3
Q.3
Which molecular geometry are most likely to result, from a octahedral electron geometry?
(A*) square planar
(B*) square pyramidal (C) linear
(D) Vshaped
[3]
Q.4
The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species
NH3, XeO2F2, SeF4, NO2+
[3]
Q.5
Halogens form compounds among themselves with the formula XX', XX & XX '7 (where X is the heavier
halogen) which of the following pair(s) represent(s) correct geometry with polar and non-polar nature
(theoretically)
[3]
(A*) XX' Linear Polar
(B) XX Linear Polar
(C) XX' Linear Non-polar
Q.6
In molecules of the type AX2Ln (where L represents lone pairs and n is its number) there exists a bond
between element A and X. The X A X bond angle.
[3]
(A) Always decreases if n increases
(B) Always increases if n increases
(C*) Will be maximum for n = 3, 0
(D) Generally decreases if n decreases
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
NO 2
and
NO 2
[3]
ICl4
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.11
Q.12
Spin pairing and overlapping theory can not explain the equal bond length as well as equal bond angles
in CH4 molecule. To explain the above facts we are in need of hybridization theory. Hybridization is the
mixing of atomic orbitals of comparable energy and the number of atomic orbitals involved is equal to the
number of hybrid orbitals formed of equal energy.
[3 3 = 9]
(i)
According to hybridization theory, the %s character in sp3d hybrid orbitals is
(A) 25%
(B) 33.33%
(C*) 20%
(D) 16.66%
(ii)
The number of axial and equitorial positions in octahedral geometry having sp3d2 hybridization
(A) 2, 4
(B) 4, 2
(C) 3, 3
(D*) 0, 0
(iii)
Column II
(i)
IOF4
(P)
See-saw
(ii)
IO2 F2
(Q)
Trigonal bipyramidal
(iii)
XeO64
(R)
Linear
(iv)
XeF2
(S)
Square bipyramidal
ASSIGNMENT-7
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[3]
[3]
Q.5
^ bond angle
(B) ONO
:
NO3 > NO 2 > NO2
(C*) Second ionisation energy :
O>F>N>C
(D) C F bond length
:
CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
Which of the following compounds is/are polar as well as non planar?
[3]
Cl
(A*) S2Cl2
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
(B) B2H6
(C*) PCl2F3
(D)
Cl
C=C=C=C
H
[3]
(D) (CH3)3PO
[3]
(D) 90 only
[3]
(D*) zero
ASSIGNMENT-4
Q.1
Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the central atom.
(A) ClOF4
(B) ClOF2+
(C) BH4
(D*) XeOF2
Q.2
If y-axis is the approaching axis between two atoms, then which of the set of orbitals can not form the
bond between two atoms in general.
[3]
(A) pz pz
(B) px px
(C*) px py
(D) None of these
Q.3
The maximum number of bond and -bond can be formed between two atoms are respectively.[3]
(A) 4, 3
(B*) 3, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 3, 1
Q.4
Which of the following set of overlap can not provide -bond formation.
(A) 3d and 2p
(B) 2p and 3p
(C) 2p and 2p
(D*) 3p and 1s
[3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
(B) 2,
1
2
(C*)
1 1
,
2 2
(D)
[3]
1
,2
2
[5]
(B) -bond
(D) Never Nor -bond
(D) H2Se
[4]
(P)
Column II
(Sequences)
Si, Mg, Al, Na
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Se, S, O, F
[Ans. (A) Q, (B) S, (C) P]
ASSIGNMENT-5
Q.1
Explain type of hybridisation, shape, bond angle and geometry of the following compounds.
[18]
(1)
XeF2
(11) IF7
(2)
XeF4
(12)
OF2
(3)
XeF5
(13)
NO 3
(4)
XeOF4
(14)
ClO 4
(15)
SF4
(16)
I3
(17)
ClO 3
(18)
OCl2
(5)
(6)
(7)
PCl3
PCl5
SF2
(8)
SF6
(9)
IF3
(10)
IF5
Q.2
Q.3
What is the difference between bond angles in cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state. [3]
(A) 60
(B) 10928
(C*) 0
(D) 90
Q.4
[3]
(D) 72, 90, 180
Q.5
Q.6
[3]
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.10
Q.11
(D) XeF6
[3]
Statement-1 :
CH4 and CH2F2 are having regular tetrahedron geometry.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Both are having same hybridization.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Paragraph for question nos. 10 to 12
Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbital of comparable energy and the number of hybrid orbitals
formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals mixed up and hybrid orbitals are occupied by bond pair and lone pair.
[9]
3
Which of the following geometry is most likely to not form from sp d hybridisation of the central atom.
(A) Linear
(B*) Tetrahedral
(C) T-Shaped
(D) See-Saw
The orbital is not participated in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) px
Q.12
(C) XeF5
Which of following pair of species is having different hybridisation but same shape.
(A) BeCl2 and CO2
Q.9
(B) XeF4
[3]
(B*) dxy
(C) d x 2 y 2
(D) pz
"The hybrid orbitals are at angle of X to one another" this statement is not valid for which of the
following hybridisation.
(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C*) sp3d2
(D) sp
ASSIGNMENT-6
One or more than one correct:
Q.1
Select the correct statement for non polar molecule.
[3]
(A*) On time average the molecule is non-polar but at the particular moment it act as a dipole which is
equally probale in all directions.
(B) On time average the molecule is polar but at the particular moment it does not act as a dipole.
(C) On time average the molecule is non-polar and the particular moment it must not act as dipole.
(D) All are incorrect
Q.2
[3]
(C) BF3 = BMe3
Q.3
Which molecular geometry are most likely to result, from a octahedral electron geometry?
(A*) square planar
(B*) square pyramidal (C) linear
(D) Vshaped
[3]
Q.4
The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species
NH3, XeO2F2, SeF4, NO2+
[3]
Q.5
Halogens form compounds among themselves with the formula XX', XX & XX '7 (where X is the heavier
halogen) which of the following pair(s) represent(s) correct geometry with polar and non-polar nature
(theoretically)
[3]
(A*) XX' Linear Polar
(B) XX Linear Polar
(C) XX' Linear Non-polar
Q.6
In molecules of the type AX2Ln (where L represents lone pairs and n is its number) there exists a bond
between element A and X. The X A X bond angle.
[3]
(A) Always decreases if n increases
(B) Always increases if n increases
(C*) Will be maximum for n = 3, 0
(D) Generally decreases if n decreases
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
NO 2
and
NO 2
[3]
ICl4
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.11
Q.12
Spin pairing and overlapping theory can not explain the equal bond length as well as equal bond angles
in CH4 molecule. To explain the above facts we are in need of hybridization theory. Hybridization is the
mixing of atomic orbitals of comparable energy and the number of atomic orbitals involved is equal to the
number of hybrid orbitals formed of equal energy.
[3 3 = 9]
(i)
According to hybridization theory, the %s character in sp3d hybrid orbitals is
(A) 25%
(B) 33.33%
(C*) 20%
(D) 16.66%
(ii)
The number of axial and equitorial positions in octahedral geometry having sp3d2 hybridization
(A) 2, 4
(B) 4, 2
(C) 3, 3
(D*) 0, 0
(iii)
Column II
(i)
IOF4
(P)
See-saw
(ii)
IO2 F2
(Q)
Trigonal bipyramidal
(iii)
XeO64
(R)
Linear
(iv)
XeF2
(S)
Square bipyramidal
ASSIGNMENT-7
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[3]
[3]
Q.5
^ bond angle
(B) ONO
:
NO3 > NO 2 > NO2
(C*) Second ionisation energy :
O>F>N>C
(D) C F bond length
:
CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
Which of the following compounds is/are polar as well as non planar?
[3]
Cl
(A*) S2Cl2
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
(B) B2H6
(C*) PCl2F3
(D)
Cl
C=C=C=C
H
[3]
(D) (CH3)3PO
[3]
(D) 90 only
[3]
(D*) zero
ASSIGNMENT-4
Q.1
Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the central atom.
(A) ClOF4
(B) ClOF2+
(C) BH4
(D*) XeOF2
Q.2
If y-axis is the approaching axis between two atoms, then which of the set of orbitals can not form the
bond between two atoms in general.
[3]
(A) pz pz
(B) px px
(C*) px py
(D) None of these
Q.3
The maximum number of bond and -bond can be formed between two atoms are respectively.[3]
(A) 4, 3
(B*) 3, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 3, 1
Q.4
Which of the following set of overlap can not provide -bond formation.
(A) 3d and 2p
(B) 2p and 3p
(C) 2p and 2p
(D*) 3p and 1s
[3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
(B) 2,
1
2
(C*)
1 1
,
2 2
(D)
[3]
1
,2
2
[5]
(B) -bond
(D) Never Nor -bond
(D) H2Se
[4]
(P)
Column II
(Sequences)
Si, Mg, Al, Na
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Se, S, O, F
[Ans. (A) Q, (B) S, (C) P]
ASSIGNMENT-5
Q.1
Explain type of hybridisation, shape, bond angle and geometry of the following compounds.
[18]
(1)
XeF2
(11) IF7
(2)
XeF4
(12)
OF2
(3)
XeF5
(13)
NO 3
(4)
XeOF4
(14)
ClO 4
(15)
SF4
(16)
I3
(17)
ClO 3
(18)
OCl2
(5)
(6)
(7)
PCl3
PCl5
SF2
(8)
SF6
(9)
IF3
(10)
IF5
Q.2
Q.3
What is the difference between bond angles in cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state. [3]
(A) 60
(B) 10928
(C*) 0
(D) 90
Q.4
[3]
(D) 72, 90, 180
Q.5
Q.6
[3]
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.10
Q.11
(D) XeF6
[3]
Statement-1 :
CH4 and CH2F2 are having regular tetrahedron geometry.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Both are having same hybridization.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Paragraph for question nos. 10 to 12
Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbital of comparable energy and the number of hybrid orbitals
formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals mixed up and hybrid orbitals are occupied by bond pair and lone pair.
[9]
3
Which of the following geometry is most likely to not form from sp d hybridisation of the central atom.
(A) Linear
(B*) Tetrahedral
(C) T-Shaped
(D) See-Saw
The orbital is not participated in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) px
Q.12
(C) XeF5
Which of following pair of species is having different hybridisation but same shape.
(A) BeCl2 and CO2
Q.9
(B) XeF4
[3]
(B*) dxy
(C) d x 2 y 2
(D) pz
"The hybrid orbitals are at angle of X to one another" this statement is not valid for which of the
following hybridisation.
(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C*) sp3d2
(D) sp
ASSIGNMENT-6
One or more than one correct:
Q.1
Select the correct statement for non polar molecule.
[3]
(A*) On time average the molecule is non-polar but at the particular moment it act as a dipole which is
equally probale in all directions.
(B) On time average the molecule is polar but at the particular moment it does not act as a dipole.
(C) On time average the molecule is non-polar and the particular moment it must not act as dipole.
(D) All are incorrect
Q.2
[3]
(C) BF3 = BMe3
Q.3
Which molecular geometry are most likely to result, from a octahedral electron geometry?
(A*) square planar
(B*) square pyramidal (C) linear
(D) Vshaped
[3]
Q.4
The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species
NH3, XeO2F2, SeF4, NO2+
[3]
Q.5
Halogens form compounds among themselves with the formula XX', XX & XX '7 (where X is the heavier
halogen) which of the following pair(s) represent(s) correct geometry with polar and non-polar nature
(theoretically)
[3]
(A*) XX' Linear Polar
(B) XX Linear Polar
(C) XX' Linear Non-polar
Q.6
In molecules of the type AX2Ln (where L represents lone pairs and n is its number) there exists a bond
between element A and X. The X A X bond angle.
[3]
(A) Always decreases if n increases
(B) Always increases if n increases
(C*) Will be maximum for n = 3, 0
(D) Generally decreases if n decreases
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
NO 2
and
NO 2
[3]
ICl4
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.11
Q.12
Spin pairing and overlapping theory can not explain the equal bond length as well as equal bond angles
in CH4 molecule. To explain the above facts we are in need of hybridization theory. Hybridization is the
mixing of atomic orbitals of comparable energy and the number of atomic orbitals involved is equal to the
number of hybrid orbitals formed of equal energy.
[3 3 = 9]
(i)
According to hybridization theory, the %s character in sp3d hybrid orbitals is
(A) 25%
(B) 33.33%
(C*) 20%
(D) 16.66%
(ii)
The number of axial and equitorial positions in octahedral geometry having sp3d2 hybridization
(A) 2, 4
(B) 4, 2
(C) 3, 3
(D*) 0, 0
(iii)
Column II
(i)
IOF4
(P)
See-saw
(ii)
IO2 F2
(Q)
Trigonal bipyramidal
(iii)
XeO64
(R)
Linear
(iv)
XeF2
(S)
Square bipyramidal
ASSIGNMENT-7
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[3]
[3]
Q.5
^ bond angle
(B) ONO
:
NO3 > NO 2 > NO2
(C*) Second ionisation energy :
O>F>N>C
(D) C F bond length
:
CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
Which of the following compounds is/are polar as well as non planar?
[3]
Cl
(A*) S2Cl2
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
(B) B2H6
(C*) PCl2F3
(D)
Cl
C=C=C=C
H
[3]
(D) (CH3)3PO
[3]
(D) 90 only
[3]
(D*) zero
ASSIGNMENT-4
Q.1
Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the central atom.
(A) ClOF4
(B) ClOF2+
(C) BH4
(D*) XeOF2
Q.2
If y-axis is the approaching axis between two atoms, then which of the set of orbitals can not form the
bond between two atoms in general.
[3]
(A) pz pz
(B) px px
(C*) px py
(D) None of these
Q.3
The maximum number of bond and -bond can be formed between two atoms are respectively.[3]
(A) 4, 3
(B*) 3, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 3, 1
Q.4
Which of the following set of overlap can not provide -bond formation.
(A) 3d and 2p
(B) 2p and 3p
(C) 2p and 2p
(D*) 3p and 1s
[3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
(B) 2,
1
2
(C*)
1 1
,
2 2
(D)
[3]
1
,2
2
[5]
(B) -bond
(D) Never Nor -bond
(D) H2Se
[4]
(P)
Column II
(Sequences)
Si, Mg, Al, Na
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Se, S, O, F
[Ans. (A) Q, (B) S, (C) P]
ASSIGNMENT-5
Q.1
Explain type of hybridisation, shape, bond angle and geometry of the following compounds.
[18]
(1)
XeF2
(11) IF7
(2)
XeF4
(12)
OF2
(3)
XeF5
(13)
NO 3
(4)
XeOF4
(14)
ClO 4
(15)
SF4
(16)
I3
(17)
ClO 3
(18)
OCl2
(5)
(6)
(7)
PCl3
PCl5
SF2
(8)
SF6
(9)
IF3
(10)
IF5
Q.2
Q.3
What is the difference between bond angles in cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state. [3]
(A) 60
(B) 10928
(C*) 0
(D) 90
Q.4
[3]
(D) 72, 90, 180
Q.5
Q.6
[3]
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.10
Q.11
(D) XeF6
[3]
Statement-1 :
CH4 and CH2F2 are having regular tetrahedron geometry.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Both are having same hybridization.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Paragraph for question nos. 10 to 12
Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbital of comparable energy and the number of hybrid orbitals
formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals mixed up and hybrid orbitals are occupied by bond pair and lone pair.
[9]
3
Which of the following geometry is most likely to not form from sp d hybridisation of the central atom.
(A) Linear
(B*) Tetrahedral
(C) T-Shaped
(D) See-Saw
The orbital is not participated in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) px
Q.12
(C) XeF5
Which of following pair of species is having different hybridisation but same shape.
(A) BeCl2 and CO2
Q.9
(B) XeF4
[3]
(B*) dxy
(C) d x 2 y 2
(D) pz
"The hybrid orbitals are at angle of X to one another" this statement is not valid for which of the
following hybridisation.
(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C*) sp3d2
(D) sp
ASSIGNMENT-6
One or more than one correct:
Q.1
Select the correct statement for non polar molecule.
[3]
(A*) On time average the molecule is non-polar but at the particular moment it act as a dipole which is
equally probale in all directions.
(B) On time average the molecule is polar but at the particular moment it does not act as a dipole.
(C) On time average the molecule is non-polar and the particular moment it must not act as dipole.
(D) All are incorrect
Q.2
[3]
(C) BF3 = BMe3
Q.3
Which molecular geometry are most likely to result, from a octahedral electron geometry?
(A*) square planar
(B*) square pyramidal (C) linear
(D) Vshaped
[3]
Q.4
The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species
NH3, XeO2F2, SeF4, NO2+
[3]
Q.5
Halogens form compounds among themselves with the formula XX', XX & XX '7 (where X is the heavier
halogen) which of the following pair(s) represent(s) correct geometry with polar and non-polar nature
(theoretically)
[3]
(A*) XX' Linear Polar
(B) XX Linear Polar
(C) XX' Linear Non-polar
Q.6
In molecules of the type AX2Ln (where L represents lone pairs and n is its number) there exists a bond
between element A and X. The X A X bond angle.
[3]
(A) Always decreases if n increases
(B) Always increases if n increases
(C*) Will be maximum for n = 3, 0
(D) Generally decreases if n decreases
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
NO 2
and
NO 2
[3]
ICl4
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.11
Q.12
Spin pairing and overlapping theory can not explain the equal bond length as well as equal bond angles
in CH4 molecule. To explain the above facts we are in need of hybridization theory. Hybridization is the
mixing of atomic orbitals of comparable energy and the number of atomic orbitals involved is equal to the
number of hybrid orbitals formed of equal energy.
[3 3 = 9]
(i)
According to hybridization theory, the %s character in sp3d hybrid orbitals is
(A) 25%
(B) 33.33%
(C*) 20%
(D) 16.66%
(ii)
The number of axial and equitorial positions in octahedral geometry having sp3d2 hybridization
(A) 2, 4
(B) 4, 2
(C) 3, 3
(D*) 0, 0
(iii)
Column II
(i)
IOF4
(P)
See-saw
(ii)
IO2 F2
(Q)
Trigonal bipyramidal
(iii)
XeO64
(R)
Linear
(iv)
XeF2
(S)
Square bipyramidal
ASSIGNMENT-7
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[3]
[3]
Q.5
^ bond angle
(B) ONO
:
NO3 > NO 2 > NO2
(C*) Second ionisation energy :
O>F>N>C
(D) C F bond length
:
CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
Which of the following compounds is/are polar as well as non planar?
[3]
Cl
(A*) S2Cl2
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
(B) B2H6
(C*) PCl2F3
(D)
Cl
C=C=C=C
H
[3]
(D) (CH3)3PO
[3]
(D) 90 only
[3]
(D*) zero
ASSIGNMENT-4
Q.1
Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the central atom.
(A) ClOF4
(B) ClOF2+
(C) BH4
(D*) XeOF2
Q.2
If y-axis is the approaching axis between two atoms, then which of the set of orbitals can not form the
bond between two atoms in general.
[3]
(A) pz pz
(B) px px
(C*) px py
(D) None of these
Q.3
The maximum number of bond and -bond can be formed between two atoms are respectively.[3]
(A) 4, 3
(B*) 3, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 3, 1
Q.4
Which of the following set of overlap can not provide -bond formation.
(A) 3d and 2p
(B) 2p and 3p
(C) 2p and 2p
(D*) 3p and 1s
[3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
(B) 2,
1
2
(C*)
1 1
,
2 2
(D)
[3]
1
,2
2
[5]
(B) -bond
(D) Never Nor -bond
(D) H2Se
[4]
(P)
Column II
(Sequences)
Si, Mg, Al, Na
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Se, S, O, F
[Ans. (A) Q, (B) S, (C) P]
ASSIGNMENT-5
Q.1
Explain type of hybridisation, shape, bond angle and geometry of the following compounds.
[18]
(1)
XeF2
(11) IF7
(2)
XeF4
(12)
OF2
(3)
XeF5
(13)
NO 3
(4)
XeOF4
(14)
ClO 4
(15)
SF4
(16)
I3
(17)
ClO 3
(18)
OCl2
(5)
(6)
(7)
PCl3
PCl5
SF2
(8)
SF6
(9)
IF3
(10)
IF5
Q.2
Q.3
What is the difference between bond angles in cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state. [3]
(A) 60
(B) 10928
(C*) 0
(D) 90
Q.4
[3]
(D) 72, 90, 180
Q.5
Q.6
[3]
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.10
Q.11
(D) XeF6
[3]
Statement-1 :
CH4 and CH2F2 are having regular tetrahedron geometry.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Both are having same hybridization.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Paragraph for question nos. 10 to 12
Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbital of comparable energy and the number of hybrid orbitals
formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals mixed up and hybrid orbitals are occupied by bond pair and lone pair.
[9]
3
Which of the following geometry is most likely to not form from sp d hybridisation of the central atom.
(A) Linear
(B*) Tetrahedral
(C) T-Shaped
(D) See-Saw
The orbital is not participated in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) px
Q.12
(C) XeF5
Which of following pair of species is having different hybridisation but same shape.
(A) BeCl2 and CO2
Q.9
(B) XeF4
[3]
(B*) dxy
(C) d x 2 y 2
(D) pz
"The hybrid orbitals are at angle of X to one another" this statement is not valid for which of the
following hybridisation.
(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C*) sp3d2
(D) sp
ASSIGNMENT-6
One or more than one correct:
Q.1
Select the correct statement for non polar molecule.
[3]
(A*) On time average the molecule is non-polar but at the particular moment it act as a dipole which is
equally probale in all directions.
(B) On time average the molecule is polar but at the particular moment it does not act as a dipole.
(C) On time average the molecule is non-polar and the particular moment it must not act as dipole.
(D) All are incorrect
Q.2
[3]
(C) BF3 = BMe3
Q.3
Which molecular geometry are most likely to result, from a octahedral electron geometry?
(A*) square planar
(B*) square pyramidal (C) linear
(D) Vshaped
[3]
Q.4
The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species
NH3, XeO2F2, SeF4, NO2+
[3]
Q.5
Halogens form compounds among themselves with the formula XX', XX & XX '7 (where X is the heavier
halogen) which of the following pair(s) represent(s) correct geometry with polar and non-polar nature
(theoretically)
[3]
(A*) XX' Linear Polar
(B) XX Linear Polar
(C) XX' Linear Non-polar
Q.6
In molecules of the type AX2Ln (where L represents lone pairs and n is its number) there exists a bond
between element A and X. The X A X bond angle.
[3]
(A) Always decreases if n increases
(B) Always increases if n increases
(C*) Will be maximum for n = 3, 0
(D) Generally decreases if n decreases
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
NO 2
and
NO 2
[3]
ICl4
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.11
Q.12
Spin pairing and overlapping theory can not explain the equal bond length as well as equal bond angles
in CH4 molecule. To explain the above facts we are in need of hybridization theory. Hybridization is the
mixing of atomic orbitals of comparable energy and the number of atomic orbitals involved is equal to the
number of hybrid orbitals formed of equal energy.
[3 3 = 9]
(i)
According to hybridization theory, the %s character in sp3d hybrid orbitals is
(A) 25%
(B) 33.33%
(C*) 20%
(D) 16.66%
(ii)
The number of axial and equitorial positions in octahedral geometry having sp3d2 hybridization
(A) 2, 4
(B) 4, 2
(C) 3, 3
(D*) 0, 0
(iii)
Column II
(i)
IOF4
(P)
See-saw
(ii)
IO2 F2
(Q)
Trigonal bipyramidal
(iii)
XeO64
(R)
Linear
(iv)
XeF2
(S)
Square bipyramidal
ASSIGNMENT-7
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[3]
[3]
Q.5
^ bond angle
(B) ONO
:
NO3 > NO 2 > NO2
(C*) Second ionisation energy :
O>F>N>C
(D) C F bond length
:
CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
Which of the following compounds is/are polar as well as non planar?
[3]
Cl
(A*) S2Cl2
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
(B) B2H6
(C*) PCl2F3
(D)
Cl
C=C=C=C
H
[3]
(D) (CH3)3PO
[3]
(D) 90 only
[3]
(D*) zero
ASSIGNMENT-4
Q.1
Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the central atom.
(A) ClOF4
(B) ClOF2+
(C) BH4
(D*) XeOF2
Q.2
If y-axis is the approaching axis between two atoms, then which of the set of orbitals can not form the
bond between two atoms in general.
