HRM 500 Midterm Exam Answers

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HRM 500 Midterm Exam Answers

1. The policies, practices, and systems that influence employees behavior, attitudes,
and performance constitute:
1. materials management.
2. labor laws.
3. human resource management.
4. equal employment opportunity.
5. supply chain management.

2. As a type of resource, human capital refers to the:

1. tax-deferred value of an employees 401(k) plan.
2. total budget allocated to the HR department in an organization.
3. wages, benefits, and other costs incurred in support of HR functions in an
organization.
4. employee characteristics that add economic value to the organization.
5. cash, equipment, technology, and facilities that the organization uses.

3. One of the qualities of human resources is that _____.

1. it is easily imitated by rivals
2. it is easily available for all companies to utilize
3. it is negligible in terms of value
4. it is indispensable for building a competitive advantage
5. it is highly substitutable and interchangeable

4. Which of the following responsibilities is specifically associated with the HR

function of support for strategy?
1. Human resource planning and forecasting
2. Wage and salary administration
3. Discipline
4. Developing an HR information system
5. Developing employee handbooks and company publications

5. Which of the following refers to the process of getting detailed information about
jobs?
1. Policy creation

2. Job orientation
3. Job rotation
4. Supply chain management
5. Job analysis

6. Job design is the process of:

1. identifying suitable candidates for jobs.
2. enabling employees to learn job-related knowledge, skills, and behavior.
3. presenting candidates with positive and negative information about a job.
4. defining the way work will be performed and the tasks that a given job
requires.
5. generating a pool of potential candidates for a job.

7. Which of the following refers to the process through which an organization seeks
applicants for potential employment?
1. Orientation
2. Work analysis
3. Training
4. Recruitment
5. Job design

8. The process by which the organization attempts to identify applicants with the
necessary knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics that will help the
organization achieve its goals is referred to as _____.
1. performance management
2. selection
3. work analysis
4. orientation
5. compensation

9. _____ is a planned effort to enable employees to learn job-related knowledge, skills,

and behavior.
1. Training
2. Compensation
3. Performance appraisal
4. Recruitment
5. Selection

10. The HR function of _____ involves acquiring knowledge, skills, and behavior that
improve employees ability to meet the challenges of a variety of new or existing
jobs, including the client and customer demands of those jobs.

1. recruitment
2. selection
3. development
4. employee relations
5. personnel policy

11. The process of ensuring that employees activities and outputs match the
organizations goals is called _____.
1. employee development
2. performance management
3. job analysis
4. supply chain management
5. career planning

12. How does establishing and administering policies help organizations?

1. It encourages employees to defend themselves by claiming ignorance of
disciplinary norms.
2. It leaves a lot of room for subjective decision-making.

3. It allows companies to address issues on a case-by-case basis.

4. It eliminates the need for documentation and record-keeping.
5. It allows companies to handle situations fairly and objectively.

13. _____ refers to the use of quantitative tools and scientific methods to analyze data
from human resource databases and other sources to make evidence-based decisions
that support business goals.
1. Workforce analytics
2. Career development
3. Task analysis
4. Conjoint analysis
5. Performance management

14. Under the principle of employment at will, the employer may terminate
employment:
1. immediately after written notice.
2. after two weeks notice.
3. only if the employee voluntarily resigns.
4. at any time without notice.
5. only if he cannot show just cause.

15. The process that helps the human resource department to forecast the
organizations needs for hiring, training, reassigning employees along with handling
or avoiding layoffs is known as _____.
1. evidence-based HR
2. supply chain management
3. corporate social responsibility
4. human resource planning
5. job development

16. An organizations ability to profit without depleting its resources, including

employees, natural resources, and the support of the surrounding community is
called _____.
1. social media optimization
2. high-performance management
3. sustainability
4. substitutability
5. supply chain management

17. The parties with an interest in the companys successtypically, shareholders, the
community, customers, and employeesconstitute the _____ of a company.

1. management
2. market
3. personnel
4. stakeholders
5. strategic partners

18. Which of the following is true of sustainable organizations?

1. They focus on smooth turnover and outsourcing rather than long-term
planning.
2. They are less concerned about employee development and empowerment.
3. They are more concerned about justice and fairness rather than short-term
profits.
4. They are more concerned with the quantum of output than quality
standards.
5. They primarily focus on maximizing profits and delivering high returns to
investors.

