gars (P= 05 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO T.B.C. : P-DTQJ-QVB Test Booklet Series Serial No. 16049 TEST BOOKLET PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 300 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2, ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you fecl that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You. have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See ‘directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer ‘Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9, Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : ‘THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0-33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (i) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer cven if one of the given answers happens to be'correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question, DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO oma; agtei a fet wan wa ofan & fod GK TTL1, Who among the following have advocated the public policy aspect of Public Administration? 1. H Walker 2. M. E. Dimock 3. F. A. Nigro 4. J. W. Fesler Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 2,3 and 4 @) 1,2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1,3 and 4 2. Who among the following views Public Administration as the art and science of management as applied to the affairs of the State? (2) John Mc Veigh fb) Luther Gulick () D. Waldo (d) J. M. Pfifiner 3. According to Graicunas law of relationships, if the number of subordinates in an organization is 8, which one of the following is the span of total relationships? (a) 100 () 490 (©) 1080 (d) 2376 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : Listt ', (List (Scholar) (Significance of Public Administration) A. PLA. Nigro. 1. Its real core con- sists of the basic services B. H. Fayol 2, A great creative force with men’s welfare as its ideal C. P. Appleby 3. No government can exist without it D. D. Waldo 4. ‘Its processes are universal 5. Its chief function is to facilitate social change Code : @A Bc D 1 3 4 2 A BoC a0 @@ A Bc D @aA B oc vo1. Pefefaa 4 2 feet cts sae & ote 4. A al & aa Pies Fife sik Af eq at anes Bear 8? afta & 2 Re me ge a wT aR wet 1, Wo at ar eR: 2, wre to dia wt = 3. Who Uo si 1 aI 4. Be eaxqo tae (Prat) (pitee serrera wt HER) WA Rem eR a wi wR a TT AL Who Go A 1. gah areaftes aici Oa 5 # ypryg Sand after & Re: B. Wao tala 2. aafat & wear & sft wert wohrers aft Baa (a) 2, 33iR4 oma O) 2 2eks ©. the wate 3. aE Maar eae fet () aa 234 aftica Hal ce were B baste D, owed 4, eal aft erie € 2. Prafefers 48 ae cite waren a Tes 8. year age aad aries meet # aera wees A se atk facia a area aarar & fag & ea A am 8? (a) sia 5 on Hee ©) ae yee @ A B () So weet rs (a) Fe Te Pram ) A B 3, dgara & waru-Pam & agen, aff Pet 51 trea # ative A den 8%, a ga wert A Rrgit Aeietad 4 a sa we Wj AB (a) 100 5 (b) 490 (©) 1080 wa 8 {dj 2376 1 4 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 35. Match List-I with List-Il and select 6. Which one of the following is not a the correct answer using the code conceptual approach in Compara- given below the Lists : tive Public Administration as identified by Ferrel Heady? List-I List @ (Approach to (Explanation) Study of Public (b) Modified traditional approach Administration) {e) Development-administration A. Philosophical 1. Uses administrative approach approach realities and (d) General systems approach acquaints the Scholars with them Cybernetics approach 7. Which one of the following is not Historical Interprets the @ trait of post-modern theory of approach information Public Administration? pertaining to (@) Critical theory administrative agencies in a (®) Structuration theory chronological order Phenomenology . Deals with formal (2) Metacnarrativism structure, organi- zation, powers and Which one of the following is not a functions of public characteristic of ‘Sala model’ of authorities prismatic society? Considers all facets () Nepotism of administrative (b) Entrepreneurship (c) Clects (d) Functional diffusion 9. What does ‘Bazar-Canteen model’ represent? (a) Marketization in new public management (®) Economic sub-system of, prismatic society Financial system of fused authority Economic freedom under public-private partnership P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A5. ai al qu & aa gia Fy otk ‘aft & 48 Re me ae A in aR ET sae gh: wha fia (aie ere & (sare) meres a TaTTA) A. aria sam 1. reraftes aTeafrerensit api wed ata & oh Rant at sa sat wae & B. Rees say 2. werafte atftracit a waht Gast ares ond Fream aa e C. fates samy 3. ate arteries shrartts 34, der, caftral oft april @ were Tame D. Fe-e 4. sarafts farsa & rr wt eaat A at vant we: @aA BC D 1 4 2 A BoC OD 1 4 3 2 @@ A B Cc D 4 3 2 1 @aA B Cc D 4 2 3 1 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 6. Pafefes 4 a Sha], Ra ei aT wea wT, Gere che wT aT ‘oer Sore TE 8? (a) WeiReR sorry (bo) Batata ITE TTT (co) Frere sere Sarre (a) arr were sara 7, foafefaa 4 a aaa, ote weed set oneghias Rtrara a Redhes at 2? (a) wherers Para o) eam fear (oe) veneer (ay sBerakarererarare (Fer RRR) 8, Freafefira 4 8 ahaa was fish ere “aren Higet’ a fatten wet RP (a) sigs (o) sarah () FRA (cy seoratcores Pare 9, ‘arm-Sda Higa’ zat Fela ae 27 (a) Tar cis ware apt (bo) Bente wars snfles sere (o) ape wen A Pies eee (@) wanted ata & seria sifts kara [P.T.0.10. Which of the following models of Fred Riggs is/are nearest in focus to Max Weber's Traditional Authority System? (@) Agraria only () Fused only () Agraria and Fused (d) Industria 11. Which one of the following principles of Henri Fayol is in contrast to F. W. Taylor’s concept of functional authority? (a) Discipline () Hierarchy (©) Departmentalization (4) Unity of command 12, Identify the incorrect statement According to Ferrel Heady, the developing countries (a) have imitative and unindige- nous bureaucracies (2) do not permit functional autonomy to their public services () have administrative services without administrative deve- lopment (a) have elitist’ bureaucracies which are dysfunctional P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 13. Which of the following are the defining features of — Public Administration according to Sir Josiah Stamp? 1. Uniformity of rules 2. Political accountability 3. Lack of ethics in business practices 4. Matrix structure of organi- zations Select the correct answer using the code given below ; Code : (@ 1,2and3 (b) 2,3 and 4 () 1 and 2 only (@) 3 and 4 only 14. Which of the following concepts find prominence in public choice theory? 1. Competition 2. Efficiency 3. Public Utility Maximization 4. Marketization Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1,2 and 4 () Land 3 () 2 and 3 only (a) 2,3 and 410. ke foa ar frafafisa 4 a aaa visa, a dan a fea a warm wat seen & Faire aye (a) act Bite (sien) (o) Fra HRS (o) ite (site) atte ways (a) stteitte: (efeem) Frm 11. @t Sale ar Pefetaa Fa saa ws feard, Who seqo te % veraing wa A dace 8 aera vast 7 (a) seer ) a fo) Pertrare (a) waren A ea 12, mera ae BY TEA + aia te & oT (a) Peart Bat 5 ore org: oft orateh aftarttaa & (o) Remar ta sett cts tarsi zr wearafaras earerat wera et aCe () Reveta at & wa seas tard &, dfta fen sarah fare & (a) Rerta et & we afte aafttartiera &, st smfgrarere & P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 13, mt Tite ea & ayer, Peafefea 4 a ‘cite sera a afer set ate aa ‘Fertwant & fadt A rere Tatts sarah ated wer 9 areca a sera arat A arent deat ta fey me a a iM a a TR arm: Per ee: (@@) 1,233 () 2,334 () Fam 1 sik 2 (d) Fa 3 sig 14, Prefer deer 2 a che fee ‘aa Hf oT ae 87 afeerat ard-great “aan afterattarcr are Aer fa Rem ge Ao Re ad aT ae: : fa) 1,234 ) 133 @ FI2 33 @) 2,334 [P.T.0.15. In the context of State v/s Market debate, which of the following statements are correct? 1. It has a concern for institutional pluralism in the provision of public goods and services. 2. It promotes consumers’ preferences. 3. It has given rise to market orientation. 