[3]
(A) pz pz
(B) px px
(C*) px py
(D) None of these
Q.3
The maximum number of bond and -bond can be formed between two atoms are respectively.[3]
(A) 4, 3
(B*) 3, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 3, 1
Q.4
Which of the following set of overlap can not provide -bond formation.
(A) 3d and 2p
(B) 2p and 3p
(C) 2p and 2p
(D*) 3p and 1s
[3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
(B) 2,
1
2
(C*)
1 1
,
2 2
(D)
[3]
1
,2
2
[5]
(B) -bond
(D) Never Nor -bond
(D) H2Se
[4]
(P)
Column II
(Sequences)
Si, Mg, Al, Na
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Se, S, O, F
[Ans. (A) Q, (B) S, (C) P]
ASSIGNMENT-5
Q.1
Explain type of hybridisation, shape, bond angle and geometry of the following compounds.
[18]
(1)
XeF2
(11) IF7
(2)
XeF4
(12)
OF2
(3)
XeF5
(13)
NO 3
(4)
XeOF4
(14)
ClO 4
(15)
SF4
(16)
I3
(17)
ClO 3
(18)
OCl2
(5)
(6)
(7)
PCl3
PCl5
SF2
(8)
SF6
(9)
IF3
(10)
IF5
Q.2
Q.3
What is the difference between bond angles in cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state. [3]
(A) 60
(B) 10928
(C*) 0
(D) 90
Q.4
[3]
(D) 72, 90, 180
Q.5
Q.6
[3]
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.10
Q.11
(D) XeF6
[3]
Statement-1 :
CH4 and CH2F2 are having regular tetrahedron geometry.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Both are having same hybridization.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Paragraph for question nos. 10 to 12
Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbital of comparable energy and the number of hybrid orbitals
formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals mixed up and hybrid orbitals are occupied by bond pair and lone pair.
[9]
3
Which of the following geometry is most likely to not form from sp d hybridisation of the central atom.
(A) Linear
(B*) Tetrahedral
(C) T-Shaped
(D) See-Saw
The orbital is not participated in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) px
Q.12
(C) XeF5
Which of following pair of species is having different hybridisation but same shape.
(A) BeCl2 and CO2
Q.9
(B) XeF4
[3]
(B*) dxy
(C) d x 2 y 2
(D) pz
"The hybrid orbitals are at angle of X to one another" this statement is not valid for which of the
following hybridisation.
(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C*) sp3d2
(D) sp
ASSIGNMENT-6
One or more than one correct:
Q.1
Select the correct statement for non polar molecule.
[3]
(A*) On time average the molecule is non-polar but at the particular moment it act as a dipole which is
equally probale in all directions.
(B) On time average the molecule is polar but at the particular moment it does not act as a dipole.
(C) On time average the molecule is non-polar and the particular moment it must not act as dipole.
(D) All are incorrect
Q.2
[3]
(C) BF3 = BMe3
Q.3
Which molecular geometry are most likely to result, from a octahedral electron geometry?
(A*) square planar
(B*) square pyramidal (C) linear
(D) Vshaped
[3]
Q.4
The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species
NH3, XeO2F2, SeF4, NO2+
[3]
Q.5
Halogens form compounds among themselves with the formula XX', XX & XX '7 (where X is the heavier
halogen) which of the following pair(s) represent(s) correct geometry with polar and non-polar nature
(theoretically)
[3]
(A*) XX' Linear Polar
(B) XX Linear Polar
(C) XX' Linear Non-polar
Q.6
In molecules of the type AX2Ln (where L represents lone pairs and n is its number) there exists a bond
between element A and X. The X A X bond angle.
[3]
(A) Always decreases if n increases
(B) Always increases if n increases
(C*) Will be maximum for n = 3, 0
(D) Generally decreases if n decreases
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
NO 2
and
NO 2
[3]
ICl4
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.11
Q.12
Spin pairing and overlapping theory can not explain the equal bond length as well as equal bond angles
in CH4 molecule. To explain the above facts we are in need of hybridization theory. Hybridization is the
mixing of atomic orbitals of comparable energy and the number of atomic orbitals involved is equal to the
number of hybrid orbitals formed of equal energy.
[3 3 = 9]
(i)
According to hybridization theory, the %s character in sp3d hybrid orbitals is
(A) 25%
(B) 33.33%
(C*) 20%
(D) 16.66%
(ii)
The number of axial and equitorial positions in octahedral geometry having sp3d2 hybridization
(A) 2, 4
(B) 4, 2
(C) 3, 3
(D*) 0, 0
(iii)
Column II
(i)
IOF4
(P)
See-saw
(ii)
IO2 F2
(Q)
Trigonal bipyramidal
(iii)
XeO64
(R)
Linear
(iv)
XeF2
(S)
Square bipyramidal
ASSIGNMENT-7
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[3]
[3]
Q.5
^ bond angle
(B) ONO
:
NO3 > NO 2 > NO2
(C*) Second ionisation energy :
O>F>N>C
(D) C F bond length
:
CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
Which of the following compounds is/are polar as well as non planar?
[3]
Cl
(A*) S2Cl2
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
(B) B2H6
(C*) PCl2F3
(D)
Cl
C=C=C=C
H
[3]
(D) (CH3)3PO
[3]
(D) 90 only
[3]
(D*) zero
ASSIGNMENT-4
Q.1
Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the central atom.
(A) ClOF4
(B) ClOF2+
(C) BH4
(D*) XeOF2
Q.2
If y-axis is the approaching axis between two atoms, then which of the set of orbitals can not form the
bond between two atoms in general.
[3]
(A) pz pz
(B) px px
(C*) px py
(D) None of these
Q.3
The maximum number of bond and -bond can be formed between two atoms are respectively.[3]
(A) 4, 3
(B*) 3, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 3, 1
Q.4
Which of the following set of overlap can not provide -bond formation.
(A) 3d and 2p
(B) 2p and 3p
(C) 2p and 2p
(D*) 3p and 1s
[3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
(B) 2,
1
2
(C*)
1 1
,
2 2
(D)
[3]
1
,2
2
[5]
(B) -bond
(D) Never Nor -bond
(D) H2Se
[4]
(P)
Column II
(Sequences)
Si, Mg, Al, Na
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Se, S, O, F
[Ans. (A) Q, (B) S, (C) P]
ASSIGNMENT-5
Q.1
Explain type of hybridisation, shape, bond angle and geometry of the following compounds.
[18]
(1)
XeF2
(11) IF7
(2)
XeF4
(12)
OF2
(3)
XeF5
(13)
NO 3
(4)
XeOF4
(14)
ClO 4
(15)
SF4
(16)
I3
(17)
ClO 3
(18)
OCl2
(5)
(6)
(7)
PCl3
PCl5
SF2
(8)
SF6
(9)
IF3
(10)
IF5
Q.2
Q.3
What is the difference between bond angles in cationic species of PCl5 and PBr5 in solid state. [3]
(A) 60
(B) 10928
(C*) 0
(D) 90
Q.4
[3]
(D) 72, 90, 180
Q.5
Q.6
[3]
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
Q.10
Q.11
(D) XeF6
[3]
Statement-1 :
CH4 and CH2F2 are having regular tetrahedron geometry.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Both are having same hybridization.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Paragraph for question nos. 10 to 12
Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbital of comparable energy and the number of hybrid orbitals
formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals mixed up and hybrid orbitals are occupied by bond pair and lone pair.
[9]
3
Which of the following geometry is most likely to not form from sp d hybridisation of the central atom.
(A) Linear
(B*) Tetrahedral
(C) T-Shaped
(D) See-Saw
The orbital is not participated in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) px
Q.12
(C) XeF5
Which of following pair of species is having different hybridisation but same shape.
(A) BeCl2 and CO2
Q.9
(B) XeF4
[3]
(B*) dxy
(C) d x 2 y 2
(D) pz
"The hybrid orbitals are at angle of X to one another" this statement is not valid for which of the
following hybridisation.
(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C*) sp3d2
(D) sp
ASSIGNMENT-6
One or more than one correct:
Q.1
Select the correct statement for non polar molecule.
[3]
(A*) On time average the molecule is non-polar but at the particular moment it act as a dipole which is
equally probale in all directions.
(B) On time average the molecule is polar but at the particular moment it does not act as a dipole.
(C) On time average the molecule is non-polar and the particular moment it must not act as dipole.
(D) All are incorrect
Q.2
[3]
(C) BF3 = BMe3
Q.3
Which molecular geometry are most likely to result, from a octahedral electron geometry?
(A*) square planar
(B*) square pyramidal (C) linear
(D) Vshaped
[3]
Q.4
The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species
NH3, XeO2F2, SeF4, NO2+
[3]
Q.5
Halogens form compounds among themselves with the formula XX', XX & XX '7 (where X is the heavier
halogen) which of the following pair(s) represent(s) correct geometry with polar and non-polar nature
(theoretically)
[3]
(A*) XX' Linear Polar
(B) XX Linear Polar
(C) XX' Linear Non-polar
Q.6
In molecules of the type AX2Ln (where L represents lone pairs and n is its number) there exists a bond
between element A and X. The X A X bond angle.
[3]
(A) Always decreases if n increases
(B) Always increases if n increases
(C*) Will be maximum for n = 3, 0
(D) Generally decreases if n decreases
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
NO 2
and
NO 2
[3]
ICl4
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.11
Q.12
Spin pairing and overlapping theory can not explain the equal bond length as well as equal bond angles
in CH4 molecule. To explain the above facts we are in need of hybridization theory. Hybridization is the
mixing of atomic orbitals of comparable energy and the number of atomic orbitals involved is equal to the
number of hybrid orbitals formed of equal energy.
[3 3 = 9]
(i)
According to hybridization theory, the %s character in sp3d hybrid orbitals is
(A) 25%
(B) 33.33%
(C*) 20%
(D) 16.66%
(ii)
The number of axial and equitorial positions in octahedral geometry having sp3d2 hybridization
(A) 2, 4
(B) 4, 2
(C) 3, 3
(D*) 0, 0
(iii)
Column II
(i)
IOF4
(P)
See-saw
(ii)
IO2 F2
(Q)
Trigonal bipyramidal
(iii)
XeO64
(R)
Linear
(iv)
XeF2
(S)
Square bipyramidal
ASSIGNMENT-7
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[3]
[3]
Q.5
^ bond angle
(B) ONO
:
NO3 > NO 2 > NO2
(C*) Second ionisation energy :
O>F>N>C
(D) C F bond length
:
CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
Which of the following compounds is/are polar as well as non planar?
[3]
Cl
(A*) S2Cl2
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
(B) B2H6
(C*) PCl2F3
(D)
Cl
C=C=C=C
H
[3]
(D) (CH3)3PO
[3]
(D) 90 only
[3]
(D*) zero
ASSIGNMENT10
Q.1
Column-I
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.2
BH4
I2Cl6
AlCl4
BeCl2 (solid)
Column-II
(P)
(Q)
(R)
(S)
[12]
Q.3
Statement-1 :
SO42 and S52 have different structures.
[3]
Statement-2 :
O and S are of same group but of different period element.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.4
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
XeF5
[9]
(P)
(Q)
Column II
All atoms are sp3 hybridised.
Non-planar and see-saw in shape
(R)
(S)
In which of the following silicate structure, the number of corner shared is minimum.
(A*) Pyrosilicate
(B) Amphibole chain silicate
(C) 3D-silicate
(D) Six membered cyclic silicate
[3]
[3]
Q.8
Q.9b
[3]
(C*) C2H6
(D) B2H6
[12]
Column II
(A)
ICl3
(P)
(B)
(C)
(D)
AlCl3
AlF3
NO 2
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Comprehension
Silicate are existing mainly in the polymeric form. Several categories are available with us which depend
on the mode of sharing of corners of SiO44 tetrahedron.
Q.10
(B)
(C)
Q.11
Q.12
1
o-atoms are shared per tetrahedron.
2
(B) Single chain silicate
(D) Pyro silicate
[3]
[3]
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-11
Choose only one correct option.
Q.1
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the complete hydrolysis of Marshall's acid.
(A) Caro's acid is an intermediate product.
[3]
(B) Two molecules of H2SO4 and one molecule of H2O2 are the final product.
(C) Hybridisation and oxidation state of central atom remain unchanged in the final product.
(D*) Both final products can act as oxidising as well as reducing agent.
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[3]
[3]
(D) None of these
Q.5
Q.6
Which of the following substance has the largest negative lattice energy ?
(A) NaCl
(B) CaBr2
(C) NaBr
(D*) CaCl2
[3]
Q.7
Which of the following is/are incorrect about solubility trend in group I & II?
Least soluble in water
Most soluble in water
(A) Hydroxides
:
LiOH
CsOH
(B*) Carbonates
:
Cs2 CO 3
Li2CO3
(C) Nitrate
:
Ba(NO3)2
Be(NO3)2
(D) Sulphates
:
BaSO4
BeSO4
[3]
Q.8
[3]
The number of H-atoms replaced from boric acid when it is dissolved in water is
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D*) zero
[3]
Q.10
[3]
Q.11
[12]
(A)
Column I
XeF5+
(P)
Column II
Two lone pairs
(B)
ICl4
(Q)
Planar
(C)
TeCl4
(R)
Non-planar
(D)
I3+
(S)
ASSIGNMENT-12
One or more than one option(s) is/are correct
Q.1
[4]
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
It has been observed that % 's' character in SbH bond in SbH3 is 0.5%. Predict the % 's' character in
the orbital occupied by the lone pair is
[3]
(A) 99.5 %
(B) 99.0 %
(C*) 98.5 %
(D) 98.0 %
Q.4
Q.5
Polarisation may be called as the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacently placed cation.
Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
[4]
(A*) Minimum polarization is brought about by a cation of low radius
(B*) A large cation is likely to bring about a large degree of polarisation
(C) Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation of high charge
(D*) A small anion is likely to undergo a large degree of polarisation
Q.6
Out of the following which one has the highest values of covalent character
(A) ZnCl2
(B) CdCl2
(C*) HgCl2
(D) CuCl
[3]
Q.7
[3]
(C) CaCl2
[3]
(D) SrCl2
Q.8
Q.9
[3]
Q.10
Statement-1 : The acidic strength order of hydra acids is : HF < HCl < HBr < HI
[3]
Statement-2 : The E.N. of halogens are F > Cl > Br > I.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.11
Column I
Dithionous acid
(P)
Column II
SOS bond is not present
[8]
(B)
Thiosulphuric acid
(Q)
(C)
Caro's acid
(R)
(D)
Pyrosulphurous acid
(S)
ASSIGNMENT-13
How many nodal plane is/are present in *sp antibonding molecular orbital?
(A) zero
Q.2
(B*) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(B)
(C*)
(D)
[3]
[3]
Q.3
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding bonding molecular orbitals?
[3]
(A) Bonding molecular orbitals possess less energy than the atomic orbitals from which they are formed
(B*) Bonding molecular orbitals have low electron density between the two nuclei
(C) Electron in bonding molecular orbitals contributes to the attraction between atoms
(D) They are formed when the lobes of the combining atomic orbitals have the same sign
Q.4
If X-axis is the molecular axis, then -molecular orbitals are formed by the overlap of
(A) s + pz
(B) px + py
(C*) pz + pz
(D) px + px
Q.5
[3]
Q.6
If NB is the number of bonding electrons and NA is the number of antibonding electrons of a molecule.
Then choose the incorrect statement(s) for the given relationship,
[4]
NB > NA
(A) Molecule may be stable or unstable
(B*) Molecule may have any integral, fractional or zero value of bond order
(C*) Molecule is only paramagnetic species
(D*) Molecule does not exist
Q.7
In which of the following ionization processes, the bond order has increased and the magnetic behaviour
has changed?
[3]
(A) C2 C 2
Q.8
(B*) NO NO+
(D) N2 N 2
Which of the following pair of species is/are having same bond order and same magnetic moment.
(A*) HeH and H2
(C*) He2+ and Li2+
Q.9
(C) O2 O 2
(B*) O 2 and NO
(D*) N2+ and N2
According to MOT
[4]
[3]
the process N2 (g) N 2 (g) + e is more endothermic than the process O2(g) O 2 (g) + e
because
(A) N has half filled electronic configuration which is more stable.
(B) Nitrogen is less electronegative than oxygen.
(C) Electron is removed from anti bonding molecular orbital in N2 where as electron is removed from
bonding molecular orbital in O2.
(D*) Electron is removed from bonding molecular orbital in N2 where electron is removed from antibonding
molecular orbital in O2.
Q.10
[3]
Column I
(A)
O2 O 2
Column II
(P)
[8]
(B)
N2 N 2
(Q)
(C)
C2 C 2
(R)
(D)
NO NO+
(S)
ASSIGNMENT-14
Q.1
[3]
(B) F2C = C = C = CF2
(D) F2C = C = CF2
Q.2
Find out the incorrect order of the dipole moment among the following pair of compound
(A) NH3 > NF3
(B*) p-nitrophenol < o-nitrophenol
(C) CH3Cl > CH2Cl2
(D) SiF4 < SF4
Q.3
For the molecule MA2Ln (where A is number of single bonded surrounding atoms, L indicates lone pair
and n is the number of lone pair and M is the central atom of s or p block element). the possible
range of n is
[3]
(A) 1 to 4
(B) zero to 4
(C) 1 to 3
(D*) 0 to 3
Q.4
Q.5
[3]
[3]
(D) Three
[3]
(C*) XeF4
(D) FCN
Q.6
Q.7
Statement-1 :
Statement-2 :
Q.8
Statement-1 :P O bond length in POCl3 is 1.45 whereas the sum of single bond
[3]
covalent radii of phosphorus and oxygen is 1.83 .
Statement-2 : p d bond is present in P O bond.
(A*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.9
Statement-1 :
Allene is a non polar molecule.
[3]
Statement-2 :
Allene is non planar molecule.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.10
Column-I
Column-II
(A)
2 lone pair
(P)
XeF5
(B)
(Q)
NF3
(C)
Planar
(R)
ICl3
(D)
(S)
XeF4
[10]
Q.12
Which of the following molecule will have the highest boiling point (in bracket D of the molecule is given)
(A) Dimethyl ether (1.3)
(B) Propane (0.0)
[3]
(C*) Methyl cyanide (3.9)
(D) Acetaldehyde (2.7)
Q.13
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
ListI
ListII
(a) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
1.
Bond angle
(b) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
2.
melting and boiling point
(c) H2O >> H2S < H2Se < H2Te
3.
acidic strength
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(A)
1
3
2
(B)
3
2
1
(C*) 3
1
2
(D)
2
3
1
Q.14
Which of the following pair of molecule have same shape but different in polarity (Polar or nonpolar)
(A) H2O & NH3
(B) SnCl2 & SO2
(C*) CO2 & N2O
(D) SO2 & SO3
[3]
Q.15
Statement-1 :
The dipole moment of O2F2 is not zero.
[3]
Statement-2 :
All atoms are lying in the same plane.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
[5]
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-15
Q.1
Q.2
Boiling point of o-Nitrophenol is less than meta and para nitrophenol. Why?
Q.3
Q.4
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
o-Hydroxy benzaldehyde is a liquid at room temperature while p-hydroxy benzaldehyde is a high melting
solid.
Q.13
Q.14
CH4 and H2O have nearly same molecular weight. Yet CH4 has a boiling point 112 K and water 373 K.
Explain.
Q.15
The experimental molecular weight of acetic acid in just double than theoretical molecular weight of
acetic acid. Why?
Q.16
Although chlorine has same electronegativity as nitrogen but the former does not form effective H-bonding.
Explain.
Q.17
Molar entropy change of vapourization of acetic acid is less than that of water. Explain
Q.18
Heat of vapourization of water is higher than HF, however strength of H-bond in HF is higher than water.
Explain
Q.19
Statement-1 :
Statement-2 :
The OH bond polarity is more compared to that of NH bond.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.20
Q.21
ASSIGNMENT-18
Q.1
Q.2
Which of the following names is/are correct for the compound Na[CoCl2(NO2)(-C3H5) (NH3)2]
(A*) Sodium allyldiamminedichloridonitrito-N-cobaltate (III)
[3]
(B) Sodium diamminedichloridoallylnitrito-N-cobaltate (III)
(C*) Sodium diamminedichloridocyclopropylnitrito-N-cobaltate (III)
(D) Sodium diamminecyclopropylnitrito-N-dichloridocobaltate (III)
Q.3
Cl3(NH3) Pt
OH
[3]
[3]
2+
Pt(NH3)3Cl
is/are
OH
(A*) Di--hydroxido bis {diamminedichloridoplatinum (IV)} ion
(B) Bis{-hydroxidodiamminedichloridoplatinate (IV)} ion
(C*) Tetrachloridoplatinum (IV) di--hydroxidotetraammineplatinum (IV) ion
(D*) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (IV) di--hydroxidodiamminedichloridoplatinum (IV) ion
Q.4
Q.5
Statement-1 :
Statement-2 :
Q.6
Statement-1 :
[V(CO)6] can not act as oxidising agent.
[3]
Statement-2 :
It can not be reduced by reducing agent.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is false.
[3]
In Zeise's salt C C bond order regarding ethylene molecule is less than two.
Ethylene accepts electron pair from filled d-orbital of Pt2+ into its vacant bonding
M.O.
[3]
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.11
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
Column I
K3[Fe(CN)5 (CO)]
K[PtCl3(C2H4)]
Na[Co(CO)4]
V(CO)6
(P)
(Q)
(R)
(S)
Column II
[12]
complex having lowest bond length of CO ligand
follow Sidgwick's rule of EAN
complex involved in synergic bonding
complex having highest bond length of CO ligand
[Ans. (A) P, Q, R; (B) R; (C) Q, R, S; (D) R]
[10]
ASSIGNMENT-19
[3]
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
[3]
Q.4
(C) Mn2(CO)10
(D) Fe2(CO)9
[3]
*
Q.5
[3]
Q.6
[3]
Q.7
Q.8
[3]
(IV) PtCl45NH3
(D) 404, 97, 256, 0
Q.9
Q.10
Statement-1 :
In Mn2(CO)10 molecule, there are total 70 electrons in both Mn atoms. [3]
Statement-2 :
Mn2(CO)10 molecule acts as oxidising agent.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Paragraph for question nos. 10 to 12
Complex compounds which have same molecular formula but have different structural arrangements of
ligands around central metal atom or ion are called structural isomers and phenomenon is named as
structural isomerism.
[9]
Which of the following compounds is/are polymerisation isomer of [Fe(NO2)3(NH3)3].
(I) [Fe(NO2)(NH3)5] [Fe(NO2)5(NH3)]
(II) [Fe(NO2)2(NH3)4]2 [Fe(NO2)5(NH3)]
(III) [Fe(NO2)(NH3)5] [Fe(NO2)4(NH3)2]2 (IV) [Fe(NO2)2(NH3)4] [Fe(NO2)4(NH3)2]
Choose the correct code :
(A) II, III
(B) II, III, IV
(C) I, IV
(D*) I, II, III, IV
Q.11
How many more coordination isomers are possible of the following complex compound.
[PtCl2 (NH3)4] [Pt (SCN)4]
(A)
5
(B)
6
(C*) 8
(D)
9
Q.12
ASSIGNMENT-20
Q.1
[3]
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
How many geometrical isomers are possible for [Pd2+ (NH2CH(CH3) CO 2 )2]o
[3]
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C*) 4
(D) 6
Q.4
[3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.6
[3]
Q.7
If excess of AgNO3 solution is added to 100 mL of a 0.024 M solution of dichlorobis (ethylene diamine)
cobalt (III) chloride, how many mol of AgCl be precipitated:
[3]
(A) 0.0012
(B) 0.0016
(C*) 0.0024
(D) 0.0048
Q.8
[3]
Q.9
[3]
Q.10
[3]
Q.11
The total possible co-ordination isomers for the following compounds respectively are
[Co(en)3] [Cr(C2O4)3]
[Cu(NH3)4] [CuCl4]
[Ni(en)3] [Co(NO2)6]
(A) 4, 4, 4
(B) 2, 2, 2
(C) 2, 2, 4
(D*) 4, 2, 4
Q.12
(P)
(Q)
(R)
(S)
[3]
[12]
Column II
(Type of isomerism shown)
Ionization isomerism
Linkage isomerism
Geometrical isomerism
Optical isomerism
[Ans. (A) Q,R,S (B) P,R (C) Q,R (D) R,S]
ASSIGNMENT-21
Q.1
[3]
(D*) both (A) and (C)
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
[3]
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
For which of the following dn configuration of octahedral complex (es), can not exist in both high spin
and low spin forms.