19. Which of the following statements is true about HR responsibilities of supervisors?

1. Non-HR managers do not need be familiar with the basics of HRM.
2. HR activities are invariably limited to the specialists in the HR department.
3. Supervisors typically have responsibilities related to all the HR functions.

4. In small organizations, all HR activities are carried out by HR specialists.

5. Job analysis and job design are techniques that lie outside the purview of
supervisors.

20. Which of the following is true of ethics in human resource management?

1. Most managers have a positive perception of the ethical conduct of U.S.
businesses.
2. Evidence shows that HRM practices are invariably ethical.
3. Many ethical issues in the workplace involve human resource management.
4. Most people believe that individuals apply values they hold in their personal
lives to their professional activities.
5. The general public has a positive perception of the ethical conduct of U.S.
businesses.

21. The right of employees to know the nature of the job they are being hired to do and
the obligation of a company not to deceive them in this respect is mainly reflective of
the basic Kantian right of _____.
1. free consent
2. privacy
3. freedom of conscience
4. due process

5. freedom of speech

22. Which one of Kants basic human rights is violated when a supervisor requires an
employee to do something that is unsafe or environmentally damaging, in spite of
the employee clearly objecting to the order?
1. Right of freedom of conscience
2. Right of equal opportunity employment
3. Right to due process
4. Right of freedom of speech
5. Right of privacy

23. Peoples right of privacy is the right to:

1. fight against a wrongful discharge.
2. know the nature of the job they are being hired for.
3. control what they reveal about their private life.
4. autonomy in how they carry out their work.
5. a fair and impartial hearing.

24. If people believe their rights are being violated, they have the right to a fair and
impartial hearing. This reflects the basic human right to:
1.
2. freedom of conscience.
3. lifetime employment.
4. due process.
5. free consent.

25. Which of the following is a standard that human resource managers must satisfy for
HRM practices to be ethical?
1. Human resource practices must result in the greatest good for the largest
number of people.
2. Employment practices must respect employees right of lifetime employment.
3. Employment practices must limit the application of the principle of
employment-at-will as it is unfair to employees.
4. Managers must treat employees as family.
5. Managers must always maintain that customers are right.

26. Which of the following statements best explains the term labor force?

1. All the people willing and able to work

2. All the permanent employees of an organization
3. All the adult members of a population
4. All the people who have contracts to work at the company
5. All the temporary workers of an organization

27. Which of the following statements about the composition of the U.S. labor force
during the next decade is true?
1. The largest proportion of the labor force is expected to be in the 16- to 25year age group.
2. For the first time ever, the number of workers under 40 years of age will
exceed the number of workers 40 years of age or older.
3. The labor force is expected to grow at a greater rate than at any other time in
U.S. history.
4. Despite a small increase in the number of young workers, the overall
workforce will be aging.
5. The total cost of labor in the United States would considerably decrease.

28. Managing cultural diversity involves:

1. avoiding the use of affirmative action policies.
2. encouraging career development for women and minorities.
3. reducing cultural diversity by selective hiring.

4. creating separate career tracks for employees with families.

5. forming different pay structures for various groups.

29. Which of the following skills are more actively sought by U.S. employers today?
1. Physical strength
2. Mastery of particular machinery
3. Ability to perform routine tasks
4. Ability to work with a tool
5. Interpersonal skills

30. Which of the following defines organizations with the best possible fit between their
social system and their technical system?
1. Holistic management systems
2. High-performance work systems
3. Total quality management systems
4. Supply chain systems
5. Workforce analysis systems

31. Which of the following is a trend that is seen in present day high-performance work
systems?
1. Employee empowerment in decision making
2. Mismatches in technical system and social system
3. Centralized decision making
4. Increase in individual assignments
5. Reduced reliance on knowledge workers

32. Employee empowerment primarily involves _____.

1. continually learning and improving ones skills and abilities
2. following a centralized and tall organizational structure
3. providing increased salary and benefits to employees
4. leading employees by the strength of ones charisma
5. giving employees responsibility and authority to make decisions

33. _____ refers to full involvement in ones work and commitment to ones job and
company.
1. Employee selection
2. Job enlargement
3. Employee appraisal

4. Job specialization
5. Employee engagement

34. The term teamwork essentially refers to:

1. centralizing responsibility and authority to make decisions regarding all
aspects of product development.
2. providing employees with individual opportunities to grow, thereby achieving
organizational goals.
3. having the best possible fit between an organizations social system and
technical system.
4. making efforts to continuously improve the ways people, machines, and
systems accomplish work.
5. assigning work to a group of employees with various skills who interact to
assemble a product.