4. It emphasizes the role of Public Administration as the major provider of goods and services. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1 and 2 only () 2 and 3 only () 1,2and3 @ 3and4 16. Which one of the following is not propounded by F. W. Taylor? (a) Differential piece rate system (b) ‘Time and motion study () Unity of command () Shop management P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 17. Identify the correct order of stages in decision-making, as identified by Herbert Simon {a) Design activity-Choice activity- Intelligence activi () Intelligence activity-Design activity-Choice activity (©) Choice activity-Design activity Intelligence activity (d) intelligence activity-Choice activity-Design activity 18. Consider the following statements : New Public Administration 1, upholds social equity 2. favours ethics-centric public policies 3. advocates centralized struc tures 4. stands for value-based goals Which of the statements given above are correct? (@) 1 and 4 only ) 1, 2and3 ( 1,2and4 (d). 3 and 4 19, Which one of the following has been suggested by Henri Fayol as an alternative to scalar chain? (a) Dual command () Unity of direction () Gangplank (a) Esprit de corps15, 73a wae aM aga & del Ff Prafefiae Fa aha we al 1. sear ardahte ager sit dari aaei & wga yffeat & ee 4, sf aa Bet Bt aa Rem eR An Rw I me (a) Fam 1 3h2 &) ¥aa 2 33 @ 1,233 (a) 334 16. Prafafaa 4 a a-w GH Ue Bye Sen are wife Ae 8? (@) Pas oar x vale fo) Fra wea fo) Ware A wT id) siter-weer (ats Faz) P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 17. was BER we aeN-sifiaTa, Favias A aH are sratenall % wat wea st ETAT, (a) afr Brarnena ae Berea ‘afe frame fo) aie rarer —aiftare Pere aro faa (eo) 7 Frere —siftrae Fircrest fe Brera (a) Oe frareaa1 Pare aaftrnes Rrarnery 18, frafafara sedi a fran fre : ata ae TET 1. arenes eT APA BETA t 2. wrench Sa cheffedt a spies wet t 3, Stiga deers a ve ee z 4. agarenftes ceil at wala oreo & sede seri 4a ahaa wel &7 (a) Fae 1 ate 4 &) 1, 233 () 1,234 (a) 33t4 19. daa Baia aa, dea (Aen) Fae freer % ood, Pafefad 4 8 fra ser aera fem ar 8? (a) teenie fo) Fran A eT (oy frets (@) WRT [P.T.0.20. Which of the following are the salient characteristics of neo-liberalism that have promoted new public management? 1. Welfare State 2. Individual Liberty 3. Market Mechanism 4. Privatization Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (@) land 2 ) Land3 () 2 and 3 only (d) 2,3 and 4 21. Consider the following statements : The discourse theory of post- modern Public Administration as propounded by Fox and Miller believes in 1. pluralistic perspective on public policy 2. deterministic approach to public policy 3. de jure nature of public policy 4. Public Administration as a public energy field Which of the ‘statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 (b) Land 2 (o) 4 only (d) Land 4 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A I EO 22. Consider the following statements in respect of new public management : 1. It aims at economy, efficiency and effectiveness, 2. It emphasizes on the vital role of the market as against the State as the key regulator of society and economy. 3. Government is the major doer of public activities. 4. It supports the various concepts and principles of traditional Public Adminis- tration. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only () 1, 2 and 3 () 2and4 (a) Land 4 23. According to Chris Argyris, which one of the following situations is @ positive hindrance in facilitating coordination in an organization? (a) Hierarchical coercion (®) Standardized procedures (c) Grapevine communication (a) Administrative planning 1020. Prafafed 4 8 a-seraare A ata-et ye feted , fret aaa ote ware ‘a aigrar fear 27 1, Seared TT 2. aah ear 3. ARTA 4. Pisferer Wa faq az ar eT a ad eT aie: we: fa) 13m 2 (e) i133 () FRI 2 33 (d) 2,334 2a, Pfr ae 9c Rare eA; cates ote Pree re wf se-omyer ies warerr an Sifts (Feral) fear 1 eta a agar Gidea H Parara wnt 2, ratte & aft Raita soon a fagara eum & 3. drift & fafa: aes 7 farare wane 4, die sat