[3]
3
5
6
8
(I) d
(II) d
(III) d
(IV) d
(A) II & III
(B) I & III
(C*) I & IV
(D) III & IV
Q.8
[3]
(C) cis-[CoCl2(en)2]+ (D*) trans-[CoCl2(en)2]+
[3]
COMPREHENSION
When a transition metal ion (usually) is involved in octahedral complex formation, the five degenerate
d-orbitals split into two set of degenerate orbitals (3 + 2). Three degenerate orbitals of lower energy
(dxy, dyz, dzx) and a set of degenerate orbitals of higher energy (d 2 2 and d 2 ) . The orbitals with
x y
lower energy are called t2g orbitals and those with higher energy are called eg orbitals.
In octahedral complexes, positive metal ion may be considered to be present at the centre and negative
ligands at the corner of a regular octahedron. As lobes of d 2 2 and d z2 lie along the axes, i.e., along
x y
Q.9
Q.10
the ligands the repulsions are more and so high is the energy. The lobes of the remaining three d-orbitals
lie between the axes i.e., between the ligands. The repulsion between them are less, so lesser the energy.
In the octahedral complexes, if metal ion has electrons more than 3 then for pairing them, the options are
(i)
Pairing may start with 4th electron in t2g orbitals.
(ii)
Pairing may start normally with 6th electrons when t2g and eg orbitals are singly filled.
In which of the following configurations, hybridisation and magnetic moment of octahedral complexes
are independent of nature of ligands.
[9]
3
(I)
d configuration of any metal cation
(II)
d6 configuration of IIIrd transition series metal cation
(III) d8 configuration of Ist transition series metal cation
(IV) d7 configuration of any metal cation
Select the correct code:
(A) III, IV
(B) I, III, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D*) I, II, III
Which of the following electronic arrangement is / are possible for inner orbital oct complex.
(I) t 32g e g2
Q.11
(III) t 32g e 0g
(IV) t 42g e g2
(D) III, IV
Q.12
( > P)
( < P)
2
(D) [PdCl 2 (SCN ) 2 ]
( > P)
Column-I
Column II
[12]
(A)
[Ma2bcde]n
(P)
3 optically inactive isomers
(B)
[Ma2b2c2]n
(Q)
4 geometrical isomers
(C)
[Ma3bcd]n
(R)
6 stereo(space)isomers
n
(D)
[M(AB)c2d2]
(S)
2 optically active isomers
(where AB Unsym. bidentate ligand, a,b,c,d & e monodentate ligands)
[Ans. (A) P ; (B) R,S ; (C) P, Q,S ; (D) Q, R]
ASSIGNMENT-22
[3]
(D) [Fe(CN)6
]3
Q.2
In nitroprusside ion the iron and NO exist as FeII and NO+ rather than FeIII and NO. These forms can
be differentiated by
[3]
(A) estimating the concentration of iron
(B) measuring the concentration of CN
(C*) measuring the solid state magnetic moment (D) thermally decomposing the compound
Q.3
Q.4
Of the following complex ions, the one that probably has the largest overall formation constant, Kf , is
(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(B) [Co(H2O)6]3+
[3]
3+
3+
(C) [Co(H2O)4(NH3)2]
(D*) [Co(en)3]
Q.5
[3]
Q.6
The number of unpaired electrons expected for the complex ion [Cr(NH3)6]2+ is:
(A*) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
[3]
Q.7
The CFSE for [CoCl6]4 complex is 18000 cm1. The for [CoCl4]2 will be:
(A) 18000 cm1
(B) 16000 cm1
(C*) 8000 cm1
(D) 2000 cm1
[3]
[3]
[4]
(B*) Strong ligand like CN and NO 2 , generally form high spin complexes.
(C) [FeF6]3 is high spin complex.
(D*) [Ni(CO)4] is high spin complex
Q.9
[4]
[12]
Subjective
Q.12 Explain the following with appropriate reasons :
[10]
2+
(a)
All octahedral complexes of Ni ion must be outer orbital complexes.
(b)
[Co(NH3)6]2+ and [Co(NO2)6]4 ions are easily oxidisable
(c)
4-coordinated complexes of Pd(II) and Pt(II) are diamagnetic square planar
(d)
Tetrahedral complexes do not show geometrical isomerism while square planar complexes do show this
kind of isomerism.
(e)
[Cu(NH3)4]2+ is coloured while [Cu(CN)4]3 is colour less.
ASSIGNMENT-23
The correct order of energies of d-orbitals of metal ion in a square planar complex is
(A) dxy = dyz = dzx > d
(C) d
Q.3
[3]
x 2 y 2
> d
z2
x 2 y 2
= d
z2
(B) d
x 2 y 2
(D*) d
[3]
x 2 y 2
z2
[3]
Q.5
Aqueous solution of Ni2+ contains [Ni(H2O)6]2+ and its magnetic moment is 2.83 B.M.When ammonia
is added in it, comment on the magnetic moment of solution
[3]
(A*) It will remain same
(B) It increases from 2.83 B.M.
(C) It decreases from 2.83 B.M.
(D) It can not be predicted theoretically
Q.6
The complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ is formed in the brown ring test for nitrates when freshly prepared
FeSO4 solution is added to aq solution of NO3 followed by addition of conc.H2SO4. Select correct
statement about this complex:
(A) colour change is due to charge transfer
(B) it has iron in +1 oxidate state and nitrosyl as NO+
(C) it has magnetic moment of 3.87 B.M. confirming three unpaired electrons in Fe
(D*) all are correct statements
[3]
Assertion Reason
Q.7 Statement-1 : Hunds rule violates in [Co(CN)6]3 complex ion
[3]
Statement-2 : Degeneracy of d orbitals is lost under any field ligand.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D*) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.8
[4]
(C*) [CrCl2 (CN) 2 ( NH3 ) 2 ] and [CrCl3(NH3)3] both have d2sp3 hybridisation
(D*) As the number of rings in complex increases, stability of complex (chelate) also increases
Match the column:
Q.11
Column-I
Column-II
[12]
(Pair of complex compounds)
(Property which is different in given pair)
(A)
[Ni(CO)4] and K2[Ni(CN)4]
(P)
Magnetic moment
(B)
[Cu(NH3)4]SO4 and K3[Cu(CN)4]
(Q)
Oxidation no. of central metal
(C)
K2[NiCl4] and K4[Ni(CN)4]
(R)
Geometry
(D)
K2[NiCl4] and K2[PtCl4]
(S)
EAN of central metal
[Ans. (A) Q, R, S; (B) P, Q, R, S; (C) P, Q, S; (D) P, R, S]
Subjective:
Q.12 Explain the following with appropriate reasons :
[10]
(a)
NH2NH2 has two lone pairs. However, it does not act as chelating agent.
(b)
Cu(OH)2 is soluble in NH4OH where as it is insoluble in NaOH.
(c)
A blue coloured solution of [CoCl4]2 ion changes to pink on reaction with HgCl2.
(d)
What happens when [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is mixed with ethylenediamine in excess?
(e)
[Fe(CN)6]3 ion has magnetic moment 1.73 BM, while [Fe(H2O)6]3+ has a magnetic moment 5.92 BM.
ASSIGNMENT-24
OXIDE ORE:
* ZnO
Zincite
(1)
* Fe2O3
Haematite
CaCO3
Lime stone
* Fe3O4
Magnetite
MgCO3
Magnesite
* Al2O32H2O
Bauxite
CaCO3MgCO3
Dolomite
* Fe2O33H2O
Limonite
* FeCO3
Siderite
* Cu2O
Calamine
Pyrolusite
* ZnCO3
MnO2
SnO2
Tinstone or Casseterite
TiO2
Rutile
Cu(OH)22CuCO3 Azurite
FeCr2 O4
CARBONATE ORE:
Colemanite
U3O8
Pitch Blende
FeO.TiO2
Ilmenite
SULPHURISED ORE:
(2)
Cerrusite
SULPHATE ORE:
CaSO4 2H2 O
Gypsum
MgSO47H2O
Epsom Salt
PbSO4
Anglesite
* PbS
Galena
BaSO4
Baryte
HgS
Cinnabar
Na2 SO410H2 O
Glauber Salt
* ZnS
Zinc blende/sphalerite
* Cu2S
Copper glance/Chalcocite
(3)
CuFeS2
KNO 3
* FeS2
NaNO3
Ag2S
HALIDE ORE:
NaCl
Rock Salt
KCl
Sylvine
CaF2
Fluorspar
Na3AlF6
Cryolite
AgCl
Horn Silver
KClMgCl26H2O Carnalite
NITRATE ORE:
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
ALLOYS
1.
COMPOSITION
Al : 98%, Mg : 2%
USES
For making balance
2.
Duralumin
3.
Aluminium bronze
Al: 95%, Cu : 4 %
Mg : 0.5 %, Mn : 0.5%
Al :10%, Cu : 90 %
4.
Almica
5.
-Alloy
6.
Nickeloy
Al : 20%, Ni : 20 %
Co: 10%, Steel : 50%
Al : 92%, Cu : 4%
Mg : 1.5 %, Ni : 2.5 %
Al : 95%, Cu : 4 %, Ni : 1%
7.
Pewter
Pb : 20, Sn : 80
Utensils
8.
Solder
Pb : 50, Sn : 50
Soldering
9.
Type metal
Pb : 75, Sn : 5, Sb:20
Printing type
10.
Bell metal
Cu : 80, Sn : 20
Bells making
11.
Babbit metal
Sn : 90, Sb : 7, Cu : 3
Bearing of machinary
12.
Frary metal
Bearing of machine
13.
Printing type
14.
Brass
Cu:70%, Zn:30%
15.
Bronze
16.
Monel metal
17.
German silver
18.
Electron
19.
Dutch metal
20
Nichrome
Ni, Cr, Fe
21.
Gun Metal
22.
Alnico
Al, Ni, Co
23.
Con Stantan
Cu : 60% , Ni : 40%
24.
Artifical Gold
Cu : 90%, Al : 10%
25.
14 Carat Gold
26.
24 Carat Gold
100% Au
ALLOY OF STEEL
1.
Vanadium
V : 0.2-1%
2.
Chromium
Cr : 2- 4%
3.
Nickel
Ni : 3-5%
4.
Manganese steel
Mn : 10-18%
5.
Stainless steel
6.
Tunguston
W : 10-20%
7.
Invar
Ni : 36%
ASSIGNMENT-25
Q.1
Q.2
SnO2 is reduced to metallic Sn on smelting oxide with anthracite, limestone and sand. In this, function of
sand is :
[3]
(A) It acts as a flux
(B) It removes basic impurities as slag
(C*) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
Layer X
cool
and zinc
(Ag + Pb) alloy melt
(Ag + Pb + Zn) melt
is added
Layer Y
[3]
G(kJ/mol)
Q.3
Q.4
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
900
1000
1100
1200
2C +
g
2M
O2
+O 2
[3]
2C O
2M
gO
T1
T2
T3
Temperature
[3]
200
+O 2
n
Z
2
2C+O
2
2CO
400
600
800
1000
[12]
2Zn
b.p.
m.p.
O2 2
2Mg+
MgO
m.p.
b.p.
Q.5
Q.6
2000
500
1000
1500
Temperature, C
The points noted by arrows are the melting and boiling points of the metals zinc and magnesium. G as
a function of temperature for some reactions of extractive metallurgy.
At what approximate temperature, zinc and carbon have equal affinity for oxygen?
(A*) 1000C
(B) 1500C
(C) 500C
(D) 1200C
(C*) zero
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is false.
(i)
Cu metal is extracted from its sulphide ore by reduction of Cu2O with FeS.
[3]
(ii)
An ore of Tin containing FeCrO4 is concentrated by magnetic separation method.
(iii)
Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of Cu & Hg.
(iv)
Cassiterite and Rutile are oxide ores of the metals.
(A) TFTT
(B) TTFT
(C*) FTTT
(D) FFFT
Q.10
Q.11
During the process of electrorefining of copper some metals present as impurity settle as anode mud.
These are:
[3]
(A) Sn and Ag
(B) Pb and Zn
(C*) Ag and Au
(D) Fe and Ni
Q.12
[3]
[3]
(D*) Calcined gypsum
Q.13
The most common elements present in the crust of the Earth are:
(A*) oxygen, silicon, aluminium
(B) oxygen, iron, magnesium
(C) silicon, iron, potassium
(D) oxygen, iron, silicon
[3]
Q.14
Extraction of silver from its ore involving NaCN, air and an active metal is known as:
(A) Pattinsons method
(B) Amalgamation method
(C*) Mc Arthur-forest method
(D) Parkes method
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-26
Q.1
Reduction of a metal oxide by excess carbon at high temperature is a method for the commercial preparation
of some metals. This method can be successfully applied in the case of
[3]
(A) BeO and Al2O3
(B*) ZnO and Fe2O3
(C) CaO and Cr2O3
(D) BaO and U3O8
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
[3]
Q.4
[3]
(C*) Fe and Cr
(D) C and Pt
[6]
Q.6
Q.7
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
ListI (Metals)
ListII (Ores)
(a)
Tin
1.
Calamine
(b)
Zinc
2.
Cassiterite
(c)
Titanium
3.
Cerrusite
(d)
Lead
4.
Rutile
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
1
2
3
4
(B*) 2
1
4
3
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
2
1
3
4
Q.8
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below .
Column-I (Metals)
Column-II (Method used for refining)
(i)
Iron & copper
(P)
Poling
[3]
(ii)
Zirconium & Titanium
(Q)
Bessemerisation
(iii)
Lead & Tin
(R)
Van-Arkel
(iv)
Copper & Tin
(S)
Liquation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
(i)
P
Q
P
Q
(ii)
S
S
R
R
(iii)
R
R
S
S
(iv)
Q
P
Q
P
[3]
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide ores is an illustration of the practical application
of:
[3]
(A*) Adsorption
(B) Absorption
(C) Sedimentation
(D) Coagulation
Q.12
When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together, then NaCN is added to separate them in the froth
floatation process as a depressant, because
[3]
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
(B*) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]
(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
(D) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN.
Q.13
When the sample of Cu with Zn impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are:
Cathode
Anode
[3]
(A)
Pure Zn
Pure Cu
(B)
Impure sample
Pure Cu
(C)
Impure Zn
Impure sample
(D*) Pure copper
Impure sample
Q.14
Match List-I (Metal) with List-II (Process of Extraction) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
[3]
List-I (Metal)
List-II (Process of Extraction)
(a)
Aluminium
(1)
Blast furance
(b)
Iron
(2)
Mond process
(c)
Nickel
(3)
Bayer process
(d)
Copper
(4)
Cyanide process
(5)
Froth floatation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
5
4
1
(B*) 3
1
2
5
(C)
2
1
4
5
(D)
3
5
2
1
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-27
Q.1
[3]
(C*) Ag
(D) Ag2C2
Q.2
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Q.3
A solution of Na2SO4 in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at cathode and anode
are respectively
[3]
(A) O2 ; H2
(B) O2 ; Na
(C*) H2 ; O2
(D) O2 ; SO2
Q.4
If impurity in a metal has a greater affinity for oxygen, then the purification of metal may be carried out by
(A) Liquation
(B) Distillation
(C) Zone Refining
(D*) Cupellation
[3]
Q.5
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
[3]
(i)
In Gold Schmidt thermite process aluminium acts as a reducing agent.
(ii)
Mg is extracted by electrolysis of aq. solution MgCl2.
(iii)
Extraction of Pb is possible by smelting.
(iv)
Red Bauxite is purified by Serpeck's process.
(A) TTTF
(B) TFFT
(C) FTTT
(D*) TFTF
Q.6
Among the following groups of oxides, the group containing oxides that cannot be reduced by C to give
the respective metal is
[3]
(A*) CaO and K2O (B) Fe2O3 and ZnO (C) Cu2O and SnO2 (D) PbO and Pb3O4
Q.7
In the cyanide process for extraction of gold and silver from ores, the cyanide solution acts as a [3]
(A) reducing agent to reduce the gold and silver compounds present in the ores into the metallic states
(B*) leaching agent to bring the gold and silver into solution as cyanide complexes and thus separate
these metals from the ores
(C) leaching agent to dissolve all the other constituents of the ores leaving the gold and silver as metals
(D) leaching agent to bring the ores into solution.
Q.8
[3]
Q.9
[3]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Copper
Uranium
Thorium
Aluminium
(B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(D*) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
Q.10
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Ore)
List-II (Metal)
(1)
Carnallite
(P)
Zinc
(2)
Calamine
(Q)
Titanium
(3)
IImenite
(R)
Magnesium
(4)
Chalcopyrite
(S)
Copper
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A)
P
R
Q
S
(B)
P
R
S
Q
(C)
R
P
S
Q
(D*) R
P
Q
S
[3]
Q.11
Q.12
Q.13
What products are formed during, the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl? [4]
(A*) Cl2 (g)
(B*) NaOH (aq)
(C*) H2 (g)
(D) None
Q.14
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Column-I (Ore)
Ilmenite
Dolomite
Carnalite
Chromite
ASSIGNMENT-25
Q.1
Q.2
SnO2 is reduced to metallic Sn on smelting oxide with anthracite, limestone and sand. In this, function of
sand is :
[3]
(A) It acts as a flux
(B) It removes basic impurities as slag
(C*) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
Layer X
cool
and zinc
(Ag + Pb) alloy melt
(Ag + Pb + Zn) melt
is added
Layer Y
[3]
G(kJ/mol)
Q.3
Q.4
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
900
1000
1100
1200
2C +
g
2M
O2
+O 2
[3]
2C O
2M
gO
T1
T2
T3
Temperature
[3]
200
+O 2
n
Z
2
2C+O
2
2CO
400
600
800
1000
[12]
2Zn
b.p.
m.p.
O2 2
2Mg+
MgO
m.p.
b.p.
Q.5
Q.6
2000
500
1000
1500
Temperature, C
The points noted by arrows are the melting and boiling points of the metals zinc and magnesium. G as
a function of temperature for some reactions of extractive metallurgy.
At what approximate temperature, zinc and carbon have equal affinity for oxygen?
(A*) 1000C
(B) 1500C
(C) 500C
(D) 1200C
(C*) zero
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is false.
(i)
Cu metal is extracted from its sulphide ore by reduction of Cu2O with FeS.
[3]
(ii)
An ore of Tin containing FeCrO4 is concentrated by magnetic separation method.
(iii)
Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of Cu & Hg.
(iv)
Cassiterite and Rutile are oxide ores of the metals.
(A) TFTT
(B) TTFT
(C*) FTTT
(D) FFFT
Q.10
Q.11
During the process of electrorefining of copper some metals present as impurity settle as anode mud.
These are:
[3]
(A) Sn and Ag
(B) Pb and Zn
(C*) Ag and Au
(D) Fe and Ni
Q.12
[3]
[3]
(D*) Calcined gypsum
Q.13
The most common elements present in the crust of the Earth are:
(A*) oxygen, silicon, aluminium
(B) oxygen, iron, magnesium
(C) silicon, iron, potassium
(D) oxygen, iron, silicon
[3]
Q.14
Extraction of silver from its ore involving NaCN, air and an active metal is known as:
(A) Pattinsons method
(B) Amalgamation method
(C*) Mc Arthur-forest method
(D) Parkes method
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-26
Q.1
Reduction of a metal oxide by excess carbon at high temperature is a method for the commercial preparation
of some metals. This method can be successfully applied in the case of
[3]
(A) BeO and Al2O3
(B*) ZnO and Fe2O3
(C) CaO and Cr2O3
(D) BaO and U3O8
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
[3]
Q.4
[3]
(C*) Fe and Cr
(D) C and Pt
[6]
Q.6
Q.7
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
ListI (Metals)
ListII (Ores)
(a)
Tin
1.
Calamine
(b)
Zinc
2.
Cassiterite
(c)
Titanium
3.
Cerrusite
(d)
Lead
4.
Rutile
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
1
2
3
4
(B*) 2
1
4
3
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
2
1
3
4
Q.8
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below .
Column-I (Metals)
Column-II (Method used for refining)
(i)
Iron & copper
(P)
Poling
[3]
(ii)
Zirconium & Titanium
(Q)
Bessemerisation
(iii)
Lead & Tin
(R)
Van-Arkel
(iv)
Copper & Tin
(S)
Liquation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
(i)
P
Q
P
Q
(ii)
S
S
R
R
(iii)
R
R
S
S
(iv)
Q
P
Q
P
[3]
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide ores is an illustration of the practical application
of:
[3]
(A*) Adsorption
(B) Absorption
(C) Sedimentation
(D) Coagulation
Q.12
When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together, then NaCN is added to separate them in the froth
floatation process as a depressant, because
[3]
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
(B*) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]
(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
(D) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN.
Q.13
When the sample of Cu with Zn impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are:
Cathode
Anode
[3]
(A)
Pure Zn
Pure Cu
(B)
Impure sample
Pure Cu
(C)
Impure Zn
Impure sample
(D*) Pure copper
Impure sample
Q.14
Match List-I (Metal) with List-II (Process of Extraction) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
[3]
List-I (Metal)
List-II (Process of Extraction)
(a)
Aluminium
(1)
Blast furance
(b)
Iron
(2)
Mond process
(c)
Nickel
(3)
Bayer process
(d)
Copper
(4)
Cyanide process
(5)
Froth floatation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
5
4
1
(B*) 3
1
2
5
(C)
2
1
4
5
(D)
3
5
2
1
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-27
Q.1
[3]
(C*) Ag
(D) Ag2C2
Q.2
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Q.3
A solution of Na2SO4 in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at cathode and anode
are respectively
[3]
(A) O2 ; H2
(B) O2 ; Na
(C*) H2 ; O2
(D) O2 ; SO2
Q.4
If impurity in a metal has a greater affinity for oxygen, then the purification of metal may be carried out by
(A) Liquation
(B) Distillation
(C) Zone Refining
(D*) Cupellation
[3]
Q.5
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
[3]
(i)
In Gold Schmidt thermite process aluminium acts as a reducing agent.
(ii)
Mg is extracted by electrolysis of aq. solution MgCl2.
(iii)
Extraction of Pb is possible by smelting.
(iv)
Red Bauxite is purified by Serpeck's process.
(A) TTTF
(B) TFFT
(C) FTTT
(D*) TFTF
Q.6
Among the following groups of oxides, the group containing oxides that cannot be reduced by C to give
the respective metal is
[3]
(A*) CaO and K2O (B) Fe2O3 and ZnO (C) Cu2O and SnO2 (D) PbO and Pb3O4
Q.7
In the cyanide process for extraction of gold and silver from ores, the cyanide solution acts as a [3]
(A) reducing agent to reduce the gold and silver compounds present in the ores into the metallic states
(B*) leaching agent to bring the gold and silver into solution as cyanide complexes and thus separate
these metals from the ores
(C) leaching agent to dissolve all the other constituents of the ores leaving the gold and silver as metals
(D) leaching agent to bring the ores into solution.
Q.8
[3]
Q.9
[3]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Copper
Uranium
Thorium
Aluminium
(B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(D*) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
Q.10
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Ore)
List-II (Metal)
(1)
Carnallite
(P)
Zinc
(2)
Calamine
(Q)
Titanium
(3)
IImenite
(R)
Magnesium
(4)
Chalcopyrite
(S)
Copper
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A)
P
R
Q
S
(B)
P
R
S
Q
(C)
R
P
S
Q
(D*) R
P
Q
S
[3]
Q.11
Q.12
Q.13
What products are formed during, the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl? [4]
(A*) Cl2 (g)
(B*) NaOH (aq)
(C*) H2 (g)
(D) None
Q.14
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Column-I (Ore)
Ilmenite
Dolomite
Carnalite
Chromite
ASSIGNMENT-25
Q.1
Q.2
SnO2 is reduced to metallic Sn on smelting oxide with anthracite, limestone and sand. In this, function of
sand is :
[3]
(A) It acts as a flux
(B) It removes basic impurities as slag
(C*) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
Layer X
cool
and zinc
(Ag + Pb) alloy melt
(Ag + Pb + Zn) melt
is added
Layer Y
[3]
G(kJ/mol)
Q.3
Q.4
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
900
1000
1100
1200
2C +
g
2M
O2
+O 2
[3]
2C O
2M
gO
T1
T2
T3
Temperature
[3]
200
+O 2
n
Z
2
2C+O
2
2CO
400
600
800
1000
[12]
2Zn
b.p.
m.p.