35. Which of the following terms describes a company wide effort to continuously
improve the way people, machines, and systems accomplish work?
1. Total quality management
2. Optimal performance system
3. Business reengineering
4. High-performance work system
5. Performance management

36. When two companies join forces and become one entity, it is referred to as a(n):
1. joint venture.
2.
3. take-over.
4. strategic alliance.
5.

37. A chemical company buying a medical equipment manufacturing company is an

example of a(n) _____.
1. partnership
2. acquisition
3. consolidation
4. strategic alliance
5. joint venture

38. When an organization undertakes a complete review of its critical work processes to
make them more efficient and to be able to deliver higher quality, it is engaging in:
1.
2.
3. greenfield venturing.
4.
5.

39. Home Needs is a consumer goods company who provide the option of door-to-door
delivery. They have partnered with a packaging company for transporting their
goods to the customers. This practice of having another company to provide one of
the services of the company is known as _____.
1. outsourcing
2. reengineering
3. cause marketing
4. disinvesting
5. downsizing

40. Which of the following is the reason why more organizations are looking overseas to
hire talented people?
1. Lack of demand for their products in the U.S.
2. Governmental pressure

3. Poor quality of labor in the U.S.

4. Low cost of labor in foreign countries
5. Lack of technology in the U.S.

41. Employees who take assignments in other countries are called _____.
1. external employees
2. expatriates
3. emigrants
4. immigrants
5. home-country nationals

42. Employees who take assignments in other countries are called _____.
1. expatriates
2. emigrants
3. external employees
4. immigrants
5. home-country nationals

43. A(n) _____ provides insight into business trends and patterns and helps businesses
improve decisions.
1. shared service center
2. electronic performance support systems
3. Internet portal
4. application service provider
5. business intelligence system

44. A system in which employees have online access to information about HR issues and
go online to enroll themselves in programs and provide feedback through surveys is
termed as:
1. data mining.
2. payroll automation.
3. social facilitation
4. cloud computing.
5. self-service.

45. The relationship between employer and employee can be thought of in terms of a(n)
_____, a description of what an employee expects to contribute in an employment
relationship and what the employer will provide the employee in exchange for those
contributions. Unlike a written sales contract, this is not formally put into words.
1. union bond
2. psychological contract
3. employee contract
4. legal agreement
5. offer letter

46. The new type of psychological contract has resulted in reduced:

1.
2. training and development opportunities.
3. employee compensation.
4. job security.
5.

47. Employees realize that many companies are no longer able to provide long-term
employment security. Instead, the employees now want:

1.
2. increased pay.
3. written employment contracts.
4. additional benefits.
5. less demanding work.

48. Independent contractors are:

1. employed directly by a company for a specific time.
2. usually full-time company employees.
3. self-employed individuals with multiple clients.
4. people employed by the company to work on an independent project through
a written contract.
5. people employed by a temporary agency.

49. _____ are employed directly by a company for a specific time, specified in a formal
agreement between the company and the workers.
1. On-call workers
2. Part-time workers
3. Temporary workers
4. Independent contractors

5. Contract company workers

50. The use of independent contractors, on-call workers, temporary workers, and
contract company workers, collectively constitute:
1. alternative work arrangements.
2.
3.
4.
5. high performance work systems.

51. Which of the following is enforced by the Equal Employment Opportunity

Commission?
1. Fourteenth Amendment
2. Thirteenth Amendment
3. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
4. Rehabilitation Act of 1973
5. Executive Order 11246

52. According to the Equal Pay Act of 1963, men and women performing the same job
cannot have differences in pay on the basis of _____.
1. quality of production
2. sex
3. education
4. seniority
5. merit

53. Which of the following is true about Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
1. The act permits employers to retaliate against employees participating in a
proceeding against the employer.
2. The act applies to organizations with 15 or more employees.
3. The act protects employers from an employees opposition to an alleged
illegal employment practice.
4. The act permits employers to hire job applicants belonging exclusively to a
particular nationality.
5. The act permits employers to hire an individual based on his gender and race
in the absence of a BFOQ.

