Magnetic vector potential

When we derived the scalar electric potential we started with the relation
~ E
~ = 0 to conclude that E
~ could be written as the gradient of a scalar
r
potential. That wonzt work for the magnetic eld (except where ~j = 0); because
~ is not zero in general. Instead, the divergence of B
~ is zero. That
the curl of B
~ may be written as the curl of a vector that we shall call A:
~
means that B

~ =r
~ A
~)r
~ B
~ =r
~ r
~ A
~ =0
B

Then the second equation becomes

~ B
~ =r
~ r
~ A
~ =r
~ r
~ A
~ r2 A
~ = ~j
r
0

~ = rV
~ is
We had some exibility in choosing the scalar potential V because E
~ (constant) = 0: Similarly here,
not changed if we add a constant to V; since r
~ the gradient of a scalar function, A
~2 = A
~ 1 + r;
~
if we add to A
we have

~2 = r
~ A
~2 = r
~ A
~ 1 + r
~
~ A
~1 = B
~1
B
=r
~ A
~ = 0: For suppose this is not true.
With this exibility, we may choose r
Then

~ A
~ 1 + r
~
~ A
~ 1 + r2 = 0
r
=r
So we have an equation for the function

~ A
~1
r2 = r
~ 2 whose divergence is zero. Once we
Once we solve this we will have a vector A
~ A
~ = 0 from the start. This is
know that we can do this, we may just set r
~ is
called the Coulomb gauge condition. With this choice, the equation for A
~ = 0~j
r2 A

(1)

We may look at this equation one component at a time (provided that we use
Cartesian components.) Thus, for the xcomponent
r2 Ax = 0 j x
This equation has the same form as the equation for V
r2 V =

"0

and thus the solution will also have the same form:
Z

jx (~r0 ) 0
Ax (~r) = 0
d
4
R
1

and since we have an identical relation for each component, then

~ = 0
A
4

Z ~ 0
j (~r ) 0
d
R

(2)

Now remember that ~j d corresponds to Id~`; so if the current is conned in

wires, the result is
Z
0
Id~`0
~
A=
(3)
4
R

At this point we may stop and consider if there is any rule for magnetic eld
analagous to our RULE 1 for electric elds. Since there is no magetic charge,
there is no "point charge" eld. But we can use our expansion
1

X (r0 )l

1
=
P cos 0
l+1 l
R
r
l= 0
where ~r is on the polar axis. Then
Z

X I
l
~ (~r = r^
A
z) = 0
(r 0) Pl cos 0 d~`0
l+1
4
r

The l = 0 term is

Z
~ 0 = 0 I
A
d~`0
4 r
R
Since the current ows in closed loops, d~`0 = 0: (This result is actually more
~ ~j = 0; and the lines of ~j also form closed
general, because in a static situation r
loops.) This is the result we expected. The next term is
Z
Z
0 I
0 I
0
0 ~0
~
A1 =
r cos d` =
(~r0 z^) d~`0
4r2
4r 2
We can use Stokes theorem to evaluate this integral.
Z
Z

~ ~u ^n dA
~u d~l =
r

Let ~u = ~c where ~c is a constant vector and is a scalar function. Then

Z
Z

~ ~c n
~c d~l =
r
^ dA
Z h
i
~
=
r
~c n
^ dA

We may re-arrange the triple scalar product

Z
Z
~
~c d~l = ~c
r
n
^ dA
2

This is true for an arbitrary constant vector ~c; so, with = (~r 0 z^)
Z
Z h
i
~ 0 (~r0 z^) n
(~r0 z^) d~l0 =
r
^ 0 dA0
Z h
0

i
~ ~r0 + z^ r
~ 0 ~r0 ^n0dA0
=
^z r
Z
= (0 + z^ n
^ 0 ) dA0
Z
Z
0
0
= ^z n
^ dA =
^n0dA0 z^
Note that z^ can come out of the integral because it is a constant. So
Z
0 I
0
0
~
A1 =
n
^ 0 dA0 z^ =
m
~ z^ =
m
~ r^
2
2
4r
4 r
4r2
where
m
~ =I

n
^ 0 dA0

is the magnetic moment of the loop. The corresponding magnetic eld is

h
i
~1 = r
~ 0 m
B
~

r
^
2
4r

0
3
1 ~
=
4 ^r ( m
~ ~r ) + 3 r
(m
~ ~r)
4
r
r

0
3
1
~ ~r + m
~ ~r
=
3 [m
~ ^r (m
~ ^r)] + 3 m
~ r
~ r
4
r
r
0
=
(3 m
~ + 3~r (~
m r^) m
~ + 3m)
~
4r 3
0
=
[3~r ( m
~ ^r) m
~]
4r 3
This is a dipole eld. Thus the magnetic equivalent of RULE 1 is :
At a great distance from a current distribution, the magnetic
eld is a dipole eld
Here is another useful result:
I
Z
Z

~
~
~
~
~ ^n da = B
A d` =
rA n
^ da =
B
C

(4)

~ around a curve C equals the magnetic ux through

Thus the circulation of A
any surface S spanning the curve.
~
Boundary conditions for B
We start with the Maxwell equations. Remember, if the equation has a
divergence we integrate over a small volume (pillbox) that crosses the boundary.
3

But if the equation has a curl, we integrate over a rectangular surface that lies
perpendicular to the surface.
~ B
~ =0
So we start with r
Z
I
~
~
~ dA
~
r Bd = 0 = B
S

But because we chose h d; the integral over the sides is negligible, and on
~ 2 = ^ndA; so we have
the bottom side dA

~1 B
~2 n
B
^=0
(5)
~ is continuous.
The normal component of B
For the curl equation, we use the rectangle shown:

Then

Z
S

~ B
~ dA
~ =
r
I
~ d~` =
B
C

~1 B
~ 2 ^t w
B

~1 B
~ 2 ^
B
n N^

~
0~j dA
Z
^ dh w
0 ~j N
S

0 0

~ N^
0 K

~jdh N^ w

Rearrange the triple scalar product on the left to get

h

i
~1 B
~2 n
~ N^
B
^ N^ = 0 K
Since we may orient the rectangle so that N^ is any vector in the surface, we
have

~1 B
~ 2 = 0 K
~
n
^ B
(6)
~ has a discontinuity that depends on the
Thus the tangential component of B
~
surface current density K: Crossing both sides with n
^ ; we get an alternate
version:
h

i
~1 B
~2 n
~ ^n
n
^ B
^ = 0 K

h
i
~1 B
~ 2 ^n n
~1 B
~2
~ ^n
B
^ B
= 0 K
But now we may make use of (5) to obtain

~1 B
~2 = K
~ ^n
B
0

(7)

What about the vector potential? Remember that for the scalar potential V we were able to show that V is continuous across the surface (in most
~ we rst choose a gauge condition. The Coulomb gauge
cases). When we nd A
condition is
~ A
~=0
r
and then we can use our usual pillbox trick to show that
~ n
A
^ is continuous

(8)

For the tangential component, we make use of equation (4). Then, using the
rectangle,
I
~ d~` = B = B
~ N^ wh
A

Thus we have

~1 A
~ 2 ^t w
A

~ N^ wh ! 0 as h ! 0
B

~ ^t is continuous
A

(9)

These two result taken together show that the vector potential as a whole is
also continuous across the boundary.
~ into equation (6):
Finally letzs put A

~ A
~1 A
~ 2 = 0 K
~ n
r
^
5

~ have a discontinuity. But which ones? Letzs expand

So the derivatives of A

~ =n
~ A
~ = nirA
~ i n
~ A
~
n
^B
^ r
^r
Then

~1 B
~ 2 = ni r
~ (Ai;1 Ai;2 ) n
~
~1 A
~ 2 = 0 K
~
n
^ B
^r
A

(10)

~ is continuous at the surface. So

But we have shown that each component of A
the components of
~ (Ai;1 Ai;2 )
r

parallel to the surface must be zero. Thus only the normal derivatives remain.
Then the normal component of equation (10) is identically zero, and the only
non-zero components of the boundary condition are the tangential components

~
~1 A
~2
~
n
^r
A
= 0 K
(11)
tan

~ satises Laplacezs equation with

Now this is neat. Each component of A
Neumann boundary conditions, and so it must have a unique solution, as we
already proved for V:
Magnetic scalar potential
~ B
~ = 0 and we may use a
When we have the special case of ~j 0; r
magnetic scalar potenial ma g . This can be useful if the current is conned to
lines or sheets, because we can create a nice boundary-value problem for m ag :
~ = r
~ m ag
B

~ B
~ = 0 ) r2 m ag = 0
r

~ m ag is continuous
Bn o rma l continuous ) ^n r

~1 B
~2 = K
~ )n
~ (m ag 1 m ag 2 ) = K
~
n
^ B
^r
0
0

(12)
(13)
(14)

Letzs use these boundary conditions to nd the potential due to a spinning

spherical shell of charge. The current is conned to the surface and has the
value
~ = ~v = ~! ~r = !a sin
^
K
where in the last expression put the zaxis along the rotation axis. We will
take to be a constant. The equation for m ag in the region entirely inside (or
entirely outside) the sphere is (1 with ~j = 0)
r2 ma g = 0
and because we have azimuthal symmetry, the solution is of the form
in

1
X

C l rl P l (cos )

l=1

ou t

1
X
Dl
P l (cos )
rl+ 1
l=1

We have omitted the l = 0 term because it contributes zero eld inside, and we
know there can be no monopole term outside. What else do we know? At the
boundary, from (13)

@m ag ,ou t
@m ag ,in

= 0

@r
@r
r=a

1
X

r= a

lCl al1 P l (cos ) =

l=1

Cl

1
X

(l + 1)

l=1

Dl
P l (cos )
al+2

Dl l + 1
a2l+1 l

l>0

(15)

and from (14).

@m ag, ou t
@m ag,in

@
@
r =a

1
@m ag, ou t
@m ag,in

a sin
@
@
r =a
1
a

r=a

= 0 a! sin
= 0

r=a

The last equation is automatically satised. Thus the nal condition we need
to satisfy is
1
1
X
X
Dl @
@
P
(cos
)

C l al1 P l (cos ) = 0 a! sin

l
al+ 2 @
@
l=1

l=1

@
Now since P 1 (cos ) = cos and @
cos = sin ; the rst term in the sum is

D1

C1 sin
a3

so we may satisfy the boundary conditons by taking

D1
C 1 = 0 a!
a3
and all the other C l ; Dl = 0: Then equation (15) gives
D1
D1 2
a4 !
+ 3 = 0 a! ) D1 = 0
3
a
a 1
3
and then
C1 = 2
So
m ag =
giving a eld
~ =
B

0 a!
3

23 0 a!r cos
1
2 a2
3 0 a ! r 2 cos
2

a
0 a! 3r
3

inside
outside

3 0 a! z^

2 cos r^ + sin ^
7

inside
outside

Thus the eld inside is uniform and the eld outside is a pure dipole eld. The
dipole moment is
4 4
m=
a !
3
The dimensions of m are
4

charge (length)
charge
2
=
(length) = current area
area
time
time
which is correct. You should verify that you get the same m by summing current
loops.
Compare this solution with Grithsz example 5.11. Which method do you
think is easier?