O2 2
2Mg+
MgO
m.p.
b.p.
Q.5
Q.6
2000
500
1000
1500
Temperature, C
The points noted by arrows are the melting and boiling points of the metals zinc and magnesium. G as
a function of temperature for some reactions of extractive metallurgy.
At what approximate temperature, zinc and carbon have equal affinity for oxygen?
(A*) 1000C
(B) 1500C
(C) 500C
(D) 1200C
(C*) zero
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is false.
(i)
Cu metal is extracted from its sulphide ore by reduction of Cu2O with FeS.
[3]
(ii)
An ore of Tin containing FeCrO4 is concentrated by magnetic separation method.
(iii)
Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of Cu & Hg.
(iv)
Cassiterite and Rutile are oxide ores of the metals.
(A) TFTT
(B) TTFT
(C*) FTTT
(D) FFFT
Q.10
Q.11
During the process of electrorefining of copper some metals present as impurity settle as anode mud.
These are:
[3]
(A) Sn and Ag
(B) Pb and Zn
(C*) Ag and Au
(D) Fe and Ni
Q.12
[3]
[3]
(D*) Calcined gypsum
Q.13
The most common elements present in the crust of the Earth are:
(A*) oxygen, silicon, aluminium
(B) oxygen, iron, magnesium
(C) silicon, iron, potassium
(D) oxygen, iron, silicon
[3]
Q.14
Extraction of silver from its ore involving NaCN, air and an active metal is known as:
(A) Pattinsons method
(B) Amalgamation method
(C*) Mc Arthur-forest method
(D) Parkes method
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-26
Q.1
Reduction of a metal oxide by excess carbon at high temperature is a method for the commercial preparation
of some metals. This method can be successfully applied in the case of
[3]
(A) BeO and Al2O3
(B*) ZnO and Fe2O3
(C) CaO and Cr2O3
(D) BaO and U3O8
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
[3]
Q.4
[3]
(C*) Fe and Cr
(D) C and Pt
[6]
Q.6
Q.7
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
ListI (Metals)
ListII (Ores)
(a)
Tin
1.
Calamine
(b)
Zinc
2.
Cassiterite
(c)
Titanium
3.
Cerrusite
(d)
Lead
4.
Rutile
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
1
2
3
4
(B*) 2
1
4
3
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
2
1
3
4
Q.8
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below .
Column-I (Metals)
Column-II (Method used for refining)
(i)
Iron & copper
(P)
Poling
[3]
(ii)
Zirconium & Titanium
(Q)
Bessemerisation
(iii)
Lead & Tin
(R)
Van-Arkel
(iv)
Copper & Tin
(S)
Liquation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
(i)
P
Q
P
Q
(ii)
S
S
R
R
(iii)
R
R
S
S
(iv)
Q
P
Q
P
[3]
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide ores is an illustration of the practical application
of:
[3]
(A*) Adsorption
(B) Absorption
(C) Sedimentation
(D) Coagulation
Q.12
When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together, then NaCN is added to separate them in the froth
floatation process as a depressant, because
[3]
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
(B*) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]
(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
(D) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN.
Q.13
When the sample of Cu with Zn impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are:
Cathode
Anode
[3]
(A)
Pure Zn
Pure Cu
(B)
Impure sample
Pure Cu
(C)
Impure Zn
Impure sample
(D*) Pure copper
Impure sample
Q.14
Match List-I (Metal) with List-II (Process of Extraction) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
[3]
List-I (Metal)
List-II (Process of Extraction)
(a)
Aluminium
(1)
Blast furance
(b)
Iron
(2)
Mond process
(c)
Nickel
(3)
Bayer process
(d)
Copper
(4)
Cyanide process
(5)
Froth floatation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
5
4
1
(B*) 3
1
2
5
(C)
2
1
4
5
(D)
3
5
2
1
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-27
Q.1
[3]
(C*) Ag
(D) Ag2C2
Q.2
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Q.3
A solution of Na2SO4 in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at cathode and anode
are respectively
[3]
(A) O2 ; H2
(B) O2 ; Na
(C*) H2 ; O2
(D) O2 ; SO2
Q.4
If impurity in a metal has a greater affinity for oxygen, then the purification of metal may be carried out by
(A) Liquation
(B) Distillation
(C) Zone Refining
(D*) Cupellation
[3]
Q.5
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
[3]
(i)
In Gold Schmidt thermite process aluminium acts as a reducing agent.
(ii)
Mg is extracted by electrolysis of aq. solution MgCl2.
(iii)
Extraction of Pb is possible by smelting.
(iv)
Red Bauxite is purified by Serpeck's process.
(A) TTTF
(B) TFFT
(C) FTTT
(D*) TFTF
Q.6
Among the following groups of oxides, the group containing oxides that cannot be reduced by C to give
the respective metal is
[3]
(A*) CaO and K2O (B) Fe2O3 and ZnO (C) Cu2O and SnO2 (D) PbO and Pb3O4
Q.7
In the cyanide process for extraction of gold and silver from ores, the cyanide solution acts as a [3]
(A) reducing agent to reduce the gold and silver compounds present in the ores into the metallic states
(B*) leaching agent to bring the gold and silver into solution as cyanide complexes and thus separate
these metals from the ores
(C) leaching agent to dissolve all the other constituents of the ores leaving the gold and silver as metals
(D) leaching agent to bring the ores into solution.
Q.8
[3]
Q.9
[3]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Copper
Uranium
Thorium
Aluminium
(B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(D*) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
Q.10
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Ore)
List-II (Metal)
(1)
Carnallite
(P)
Zinc
(2)
Calamine
(Q)
Titanium
(3)
IImenite
(R)
Magnesium
(4)
Chalcopyrite
(S)
Copper
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A)
P
R
Q
S
(B)
P
R
S
Q
(C)
R
P
S
Q
(D*) R
P
Q
S
[3]
Q.11
Q.12
Q.13
What products are formed during, the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl? [4]
(A*) Cl2 (g)
(B*) NaOH (aq)
(C*) H2 (g)
(D) None
Q.14
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Column-I (Ore)
Ilmenite
Dolomite
Carnalite
Chromite
ASSIGNMENT-25
Q.1
Q.2
SnO2 is reduced to metallic Sn on smelting oxide with anthracite, limestone and sand. In this, function of
sand is :
[3]
(A) It acts as a flux
(B) It removes basic impurities as slag
(C*) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
Layer X
cool
and zinc
(Ag + Pb) alloy melt
(Ag + Pb + Zn) melt
is added
Layer Y
[3]
G(kJ/mol)
Q.3
Q.4
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
900
1000
1100
1200
2C +
g
2M
O2
+O 2
[3]
2C O
2M
gO
T1
T2
T3
Temperature
[3]
200
+O 2
n
Z
2
2C+O
2
2CO
400
600
800
1000
[12]
2Zn
b.p.
m.p.
O2 2
2Mg+
MgO
m.p.
b.p.
Q.5
Q.6
2000
500
1000
1500
Temperature, C
The points noted by arrows are the melting and boiling points of the metals zinc and magnesium. G as
a function of temperature for some reactions of extractive metallurgy.
At what approximate temperature, zinc and carbon have equal affinity for oxygen?
(A*) 1000C
(B) 1500C
(C) 500C
(D) 1200C
(C*) zero
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is false.
(i)
Cu metal is extracted from its sulphide ore by reduction of Cu2O with FeS.
[3]
(ii)
An ore of Tin containing FeCrO4 is concentrated by magnetic separation method.
(iii)
Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of Cu & Hg.
(iv)
Cassiterite and Rutile are oxide ores of the metals.
(A) TFTT
(B) TTFT
(C*) FTTT
(D) FFFT
Q.10
Q.11
During the process of electrorefining of copper some metals present as impurity settle as anode mud.
These are:
[3]
(A) Sn and Ag
(B) Pb and Zn
(C*) Ag and Au
(D) Fe and Ni
Q.12
[3]
[3]
(D*) Calcined gypsum
Q.13
The most common elements present in the crust of the Earth are:
(A*) oxygen, silicon, aluminium
(B) oxygen, iron, magnesium
(C) silicon, iron, potassium
(D) oxygen, iron, silicon
[3]
Q.14
Extraction of silver from its ore involving NaCN, air and an active metal is known as:
(A) Pattinsons method
(B) Amalgamation method
(C*) Mc Arthur-forest method
(D) Parkes method
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-26
Q.1
Reduction of a metal oxide by excess carbon at high temperature is a method for the commercial preparation
of some metals. This method can be successfully applied in the case of
[3]
(A) BeO and Al2O3
(B*) ZnO and Fe2O3
(C) CaO and Cr2O3
(D) BaO and U3O8
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
[3]
Q.4
[3]
(C*) Fe and Cr
(D) C and Pt
[6]
Q.6
Q.7
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
ListI (Metals)
ListII (Ores)
(a)
Tin
1.
Calamine
(b)
Zinc
2.
Cassiterite
(c)
Titanium
3.
Cerrusite
(d)
Lead
4.
Rutile
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
1
2
3
4
(B*) 2
1
4
3
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
2
1
3
4
Q.8
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below .
Column-I (Metals)
Column-II (Method used for refining)
(i)
Iron & copper
(P)
Poling
[3]
(ii)
Zirconium & Titanium
(Q)
Bessemerisation
(iii)
Lead & Tin
(R)
Van-Arkel
(iv)
Copper & Tin
(S)
Liquation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
(i)
P
Q
P
Q
(ii)
S
S
R
R
(iii)
R
R
S
S
(iv)
Q
P
Q
P
[3]
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide ores is an illustration of the practical application
of:
[3]
(A*) Adsorption
(B) Absorption
(C) Sedimentation
(D) Coagulation
Q.12
When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together, then NaCN is added to separate them in the froth
floatation process as a depressant, because
[3]
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
(B*) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]
(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
(D) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN.
Q.13
When the sample of Cu with Zn impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are:
Cathode
Anode
[3]
(A)
Pure Zn
Pure Cu
(B)
Impure sample
Pure Cu
(C)
Impure Zn
Impure sample
(D*) Pure copper
Impure sample
Q.14
Match List-I (Metal) with List-II (Process of Extraction) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
[3]
List-I (Metal)
List-II (Process of Extraction)
(a)
Aluminium
(1)
Blast furance
(b)
Iron
(2)
Mond process
(c)
Nickel
(3)
Bayer process
(d)
Copper
(4)
Cyanide process
(5)
Froth floatation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
5
4
1
(B*) 3
1
2
5
(C)
2
1
4
5
(D)
3
5
2
1
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-27
Q.1
[3]
(C*) Ag
(D) Ag2C2
Q.2
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Q.3
A solution of Na2SO4 in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at cathode and anode
are respectively
[3]
(A) O2 ; H2
(B) O2 ; Na
(C*) H2 ; O2
(D) O2 ; SO2
Q.4
If impurity in a metal has a greater affinity for oxygen, then the purification of metal may be carried out by
(A) Liquation
(B) Distillation
(C) Zone Refining
(D*) Cupellation
[3]
Q.5
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
[3]
(i)
In Gold Schmidt thermite process aluminium acts as a reducing agent.
(ii)
Mg is extracted by electrolysis of aq. solution MgCl2.
(iii)
Extraction of Pb is possible by smelting.
(iv)
Red Bauxite is purified by Serpeck's process.
(A) TTTF
(B) TFFT
(C) FTTT
(D*) TFTF
Q.6
Among the following groups of oxides, the group containing oxides that cannot be reduced by C to give
the respective metal is
[3]
(A*) CaO and K2O (B) Fe2O3 and ZnO (C) Cu2O and SnO2 (D) PbO and Pb3O4
Q.7
In the cyanide process for extraction of gold and silver from ores, the cyanide solution acts as a [3]
(A) reducing agent to reduce the gold and silver compounds present in the ores into the metallic states
(B*) leaching agent to bring the gold and silver into solution as cyanide complexes and thus separate
these metals from the ores
(C) leaching agent to dissolve all the other constituents of the ores leaving the gold and silver as metals
(D) leaching agent to bring the ores into solution.
Q.8
[3]
Q.9
[3]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Copper
Uranium
Thorium
Aluminium
(B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(D*) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
Q.10
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Ore)
List-II (Metal)
(1)
Carnallite
(P)
Zinc
(2)
Calamine
(Q)
Titanium
(3)
IImenite
(R)
Magnesium
(4)
Chalcopyrite
(S)
Copper
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A)
P
R
Q
S
(B)
P
R
S
Q
(C)
R
P
S
Q
(D*) R
P
Q
S
[3]
Q.11
Q.12
Q.13
What products are formed during, the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl? [4]
(A*) Cl2 (g)
(B*) NaOH (aq)
(C*) H2 (g)
(D) None
Q.14
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Column-I (Ore)
Ilmenite
Dolomite
Carnalite
Chromite
ASSIGNMENT-25
Q.1
Q.2
SnO2 is reduced to metallic Sn on smelting oxide with anthracite, limestone and sand. In this, function of
sand is :
[3]
(A) It acts as a flux
(B) It removes basic impurities as slag
(C*) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
Layer X
cool
and zinc
(Ag + Pb) alloy melt
(Ag + Pb + Zn) melt
is added
Layer Y
[3]
G(kJ/mol)
Q.3
Q.4
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
900
1000
1100
1200
2C +
g
2M
O2
+O 2
[3]
2C O
2M
gO
T1
T2
T3
Temperature
[3]
200
+O 2
n
Z
2
2C+O
2
2CO
400
600
800
1000
[12]
2Zn
b.p.
m.p.
O2 2
2Mg+
MgO
m.p.
b.p.
Q.5
Q.6
2000
500
1000
1500
Temperature, C
The points noted by arrows are the melting and boiling points of the metals zinc and magnesium. G as
a function of temperature for some reactions of extractive metallurgy.
At what approximate temperature, zinc and carbon have equal affinity for oxygen?
(A*) 1000C
(B) 1500C
(C) 500C
(D) 1200C
(C*) zero
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is false.
(i)
Cu metal is extracted from its sulphide ore by reduction of Cu2O with FeS.
[3]
(ii)
An ore of Tin containing FeCrO4 is concentrated by magnetic separation method.
(iii)
Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of Cu & Hg.
(iv)
Cassiterite and Rutile are oxide ores of the metals.
(A) TFTT
(B) TTFT
(C*) FTTT
(D) FFFT
Q.10
Q.11
During the process of electrorefining of copper some metals present as impurity settle as anode mud.
These are:
[3]
(A) Sn and Ag
(B) Pb and Zn
(C*) Ag and Au
(D) Fe and Ni
Q.12
[3]
[3]
(D*) Calcined gypsum
Q.13
The most common elements present in the crust of the Earth are:
(A*) oxygen, silicon, aluminium
(B) oxygen, iron, magnesium
(C) silicon, iron, potassium
(D) oxygen, iron, silicon
[3]
Q.14
Extraction of silver from its ore involving NaCN, air and an active metal is known as:
(A) Pattinsons method
(B) Amalgamation method
(C*) Mc Arthur-forest method
(D) Parkes method
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-26
Q.1
Reduction of a metal oxide by excess carbon at high temperature is a method for the commercial preparation
of some metals. This method can be successfully applied in the case of
[3]
(A) BeO and Al2O3
(B*) ZnO and Fe2O3
(C) CaO and Cr2O3
(D) BaO and U3O8
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
[3]
Q.4
[3]
(C*) Fe and Cr
(D) C and Pt
[6]
Q.6
Q.7
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
ListI (Metals)
ListII (Ores)
(a)
Tin
1.
Calamine
(b)
Zinc
2.
Cassiterite
(c)
Titanium
3.
Cerrusite
(d)
Lead
4.
Rutile
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
1
2
3
4
(B*) 2
1
4
3
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
2
1
3
4
Q.8
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below .
Column-I (Metals)
Column-II (Method used for refining)
(i)
Iron & copper
(P)
Poling
[3]
(ii)
Zirconium & Titanium
(Q)
Bessemerisation
(iii)
Lead & Tin
(R)
Van-Arkel
(iv)
Copper & Tin
(S)
Liquation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
(i)
P
Q
P
Q
(ii)
S
S
R
R
(iii)
R
R
S
S
(iv)
Q
P
Q
P
[3]
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide ores is an illustration of the practical application
of:
[3]
(A*) Adsorption
(B) Absorption
(C) Sedimentation
(D) Coagulation
Q.12
When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together, then NaCN is added to separate them in the froth
floatation process as a depressant, because
[3]
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
(B*) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]
(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
(D) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN.
Q.13
When the sample of Cu with Zn impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are:
Cathode
Anode
[3]
(A)
Pure Zn
Pure Cu
(B)
Impure sample
Pure Cu
(C)
Impure Zn
Impure sample
(D*) Pure copper
Impure sample
Q.14
Match List-I (Metal) with List-II (Process of Extraction) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
[3]
List-I (Metal)
List-II (Process of Extraction)
(a)
Aluminium
(1)
Blast furance
(b)
Iron
(2)
Mond process
(c)
Nickel
(3)
Bayer process
(d)
Copper
(4)
Cyanide process
(5)
Froth floatation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
5
4
1
(B*) 3
1
2
5
(C)
2
1
4
5
(D)
3
5
2
1
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-27
Q.1
[3]
(C*) Ag
(D) Ag2C2
Q.2
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Q.3
A solution of Na2SO4 in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at cathode and anode
are respectively
[3]
(A) O2 ; H2
(B) O2 ; Na
(C*) H2 ; O2
(D) O2 ; SO2
Q.4
If impurity in a metal has a greater affinity for oxygen, then the purification of metal may be carried out by
(A) Liquation
(B) Distillation
(C) Zone Refining
(D*) Cupellation
[3]
Q.5
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
[3]
(i)
In Gold Schmidt thermite process aluminium acts as a reducing agent.
(ii)
Mg is extracted by electrolysis of aq. solution MgCl2.
(iii)
Extraction of Pb is possible by smelting.
(iv)
Red Bauxite is purified by Serpeck's process.
(A) TTTF
(B) TFFT
(C) FTTT
(D*) TFTF
Q.6
Among the following groups of oxides, the group containing oxides that cannot be reduced by C to give
the respective metal is
[3]
(A*) CaO and K2O (B) Fe2O3 and ZnO (C) Cu2O and SnO2 (D) PbO and Pb3O4
Q.7
In the cyanide process for extraction of gold and silver from ores, the cyanide solution acts as a [3]
(A) reducing agent to reduce the gold and silver compounds present in the ores into the metallic states
(B*) leaching agent to bring the gold and silver into solution as cyanide complexes and thus separate
these metals from the ores
(C) leaching agent to dissolve all the other constituents of the ores leaving the gold and silver as metals
(D) leaching agent to bring the ores into solution.
Q.8
[3]
Q.9
[3]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Copper
Uranium
Thorium
Aluminium
(B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(D*) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
Q.10
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Ore)
List-II (Metal)
(1)
Carnallite
(P)
Zinc
(2)
Calamine
(Q)
Titanium
(3)
IImenite
(R)
Magnesium
(4)
Chalcopyrite
(S)
Copper
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A)
P
R
Q
S
(B)
P
R
S
Q
(C)
R
P
S
Q
(D*) R
P
Q
S
[3]
Q.11
Q.12
Q.13
What products are formed during, the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl? [4]
(A*) Cl2 (g)
(B*) NaOH (aq)
(C*) H2 (g)
(D) None
Q.14
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Column-I (Ore)
Ilmenite
Dolomite
Carnalite
Chromite
ASSIGNMENT-25
Q.1
Q.2
SnO2 is reduced to metallic Sn on smelting oxide with anthracite, limestone and sand. In this, function of
sand is :
[3]
(A) It acts as a flux
(B) It removes basic impurities as slag
(C*) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
Layer X
cool
and zinc
(Ag + Pb) alloy melt
(Ag + Pb + Zn) melt
is added
Layer Y
[3]
G(kJ/mol)
Q.3
Q.4
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
900
1000
1100
1200
2C +
g
2M
O2
+O 2
[3]
2C O
2M
gO
T1
T2
T3
Temperature
[3]
200
+O 2
n
Z
2
2C+O
2
2CO
400
600
800
1000
[12]
2Zn
b.p.
m.p.
O2 2
2Mg+
MgO
m.p.
b.p.
Q.5
Q.6
2000
500
1000
1500
Temperature, C
The points noted by arrows are the melting and boiling points of the metals zinc and magnesium. G as
a function of temperature for some reactions of extractive metallurgy.
At what approximate temperature, zinc and carbon have equal affinity for oxygen?
(A*) 1000C
(B) 1500C
(C) 500C
(D) 1200C
(C*) zero
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is false.
(i)
Cu metal is extracted from its sulphide ore by reduction of Cu2O with FeS.
[3]
(ii)
An ore of Tin containing FeCrO4 is concentrated by magnetic separation method.
(iii)
Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of Cu & Hg.
(iv)
Cassiterite and Rutile are oxide ores of the metals.
(A) TFTT
(B) TTFT
(C*) FTTT
(D) FFFT
Q.10
Q.11
During the process of electrorefining of copper some metals present as impurity settle as anode mud.
These are:
[3]
(A) Sn and Ag
(B) Pb and Zn
(C*) Ag and Au
(D) Fe and Ni
Q.12
[3]
[3]
(D*) Calcined gypsum
Q.13
The most common elements present in the crust of the Earth are:
(A*) oxygen, silicon, aluminium
(B) oxygen, iron, magnesium
(C) silicon, iron, potassium
(D) oxygen, iron, silicon
[3]
Q.14
Extraction of silver from its ore involving NaCN, air and an active metal is known as:
(A) Pattinsons method
(B) Amalgamation method
(C*) Mc Arthur-forest method
(D) Parkes method
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-26
Q.1
Reduction of a metal oxide by excess carbon at high temperature is a method for the commercial preparation
of some metals. This method can be successfully applied in the case of
[3]
(A) BeO and Al2O3
(B*) ZnO and Fe2O3
(C) CaO and Cr2O3
(D) BaO and U3O8
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
[3]
Q.4
[3]
(C*) Fe and Cr
(D) C and Pt
[6]
Q.6
Q.7
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
ListI (Metals)
ListII (Ores)
(a)
Tin
1.
Calamine
(b)
Zinc
2.
Cassiterite
(c)
Titanium
3.
Cerrusite
(d)
Lead
4.
Rutile
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
1
2
3
4
(B*) 2
1
4
3
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
2
1
3
4
Q.8
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below .
Column-I (Metals)
Column-II (Method used for refining)
(i)
Iron & copper
(P)
Poling
[3]
(ii)
Zirconium & Titanium
(Q)
Bessemerisation
(iii)
Lead & Tin
(R)
Van-Arkel
(iv)
Copper & Tin
(S)
Liquation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
(i)
P
Q
P
Q
(ii)
S
S
R
R
(iii)
R
R
S
S
(iv)
Q
P
Q
P
[3]
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide ores is an illustration of the practical application
of:
[3]
(A*) Adsorption
(B) Absorption
(C) Sedimentation
(D) Coagulation
Q.12
When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together, then NaCN is added to separate them in the froth
floatation process as a depressant, because
[3]
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
(B*) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]
(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
(D) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN.
Q.13
When the sample of Cu with Zn impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are:
Cathode
Anode
[3]
(A)
Pure Zn
Pure Cu
(B)
Impure sample
Pure Cu
(C)
Impure Zn
Impure sample
(D*) Pure copper
Impure sample
Q.14
Match List-I (Metal) with List-II (Process of Extraction) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
[3]
List-I (Metal)
List-II (Process of Extraction)
(a)
Aluminium
(1)
Blast furance
(b)
Iron
(2)
Mond process
(c)
Nickel
(3)
Bayer process
(d)
Copper
(4)
Cyanide process
(5)
Froth floatation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
5
4
1
(B*) 3
1
2
5
(C)
2
1
4
5
(D)
3
5
2
1
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-27
Q.1
[3]
(C*) Ag
(D) Ag2C2
Q.2
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Q.3
A solution of Na2SO4 in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at cathode and anode
are respectively
[3]
(A) O2 ; H2
(B) O2 ; Na
(C*) H2 ; O2
(D) O2 ; SO2
Q.4
If impurity in a metal has a greater affinity for oxygen, then the purification of metal may be carried out by
(A) Liquation
(B) Distillation
(C) Zone Refining
(D*) Cupellation
[3]
Q.5
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
[3]
(i)
In Gold Schmidt thermite process aluminium acts as a reducing agent.