aa ea 8 ate vere ‘fayava Far 8 wees wert HB ahaar/a we 8/87 fa) 233 ) 132 (o) Raa 4 (a) 134 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A. 1 22. ada ce wae & del A Praferitea aril a Pram Aire : 1, eee stea froraa, wrigarern site surat 81 2. Tat & ware atk orlorren & ger Pane OF % fautte, ae aan A areal after a aa ta 81 3, We, ada Bement a TE ‘at 81 4. me vera ate mT Al ore deers ah feardt a aac amen 81 gufe audi fa ana af 87 (q) Fas 1 2 @) 1,233 () 29% 4 @ 13m4 23, fra tite & ogan, frien a a ara ew Fait Bat den Hana gore are Herr ae ee 87 (a) tae weg (o) wg are (eye Grea) aa (ay sere aise [P.7.0.24. Consider the following paradigms in the evolution of the discipline of Public Administration as proposed by Nicholas Henry : 1. Politics /Administration ichotomy 2. Public Administration as political science 3. Public Administration as management 4, Principles of administration Public Administration as Public Administration Which one of the following is the correct order of the above? @) 21-453 fb) 14-2-3-5 () 4-2-1-5-3 (dj 1-4-3-2-5 28. Which one of the following is not identified by Nicholas Henry as a factor for organizational change? (a) Process of adaptation () Task environment () Technology of organization (d) Organization behaviour P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 12 26. Which one of the following statements is not correct? The principle of hierarchy is at the foundation of all government departments because the principle (@) involves superior-subordinate relationship as applicable to government agencies (e) gives scope for delegation of authority from a superior to a subordinate officer () facilitates reporting from lower level to higher level (d) is best suited for horizontal type of organizations required in development administration 27. Who among the following have supported the application of the principle of unity of command? 1. Henri Fayol 2. Gulick and Urwick 3. Seckler and Hudson 4. Herbert Simon Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1 and 2 only () 1, 2 and 3 only () 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2, 3 and 424, cite mene fara & faara 4 fates tat we werfaa Praferfar waaftet 7 fran Fire + 1. usr /senes ere ais sare, osriftma & eo F oie ree, wae & oF wae & fier ‘atte were, ote wares & wa as 8 SN frafotea 8 aw ws safe a we org 8? (a) 2-1-4-5-3 (&) 1-4-2-3-5 (o) 4-2-1-5-3 (d) 1-4-3-2-5 2s. frafafts 4a fea ue # fataa to am drones aha & ane & wa i gt sear TN? (a) SRR At AM (o) ed yale (co) area At sett (a) Unaa ma P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 13 26. Pefattra set 4 a ata oe att ae ae aor-frart wh aart frit fi sia %, wai (@) fara 4 ahte-siee wary cutter 8, Ser Pi ward sitar F wre () frera Hake @ ania aftrd a mfr 4 aren ait () 46 Para fra ee a sa Et a fet wa wg aa F fara wena 4 sraers, anerta yar & aust % faq ze fear walftes sage & @) a7. fafitea $a fet ama A aad erara % srarets an ada Pe 87 1, Bt aie ate oft af am oft reRA wad oe aR Re me gz a wa a ae TT ae: Per we: (a) aa 1 afk 2 ) Fa 1, 233 () Fa 334 (@) 1,2, 324 [P.7.0.28. Under which of the following grounds is the principle of unity of command criticized? 1. Creation of large number of staf and auxiliary agencies has diluted this concept. 2. The concept of one single boss for each person is seldom found in complex govern- mental situations. 3. People in an organization have fixed responsibilities for their functions. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1 and 2 only (®) 2 and 3 only fo) 1 only (@) 1,2 and3 29. Who among the following has urged that strict adherence to rules results in the displacement of goals? (a) Robert K. Merton (} Alvin Gouldner (¢) Chester Barnard (@) Peter M. Blau P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 30. On which of the following does span of control depend? * 1. Personality of the superior 2. Nature of work to be supervised 3. Age of the organization 4. Calibre of the subordinates 5. Delegation of authority Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (6) 