54. Which of the following categories is NOT covered by Title VII of the Civil Rights
Act of 1964?

1. Age discrimination
2. Gender discrimination
3. Discrimination on the basis of nationality
4. Religious discrimination
5. Racial discrimination

55. Which of the following is true about Age Discrimination in Employment Act
(ADEA)?
40. ADEA permits an employer to reduce the fringe benefits to all employees
over 40.
41. ADEA permits companies to lay off older workers when the economy is slow.
42. ADEA favors the idea of coercing employees to accept early-retirement
incentives.
43. ADEA recommends early-retirement incentive programs wherein employees
agree not to sue the company for ageism.
44. ADEA outlaws making employment decisions based on a persons age being
over 40.

56. Which of the following terms refer to an organizations active effort to find
opportunities to hire or promote people in a particular group?
1. Disparate impact

2. Reasonable accommodation
3. Adverse impact
4. Reverse discrimination
5. Affirmative action

57. Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 was introduced to enhance employment

opportunity for _____.
1. older employees
2. minors
3. individuals with disabilities
4. minorities
5. women

58. Which of the following individuals will NOT be covered under the Americans with
Disabilities Act?
1. An individual with cancer in remission
2. An individual with a history of heart disease
3. An individual who is deaf and blind
4. An individual who is subject to substance abuse
5. An individual with a history of mental illness

59. Which of the following is true about the Americans with Disabilities Act?
1. It classifies a person, who needs ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses to
perform each major life activity with little or no difficulty, as disabled.
2. It goes beyond prohibiting discrimination to require that employers take
steps to accommodate individuals covered under the legislation.
3. It is used to protect individuals with conditions such as obesity and substance
abuse.
4. It permits the employer to cut down on fringe benefits of individuals with
disabilities.
5. It permits discrimination in areas such as layoff and leave.

60. Which of the following is true about the Civil Rights Act of 1991?
1. It prohibits violators from paying compensatory damages.
2. It requires violators to pay punitive damages that specifically cover
emotional pain and suffering.
3. It limits damage claims to attorneys fees and costs.
4. It limits the maximum punitive damages allowed, depending on the size of
the organization.
5. It limits the maximum punitive damages to $50,000 for all organizations even
if the discrimination was intentional.

61. An employee leaves an organization for three years to fulfill military duties. Which
of the following observations is true of the employers obligation to reemploy the
worker under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act?
1. The employer is not obligated to reemploy the worker.
2. The employer should implement an early-retirement incentive program for
the employee.
3. The employer must reemploy the worker but is exempted from providing
him any fringe benefits or retirement benefits.
4. The employer must reemploy the worker with the same seniority and status.
5. The employer must reemploy the employee with a lower pay scale to
compensate for the loss of his absence.

62. An individual wishing to file a complaint with the EEOC or a similar state agency
must file the complaint within _____ days of the incident.
1. 30
2. 7
3. 14
4. 180
5. 360

63. _____ refers to an agreement between the EEOC and an organization that the
organization will cease certain discriminatory practices and possibly institute
additional affirmative-action practices to rectify its history of discrimination.
1. Letter of indemnity
2. Consent decree
3. Good faith bargaining
4. Judicial estoppel
5. Trust agreement

64. _____ is the set of guidelines issued by the EEOC and other agencies to identify how
an organization should establish a recruitment process that is free and fair.
1. Code of Federal Regulations
2. Equal Opportunity Legislation and Policy
3. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures
4. EEO-1 Report
5. Uniform Commercial Code

65. Which of the following refers to a comparison of the race, sex, and ethnic
composition of the employers workforce with that of the available labor supply?
1. Applied behavior analysis
2. SWOT analysis

3. Utilization analysis
4. Content analysis
5. Job analysis

66. _____ refer(s) to a plan identifying the ways in which for how the organization will
meet its diversity goals.
1. Utilization analysis
2. Disparate impact
3. Affirmative action
4. Action steps
5. Diversification