(ii)
Mg is extracted by electrolysis of aq. solution MgCl2.
(iii)
Extraction of Pb is possible by smelting.
(iv)
Red Bauxite is purified by Serpeck's process.
(A) TTTF
(B) TFFT
(C) FTTT
(D*) TFTF
Q.6
Among the following groups of oxides, the group containing oxides that cannot be reduced by C to give
the respective metal is
[3]
(A*) CaO and K2O (B) Fe2O3 and ZnO (C) Cu2O and SnO2 (D) PbO and Pb3O4
Q.7
In the cyanide process for extraction of gold and silver from ores, the cyanide solution acts as a [3]
(A) reducing agent to reduce the gold and silver compounds present in the ores into the metallic states
(B*) leaching agent to bring the gold and silver into solution as cyanide complexes and thus separate
these metals from the ores
(C) leaching agent to dissolve all the other constituents of the ores leaving the gold and silver as metals
(D) leaching agent to bring the ores into solution.
Q.8
[3]
Q.9
[3]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Copper
Uranium
Thorium
Aluminium
(B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(D*) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
Q.10
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Ore)
List-II (Metal)
(1)
Carnallite
(P)
Zinc
(2)
Calamine
(Q)
Titanium
(3)
IImenite
(R)
Magnesium
(4)
Chalcopyrite
(S)
Copper
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A)
P
R
Q
S
(B)
P
R
S
Q
(C)
R
P
S
Q
(D*) R
P
Q
S
[3]
Q.11
Q.12
Q.13
What products are formed during, the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl? [4]
(A*) Cl2 (g)
(B*) NaOH (aq)
(C*) H2 (g)
(D) None
Q.14
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Column-I (Ore)
Ilmenite
Dolomite
Carnalite
Chromite
ASSIGNMENT-25
Q.1
Q.2
SnO2 is reduced to metallic Sn on smelting oxide with anthracite, limestone and sand. In this, function of
sand is :
[3]
(A) It acts as a flux
(B) It removes basic impurities as slag
(C*) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
Layer X
cool
and zinc
(Ag + Pb) alloy melt
(Ag + Pb + Zn) melt
is added
Layer Y
[3]
G(kJ/mol)
Q.3
Q.4
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
900
1000
1100
1200
2C +
g
2M
O2
+O 2
[3]
2C O
2M
gO
T1
T2
T3
Temperature
[3]
200
+O 2
n
Z
2
2C+O
2
2CO
400
600
800
1000
[12]
2Zn
b.p.
m.p.
O2 2
2Mg+
MgO
m.p.
b.p.
Q.5
Q.6
2000
500
1000
1500
Temperature, C
The points noted by arrows are the melting and boiling points of the metals zinc and magnesium. G as
a function of temperature for some reactions of extractive metallurgy.
At what approximate temperature, zinc and carbon have equal affinity for oxygen?
(A*) 1000C
(B) 1500C
(C) 500C
(D) 1200C
(C*) zero
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is false.
(i)
Cu metal is extracted from its sulphide ore by reduction of Cu2O with FeS.
[3]
(ii)
An ore of Tin containing FeCrO4 is concentrated by magnetic separation method.
(iii)
Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of Cu & Hg.
(iv)
Cassiterite and Rutile are oxide ores of the metals.
(A) TFTT
(B) TTFT
(C*) FTTT
(D) FFFT
Q.10
Q.11
During the process of electrorefining of copper some metals present as impurity settle as anode mud.
These are:
[3]
(A) Sn and Ag
(B) Pb and Zn
(C*) Ag and Au
(D) Fe and Ni
Q.12
[3]
[3]
(D*) Calcined gypsum
Q.13
The most common elements present in the crust of the Earth are:
(A*) oxygen, silicon, aluminium
(B) oxygen, iron, magnesium
(C) silicon, iron, potassium
(D) oxygen, iron, silicon
[3]
Q.14
Extraction of silver from its ore involving NaCN, air and an active metal is known as:
(A) Pattinsons method
(B) Amalgamation method
(C*) Mc Arthur-forest method
(D) Parkes method
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-26
Q.1
Reduction of a metal oxide by excess carbon at high temperature is a method for the commercial preparation
of some metals. This method can be successfully applied in the case of
[3]
(A) BeO and Al2O3
(B*) ZnO and Fe2O3
(C) CaO and Cr2O3
(D) BaO and U3O8
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
[3]
Q.4
[3]
(C*) Fe and Cr
(D) C and Pt
[6]
Q.6
Q.7
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
ListI (Metals)
ListII (Ores)
(a)
Tin
1.
Calamine
(b)
Zinc
2.
Cassiterite
(c)
Titanium
3.
Cerrusite
(d)
Lead
4.
Rutile
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
1
2
3
4
(B*) 2
1
4
3
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
2
1
3
4
Q.8
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below .
Column-I (Metals)
Column-II (Method used for refining)
(i)
Iron & copper
(P)
Poling
[3]
(ii)
Zirconium & Titanium
(Q)
Bessemerisation
(iii)
Lead & Tin
(R)
Van-Arkel
(iv)
Copper & Tin
(S)
Liquation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
(i)
P
Q
P
Q
(ii)
S
S
R
R
(iii)
R
R
S
S
(iv)
Q
P
Q
P
[3]
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide ores is an illustration of the practical application
of:
[3]
(A*) Adsorption
(B) Absorption
(C) Sedimentation
(D) Coagulation
Q.12
When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together, then NaCN is added to separate them in the froth
floatation process as a depressant, because
[3]
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
(B*) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]
(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
(D) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN.
Q.13
When the sample of Cu with Zn impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are:
Cathode
Anode
[3]
(A)
Pure Zn
Pure Cu
(B)
Impure sample
Pure Cu
(C)
Impure Zn
Impure sample
(D*) Pure copper
Impure sample
Q.14
Match List-I (Metal) with List-II (Process of Extraction) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
[3]
List-I (Metal)
List-II (Process of Extraction)
(a)
Aluminium
(1)
Blast furance
(b)
Iron
(2)
Mond process
(c)
Nickel
(3)
Bayer process
(d)
Copper
(4)
Cyanide process
(5)
Froth floatation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
5
4
1
(B*) 3
1
2
5
(C)
2
1
4
5
(D)
3
5
2
1
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-27
Q.1
[3]
(C*) Ag
(D) Ag2C2
Q.2
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Q.3
A solution of Na2SO4 in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at cathode and anode
are respectively
[3]
(A) O2 ; H2
(B) O2 ; Na
(C*) H2 ; O2
(D) O2 ; SO2
Q.4
If impurity in a metal has a greater affinity for oxygen, then the purification of metal may be carried out by
(A) Liquation
(B) Distillation
(C) Zone Refining
(D*) Cupellation
[3]
Q.5
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
[3]
(i)
In Gold Schmidt thermite process aluminium acts as a reducing agent.
(ii)
Mg is extracted by electrolysis of aq. solution MgCl2.
(iii)
Extraction of Pb is possible by smelting.
(iv)
Red Bauxite is purified by Serpeck's process.
(A) TTTF
(B) TFFT
(C) FTTT
(D*) TFTF
Q.6
Among the following groups of oxides, the group containing oxides that cannot be reduced by C to give
the respective metal is
[3]
(A*) CaO and K2O (B) Fe2O3 and ZnO (C) Cu2O and SnO2 (D) PbO and Pb3O4
Q.7
In the cyanide process for extraction of gold and silver from ores, the cyanide solution acts as a [3]
(A) reducing agent to reduce the gold and silver compounds present in the ores into the metallic states
(B*) leaching agent to bring the gold and silver into solution as cyanide complexes and thus separate
these metals from the ores
(C) leaching agent to dissolve all the other constituents of the ores leaving the gold and silver as metals
(D) leaching agent to bring the ores into solution.
Q.8
[3]
Q.9
[3]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Copper
Uranium
Thorium
Aluminium
(B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(D*) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
Q.10
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Ore)
List-II (Metal)
(1)
Carnallite
(P)
Zinc
(2)
Calamine
(Q)
Titanium
(3)
IImenite
(R)
Magnesium
(4)
Chalcopyrite
(S)
Copper
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A)
P
R
Q
S
(B)
P
R
S
Q
(C)
R
P
S
Q
(D*) R
P
Q
S
[3]
Q.11
Q.12
Q.13
What products are formed during, the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl? [4]
(A*) Cl2 (g)
(B*) NaOH (aq)
(C*) H2 (g)
(D) None
Q.14
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Column-I (Ore)
Ilmenite
Dolomite
Carnalite
Chromite
ASSIGNMENT-25
Q.1
Q.2
SnO2 is reduced to metallic Sn on smelting oxide with anthracite, limestone and sand. In this, function of
sand is :
[3]
(A) It acts as a flux
(B) It removes basic impurities as slag
(C*) Both are correct
(D) None is correct
Layer X
cool
and zinc
(Ag + Pb) alloy melt
(Ag + Pb + Zn) melt
is added
Layer Y
[3]
G(kJ/mol)
Q.3
Q.4
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
900
1000
1100
1200
2C +
g
2M
O2
+O 2
[3]
2C O
2M
gO
T1
T2
T3
Temperature
[3]
200
+O 2
n
Z
2
2C+O
2
2CO
400
600
800
1000
[12]
2Zn
b.p.
m.p.
O2 2
2Mg+
MgO
m.p.
b.p.
Q.5
Q.6
2000
500
1000
1500
Temperature, C
The points noted by arrows are the melting and boiling points of the metals zinc and magnesium. G as
a function of temperature for some reactions of extractive metallurgy.
At what approximate temperature, zinc and carbon have equal affinity for oxygen?
(A*) 1000C
(B) 1500C
(C) 500C
(D) 1200C
(C*) zero
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is false.
(i)
Cu metal is extracted from its sulphide ore by reduction of Cu2O with FeS.
[3]
(ii)
An ore of Tin containing FeCrO4 is concentrated by magnetic separation method.
(iii)
Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of Cu & Hg.
(iv)
Cassiterite and Rutile are oxide ores of the metals.
(A) TFTT
(B) TTFT
(C*) FTTT
(D) FFFT
Q.10
Q.11
During the process of electrorefining of copper some metals present as impurity settle as anode mud.
These are:
[3]
(A) Sn and Ag
(B) Pb and Zn
(C*) Ag and Au
(D) Fe and Ni
Q.12
[3]
[3]
(D*) Calcined gypsum
Q.13
The most common elements present in the crust of the Earth are:
(A*) oxygen, silicon, aluminium
(B) oxygen, iron, magnesium
(C) silicon, iron, potassium
(D) oxygen, iron, silicon
[3]
Q.14
Extraction of silver from its ore involving NaCN, air and an active metal is known as:
(A) Pattinsons method
(B) Amalgamation method
(C*) Mc Arthur-forest method
(D) Parkes method
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-26
Q.1
Reduction of a metal oxide by excess carbon at high temperature is a method for the commercial preparation
of some metals. This method can be successfully applied in the case of
[3]
(A) BeO and Al2O3
(B*) ZnO and Fe2O3
(C) CaO and Cr2O3
(D) BaO and U3O8
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
[3]
Q.4
[3]
(C*) Fe and Cr
(D) C and Pt
[6]
Q.6
Q.7
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
ListI (Metals)
ListII (Ores)
(a)
Tin
1.
Calamine
(b)
Zinc
2.
Cassiterite
(c)
Titanium
3.
Cerrusite
(d)
Lead
4.
Rutile
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
1
2
3
4
(B*) 2
1
4
3
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
2
1
3
4
Q.8
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below .
Column-I (Metals)
Column-II (Method used for refining)
(i)
Iron & copper
(P)
Poling
[3]
(ii)
Zirconium & Titanium
(Q)
Bessemerisation
(iii)
Lead & Tin
(R)
Van-Arkel
(iv)
Copper & Tin
(S)
Liquation
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
(i)
P
Q
P
Q
(ii)
S
S
R
R
(iii)
R
R
S
S
(iv)
Q
P
Q
P
[3]
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Froth floatation process for the concentration of sulphide ores is an illustration of the practical application
of:
[3]
(A*) Adsorption
(B) Absorption
(C) Sedimentation
(D) Coagulation
Q.12
When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together, then NaCN is added to separate them in the froth
floatation process as a depressant, because
[3]
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
(B*) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]
(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
(D) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN.
Q.13
When the sample of Cu with Zn impurity is to be purified by electrolysis, the appropriate electrodes are:
Cathode
Anode
[3]
(A)
Pure Zn
Pure Cu
(B)
Impure sample
Pure Cu
(C)
Impure Zn
Impure sample
(D*) Pure copper
Impure sample
Q.14
Match List-I (Metal) with List-II (Process of Extraction) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
[3]
List-I (Metal)
List-II (Process of Extraction)
(a)
Aluminium
(1)
Blast furance
(b)
Iron
(2)
Mond process
(c)
Nickel
(3)
Bayer process
(d)
Copper
(4)
Cyanide process
(5)
Froth floatation
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
5
4
1
(B*) 3
1
2
5
(C)
2
1
4
5
(D)
3
5
2
1
[3]
ASSIGNMENT-27
Q.1
[3]
(C*) Ag
(D) Ag2C2
Q.2
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Q.3
A solution of Na2SO4 in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at cathode and anode
are respectively
[3]
(A) O2 ; H2
(B) O2 ; Na
(C*) H2 ; O2
(D) O2 ; SO2
Q.4
If impurity in a metal has a greater affinity for oxygen, then the purification of metal may be carried out by
(A) Liquation
(B) Distillation
(C) Zone Refining
(D*) Cupellation
[3]
Q.5
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
[3]
(i)
In Gold Schmidt thermite process aluminium acts as a reducing agent.
(ii)
Mg is extracted by electrolysis of aq. solution MgCl2.
(iii)
Extraction of Pb is possible by smelting.
(iv)
Red Bauxite is purified by Serpeck's process.
(A) TTTF
(B) TFFT
(C) FTTT
(D*) TFTF
Q.6
Among the following groups of oxides, the group containing oxides that cannot be reduced by C to give
the respective metal is
[3]
(A*) CaO and K2O (B) Fe2O3 and ZnO (C) Cu2O and SnO2 (D) PbO and Pb3O4
Q.7
In the cyanide process for extraction of gold and silver from ores, the cyanide solution acts as a [3]
(A) reducing agent to reduce the gold and silver compounds present in the ores into the metallic states
(B*) leaching agent to bring the gold and silver into solution as cyanide complexes and thus separate
these metals from the ores
(C) leaching agent to dissolve all the other constituents of the ores leaving the gold and silver as metals
(D) leaching agent to bring the ores into solution.
Q.8
[3]
Q.9
[3]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Copper
Uranium
Thorium
Aluminium
(B) I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
(D*) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
Q.10
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Ore)
List-II (Metal)
(1)
Carnallite
(P)
Zinc
(2)
Calamine
(Q)
Titanium
(3)
IImenite
(R)
Magnesium
(4)
Chalcopyrite
(S)
Copper
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A)
P
R
Q
S
(B)
P
R
S
Q
(C)
R
P
S
Q
(D*) R
P
Q
S
[3]
Q.11
Q.12
Q.13
What products are formed during, the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl? [4]
(A*) Cl2 (g)
(B*) NaOH (aq)
(C*) H2 (g)
(D) None
Q.14
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Column-I (Ore)
Ilmenite
Dolomite
Carnalite
Chromite
ASSIGNMENT-28
Anion
OCl , ClO 2 , ClO3 ,
Any
Solublility
All are soluble
Exception
(i) ClO 4 of K+, Rb+, Cs+
are insoluble.
(ii) AgNO2 is insoluble
(iii) CH3COOAg is
partially soluble.
ClO 4 , NO 2 , NO 3
CH3COO, HSO 3 ,
K+, Rb+,
Cs+ & NH 4
Na+
Any
HCO3 , HS
Any
Any
Cl , Br, I
Any
SO 42
Any
SO 32 , CO 32 ,
All are
insoluble
C 2 O 4 2 , PO 4 3 ,
O2 ,OH , F
Any
Any
CN, OCN,SCN,
S2
CrO 42 is similar to
All are
insoluble
Same as SO 42
SO 42
Any
MnO 41 is similar
to ClO 4
1.
2.
Same as ClO 4
Cu 22 are insoluble
(ii) PbCl2, CuBr2, Cu2I2
are soluble on warming
(iii) HgBr2 & HgI2
remain insoluble on
warming.
(i)Ba+2 ,Sr2+, Pb2+ are
insoluble
(ii) CaSO4, Ag2SO4 ,
SnSO4 & HgSO4 are
partially soluble
(i) BeF2 & AgF are
soluble
(ii) K+ to Cs+ & NH 4 are
soluble
(iii) O2 & OH of Sr 2
& Ba+2 are soluble
I group cation & II group
cation are soluble
Same as SO 42 but
SrCrO4 is soluble
NaMnO4, KMnO4 are
soluble
3.
4.
2
CO32 , OH, CrO 24 , PO 34 & SO 3 are found generally insoluble, leaving those of alkali metals and
ASSIGNMENT-29
NH2I
ASSIGNMENT-30
Q.3
Ag2CO3
A & B are
(A) dil. HNO3 and boiling in water respectively.
(B*) Direct heating and boiling in water respectively.
(C) dil. HNO3 and NH3 respectively.
(D) hot water and NH3 respectively.
Q.4
Q.5
II.
Bisulphite solution is neutral towards litmus paper and pH is 7
III.
Aq. suspension of Ag2CO3 and Ag2SO3 both produces Ag2O on heating
IV.
SO2 acts as reducing agent when passed through FeCl3 solution
(A) FFTT
(B) TFTT
(C*) TTFT
(D) FTFF
Q.6
Q.7
(D*) All
Which of the following pair of salt produces odourless gas with dil. H2SO4
(A) HCO 3 and HSO 3
Q.8
Q.9
(B) SO 32 solution
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
Q.13
Q.14
Q.15
[Ans. B]
[Ans. A]
Assertion : When HCO 3 and CO 32 ions are present together, CaCl2 is to be used in excess to
distinguished both
Reason : Excess amount of CaCl2 forms soluble complex with HCO 3 of the formula of
[Ca (HCO 3 )6 ]4
[Ans. C]
ASSIGNMENT-31
Which of the following salts will not produce any observable changes when H2S is passed through its
aqueous solution
(A) (CH3CO2)2Pb
(B*) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] (C) AgNO3
(D) none of these
Q.3
For the removal of I from a mixture of I + NO3 , AgNO3 can be used and then NO3 can be
tested
(A*) FTTF
(B) FTFT
(C) FFTF
(D) TTTF
Q.4
In the K2Cr2O7 solution when alkali solution of BaCl2 is added, the yellow ppt. obtained is of
(A) BaCr2O7
(B*) BaCrO4
(C) BaCrO42H2O
(D) none
Q.5
KI
conc . solution
Compound (A) is
(A) PbI2
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
NH Cl
(B) AgI
solution added
(made alk .)
(C*) HgI2
(D) Hg2I2
(X) KOH
(Y) (gas turns red litmus blue) +(Z) Zn
KOH
(Y) (gas)
(X)
gas (supports in combustion)
Identify (X) to (Z).
(A) X = NH4NO2
Y = NH3
Z = KNO2
(B) X = (NH4)2Cr2O7
Y = NH3
Z = Cr2O3
(C) X = (NH4)2SO4
Y = NH3
Z = K2SO4
(D*) X = NH4NO3
Y = NH3
Z = KNO3
The co-ordination number of central ion of the complex obtained in the Na-nitroprusite test of sulphide
ion is
(A) 5
(B*) 6
(C) 7
(D) 4
BeC2O4 and BaC2O4 are heated separately with bunsen burner. The solid residue obtained are
respectively
(A) BeO and BaO
(B*) BeO and BaCO3 (C) BeCO3 and BaO (D) BeCO3 and BaCO3
Q.9
Unknown salt 'A' + solid K2Cr2O7 + conc. H2SO4 Reddish brown fumes.
Which is the correct statement regarding the above observation
(A) It confirms the presence of Cl ion
(B) It confirms the presence of Br ion
(C) It confirms the presence of both
(D*) It neither confirms Cl nor Br unless it is passed through NaOH solution
Question No. 10 to 12 (3 questions)
Questions given below consist of two statements each printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R); while
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses:
(A) if both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) if both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(C) if (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) if (A) is false and (R) is true
Q.10
(A) NO3 and NO 2 both do not give brown fumes with dil. H2SO4
(R) Protonation of NO 2 is more easier compared to NO3 since NO3 is more stable by resonance
[Ans. D]
Q.11
Q.12
Q.13
[Ans. C]
[Ans. A]
Q.14
The compound formed in the above sequence (M) and (N) are respectively
(A) water soluble CaCO3 and water soluble Ca(HCO3)2
(B) water insoluble CaCO3 and water insoluble Ca(HCO3)2
(C*) water insoluble CaCO3 and water soluble Ca(HCO3)2
(D) water soluble CaCO3 and water insoluble Ca(HCO3)2
Q.15
ASSIGNMENT-32
Choose the correct option. (Only one option is correct):
Q.1
In the reaction sequence:
lead
Cl
O 2 so ln
CrCl3 NH
(B) acetate
NH 4OH
(A) Na2CrO4
Q.2
Q.5
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Q.6
Q.7
(D*) PbCrO4
(B) SO 24
(C*) NO3
(D) CO 32
A sodium salt on treatment with MgCl2 gives white precipitate only on heating. The anion of the sodium
salt is:
(A*) HCO 3
Q.4
(C) Cr(OH)3
Q.3
(B) Na2Cr2O7
(B) CO 32
(C) NO3
(D) SO 24
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
Cu+ undergoes disproportionation to Cu and Cu2+ in aq. solution
Hg2Cl2 does not impart chromyl chloride test
[Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ complex is highly unstable due to the presence of weak field ligand
Bond length of CO+ is greater than CO
(A) TFFT
(B) TTFT
(C) FTTF
(D*) TTFF
Fe2+ and Fe3+ can be distinguished by
(A) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(B) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(C) KSCN
CuO
B + C(g) + H O
2O
Mg3N2 H
A(gas)
2
(D*) All
(D) NH4Cl
Q.8
When K2Cr2O7 is treated with H2O2 in acidic medium, in presence and in absence of org. solvent. The
oxidation state of chromium finally:
(A) increases and decreases respectively
(B) decreases and increases respectively
(C*) retained same and decreases respectively (D) retained same in both cases.
Q.9
Which of the following acid radical does not produce white ppt with Pb(OAc)2 solution.
(A) Br
Q.10
(B) S2O32
(C) CO 32
(A) Phenolphthalein
Q.11
Q.12
Q.13
(D*) no ppt.
(B*) Violet
(C) Indigo
(D) Yellow
(IV) Hg2+
(D) I, III, IV only
Aq. solution of A
on
Solid A
anh. A
heating
Q.14
Q.15
A is
(A) K2S2O3
(B) CaS2O3
(C) PbS2O3
(D*) Na2S2O3
ASSIGNMENT-33
Na2S2O3. 5H2O is heated strongly to produce M and N and water. Both are consisting of S. Mention
the average oxidation state of 'S' in M and N respectively.
(A) 2, +5
Q.2
Q.3
(B) 2 ,+ 4
2
(C*) , +6
5
(D) 2, +6
A compound (X) on decomposition gives a colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in water to obtain
(Y). Excess CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of (Y) and (Z) is formed. (Z) are gentle heating
gives back (X). The (X) is
(A*) CaCO3
(B) Ca(HCO3)2
(C) NaHCO3
(D) Na2CO3
Na 2 C 2O 4 Solution
?
BaCO3(s) + AcOH
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
(C) 10 moles
(D) 5 moles
Blue compound Q is
(A) Co(BO2)2
(C) CoOAl2O3
(D) CoOMgO
(C*) Gas-H
(D) None
(D) None
(C) sp3
(D) dsp2
(B*) NaCoPO4
Q.8
Q.9
Q.10
Q.11
Q.12
(D) No hybridization
(R)
= 15 B.M.