3, 4 and 5 only (2) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2, 3,4 and 5 81, According to Chester Barnard, the strength of administrative authority fies in the zone of (a} acceptance fb) resistance (©) indifference (4) anticipated reactions28. frafatea # @ fara/fea omar/srert area A wae & ara A athe A nee? 1, herd at sit meas ofractt & arate tien 7 a 3 ga dae # aga Peo 8 3. area A cin ar om ari & fae Raa seeeafier Bi 8 Re ae a aT a a A TT : (a) Fa 132 () Fa23K3 () Waa 1 @ 1,233 29. freafeftra 4 8 faa ome 8 fe far age @ agra a vito aet & frees # gta 87 (a) Wad Fo we 0) Werther Co) Re was (d) Wet Wo BAS P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A. 15 30. freveftra #2 fix a Rebar A Rreght fh a? 1. ate ar oahrer 2. Waenia arf a aeT 3. tea A ong, 4. aired At dhe 8. after ar seat a fq m ez wo win a aft a ee: (a) %aa 1, 2, 435 ) FAI 3, 4S (e) Fa 1, 233 (@ 1,2, 3,435 31. ARcaie & agaR, weet often A cuits fra da H fora 8? fa) etre ) siete (¢) sentra (4) wenfra sfetrarg [P.T.0.32. Consider the following statements : According to Henri_—-Fayol, decentralization is greater when 1. policy decisions are made at lower levels 2. important decisions are made at lower levels 3. more functions are affected by decisions at lower levels Which of the statements given above are correct? (@ 1,2 and3 {b) 1 and 3 only () 2 and 3 only (@) 1 and 2 only 83. Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee? (a) Committee on Draft Five-Year Plan (®) Railway Convention Committee () Business Advisory Committee (4) Joint Committee on Fertilizer Pricing 34, According to Henri Fayol, which of the following actions are required in supervisory control process? 1. Standard actions 2. Corrective actions 3. Coercive actions Evaluative actions P-DTQJ-QVB/8A Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code (@) i, 2,3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only () 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only 35. Match List-1 with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-l List (item) (Article as per the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act} A. Constitution of 1. Article 2439 Municipalities B. Reservation of 2. Article 2437 seats C. Finance 3. Article 243Y Commission D. Duration of 4. Article 243U Municipalities, ete. Code : @A B Cc D 4 2 3 1 @) A Bo oc D 1 2 3 4 WMA B cD 4 3 201 dW aA B Cc D 13 2 482. Rraferftrr ait a fran fifire : 0 tia & oan, Rte saftes dat &, 3 1, oR Pika Bet eat oe A oT 2, maranpl fioka fr ead we faa ara é 3. afte ard fe end we Petit arr sonar aa € aude mori Ha ated wd 87 (@ 1,233 (&) Fans (o) *aI23h3 (a) Fae 1 otk 2 33, frfafar 4 a ett ww dada ear ‘aifa 8? (a) eo (gree) aaa ater aff () eA aa ah © we wee aR woargat #2}) (a) sien Awa-Pruten dg aR (wage wad sia wheerget sTgfeT) (Rrra 34. ®t Baia agen, Arfater Fa Sr-8 ard wll Peiam-afien, & fee ante & are ore gure ad ‘Png art Arie ad see P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 17 fe Rem ge a ein a ad oe ar: me: fa) 1,2, 334 (o) Fra2 a3 () Fa 1, 33k 4 (a) Fa 1, 23h 4 35. Gi a qi & ae gies Aisa sie Ufed & $8 ume az A wine we et afi: wa war (Prez) (744 aera cate after & agar agree) A, wrenfeanail a 1. sgsde 243Q 1H B. writer sam = 2. gee 243T Cc. fae smi 3. ayes 243Y D. wruiarsit an 4. aye 2430 er aaa ee: @aA Bc D 4 2 3 1 ®) A B C D 102 3 4 @ A B Cc D 4 3 2 1 @aA B cD 1 3 2 4 [P.T.0,36. The legacy of British rule in India includes which of the following? 1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services) 2. Secretarial System 3. Local Self-government 4. Law and Order Administration Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only () 3 and 4 only (@) 1,2, 3 and 4 37. Consider the following statements : Classical theory of administration ‘emphasizes 1, formal organizational structure 2. need for citizen participation in governance and administration 3. principles of hierarchy, division of work and span of control Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2) 1 only (®) 2 only () 1,2 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 only P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 38. Who among the following have been harsh critics of bureaucracy ‘as an instrument of government’? 