67. Differing conduct toward individuals, where the differences are clearly based on the
individuals race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, or disability status is
termed as _____.
1. disparate treatment
2. disparate impact
3. reverse discrimination
4. reasonable accommodation
5. affirmative action

68. Disparate treatment could be legal if the discrimination _____.

1. is intended to reduce affirmative action
2. is performed by a private employer
3. is performed by a governmental organization
4. is practiced to increase efficiency
5. is categorized as a bona fide occupational qualification

69. _____ refers to a condition in which employment practices are seemingly neutral yet
disproportionately exclude a protected group from employment opportunities.
1. Corrective action
2. Disparate impact
3. Reasonable accommodation
4. Disparate treatment
5. Affirmative action

70. Which of the following actions of employers can result in reverse discrimination?
1. Affirmative action
2. Disparate impact

3. Disparate treatment
4. Retaliation
5. Reasonable accommodation

71. Which of the following refers to an employers obligation to do something to enable

an otherwise qualified person to perform a job?
1. Reverse discrimination
2. Adverse action
3. Disparate impact
4. Reasonable accommodation
5. Reverse discrimination

72. Sexual harassment refers to _____.

1. undue benefits provided to males
2. unwelcome sexual advances
3. reasonable accommodation based on gender
4. discrimination based on gender
5. preferential treatment for a particular sex

73. When an individual is promised a positive outcome for submission to sex, or

threatened with a negative outcome for failure to submit to sex, this is referred to as
_____.
1. undue hardship
2. disparate impact
3. reverse discrimination
4. quid pro quo harassment
5. adverse impact

74. Which of the following is the most comprehensive U.S. law regarding worker safety?
1. OSH Act
2. Civil Rights Act of 1991
3. Rehabilitation Act of 1973
4. Thirteenth amendment
5. Fourteenth amendment

75. Under OSHAs Hazard Communication Standard, organizations must have _____
for chemicals that employees are exposed to.
1. material safety data sheets
2. standard operating protocols

3. white papers
4. EEOC 1 forms
5. action reports

76. The process of analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product or
service is termed as _____.
1. break-even analysis
2. ergonomics
3. industrial engineering
4. utilization analysis
5. work flow design

77. _____ are the products of any work unit.

1. Processes
2. Inputs
3. Jobs
4. Outputs
5. Tasks

78. _____ are the activities that a teams members engage in to produce a given output.
1. Work processes
2. Task identities
3. Job analyses
4. Group dynamics
5. Ergonomic activities

79. The process of getting detailed information about jobs is known as _____.
1. job analysis
2. job rotation
3. job definition
4. job swapping
5. job training

80. Job descriptions generally contain all of the following components EXCEPT _____.
1. the details of pay and benefits attached to the job
2. the job title
3. a list of essential duties

4. the details of the tasks involved

5. a brief description of the responsibilities

81. A _____ is a list of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs)
that an individual must have to perform a particular job.
1. job scope
2. job definition
3. job rotation
4. job specification
5. job evaluation

82. Carla Warne is an HR executive looking for a new job. She comes across an
advertisement in a newspaper seeking applications for the post of an HR manager.
The advertisement exclusively highlights requirements such as strong
communication skills, excellent teamwork, and leadership skills. These requirements
constitute the _____.
1. Ability
2. Responsibility
3. Skill
4. Knowledge
5. Personality traits

83. Skill is defined as _____.

1. the tangible aspects of an employees abilities like licenses or certifications
2. the personality traits such as someones persistence or motivation to achieve
3. the factual or procedural information that is necessary for successfully
performing a task
4. an individuals level of proficiency at performing a particular task
5. the past experience a person has in performing similar jobs

84. The _____ Questionnaire is a standardized job analysis questionnaire containing

194 questions about work behaviors, work conditions, and job characteristics that
apply to a wide variety of jobs.
1. Conjoint Analysis
2. Fleishman Job Analysis
3. Work Flow Design
4. Position Analysis
5. Utilization Analysis

85. Which of the following job analysis methods requires subject-matter experts to
evaluate a job in terms of abilities required to perform the job?
1. Position Analysis Questionnaire
2. Work Sampling Technique
3. Fleishman Job Analysis System
4. Conjoint Analysis Technique
5. Participatory Observation Technique