(S)
NO+ ligand
[Ans. (A) P,Q,S, (B) Q,R,S, (C) P, (D) P,Q]
ASSIGNMENT-34
Q.1
Q.2
A (white substance)
swells up first strong
contracted into amorphous powder..
heating
A is
(A) Na2B4O7.10H2O
(C*) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
(B) Na2B4O7
(D) Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O
Q.3
Aqueous solution of A + AcOH + K2CrO4 yellow ppt. The above information is not correct for
which of the following cations:
(I) Pb+2
(II) Ba2+
(III) Ca2+
(IV) Sr2+
(A) I & III
(B) I, II & IV
(C) I, II
(D*) III, IV
Q.4
Calcium imide on hydrolysis will give gas (B) which on oxidation by bleaching powder gives gas (C) gas
(C) on reaction with magnesium give compound (D). (D) on hydrolysis gives again gas (B). (B), (C) and
(D) are
(A*) NH3, N2, Mg3N2
(B) N2, NH3, MgNH
(C) N2 , N2O5 , Mg(NO3)2
(D) NH3, NO2 , Mg(NO2)2
Q.5
(C) NaBO3
Q.6
Q.7
A reddish pink substance on heating gives off a vapour which condenses on the sides of the test tube and
the substance turns blue. It on cooling water is added to the residue it turns to its original colour. The
substance is
(A) Iodine crystals
(B) Copper sulphate crystals
(C*) Cobalt chloride crystals
(D) Zinc oxide
Q.8
Brown ppt. (A) dissolve in HNO3 gives (B) which gives white ppt (C) with NH4OH. (C) on reaction
with HCl gives solution (D) which gives white turbidity on addition of water. What is (D).
(A*) BiCl3
(B) Bi(OH)3
(C) BiOCl
(D) Bi(NO3)3
Q.9
When conc. H2SO4 was treated with K4[Fe(CN)6], CO gas was evolved. By mistake, somebody used
dilute H2SO4 instead of conc. H2SO4, then the gas evolved was
(A) CO
(B*) HCN
(C) N2
(D) CO2
Q.10
An inorganic Red colour compound (A) on heating, gives a compound (B) and a gas (C). (A) on
treatment with conc. HNO3, gives compound (D), brown colour substance (E) and a neutral oxide (F).
Compound (D) on warming gives off again gas (C). Then, (E) will be:
(A) Mn3O4
(B*) PbO2
(C) Pb3O4
(D) Fe2O3
Q.11
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
ASSIGNMENTS
ASSIGNMENT-1
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
Q.5
50 gm ethylamine reacts with 60 gm Na NO 2 & 30 gm HCl. Where N is N15 (isotope). After the
completion of reaction, gas is evolved. Then select correct option.
[3]
(A) Pure 10 gm N2 evolved out
(B) 10 gm of hybrid N2 evolved out
(C) 5 gm C2H5OH is formed
(D*) None of these
Which of the following mixtures can be regarded as buffer ?
[3]
(A) 500 ml of 0.2 M AcOH + 1000 ml 0.2 M NaOH
(B*) 500 ml of 0.2 M AcOH + 300 mL of 0.2 M NaOH
(C*) 0.2 M Na2B4O7 10H2O
(D) 500 ml of 0.2M AcOH + 500 ml 0.2 M NaOH
If the value of Kp for the reaction
[5]
2H2S(g)
2H2(g) + S2(g) is 50% of total pressure at equilibrium than show that degree of
dissociation of H2S will be less than 66.6% but more than 50%.
100 gm Ca2B6O11 is mixed with 50gm Na2CO3. The resultant is filtered and washed. The mother liquor
collected and CO2 gas is passed through it. Find out the total weight of sodium compound formed in the
solution.
[7]
[Ans. 71 gm ]
Separate the extensive and intensive variables enthalpy, refractive index, density, visocity, volume, pressure,
dipolemoment, heat capacity, elevation in BP, chemical potential universal gas constant R, molar volume,
vapor pressure.
[5]
[Ans. Intensive : ref index, density, visocity, pressure, dipole, elevation in boiling point chemical point, R,
molar vol, vapor pressure ]
Q.6
FeS2 on oxidation by air yields Fe2O3 and SO2. If the equivalent of oxygen used in the reaction is X than
how many equivalent of Fe2O3 and SO2 are formed after the reaction
[5]
[Ans. 10x/11 ]
Q.7
Certain amount of ion X reacts with cyclopentadiene in basic solution and forms complex Y. X is obtained
by the reaction of FeCl3 with Na2S2O3. If 100 gm of ion X reacts with 200 gm of cyclopentadiene in
basic solution. How much Y is obtained if reaction efficiency is 63 %. Also comment in the symmetry of
Y & its stability.
[7]
[Ans. 0.9689 mol. ]
Q.8
A current of 1.7 A is passed through 300 mL of 0.160 M solution of ZnSO4 for 230 sec. with current
efficiency of 90%. Find the molarity of Zn2+ after the deposition of Zn. Assume volume remains constant.
[5]
[Ans. 0.154 M]
Q.9
How much amount of Fe0.93 O1.00 is completely oxidized by 50 ml 0.02 M Ba(MnO4)2 in presence of
non oxidising acid.
[5]
[Ans. 0.86 gms ]
Q.10 Consider the following reaction,
As2S3 + NO3 AsO43 + SO42 + NO
If number of equivalent of NO3 used is X. Calculate the number of equivalent of AsO43 & SO42
formed.
[5]
[Ans. 24x/28 ]
ASSIGNMENT-2
Q.1
[3]
(C*) dF = 0 where F = E, H, G, A, S, C
(D) A process in which final temperature equals to initial temperature must be an isothermal process.
Q.2
[2 7 = 14]
Sign of
Process
Q.3
Q.4
Remark
q
DU
DH
>0
<0
>0
>0
>0
>0
>0
>0
<0
<0
<0
>0
<0
>0
<0
>0
>0
<0
<0
<0
[5]
E
V
(A*) CP CV = V P T
T
P
H P
(B*) CP CV = V P T
T V
H
(D*) V = 0 for ideal gas
H
(D) P = Vm where Vm is molar volume of solid, liquid or gas.
[5]
Q.5
Q.6
Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes cyclic process ABCA as shown in figure. Find the
ratio of temperature at B & A.
[5]
[Ans. 27/4]
B
3P0
P0
V0
60
30
C
6V0
Q.7
The average degree of freedom per molecule for a gas is 6. The gas perform 25 J of work when it
expands at constant pressure. Find the heat absorbed by the gas.
[5]
[Ans. 100 J]
Q.8
A transition metal X forms an oxide of formula X2O3. It is found that only 50% of X atoms in this
compound are in +3 oxidation state. The only other stable oxidation state of X are +2 and +5. What %
of X atoms are in the +2 oxidation state in this compound.
[5]
ASSIGNMENT-3
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
Q.5
The minimum work which must be done to compress 16 gm of oxygen at 300 K from a pressure of
1.01325 103 N/m2 to 1.01325 105 N/m2 is :
[3]
(A*) 5744 J
(B) 8622 J
(C) 3872 J
(D) 7963 J
An ideal gaseous sample at initial state i (P0, V0, T0 ) is allowed to expand to volume 2V0 using two
different process, in the first process the equation of process is 2PV2 = K1 and in second process the
equation of the process is PV = K2. Then
[3]
(A) Work done in first process will be greater than work in second process (magnitude wise)
(B) The order of values of work done cannot be compared unless we know the value of K1 and K2
(C*) Value of work done (magnitude) in second process is greater in above expansion irrespective of
the value of K1 and K2.
(D) 1st process is not possible.
Select the correct statement.
[3]
(A*) When equilibrium is established macroscopic properties do not change with time.
(B*) At equilibrium the system should be at rest without the assistance of any external source.
(C) Steady state and equilibrium state is same
(D*) Steady state is dynamic on macroscopic as well as microscopic level but equilibrium is dynamic on
microscopic level only.
Internal energy includes.
[3]
(A*) Rotational energy (B*) Bond energy
(C*) Relativistic energy (D*) Vibrational energy
In the PV-diagram shown in figure, ABC is a semicircle. Find the work
done in the process ABC. Where P is in atm and V in litres.
[4]
3
P
B
A
Q.6
1
2
V
[Ans. /2 ]
PV graph for an ideal gas undergoing polytropic process PVm = constant is shown is here. Find the
value of m.
[4]
P
5
210 (Pa)
[Ans. 3/2 ]
37
5
410 (m )
Q.7
A portion of helium gas in a vertical cylindrical container is in thermodynamic equilibrium with the
surroundings. The gas is confined by a movable heavy piston. The piston is slowly elevated by a distance
H from its equilibrium position and then kept in the elevated position long enough for the thermodynamic
equilibrium to be reestablished. After that, the container is insulated and then the piston is released. After
the piston comes to rest, what is the new equilibrium position of the piston with respect to initial position?
[Ans. The piston ends up 0.4 H above its initial position.][4]
Q.8 An ideal gas has a molar heat capacity CV at constant volume. What is molar capacity of this gas in a
function of volume if gas undergoes process T = T0eV.
[4]
Q.9 A 10 g mixture of isobutene and isobutane requires 20 g of Br2 (in CCl4) for complete addition. If 10 g
of the mixture is catalytically hydrogenated and the entire alkane is monobrominated in the presence of
light at 127C, which exclusive product and how much of it would be formed? (Atomic weight of
bromine= 80)
[Ans. 24.51 g C4H9Br]
[4]
Q.10 How much (in gms) of AlCl3 (solid) must be added to 250 ml 0.01 M HCl solution so that Cl ion
concentration is increased to 220 %.
[4]
[Ans. 0.1335 gms.]
ASSIGNMENT-4
Explain
Q.1 How was the absolute zero of temperature determined ?
Q.2 Can a tyre be inflated without a rise in temperature, If yes, how ?
Q.1
2 mol of 4 atoms combine to form 1 mol of H2 molecule. If the internal energy change for the process is
432.6 kJ. What will be the theoretical decrease in mass for the process?
[3]
2
12
12
6
(A) 3 10 kg.
(B*) 4.8 10 kg (C) 1.4 10 kg (D) 1.4 10 kg
Comprehension
Consider the system
CH4(g) +
Rigid impermeable
cylinder
2O2(g)
CO2(g)+2H2O(g)
C4H10(g)
13
+ O2(g)
2
4CO2(g)+5H2O(g)
Massless Frictonless
Adiabatic piston
Q.2
Q.3
The temperature is maintained at 400 K and the complete combustion of methane and butane with
requisite amount of O2 is done., as shown. If initially the piston was present at the centre of the cylinder
shown above. Given : Total volume of cylinder = 10 litre R = 8.3 mol/k.
Calculate the final position of the piston after the combustion has taken place, if c/s area of
cylinder = 1 dm2.
[3]
(A) 25 cm from Right (B) 75 cm from Left (C*) 75 cm from Right (D) 125 cm from Left
Calculate the net work done during the process ?
(A) + 6.9 kJ
(B) 12.11 kJ
(C*) 5.21 kJ
[3]
(D) + 0.42 kJ
5
R is in thermal contact with a
2
water bath. Treat the vessel, gas and water bath as being in thermal equilibrium initially at 298 k, and as
separated by adiabatic walls from the rest of the universe. The vessel gas and water bath have an
average heat capacity of Cp = 7500 J/K. The gas is compressed reversibly to Pf = 10.5 bar. What is the
temperature of the system after thermal equilibrium has been established?
[3]
(A*) 299.2 K.
(B) 763.2 K.
(C) 479.2 K
(D) 182.9 K
Q.4
Q.5
Q.6
A bottle at 21C contains an ideal gas at a pressure of 126.4 103 Pa. The rubber stopper closing the
bottle is removed. The gas expands adiabatically against Pexternal = 101.9 103 Pa and some gas is
expelled from the bottle in the process when P = Pexternal , the stopper is quickly replaced. The gas
remaining in the bottle slowly warms up to 21C what is the final pressure[in Pa] in the bottle for a
monoatomic gas.
[3]
[Ans. 110.5 103 Pa.]
Q.7
[5]
1
2
4
3
V
(a)
V3
Calculate the efficiency of this cycle if V = 2.
1
(b)
Q.8
One mole of N2 in a stale defined by Ti = 300 k and Vi = 2.5 litre undergoes an isothermal reversible
expansion until Vf = 23 litre, What is the percentage error, in calculation of work, using the ideal gas
equation instead of the Vander Waals equation. Given a = 1.370 dm6 bar mol2, b = 0.0387 dm3mol1.
[5]
[Ans 0.25%]
Q.9
Regard H as a function of T and P use the Cyclic rule to obtain the expression.
H
Cp
P T
[3]
T
P H
C
Q.10 U is a state function and obeys Eulers reciprocity theorem. Using this statement show that v 0
V T
for an ideal gas.
[3]
Q.1
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
ASSIGNMENT-5
For a perfectly crystalline solid Cp,m = aT3, where a is constant. If Cp,m is 0.42 J/K-mol at 10 K, molar
entropy at 10 K is
[3]
(A) 0.42 J/K-mol
(B*) 0.14 J/K-mol
(C) 4.2 J/K-mol
(D) zero
Entropy change for process at 1 atm and 10C, H 2 O (l ) H 2 O (s) is
[Given: Hfusion(0C) = 6000 J/mol, Hfusion(10C) = 5523 J/mol
[3]
273
Cp,m(H2O, s) = 36 J/K-mol, Cp,m(H2O, l) = 75 J/K-mol, ln
= 0.04]
263
(A) 23.47 J/K-mol
(B*) 20.41 J/K-mol
(C) 21 J/K-mol
(D) 20.47 J/K-mol
Select the correct statement.
[3]
(A) Entropy of XeF5+ is maximum when structure is square pyramidal (perfect)
(B) Entropy of XeF5+ is maximum when structure is distorted square pyramidal.
(C) Entropy of XeF5+ is maximum when structure is distorted octahedral.
(D) Entropy of XeF5+ is greater in distorted octahedral as compared to distorted square pyramidal.
Select the correct statement.
[3]
(A) Every system which is left to itself, will on average change towards condition of maximum probability.
(B) Gain in information is loss in entropy.
(C) On increasing temperature entropy will always increases.
(D) At 0 K only one micro state is possible.
A diatomic gas is used in a carnot engine as a working substance. In an adiabatic expansion, volume of
gas increases two times then what is the percentage efficiency of carnot engine?
[4]
[Ans. 0024]
3
2
A diatomic gas (ideal) undergoes change according to law T V = constant from initial volume 2.5 litres
to 4.5 litres at initial temperature T1 = 300K. Find out entropy change in the system.
[4]
Two identical bodies of constant heat capacity one at same initial temperature. A refrigerator operates
between these two bodies until one is cooled to temperature T2. if the bodies remains at constant
pressure and undergoes no change in phase. Then calculate the minimum work needed.
[4]
T2
W = CP 1 T2 2T1
T2
Q.8 An ideal gas undergoes change such that pressure drop to 4 times and volume increases to 2 times. Then
calculate the entropy change in system during the process.
[4]
Q.9 The expansion process of n = 2 moles of argon proceeds so that gas pressure increases in direct proportion
to it volume. Find the entropy increment of the gas in this process provided its volume increases two
times.
[4]
Q.10 The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid A at 42C is 32 kJ/mole. If the normal boiling point of liquid is
47C, using the given data, find Svaporisation at 42C (in J/K mole)
[4]
CP [A (l)] = 62 J/K mole
CP [A (g)] = 30 J/K mole
A(l) A(g)
315 5
=
take ln
320 320
ASSIGNMENT-6
Q.1
[3]
A
B
C
Rigid
CO2(g) O2(g) He(g)
Adiabatic
Boundary
1mtr.
Massless-frictionless-Non-Rigid
Adiabatic piston
The three chambers shown in the figure contain one mole of each gas and piston A and B are adjusted
mechanically (using pin/holders) in such a way that each gas occupies same volume. A student by mistake
pushes piston C towards left such that the pin/holder breaks and all the three pistons are free to move.
V
The ratio
V
1.66
He( Final )
1 .4
CO2 ( Final )
1
. Calculate x .
x
3
Q.3
3
O (g) Cl2O3(g)
2 2
Q.4
(D) 1.5
(B*)
[3]
1
3
S8(g) + O2(g) SO3(g)
8
2
,if the f H of
and
Q.5
[3]
(D*) G(T,P) < 0
Q.6
It is estimated that an average human brain consumes the equivalents of 10 gm glucose per hour estimate
the power output of Brain in Watt. If 1W =1 J/sec. (combH(glucose) = 2818.8 kJ/mol).
[Ans. 43.5 W]
[4]
Q.7
The free energy change for the conversion of malate into fumarate is 3 kJ. In metabolism this reaction is
coupled with fumarate asparate. Which is exergonic by 15.5 kJ. Calculate G for the overall
reaction and interpret the result.
[4]
Q.8
The vapor pressure of decane is 10 torr at 55.7 C and 400 torr at 150.6 C. Calculate Hvap., Svap.
at 100 C. Also find out normal boiling point.
[4]
Q.9
Compound (A) is mixed with (B) in presence of acid catalyst and converted into cyclic compound (C).
Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction.
[4]
A+BC
Compound (B) is prepared by NaNO2 + NaHSO3 + SO2 + H2O NaHSO4 + (B). (A) is used in
the preparation of Caprolactum.
If
ECH = 414 kJ/mol
ECN = 230 kJ/mol
EC=O = 312 kJ/mol
ECC = 340 kJ/mol
ENH = 198 kJ/mol
ENO = 210 kJ/mol
EOH = 150 kJ/mol
Q.10 n-Butane is heated with AlCl3. Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction if ECH = 414 kJ/mol and
ECC = 340 kJ/mol.
[4]
ASSIGNMENT-7
Q.1
[3]
(C) PB > PA
(D) VA > VB
Gg
[3]
C
D
B
Gg at P
A
Gg at P
O
(C) SC > SD
(D) SD > SC
Two identical bodies A and B of constant heat capacity at temperature TAand TB[TA > TB], are connected
using a heat engine. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this regard ?
[3]
(A) At maximum attainable temperature, the work done by the engine is minimum.
(B) At minimum attainable temperature, the Suniv.= 0.
(C) The final temperature ranges between
T1 T2
and T1.T2 .
2
(D) The total work delivered by the engine is the difference between heat absorbed from hot body and
heat rejected to cold body.
Q.4
Statement - 1 : On increasing the temperature, enthalpy of products and reactants changes by different
extents.
[3]
Statement - 2 : CP values of products and reactants are different.
(A*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.5
500 ml decimolar ACOH is mixed with 1000 ml M/20 NH3. What is heat of neutralization of the
mixture if ionization constant of acid and base are same.
[4]
Q.6
When glucose is burnt in a bomb calorimeter, the reaction is found to be exothermic and
E = 2880 kJ/mol the entropy change is found to be 182.4 J/K-mol. Calculate free energy change at
298 K for the process. How much of the energy change can be extracted as Heat and How much can be
extracted as work.
[4]
Q.7
CaC2 an hydrolysis gives a gas (A) which is also hydrolysed in presence of promoters and catalyst and
results a liquid which is purified and added in base catalyst and product (B) is obtained after slight
heating. Find out enthalpy change in the reaction (A) to (B) assuming reaction take place in gas phase. If
ECC= 900 kJ/mol, ECC= 600 kJ/mol, EC= 700 kJ/mol , EOH= 243 kJ/mol, ECC= 300 kJ/mol. [4]
Q.8
An ideal gas cycle is represented by a rectangle on PV diagram. If P1 and P2 are the lower and higher
pressure and V1, V2 are smaller and larger volumes respectively, then show that
[4]
Q.9
1
P2
V1
(P2 P1 ) (V2 V1 )
RBr is mixed with NaSCN, using polar protic solvent (water) resulting in the formation of 79% A and
16% B. Calculate the f H of A and B, Given
[4]
Assume , R = CH3
ECS = 380 kJ/mol
ECH = 414 kJ/mol
EC=S = 520 kJ/mol
ECN = 680 kJ/mol
EC=N = 620 kJ/mol
What are compounds A and B and justify its percentage ?
Q.10 What is the probability that 2 moles of water originally at 50 C will spontaneously separate into 1 mole
water at 49C and 1 mol water at 51C. CP,m = 75 J/K mol
[4]
ASSIGNMENT-12
Q.1
(a)
[10]
CH 2 NH 3 Cl
CH 2 NH 2
|
+ HCl |
CH 2 NH 2
CH 2 NH 3 Cl
(iv)
(v)
+ HCl
[Ans. (a) (i) n = 2, (ii) n = 2, (iii) 2, (iv) 2, (v) 1 ]
(b)
Of acid
(ii)
(iii)
H3SbO4 KOH
KH2SbO4 + H2O
H3SbO4 + KOH K2HSbO4 + H2O
H2SO4 + KOH KHSO4 + H2O
(iv)
KOH
(v)
KOH
(i)
[6]
ASSIGNMENT-13
Q.1
+ NaOH
(vii)
NaOH
[7]
+ H2O
+ H2O
[Ans. (i) 5, (ii) 1,(iii) 1, (iv) 2, (v) 3, (vi) 1, (vii) 2]
Q.2
Q.3
Q.4
[4]
Q.5
20 ml of 0.1 M solution of metal ion reacted with 20 ml of 0.1 M SO2 solution. SO2 reacted according
to the equation:
[4]
SO2 + 2H2O SO42 + 4H+ + 2e
If the oxidation number of metal ion was +3, then what is the new oxidation number of the metal?
[Ans. +1]
Q.6
Q.7
It requires 40.05 ml of 1M Ce4+ to titrate 20ml of 1M Sn2+ to Sn4+. What is the oxidation state of the
cerium in the product.
[4]
[Ans. + 3]
Q.8
A volume of 12.53 ml of 0.05093 M SeO2 reacted with exactly 25.52 ml of 0.1M CrSO4. In the
reaction, Cr2+ was oxidized to Cr3+. To what oxidation state was selenium converted by the reaction.
[4]
[Ans. zero]
Q.9
Potassium acid oxalate K2C2O4 3H2C2O44H2O can be oxidized by MnO4 in acid medium. Calculate
the volume of 0.1M KMnO4 reacting in acid solution with one gram of the acid oxalate.
[4]
[Ans. V = 31.68 ml]
Q.10 50gm of a sample of Ca(OH)2 is dissolved in 50ml of 0.5N HCl solution. The excess of HCl was titrated
with 0.3N NaOH. The volume of NaOH used was 20cc. Calculate % purity of Ca(OH)2.
[4]
[Ans. 1.406%]
ASSIGNMENT-14
Q.1
Calculate the number of moles of KMnO4 which will react with 180 gm H2C2O4 according to given
reaction
KMnO4 + H2C2O4 2CO2 + Mn2+
and also calculate the volume of CO2 produced at STP.
[4]
Q.2
[4]
Q.3
Calculate the moles of KCl required to produced 10 mol Cl2 by the reaction with KClO3.
[4]
Q.4
3 mol of a mixture of FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 required 100 ml of 2M KMnO4 solution in acidic medium.
What is the mole fraction of FeSO4 in the mixture?
[4]
[Ans. 1/3]
Q.5
5 ml of NHCl, 20 ml of
Q.6
A 1 g sample of H2O2 solution containing x % H2O2 by mass requires x cm3 of a KMnO4 solution for
complete oxidation under acidic conditions. Calculate the normality of KMnO4 solution.
[4]
[Ans. 0.588 N]
Q.7
A mixture of FeO and Fe2O3 is reacted with acidified KMnO4 solution having a concentration of 0.2278
M, 100 ml of which was used. The solution was then titrated with Zn dust which converted Fe3+ of the
solution to Fe2+. The Fe2+ required 1000 ml of 0.13 M K2Cr2O7 solution. Find the % of FeO & Fe2O3.
[4]
[Ans. FeO = 13.34%; Fe2O3 = 86.66%]
Q.8
25 mL of a solution containing HCl was treated with excess of M/5 KIO3 and KI solution of unknown
concentration where I2 liberated is titrated against a standard solution of 0.021M Na2S2O3 solution
whose 24 mL were used up. Find the strength of HCl and volume of KIO3 solution consumed. [4]
[Ans. VKIO = 0.42 mL, [HCl] = 0.0168N]
N
N
H2SO4 and 30 ml of HNO3 are mixed together and the volume made
2
3
to 1 litre. What is the weight of pure NaOH required to neutralize the solution?
[4]
[Ans. 1 gm]
Q.9
A 0.517g sample containing Ba(SCN)2 was dissolved in a bicarbonate solution. 50.0 mL of 0.107 N
iodine was added, and the mixture was allowed to stand for five minutes. The solution was then acidified,
and the excess I2 was titrated with 16.3 mL of 0.0965 M sodium thiosulphate. Write a balanced equation
for the oxidation of SCN into SO42 and HCN . Calculate the percent Ba(SCN)2 in the sample. [4]
[Ans. SCN+3I2+ 4H2O l SO42 + HCN + 7H+ + 6I, 15.68%]
Q.10 The neutralization of a solution of 1.2 g of a substance containing a mixture of H2C2O4. 2H2O, KHC2O4.