1, Harold Laski and Peter Drucker 2. Warren Bennis and Robert Reich 3. Ralph Braibanti and Sardar Patel Select the correct answer using the code given below Code : (@) and 2 (b) 2 and 3 () land 3 (dj 1 only 39. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of Weberian bureaucracy? (a) Neutral competence () Professional hierarchy {) Auto-administration (d) Legal rationalism 40. Which one of the following thinkers was first to talk about the concept of ‘Constructive Conflict’ in an organization? (a) Elton Mayo (b) Mary Parker Follett (o) Peter Blau (d) Henri Payol 1836. une 4 fifee mea & faa F fefatra F a am afi 1, ata feftret Sarai a ask 2. afedta wore 3. Ranh eae 4. arg ott era were aR Rem ge ww mR al TK aie: Es (@) Fra 1 a2 ) Fra 2 3 (o) Fat 3 oR 4 @ 1,2, 334 37. Rrafeftra seat on fran fire : wane ar Tenet raat 1. Strate airahe doen 1 ae Far z 2. urea oft saree 4 arnite: eeu A orem H wei Bet 8 3. ave fad, aria oh bao oh Raegt we aaa 8 ‘safe wert 8 ata-a/ a 8/8? (a) %aa 1 (b) BIG 2 @ 1,23%3 (@) %aa 1 sits P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 38. frofefaa 4 8 ate ‘maa & sear & oo YY static & wate areas w 8? 1, Stes ereft ait dex gat 2, ana afta ait dad te 3. Ure dard oh weR wa ae fem ER wi a ad oT me: (a) isk2 ) 23K3 f) 13K3 (a) aa 1 39, Anfafia # a aha mw ax aaftantids A aftenetis Peter ae wv (a) aoe wee ) artes aT (o) Pra (a) Patties ahgfeare 40. frafeftaa 4 @ ata dte7 fers a’ A caer & at A aa we aren eet Pre a? @ wart (o) Ma ork Bite (o) teas (a) BO Fates [P.7. 0.41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-T (Critic of Weber) A. Alvin Gouldner B. Robert Presthus C. James March Code @Aa B 2 3 bo) A B 1 2 () A B 2 4 @maA B 1 3 List-Il (Point of Criticism) 1 eo 40 +O 20 Internal contra- dictions Product of alien culture Lack of flexibility Behavioural elements ignored 42, Who among the following subscribed to the ‘non-coercive’ theory of organization? (a) George Frederickson (b) Frank Marini () Dwight Waldo (a) Frederick Thayer P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, Which of the following are the contributions of Mary Parker Follett? 1. Circular behaviour 2. Integrative unity 3. Law of the situation 4, Strategic limiting factor Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (6) 1 and 3 only (co) 2 and 4 only (a) 1,2,3 and 4 44. According to Chester Barnard, which of the following are the charac- teristics of organizational decisions? 1. They are impersonal. 2. They cannot be delegated. 3. They are specialized. 4, They result from logical thought processes. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code (a) 1,3 and 4 only (6) 1 and 2 only () 2,3 and 4 only (4) 1,2, 3 and 441. ha Ghar} aie GA Hie ste ‘afta & oe feu my ge ar vein ax we ser AT: aa ae (aac % suetee) = (anette AL ta tticen 1. attafte afters B, tad tere 2, satel aegha Aa Cc. Sa ard 3. aretha aft at 4. career well A at We: @ A BC 2093 1 oA BoC 1 2 4 Oa BC 4 3 mA B Cc 103 4 42. fefafir 4 & feet drea & ‘aftr’ ‘Perera an area en 87 (a) sist eetger . (b) Sm Bf () yee awe (a) Sesh tae P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 43, Prefered 4 8 aaa AA ork Gee & wien 8? aga sae Tae CHAT featt an Ra ‘Protas afore re aa Re ne ge a wa ae aE oe eye we: (@) FAM 1, 23K 3 ) Fas 1 3k 3 () Fra 2 34 (@ 1, 2,334 44, text wig & saan, Aafia Fa ‘tremens Polat A aaah Redteend €2 a dats €1 A searifira se fare so aaa 81 3 faire 81 2 anes Pra-afher & ufonm &1 A Rem a wR Re THe aha: Pepe e: (a) Fam, 334 (b) FA 1 sh 2 () *7a 2, 334 (@ 1,2, 334 {P.T.0.45. Chester Barnard’s concept of ‘zone of indifference’ refers to orders that are (a) barely unacceptable (b) just about acceptable () unquestionably acceptable (d) not always acceptable 46. Consider the following statements : Human relations theory 1. views organization as . a psychological and social system, 