86. Which of the following HR activities is similar to analyzing a job that does not yet
exist?
1. Work redesign
2. Career development
3. Job evaluation
4. Human resource planning
5. Selection

87. _____ involves assessing the relative dollar value of each job to the organization in
order to set up fair pay structures.
1. Career planning
2. Job rotation
3. Performance appraisal

4. Training
5. Job evaluation

88. Which of the following best defines competency?

1. It is the set of related duties for accomplishing work.
2. It is the list of tasks, duties, and responsibilities (TDRs) that a particular job
entails.
3. It is the activity that a work units members engage in to produce a given
output.
4. It is an area of personal capability that enables employees to perform
successfully.
5. It is the set of duties performed by a particular team.

89. The process of defining how work will be performed and what tasks will be required
in a given job is known as _____.
1. job rotation
2. job design
3. job enrichment
4. job extension
5. job evaluation

90. The industrial engineering approach is most likely to emphasize _____.

1. designing jobs in such a way that they require minimal specialization
2. creating complex and challenging jobs that require innovative employees
3. streamlining jobs to make them simpler, efficient, and automatic
4. elaborate work arrangements and reporting requirements
5. exploring new and diverse ways of doing the same job

91. Which of the following models was developed by Richard Hackman and Greg
Oldham to describe ways to make jobs more motivating?
1. The Motivation-Hygiene Model
2. The Cognitive Dissonance Model
3. The Situational Leadership Model
4. The Push and Pull Model
5. The Job Characteristics Model

92. In terms of the Job Characteristics Model, feedback refers to the extent to which
_____.

1. a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness from the

work itself
2. performance appraisals are perceived as transparent and fair by employees
3. employees are given the authority to make decisions
4. a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved
5. a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved in the job and
its duties

93. In which of the following scenarios will workers be less motivated to perform the
job?
1. When the job allows individuals to take autonomous decisions about the job
2. When a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness
from the work itself
3. When the job has minimal impact on the lives of other people
4. When the job requires completing the whole piece of work from beginning to
end
5. When the job requires a variety of skills to be performed

94. Which of the following is the objective of job enlargement?

1. To increase efficiency by identifying one best way to perform a job
2. To decrease the impact the job has on the lives of other people
3. To make jobs less repetitive and more interesting

4. To decrease the burden of decision-making responsibilities for employees

5. To assess the relative dollar value of each job to the organization

95. Which of the following job design techniques involving the addition of decisionmaking authorities to a job is credited to Frederick Herzberg?
1. Job sharing
2. Job extension
3. Job enlargement
4. Job enrichment
5. Job rotation

96. According to Herzbergs two-factor theory, which of the following factors would
motivate individuals the most?
1. Share in company stock
2. Fringe benefits in the job
3. Periodic bonuses
4. Meaningfulness of a job
5. Salary and allowances

97. Which of the following is true of self-managing work teams?

1. Team members usually share work assignments.
2. Team members joint responsibilities are minimal.
3. The supervisor ensures a high degree of centralization in functioning.
4. Team members job duties are narrowly defined.
5. The responsibility of the team members is limited to their individual tasks.

98. Which of the following best describes ergonomics?

1. The study of the relationship between intrinsic rewards and employee
motivation in the context of human resource management.
2. The study of the knowledge, skills, and abilities of the job.
3. The study of the interface between individuals physiology and the
characteristics of the physical work environment.
4. The study of jobs to find the simplest way to structure work in order to
maximize efficiency.
5. The study of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities for employees in a new job.

99. The final stage in work flow analysis is to identify the _____.
1. market forces of demand and supply for the outputs

2. inputs used in the development of the work units product

3. operating procedures to be applied in production
4. tangible outputs of a particular work unit
5. work processes used to generate the outputs of the work unit

100.

Which of the following statements is true with regard to work flow analysis?
1. Inputs and outputs are the two stages that represent the complete work flow
cycle.
2. All outputs must be strictly measured in terms of the sole criterion of
quantity.
3. Outputs may be tangible or intangible products of different work processes.
4. Information cannot be considered to be an input as it is not tangible.
5. Quality standards are not a key criterion in the process of work flow
analysis.