H2O and different impurities of a neutral salt consumed 18.9 ml of 0.5 N NaOH solution. On titration
with KMnO4 solution, 0.4 g of the same substance needed 21.55 ml of 0.25 N KMnO4. Calculate the
% composition of the substance.
[4]
[Ans. H2C2O4. 2H2O = 14.36%, KHC2O4. H2O = 81.71% ]
ASSIGNMENT-15
Q.1
520 gm mixture of Fe2O3 & FeO reacts completely with 158 gm KMnO4 in acidic medium. Calculate
the composition of the mixture by moles.
[4]
(Given : Mn+7 Mn+2)
Q.2
Calculate the concentration of H2O2 solution if 20 ml of H2O2 solution reacts completely with 10ml of 2
M KMnO4 in acidic medium.
[4]
Q.3
How many moles of thiosulphate (S2O32) will be required to react completely with one mole I2 in acidic
medium (where it gets oxidised to SO42)?
[4]
[Ans. 1/4]
Q.4
Metallic tin in the presence of HCI is oxidized by K2Cr2O7 to stannic chloride, SnCl4. What volume of
deci-normal dichromate solution would be reduced by 1g of tin.
[4]
[Ans. 337 mL]
Q.5
5g sample of brass was dissolved in one litre dil. H2SO4. 20 ml of this solution were mixed with KI,
liberating I2 and Cu+ and the I2 required 20 ml of 0.0327 N hypo solution for complete titration. Calculate
the percentage of Cu in the alloy.
[4]
[Ans. 41.53%]
Q.6
A 1.0 g sample of Fe2O3 solid of 55.2% purity is dissolved in acid and reduced by heating the solution
with zinc dust. The resultant solution is cooled and made upto 100.0 mL. An aliquot of 25.0 mL of this
solution requires 17.0 mL of 0.0167 M solution of an oxidant for titration. Calculate the number of moles
of electrons taken up by the oxidant in the reaction of the above titration.
[4]
[Ans. 6.07 6]
Q.7
5g of pyrolusite (impure MnO2) were heated with conc. HCl and Cl2 evolved was passed through
N
excess of KI solution. The iodine liberated required 40 mL of hypo solution. Find the % of MnO2 in
10
the pyrolusite.
[4]
[Ans. 0.174g; 3.48%]
Question No. 8 to 10 (3 questions)
A steel sample is to be analysed for Cr and Mn simultaneously. By suitable treatment Cr is oxidized as
Cr2O72 and the Mn to MnO4.
Cr Cr2O72
MnMnO4
A 10 gm sample of steel is used to produce 250.0 mL of a solution containing Cr2O72 and MnO4.
A 10 mL portion of this solution is added to a BaCl2 solution and by proper adjustment of the acidity, the
chromium is completely precipitated as BaCrO4; 0.0549 g is obtained.
Q.8
Q.9
Cr2O72 H
BaCrO4
A second 10 mL portion of this solution requires exactly 15.95 mL of 0.0750M standard Fe2+ solution
for its titration (in acid solution).
[9]
% of chromium in the steel sample
(A) 1.496
(B*) 2.82
(C) 1.96
(D) 5
Equivalent of Fe2+ required for reduction of MnO4 is
(A*) 5.44 104
(B) 0.544 102
(C) 1.196 103
Q.10 Amount of BaCl2 required for conversion of Cr2O72 to BaCrO4 in steel sample
(A) 0.045
(B) 0.0549
(C*) 1.125
(D) 2.82
ASSIGNMENT-16
Single Correct
Q.1 How many times solubility of CaF2 is decreased in 4 103 M KF (aq.) solution as compare to pure
water at 25C. Given Ksp (CaF2) = 3.2 1011
[3]
(A) 50
(B*) 100
(C) 500
(D) 1000
Q.2
[3]
Q.3
[3]
Al (OH)3(s) + OH (aq.)
Al(OH)4 (aq.), Kc
Which of the following relationship is correct at which solubility is minimum ?
(A) OH
(B) OH
1/ 3
K sp
Kc
K sp
K
c
1/ 4
(B) OH
K
c
K sp
1/ 4
Q.4
Q.5
The minimum mass of mixture of A2 and B4 required to produce at least 1 kg of each product is :
(Given At. mass of 'A' = 10 ; At. mass of 'B' = 120)
[3]
2AB2 + 4A2B
5A2 + 2B4
(A*) 2120 gm
(B) 1060 gm
(C) 560 gm
[3]
(D) 1660 gm
[4]
Comprehension
NaBr, used to produce AgBr for use in photography can be self prepared as follows :
[9]
Fe + Br2 FeBr2
....(i)
FeBr2 + Br2 Fe3Br8
....(ii)
(not balanced)
Fe3Br8 + Na2CO3 NaBr + CO2 + Fe3O4
....(iii) (not balanced)
Q.7 Mass of iron required to produce 2.06 103 kg NaBr
(A) 420 gm
(B*) 420 kg
(C) 4.2 105 kg
(D) 4.2 108 gm
Q.8
If the yield of (ii) is 60% & (iii) reaction is 70% then mass of iron required to produce 2.06 103 kg
NaBr
(A) 105 kg
(B) 105 gm
(C*) 103 kg
(D) None
Q.9
If yield of (iii) reaction is 90% then mole of CO2 formed when 2.06 103 gm NaBr is formed
(A) 20
(B*) 10
(C) 40
(D) None
Subjective:
Q.10 Find the EMF of cell formed by connecting two half cells:
[5]
MnO 4 / Mn 2
= 1.51 volt
Cr2O 27 / Cr 3
= 1.33 volt
ASSIGNMENT-17
Single Correct
Q.1 Calculate the pH of 6.66 103 M solution of Al(OH)3, it's first dissociation is 100 % where as second
dissociation is 50% and third dissociation is negligible.
[3]
(A) 2
(B*) 12
(C) 11
(D) 3
Q.2
10 ml of 0.1 M tribasic acid H3A is titrated with 0.1 M NaOH solution. What is the ratio of
2nd equivalence point. Given K1 = 7.5 104, K2 = 108, K3 = 1012
(A) ~104
(B) ~ 10+4
(C*) ~ 107
(D) ~ 10+6
[ H 3 A]
[ A 3 ]
[3]
at
Q.3
Q.4
The number of carbon atoms present in a signature, if a signature written by carbon pencil weights
1.2 103 g is
[3]
20
19
19
20
(A) 12.04 10
(B*) 6.02 10
(C) 3.01 10
(D) 6.02 10
Q.5
An aqueous solution of Na2SO4 was electrolysed for 10 min. 82 ml of a gas was produced at anode
over water at 27C at a total pressure of 580 torr. Determine the current that was used.
[3]
(Vapour pressure of H2O at 27C = 10 torr) (R = 0.082 atm lit./ mol / K)
(A) 0.1 Amp
(B) 1.25 Amp
(C) 2.23 Amp
(D*) 1.61 Amp
[4]
Q.7
[6]
378
8 mole of a mixture of N2, NO2 and N2O4 has a mean molecular mass of
. On heating to a
8
temperature at which N2O4 dissociated completely (N2O4 2NO2), the mean molecular mass
378
becomes
. [Given : Atomic mass N= 14, O = 16]
9
The ratio of number of moles of N2 : NO2 : N2O4 in original mixture is
(A) 3 : 4 : 1
Q.8
(B*) 2 : 5 : 1
(C) 3 : 5 : 2
(D) 4 : 2 : 1
(B) 3 : 9
(C*) 2 : 7
(D) 1 : 2
(Q)
1M
(C)
(R)
2.5 M
(D)
(S)
0.227 M
Subjective
Q.10 1.0 L of solution which was in equilibrium with solid mixture of AgCl and Ag2CrO4 was found to contain
1 104 moles of Ag+ ions, 1.0 106 moles of Cl ions and 8.0 104 moles of CrO 24 ions. Ag+ ions
are added slowly to the above mixture (keeping volume constant) till 8.0 107 moles of AgCl got
precipitated. How many moles of Ag2CrO4 were also precipitated?
[5]
4
[Ans.7.68 10 mole]
ASSIGNMENT-18
Single Correct
Q.1 The half life of the unimolecular elementary reaction
A(g)B(g) + C(g) is 6.93 min. How long will it take for the concentration of A to be reduced to 10
% of the initial value?
[3]
(A) 10.053 min
Q.2
Q.3
(C) 46 min
Volume of water which must be added to 8M HCl to make 2 lit. of 7.3 % w/v HCl solution is [3]
(A*) 1.5 lit.
(B) 0.5 lit.
(C) 1 lit.
(D) 2 lit.
dA
= k[A].
For the reaction A (aq) B (g) + C (g), the rate law is
dt
Find the value 'X' in data table provided
time (min)
0
10
30
conc. of A(M) 1
0.7
X
(A) 0.1
Q.4
(B) 0.243
(C*) 0.343
[3]
The instantaneous rate of disappearance of the MnO4 ion in the following reaction is 4.56 103 Ms1.
2MnO4 + 10 I + 16 H+ 2Mn2+ + 5I2 + 8H2O
[3]
The rate of appearance of I2 is
(A) 1.14 103 Ms1
(C) 4.56 104 Ms1
Q.5
For which of the following solution, minimum amount of NaOH is required for complete neutralisation.
[Assume complete dissociation of acid ]
[3]
(A) 50 ml H2SO4 solution [basicity = 2] (dsolution = 2 gm/ml) , % w/w = 98
(B) 50 ml H3PO4 solution [basicity = 3] (dsolution = 2 gm/ml) , % w/w = 98
(C) 100 ml HCl solution [basicity = 1] (dsolution = 1.5 gm/ml) , % w/w = 36.5
(D*) 100 ml HNO3 solution [basicity = 1] (dsolution = 1.5 gm/ml) , % w/w = 36.5
Q.6
Q.7
2 mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at 27C undergoes adiabatic free expansion until it volume becomes
5 times of initial volume. The change in entropy of the gas is ( ln 5 = 1.60 ; R = 8.3 J/K-mole ) [3]
(A) Zero
(B*) 26.56 J/K
(C) 7968 J/K
(D) 39.84 J/K
Q.8
[3]
rate = k1 p 2A atm/hr
rate = k 2 C 2A mol / litre / hr
the relation between k1 and k2 is
(A) k2 = k1
(B*) k2 = k1 RT
(C) k2 = k1/RT
(D) k2 = k1 (RT)2
ASSIGNMENT-19
Single correct
Q.1 For acid catalysed hydrolysis of ester rate law obtained is rate = k [ester] [H+],
where k = 0.01 M1 hr 1.What is the half-life if the initial concentrations are 0.02 M for the ester and
0.05 M for the catalyzing acid :
[3]
(A) 1429 hours
(B) 5000 hours
(C*) 1386 hours
(D) 2 hours
Q.3
100 ml of H2SO4 solution having molarity 1M is mixed with 400 ml of water. Resultant molarity of
H2SO4 solution is:
[3]
(A) 4.4 M
(B) 0.145 M
(C) 0.227 M
(D*) 0.2 M
Q.4
KI
(i) A
P..
&
II
(ii) B K
Q, following observation is made.
1M
0.5 M
[A]
0.25 M
0
30
Concentration
For a reaction of order n, what is the relationship between t3/4 and t1/2 , where t3/4 is the time required for
concentration (C) to become 1/4 C0 where C0 and C are the values of the reactant concentration at the
start and after time t, respectively.
[3]
n1
n1
(A*) t3/4 = t1/2 [2 + 1]
(B) t3/4 = t1/2 [2 1]
(C) t3/4 = t1/2 [2n+1 1]
(C) t3/4 = t1/2 [2n+1 + 1]
Concentration
Q.2
[3]
1M
0.5 M
[B]
60
60
Time (min)
Time (min)
KI
Calculate K , where KI and KII are rate constant for the respective reaction.
II
(A*) 2.772
Q.5
(B) 1
(C) 0.36
There exist an equilibrium between solid BaSO4 and Ba2+ and SO 24 ion in aqueous medium. The
possible equilibrium state are shown in figure as thick line. Now, if equilibrium is disturbed by addition of
BaNO3 and (b) K2SO4 and dotted line represent approach of system towards equilibrium. Match the
columns given below:
[3]
(c)
(e)
(d)
(f)
(A) ac, bd
(B*) ad, be
(C) af, be
(D) ad, bc
PB
8
6
4
PA
2
10
30 time (min.)
20
1
A(g) B(g).
2
(B) t1/2 of the reaction is independent of initial partial pressure of A.
(C*) Reaction must be complex reaction.
(D*) Time of completion for the reaction is 40 minutes.
Comprehension
Comprehension (Q.7 to Q.9)
Concentrations measured as a function of time when gaseous N2O5 at initial concentration of 0.0200 M
decomposes to gaseous NO2 and O2 at 50C. The change in concentration with time is given by the
following graph.
[9]
NO2
0.03
Concentration(M)
[NO2]
=0.003 M
0.02
[NO2]=0.004M
0.01
O2
N2O5
= tan1 (2.5 105)
0.00
0
100 200
600 700
800
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
Subjective
Q.10 50 ml of a gaseous hydrocarbon is mixed with 200 ml oxygen. After sparking, evolved gaseous mixture
was passed through KOH solution which result in 100 ml contraction, when further passed through
alkaline pyrogallcol solution shows a contraction of 50 ml. Find molecular formula of hydrocarbon. [5]
[Ans. C2H4 ]
ASSIGNMENT-20
Single Correct
Q.1 The dissociation of HI molecules as shown below, occurs at a temperature of 629 K. The rate constant,
k = 3.02 105 M1s1
HI (g )
1
1
H 2 (g ) I 2 (g )
2
2
[3]
(D) Can not be predicted
(C*) 2
[3]
N NCl
Cl + N2(g)
time (min.)
10 20 30 40
where Vt(in cc) is volume of N2 collected at time t & V (in cc) is volume of N2 collected after a long
time. What is the time taken in minute for 75% reaction ?
(A) 2.5
(B) 5.0
(C*) 3
(D) 10
Q.3
At 1800 K ethane gas decomposes to ethene and hydrogen. Rate constant for the reaction is
103 Pa1 sec1. If initial pressure of ethane is 3 105 Pa, how many sec. would it take for the pressure
to reach 5 105 Pa?
[3]
2
3
(A) 1800.2 sec.
(B) 3.33 10 sec. (C*) 6.66 10 sec.
(D) 1000.4 sec.
Q.4
Two first order reaction have half-lives in the ratio 8 : 1. Calculate the ratio of time intervals t1 : t2. The
th
th
1
3
time t1 and t2 are the time period for and completion.
4
4
(A) 1 : 0.301
(B) 0.125 : 0.602
(C*) 1 : 0.602
[3]
(D) None of these
Q.5
10 ml of 0.1 M CH3COONa+ is mixed with 11 ml of 0.1 M HCl. The concentration of CH3COO ion
at equilibrium is [Take Ka (CH3COOH) = 105]
[3]
4
4
4
8
(A) 2.1 10 M
(B) 21 10 M
(C*) 10 M
(D) 10 M
Q.6
For any sparingly soluble salt [M(NH3)4 Br2] H2PO2, What will be the solubility product constant ?
[Given 0M ( NH
3 ) 4 Br2
2 PO 2
= 50 S-m2- mol1
[3]
[4]
Subjective
Q.9 The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of SO2Cl2 at a constant
volume.
[5]
SO2 Cl2 (g) SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g)
Q.10 Would H2O2 behave as oxidant or reductant with respect to the following couples at standard condition.
(b) S2O82 / SO 24
(a) I2 / I
Given E
O2 ,H / H2O2
E I
/ I
= + 0.69 volt
= 0.535 volt
Fe3 / Fe2
H 2O 2 , H / H 2O
S2O82 / SO 24
[7]
= + 1.77 volt
= 2.0 volt
= 0.77 volt
[Ans. (a) oxidising agent, (b) reducing agent, (c) both oxidising and reducing agent]
ASSIGNMENT-21
Single Correct
Q.1 The acid catalysed hydrolysis of an organic compound A at 30C has a time for half change of 100 min.
when carried out in a buffer solution at pH = 5, and 10 min. when carried out at pH = 4. Both times of
half change are independent of the initial concentration of A. If the rate constant K is given by
d[ A]
=K[A]a[H+]b , what are the values of a and b?
dt
(A*) a = 1, b = 1
(B) a = 2, b = 1
(C) a = 0, b = 1
Q.2
(D) a = 1, c = 0
What is the aq. ammonia concentration of a solution prepared by dissolving 0.15 mole of NH 4 CH3COO
in 1L H2O.[ K a (CH
3COOH )
[3]
=1.8105 ; K b( NH
4OH )
=1.8105]
(B) 0.15
[3]
(D) 3.8 104
[3]
Benzoic acid solution is titrated with NaOH conductometrically, graphical representation of the titration is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D*)
[3]
Q.5
Q.6
Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 10 and respectively. If initially they have the
same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be
1/e after a time
[3]
(A) 1/(10)
(B) 1/(11)
(C) 11/(10)
(D*) 1/(9)
Q.7
[3]
1
2
A
B
C
What is the ratio of numbers of atoms of A to the number of atoms of B after long time interval starting
with pure A. The mean lives of A and B are 20 hours and 30 minutes respectively.
(A) 2/3
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D*) 40
Q.8
A certain weak acid has a dissociation constant of 1.0 104. The equilibrium constant for its reaction
with a strong base is :
[3]
4
10
10
14
(A) 1.0 10
(B) 1.0 10
(C*) 1.0 10
(D) 1.0 10
ASSIGNMENT-22
Single Correct
Q.1 A radioactive nuclide is produced at a constant rate of -per second. It decay constant is . If N0 be the
no. of nulcei at time t = 0, then maximum no. of nuclei possible are
[3]
(A*)
Q.2
(B) N0
(C) /
(D)
+ N0
[3]
= 0.36 V
E 0 Fe3 / Fe 2 = 0.77 V
(A*) Fe3+
(B) Fe2+
(C) [Fe(CN)6]4
(D) [Fe(CN)6]3
Q.3
The reaction: 2NO + 2H2 N2 + 2H2O has been assigned to follow following mechanism [3]
I.
NO + NO l N2O2 (fast)
II.
N2O2 + H2 N2O + H2O (slow)
III.
N2O + H2 N2 + H2O (fast)
The rate constant of step II is 1.2 104 mole1L min1 while equilibrium constant of step I is
1.4 102. What is the rate of reaction when concentration of NO and H2 each is 0.5 mole L1.
(A*) 2.1 107 mol L1 min1
(B) 3.2 106 mol L1 min1
4
1
1
(C) 3.5 10 mol L min
(D) none of these
Q.4
When a car starts following chemical reaction takes place in the battery for 5 sec. to deliver 48.25 A
current:[3]
Comprehension
Question No. 5 to 7 (3 questions)
Following titration method is taken to compute stepwise ionisation constant of a weak dibasic acid
A:
p-hydroxybenzoic acid
A has two ionisation proton and there can be stepwise neutralisation by NaOH
25 ml of a dilute aqueous solution of A is titrated with 0.02 M NaOH (aq) and pH measured.
Step Volume of NaOH added
pH
I
8.12 ml
4.57
II
16.24 ml
7.02 (at first equivalent point)
[9]
Q.5
(A)
+ H2O l
+ H 3O
(B*)
+ H2O l
+ H 3O
Q.6
(A*) 4.57
Q.7
(B) 9.47
(C) 4.90
(D) 7.00
(A) 4.5
(B) 7
(C*) 9.5
(D) 5
[4]
e is as a result of conversion of
0
1
Iodine liberated was titrated against 0.1 M hypo solution 40 ml of which was required. Concentration of
H2O2 solution may be expressed as.
[5]
(A*) 0.68 gm / L
(B*) 0.02 M
(C*) 0.04 N
Subjective
Q.10 A gaseous compound 'A' reacts by three independent first order processes
(as shown in figure) with rate constant 2 103 , 3 103 and
1.93 103 sec1 respectively for products B, C and D respectively. If
initially pure 'A' was taken in a closed container with P = 2 atm, find
the partial pressure of 'B' (in atm) after 100 sec from start of experiment. [5]
[Ans. 2.9 101]
ASSIGNMENT-23
Single Correct
Q.1 During electrolysis at acidified water, O2 gas is formed at the anode. To produce O2 gas at the anode at
the rate of 0.224 cm3 per second at STP, current passed is :
[3]
(A) 0.224 A
(B) 2.24 A
(C) 9.65 A
(D*) 3.86 A
Q.2
Ionic conductances of H+ and SO 24 at infinite dilution are x and y S cm2 equiv1. Hence, equivalent
conductance of H2SO4 at infinite dilution is:
(A*) x + y
(B) 2(x + y)
Q.3
[3]
(C) 2x + y
(D) x + 2y
The radioisotope 15 P32 is used in biochemical studies. A sample of this isotope has an activity 1000
times the detectable limit. How long could an experiment be run with the sample before the radioactivity
could no longer be detected ( t1 / 2 =14.2 days)
(A) ~ 28 days
(B) ~ 102 days
(C*) ~ 142 days
[3]
(D) ~ 50 days
Q.4
A radioactive mixture containing a short lived species A and short lived species B. Both emitting particles at a given instant, emits at rate 10,000 -particles per minute. 10 minutes later, it emits at the
rate of 7000 particles per minute. If half lives of the species are 10 min and 100 hours respectively, then
the ratio of activities of A : B in the initial mixture was
[3]
(A) 3 : 7
(B) 4 : 6
(C*) 6 : 4
(D) 10 : 4
Q.5
1.5 gm mixture of SiO2 and Fe2O3 on very strong heating leave a residue weighing 1.46 gm. The
reaction responsible for loss of weight is
Fe2O3 (s) Fe3O4 (s) + O2(g)
What is the percentage by mass of Fe2O3 in original sample.
[3]
(A*) 80%
Q.6
(B) 20%
(C) 40%
(D) 60%
[3]
R OH + X
r
e
n d rd
II o
k2
I sot r
der R OH + X
k1
R X + OH
k 2 100
(B) k k
1
2
10 k1
(C) k k
1
2
100 k1
(D*) k 10k
1
2
Comprehension
Paragraph for question nos. 7 to 9
Reformer
Valve-3
Valve-2
Valve-1
Reactor
Separator
CH3OH
The flow of methanol from Valve-3 is 103 mol/sec. The factory is so designed that
2
of the CO is
3
[3]
Q.8
[3]
Q.9
[3]
(D) None of these
ln [A 0 ]2 ln [A 0 ]1
(B) ln[ t ] ln [ t ]
1/ 2 2
1/ 2 1
d[A]
/ ln [A]
(C*) ln
k.dt
(D*)
ln (r / k )
ln[ A]
[5]
ASSIGNMENT-24
Single Correct
Q.1 In the redox reaction
a CrCl3 + b H2O2 + c NaOH 2 Na2CrO4 + x NaCl + y H2O
Find the value of a, b, c in the given equation :
(A*) a = 2, b = 3, c = 10
(C) a = 2, b = 2, c = 8
Q.2
(B) 1 : 2
(C*) 4 : 5
(C) Ka =
Q.4
(B) a = 1, b = 2, c = 8
(D) a = 2, b = 3, c = 4
An equimolar mixture of Na2C2O4 and H2C2O4 required V1 litre of 0.1 M KMnO4 in acidic medium
for complete oxidation. The same amount of the mixture required V2 litre of 0.2 M NaOH for
neutralization. The ratio of V1 to V2 (V1/V2) is :
[3]
(A) 2 : 5
Q.3
[3]
Cm
(B*) Ka =
( m )
C( m ) 2
[3]
C2m
m ( m m )
m ( m m )
1 mole of AgNO3 is added to 10 litre of 1 M NH3. What is the concentration of Ag(NH3)+ in solution?
[Given : For Ag( NH 3 ) 2 , K f1 2.0 103 ; K f 2 10 4 ]
(A) 8
Q.5
105
(B*) 1.25
105
(C) 4
106
Na(s) +
[3]
(D) 1.25
104
[3]
rH = 411 kJ/mol
rH = 811 kJ/mol
rH = 1382 kJ/mol
1
1
H2(g) + Cl2(g) HCl (g)
rH = 92 kJ/mol;
R = 8.3 J/K-mol
2
2
from these data, the heat change of reaction at constant volume ( in kJ/mol) at 27C for the process
2NaCl (s) + H2SO4 (l) Na2SO4 (s) + 2HCl (g) is
(A) 67
(B*) 62.02
(C) 71.98
(D) None
Q.6
What volume of 0.2 M RNH3Cl solution should be added to 100 ml of 0.1 M RNH2 solution to
produce a buffer solution of pH = 8.7?
[3]
Given : pKb of RNH2 = 5 ; log 2 = 0.3
(A) 50 ml
(B*) 100 ml
(C) 200 ml
(D) None of these
7
litre and 1 litree respectively. The
11
mass of CO is same at that of CO2 in the mixture.
[3]
Statement -2 : Ratio of total number of atoms of C to O is 7 : 11 in above mixture.
(Assuming gases to be ideal)
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C*) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
2k
[4]
B
2C
k
3D
NO2 is involved in the formation of smog and acid rain. A reaction that is important in the formation of
NO2 is O3(g) + NO(g) l O2(g) + NO2(g) Kc= 6 1034 , if the air over Bansal Classes contained
1 106M O3, 1105 M NO, 2.5 104 M NO2 and 8.2 103 M O2, then which is incorrect ?
(A*) There will be a tendency to form more NO and O3
[4]
(B) There will be a tendency to form more NO2 and O2
(C*) There will be a tendency to form more NO2 and O3
(D*) There will be no tendency for change because the reaction is at equilibrium.
Subjective
Q.10 10 mole of liquid 'A' and 20 mole of liquid 'B' is mixed in a cylindrical vessel containing a piston arrangement. Initially a pressure of 2 atm is maintained on the solution. Now, the piston is raised slowly and
isothermally. Assume ideal behaviour of solution and A and B are completely miscible.
PAo 0.6 atm and PBo 0.9 atm
1
th of the total amount (by mol) of liquid solution taken initially, will be
3
[6]
ASSIGNMENT-25
Single Correct
Q.1 15 g of a solute in 100 g water makes a solution freeze at 1C. 30 g of a solute in 100 g of water will
give a depression in freezing point equal to
[3]
(A) 2C
(B) 0.5C
(C*) 2C
(D) 1C
Q.2
In cold countries, ethylene glycol is added to water in the radiators of cars during winters. It results in
(A) lowering of boiling point
(B) reduced viscosity
[3]
(C) reduced specific heat
(D*) lowering of freezing point
Q.3
Which represents correct difference for an ideal solution containing non-volatile solute.
(I)
[3]
(II)
(III)
(A*) I, II, III
(B) I, III
(D) I, II
Q.4
The reaction N2 + O2 l 2NO, follows the kinetics Rate [N2][O2]. The order of reactions when both
N2 and O2 are in small amount, N2 is in large excess as compared to O2 and both N2 and O2 are in large
excess are
[3]
(A*) 2, 1 and 2
(B) 2, 1 and 1
(C) 2, 1 and 0
(D) 1, 1 and 0
Q.5
During an experiment an ideal gas is found to obey an additional law PV3 = constant. The initial temperature
of gas is 600 K what will be final temperature if gas expands to its double volume.
[3]
(A) 1200 K
(B) 2400 K
(C) 300 K
(D*) 150 K
Q.6
For two parallel first order reactions, what is the overall activation energy of reaction? The yields of B
and C in products are 40% and 60%, respectively.
[3]
a 20 kcal / mol
A E
B
(A) 60 kcal/mol
(B*) 32 kcal/mol
a 40 kcal / mol
A E
C
(C) 28 kcal/mol
(D) 20 kcal / mol
[4]
;
E ocell 0.02 V
2.303 RT
0.06
is measured under standard state conditions in the electrochemical cell.
F
Q.8
Q.9
[5]
(B*) Isothermal ideal gas expansion
(D) Adiabatic process
The incorrect statement(s) regarding 2M MgCl2 aqueous solution is/are (dsolution = 1.09 gm/ml) [4]
(A) Molality of Cl is 4.44 m
(B*) Mole fraction of MgCl2 is exactly 0.035
(C) The conc. of MgCl2 is 19% w/v
(D*) The conc. of MgCl2 is 19 104 ppm
Subjective
Q.10 Kinetic data for hydrolysis of a 0.3 M solution of ethyl acetate in presence of HCl as catalyst is given in
the following table. A constant volume of reaction mixture is taken at different time and titrated against
standard alkali solution at different time.
Time / min
0
10
t=
Vol. of Alkali / ml
25.00
28.00
40.00
If the rate law is given by rate = k[Ester]1[H+]1, where H+ is a catalyst ,find the rate (in M/min) of ester
hydrolysis in a solution which is 0.1 M each in ester and acid HCl (M/min)
5
Use: ln = 0.225
4
[5]
[Ans. 4.5 1004]
ASSIGNMENT-26
Single Correct
Q.1 A graph was plotted between the molar conductance of various electrolytes (HCl, KCl and CH3COOH)
and root of their concentrations in mole per litre.
[3]
Q.2
For a zero order reaction and a Ist order reaction half life are in ratio of 4 : 1. Calculate ratio of time taken
to complete 87.5 % reaction for zero order : first order reaction respectively.
[3]
(A*) 7 : 3
(B) 3 : 7
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 5 : 3
Q.3
One litre water in a bucket is placed in a closed dry air room having dimension 4 2 1.5 m3 at 300 K.
If vapour pressure of water at 300 K is 38 mm & density of water at 300 K is 0.9 gm/ml. Then volume
of water left in liquid state will be (R = 0.08 L atm mol1)
[3]
(A) 450 ml
(B*) 500 ml
(C) 875 ml
(D) 900 ml
H E
(A*) T T R
P V
H
E
(B*) T T
P V
E
=0
(C*)
V T
H
0
(D*)
V T
[3]
Comprehension
Question No. 5 to 8 (4 questions)
Properties whose values depend only on the concentration of solute particles in solution and not on the
identify of the solute are called colligative properties.
Q.5 Acetic acid in benzene solution forms dimer due to intermolecular H-bonding. For this case vant Hoff
factor is:
[3]
(A) i =1
(B) i > 1
(C*) i < 1
(D) None of these
Q.6
An aqueous solution of 0.01 M CH3COOH has vant Hoff factor of 1.01. If pH = log [H+], pH of
0.01 M CH3COOH solution would be:
[3]
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C*) 4
(D) 5
Q.7
[3]
(B) K2SO4 40% ionised
(D*) FeCl3, 30% ionised
Q.8
A complex containing K+, Pt (IV) and Cl is 100% ionised giving i = 3. Thus, complex is:
(A) K2 [PtCl4]
(B*) K2[PtCl6]
(C) K3[PtCl5]
(D) K[PtCl3]
[3]
Q.9
[8]
Column II
1
(A)
Zero
(P)
(ax)
log(t1/2)
(B)
First
45
(Q)
log a
(ax)
(C)
Second
(R)
log(t1/2)
(D)
Third
(S)
log a
(ax)
(T)
t
[Ans. (A) Q,R (B) S,T, (C) T, (D) P,T]
Subjective
Q.10 A solution of Na2S2O3 is to be standardised by titration against iodine liberated from standard KIO3
solution. The later is prepared by dissolving 4.28 gm of KIO3 in water and making upto 500 ml. 20 ml
of this solution are then mixed with excess KI solution and the following reaction occurs.
[6]
ASSIGNMENT-27
Single Correct
Q.1 An element has FCC structure with edge length 200 pm. Calculate density if 200 g of this element
contains 24 1023 atoms.
[3]
(A) 4.16 g cm3
(B*) 41.6 g cm3
(C) 4.16 kg m3
(D) 41.6 kg m3
Q.2
The boiling point of 1.0 m K4[Fe(CN)6] is (Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol1)
(A) 100.52C
(B) 100.10C
(C) 100.26C
(D*) 102.6C
Q.3
For CrCl3. xNH3, elevation in boiling point of one molal solution is double than that of one molal urea
solution, hence x would be (complex is 100% ionized)
[3]
(A*) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) none of these
Q.4
Q.5
A reaction at 300 K with G = 1743 J /mol consists of 3 mole of A (g), 6 mole of B (g) and 3 mole
of C (g). If A, B and C are in equilbrium in 1 litre container then the reaction may be
[3]
[Given : 2 = e0.7, R = 8.3 J/K - mol]
(A) A + B l C
(B) A l B + 2C
(C*) 2A l B + C
(D) A + B l 2C
Q.6
pH of 0.1 M BOH (a weak base) is found to be 12. The solution at temperature TK will display an
osmatic pressure equal to:
[3]
(A) 0.01 RT
(B) 0.01 RT
(C*) 0.11 RT
(D) 1.1 RT
Q.7
Equal volumes of 1.0 M KCl and 1.0 M AgNO3 are mixed. The depression of freezing point of the
resulting solution will be (Kf(H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol1, 1 M = 1m)
[3]
(A) 3.72 K
(B*) 1.86 K
(C) 0.93 K
(D) none of these
[3]
[3]
The activation energies of two reactions I and II are Ea and 2Ea respectively. If the temperature of the
reacting systems is increased from T to T ', predict which of the following alternative is/are correct?
(k represent rate constant)
[5]
(A*) k 'I / k I 1
(B*) k 'II / k II 1
Subjective :
Q.10 A gas has been subjected to an isochoric and isobaric cycle. Plot the graph
of this cycle in the pressure-density, V-T and P-T co-ordinates.
[6]
P
2
[Ans. (i)
(ii)
(iii)
1
4
T
ASSIGNMENT-28
Single correct
Q.1 Select incorrect statements:
[3]
(A) NH3 is soluble in water due to hydrogen bonding as well as due to formation of ions
(B) Gases which can be liquefied easily are more soluble in water than the gases which cannot be
liquefied
(C*) The solute follows Henry law at all pressure of gas
(D) The solute follows Henry law at low pressure of gas
Q.2
For an ionic crystal of the general formula AX and the coordination number 6, the values of radius ratio
will be
[3]
(A) Greater than 0.73
(B*) In between 0.73 and 0.41
(C) In between 0.41 and 0.22
(D) Less than 0.22
Q.3
The standard EMF of the cell in which the reaction, MnO 4 + 5Fe2+ + 8H+ Mn2++ 5Fe3+ + 4H2O
occurs is 0.59 V at 25. The equilibrium constant for the given reaction is approximately.
[3]
50
5
(A) 50
(B) 10
(C*) 10
(D) 10
Q.4
Based upon the technique of reverse osmosis the approximate pressure required to desalinate sea water
containing 2.5% (mass/volume) NaCl at 27C will be:
[3]
(A) 10.5 atm
(B*) 21 atm
(C) 2.1 atm
(D) 1.05 atm
Comprehension
Question No. 5 to 7 (3 questions)
Freezing point of a liquid is defined as that temperature at which it is in equilibrium with its solid state.
Q.5
Phase diagram for a pure solvent and solution for depression in freezing point.
Freezing point of the following system is:
liquid solvent l solid solvent
(A)
H G
T.S
(B*)
H
S
(C)
G
S
(D)
S
H
[3]
Q.6
Freezing point of an ideal solution containing a non-volatile solute is smaller than that point of a solvent.
It is due to:
[3]
(A) H of solution and solvent is almost identical since intermolecular forces between solvent molecules
are involved
(B*) S of solution is larger than that for the solvent
(C) S of the solution is smaller than that of the solvent
(D) H of the solution is much higher than of solvent but S of solution is smaller than that of the solvent
Q.7
60 g of urea is dissolved in 1100 g solution. To keep T/ Kf as 1 mol/kg, water separated in the form of ice is:
(A*) 40 g
(B) 60 g
(C) 100 g
(D) 200 g
[3]
+
(A*) The nearest neighbour of A is 6 B ion (B*) The nearest neighbour of B is 6 A ion
3
(C*) The second neighbour of A+ is 12 A+
(D) The packing fraction of AB crystal is
8
Q.9 Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct?
[4]
(A*) The coordination number of each type of ion in CsCl crystal is 8.
(B) A metal that crystallizes in bcc structure has a coordination no. of 12.
(C*) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells.
(D*) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm ( rNa 95pm,rCl 181pm )
Subjective
Q.10 A solution of a nonvolatile solute in water freezes at 0.30C. The vapor pressure of pure water at
298K is 23.51mmHg and Kf for water is 1.86 degree/molal. Calculate the vapor pressure of this solution
at 298K.
[4]
[Ans. 23.44 mm Hg]
ASSIGNMENT-29
Single correct
Q.1 How many nearest neighbours Cs+ are present in CsCl structure
(A) 6
(B*) 8
(C) 12
[3]
(D) 4
Q.2
If the positions of Na+ and Cl are interchanged in NaCl, the crystal lattice with respect to Na+ and Cl is :
[3]
(A*) unchanged
(B) changes to 8:8 coordination from 6:6
(C) additivity of ionic radii for a is lost
(D) none
Q.3
Q.4
A mineral having the formula AB2 crystallises in the cubic close-packed lattice, with the A atoms occupying
the lattice points. The co-ordination number of the A atoms, that of B atoms and the fraction of the
tetrahedral sites occupied by B atoms are
[3]
(A*) 8, 4, 100%
(B) 2, 6, 75%
(C) 3, 1, 25%
(D) 6, 6, 50%
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
r
lies between 0.225 to 0.414, cation occupies
r
(A*) tetrahedral void (B) octahedral void
(C) trigonal void
If
[3]
(D) cubic void
[3]
(D) 3
(D) BCC
ABC.ABC....... is called
(A) HCP
(B*) FCC
[3]
[3]
(C) BCC
Subjective
Q.10 10 gm of NH4Cl (mol. weight = 53.5) when dissolved in 1000 gm of water lowered the freezing point by
0.637C. Calculate the degree of cationic hydrolysis of the salt if degree of dissociation of salt is 0.75.
The molal depression constant of water is 1.86 kg mol1 K.
[5]
[Ans. h = 0.109]
ASSIGNMENT-30
Single correct
Q.1
Graph depicting correct behaviour of ideal gas & H2 gas will be (neglect a)
(A*)
Q.2
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
Vmolar
ab
a
(C*) V
molar b
[3]
[3]
b
(D) aV
molar
(A*) Total area under the two curves is independent of moles of gas
(B*) If dU1= f Umps1 & dU2 = f Umps2 then A1 = A2
(C) T1 > T2 and hence higher the temperature, sharper the curve.
(D*) The fraction of molecules having speed = Umps decreases as temperature increases.
Q.4
Subjective
Q.5 The gas having higher value of Vander Waal's constant "a" will be __________ compressible than the
one having lower value of "a", provided Vander Waal's constant "b" is same for both the gases. [2]
[Ans. more]
Q.6
At what temperature in C, the Urms of SO2 is equal to the average velocity of O2 at 27C. [4]
[Ans. 236.3C]
Q.7
Calculate the fraction of N2 molecules at 101.325 kPa and 300 K whose speeds are in the range of
ump 0.005 ump to ump + 0.005 ump.
[4]
[Ans. 8.303 103]
Q.8
Q.9
The molar volume of He at 10.1325 MPa and 273 K is 0.011075 of its molar volume at 101.325 KPa
at 273 K.Calculate the radius of helium atom. The gas is assumed to show real gas nature. Neglect the
value of a for He.
[4]
[Ans. r = 1.33 108]
[4]
ASSIGNMENT-31
Single correct
Q.1
Correct option regarding a container containing 1 mol of a gas in 22.4 litre container at 273 K is [3]
(A) If compressibility factor (z) > 1 then 'P' will be less than 1 atm.
(B*) If compressibility factor (z) > 1 then 'P' will be greater than 1 atm.
(C) If 'b' dominates, pressure will be less than 1 atm.
(D) If 'a' dominates, pressure will be greater than 1 atm.
Q.2
[3]
[JEE 2000]
(D) Vm = 44.8 L
[4]
Q.5
Match gases under specific conditions listed in Column I with their properties / laws in Column II.
Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 4 matrix given in the ORS. [8]
Column I
Column II
(A) Hydrogen gas (P = 200 atm, T = 273 K)
(P) Compressibility factor 1
(B) Hydrogen gas (P ~ 0, T = 273 K)
(Q) Attractive forces are dominant
(C) CO2 (P = 1 atm, T = 273 K)
(R) PV = nRT
(D) Real gas with very large molar volume
(S) P (V nb) = nRT
[JEE 2007]
[Ans. (A) P, S; (B) R; (C) P, Q; (D) R ]
Subjective
Q.6 Sign of initial slope of compressibility factor (z) versus P curves is ________ if a gas is below its Boyle's
temperature and ________ if it is above its Boyle's temperature.
[4]
[Ans. ive, +ive]
Q.7
At 273.15 K and under a pressure of 10.1325 MPa, the compressibility factor of O2 is 0.927. Calculate
the mass of O2 necessary to fill a gas cylinder of 100 dm3 capacity under the given conditions. [4]
[Ans. 15.40 kg]
Q.8
Using Vander Waals equation, calculate the constant "a" when 2 moles of a gas confined in a 4 litre flask
exerts a pressure of 11.0 atmp at a temperature of 300 k. The value of "b" is 0.05 litre mol 1. [4]
[JEE 1998]
[Ans. 6.46 atmp L2 mol2]
Q.9
The compression factor (compressibility factor) for one mole of a vander Waals gas at 0C and 100
atmosphere pressure is found to be 0.5. Assuming that the volume of a gas molecule is negligible, calculate
the vander waals constant 'a'.
[4]
[JEE 2001]
[Ans. 1.2544 atmp L2 mol2]
Q.10 1 mole of CCl4 vapours at 27C occupies a volume of 40 lit. If Vander Waals constant are 24.6 L2 atm
mol1 and 0.125 Lmol1. Calculate compressibility factor under
[6]
(a) Low pressure region
(b) High Pressure region
[Take R = 0.082 lit-atm/mol/K]
[Ans. (a) 0.975; (b) 1.003]
ASSIGNMENT-32
Single correct
Q.1 The term that corrects for the attractive forces present in a real gas in the Vander Waals equation is [3]
[JEE 2009]
(A) nb
Q.2
(B*)
an 2
V2
(C)
an 2
V2
PV
>1
nRT
PV
<1
nRT
(D) nb
[3]
[JEE 2003]
PV
>1
nRT
PV
<1
nRT
Subjective
Q.4 The density of water vapour at 327.6 atm and 776.4 K is 133.2 gm/dm3.
Determine the molar volume, Vm of water and the compression factor.
[4]
[Ans. Molar vol = 0.1353 L/mol; Z = 0.6957 ]
Q.5
The vander waals constant for O2 are a = 1.36 atm L2 mol2 and b = 0.0318 L mol1. Calculate the
temperature at which O2 gas behaves, ideally for longer range of pressure.
[4]
[Ans. 521 K]
Q.6
Q.7
For a real gas obeying van der Waal's equation a graph is plotted between PVm (y-axis) and P(x-axis)
where Vm is molar volume. Find y-intercept of the graph.
[4]
[JEE 2004]
[Ans. RT]
Q.8
For a real gas (mol. mass = 30) if density at critical point is 0.40 g/cm3 and its Tc =
calculate Vander Waal's constant a (in atm L2mol2).
Q.9
[4]
2 105
K, then
821
[Ans. 1.6875 ]
A commercial cylinder contains 6.91 m3 of O2 at 15.18 M Pa and 21C. the critical constants for O2 are
TC = 118.4C , PC = 50.1 atmp. Determine the reduced pressure and reduced temperature for O2
under these conditions.
[4]
[Ans. PR = 2.99 , TR = 1.90]
Q.10 The density of the vapour of a substance at 1 atm pressure and 500 K is 0.36 Kg m3. The vapour
effuses through a small hole at a rate of 1.33 times faster than oxygen under the same condition. [6]
Determine
(i) mol. wt.; (ii) molar volume;
(iii) compression factor (z) of the vapour and
(iv) which forces among the gas molecules are dominating, the attractive or the repulsive
[JEE 2002]
1
[Ans. (i) 18.1 g/mol , (ii) 50.25 L mol , (iii) 1.224 , (iv) repulsive, ]
ASSIGNMENT-33
If the radius of first Bohr orbit is x, then de-Broglie wavelength of electron in 3rd orbit is nearly [3]
(A) 2 x
(B*) 6 x
(C) 9 x
(D) x / 3
Q.3
If E1, E2 and E3 represent respectively the kinetic energies of an electron, an alpha particle and a proton
respectively each having same deBroblie wavelength then
[3]
(A*) E1 > E3 > E2
(B) E2 > E3 > E1
(C) E1 > E2 > E3
(D) E1 = E2 = E3
Q.4
The ratio of difference in wavelengths of 1st and 2nd lines of Lyman series in Hlike atom to difference in
wavelength for 2nd and 3rd lines of same series is:
[3]
(A) 2.5 : 1
(B*) 3.5 : 1
(C) 4.5 : 1
(D) 5.5 : 1
Comprehension
Question No. 5 to 7 (3 questions)
The French physicist Louis de Broglie in 1924 postulated that matter, like radiation, should exhibit a dual
behaviour. He proposed the following relationship between the wavelength of a material particle, its
linear momentum p and planck constant h.
h
h
=
p
mv
The de Broglie relation implies that the wavelength of a particle should decreases as its velocity increases.
It also implies that for a given velocity heavier particles should have shorter wavelength than lighter
particles. The waves associated with particles in motion are called matter waves or de Broglie waves.
=
Q.5
The correct order of wavelength of Hydrogen (1H1), Deuterium (1H2) and Tritium (1H3) moving with
same kinetic energy is
[3]
(A*) H > D > T
(B) H = D = T
(C) H < D < T
(D) H < D > T
Q.6
The transition, so that the de-Broglie wavelength of electron becomes 3 times of its initial value in He+ ion
will be
[3]
(A) 2 5
(B) 3 2
(C*) 2 6
(D) 1 2
Q.7
If the uncertainty in velocity & position is same, then the uncertainty in momentum will be
(A*)
hm
4
(B) m
h
4
(C)
h
4m
(D)
1 h
m 4
[3]
Column I
Orbital angular momentum of the
electron in a hydrogen-like atomic orbital
(P)
Column II
Principal quantum number
(B)
(Q)
(C)
(R)
(D)
Subjective
Q.9 A proton is accelerated to one- tenth of the velocity of light. If its velocity can be measured with a
precision + 1%. What must be its uncertainity in position.
[5]
13
[Ans. 1.0510 m]
Q.10 What is de Broglie wavelength associated with an e accelerated through potential difference = 100 KV.
[5]
[Ans. 3.88 pm]
Q.11
Calculate the de-broglie wavelength associated with motion of earth (mass 6 1024 Kg) orbiting around
the sun at a speed of 3 106 m/s.
[5]
65
[Ans. 3.68 10 m]
ASSIGNMENT-34
1
1
1
(B*)
3
1
2
(C) 3 =
1 2
2
1
1
(D)
3
1
2
Q.2
Number of possible spectral lines which may be emitted in bracket series in H atom, if electrons present
in 9th excited level returns to ground level, are
[3]
(A) 21
(B*) 6
(C) 45
(D) 5
Q.3
The wavelength associated with a golf weighing 200g and moving at a speed of 5m/h is of the order [3]
(A) 1010m
(B) 1020m
(C*) 1030m
(D) 1040m
Q.4
Q.5
Assuming Heisenberg Uncertainity Principle to be true what could be the minimum uncertainty in de-broglie
wavelength of a moving electron accelerated by Potential Difference of 6 V whose uncertainty in position
7
n.m.
22
(A) 6.25
is
[3]
(B) 6
(C*) 0.625
(D) 0.3125
r
1
(4 ) e / 2 , =
3/ 2
2
9 6 a0
[3]
[4]
(A)
(P)
4s
(B)
(Q)
5px
(R)
(S)
3s
6dxy
(C)
(D)
A cylindrical source of light which emits radiation radially (from curved surface) only, placed at the
centre of a hollow, metallic cylindrical surface, as shown in diagram.
The power of source is 90 watt and it emits light of wavelength 4000 only. The emitted photons strike
the metallic cylindrical surface which results in ejection of photoelectrons. All ejected photoelectrons
reaches to anode (light source). The magnit ude of photocurrent is
[Given : h = 6.4 1034 J/sec.]
[5]
[Ans.10 amp]