2. takes the social view of man. 3. emphasizes the physiological and mechanical aspects of organization 4. assumes that people are homogeneous Which of the statements given above are not correct? (a) 1 and 2 (6) 2and 3 () Sand4 (a) 1 and 4 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 47. Which one of the following experi- ments was not included in the Hawthorne experiments? (a) Bank wiring observation room (2) Relay assembly test room (6) Cutting metals (4) Great illumination 48. Consider the following statements : Hawthorne studies showed that workers had devised norms for the output of a group as one should not bea 1. rate-buster 2. chiseller 3. squealer Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (@) 1 only (2) 1 and 2 only () 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 348, tec said At senda % da’ A deer & snail a Affe act 2, (a) are tH areas & &) wm atard & (o) Pierce: ettert = (a) eee etter ete 46. Frafefna set % fran Aire : area were fret 1. eat a ates sit afi aan & er a tae & 2, safes a Bonfire efector Aen & 3. ter & wakieaes sit ais weqei waa tat 4. nat tf cin are E ude writ & ah-@ wet a 8? (@ 132 fo) 233 © 334 @ 134 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 23 47. Prafafaa 48 a-a ww wn galt set & efi sre en? (a) 4 arafin Rerreren, (6) Re seach Weert (Ug ata (Fea He 48, feafafaa sent a fran fie : we ered 3 ae cata fe set 3 wag & sere & fre 88 ras onfteaferat fara a, cr 1, at ae ais Qz-aet) 3 ae aT, 2. ag Rare ar aT 3. ate grea (water) 3a Sy safes sel 4a ahaa ae 8/8 (a) ¥aH 1 (o) FAA 1 2 () Fat 2 sik 3 (1,293 [P.T.0.49. Which of the following statements are correct? The behavioural approach is considered to be 1. a humane approach 2. based on Hawthorne findings 3. largely concerned with decision-making 4. the dominant approach in the pre-World War I period Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1 and 3 only (6) 2 and 4 only () 1, 2 and 3 only (dj 1, 2,3 and 4 50. Which of the following is correct about systems approach? (a) Emphasizes the _ static structure of the organization (b) Considers mainly the formal structure of the organization (c) Explains human motivation in terms of several factors (d) Views organizational order as being imposed from the top P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 1. Which of the following authors can be credited with the earliest systematic use of social systems approach in administrative studies? (2) F. J. Roethlisberger and W. J. Dickson (b) John M. Pfiffner (c) Mary Parker Follett (a) Frank J. Goodnow 52. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to the systems theory of organization? (a) A system is characterized by parts and sub-parts (b) A change in one part affects changes in other parts () A system is characterized by dynamic disequilibrium (@) A system is open and interactive 83. To which of the following notions of the man in an organizational setup does the concept of bounded rationality relate more closely? 1. Economic 2. Optimizing 3. Administrative 4. Satisficing Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 () 3and4 (a) 2and 349, Profan 4a at-8 wer wei g? 81, Rafafad # a fa/fa das/aaat a saree sere tan sae ‘sarees sary at AT siren & arm & ween waft sein ar ae 1, ureter sary ‘Ren sr erat 8? 2. wutd & fred w one (a) Wo Fo teufermanit 3h Zao Go . frre $ + ker 8 fo) 3 Bo Pw 4 ne frags § ad A ot # el sr (d) $m Yo TeAts a fqn gz at wT a att TE 82, frofafia i & aa-a we anes & ore gic: frara & weary Hh wel wet 2? (a) svi sit sour a eat eae AY ies frdtear ee & (o) Pref we am aReada, et aH a (a) Fara 1 si 3 aftada aren 8 fy tae ate 4 J) Res ogee, sea A Fer () M1, 233 (a) waren faga oit sreteafiarere wae (a 1,2, 33m 4 89. wine orate ger Pad faa wrens 3 are, afta afr A ace ter oe ate @ 50, Sen sam % at A Aree A a were tat 8? ‘ara wal 8? 1, safe 2, wear (a) 72 are A Ox Hear KW Fa ea 3. mara 4. Wyeat &) Tete A TURE: sheate dT ae Rem yw en AH a aT at arr 8 re ®: () 7 ara afi a ate areal & fa) 122 STAR I BRETT & be) 234 @) %e wee sae A wit a ) 334 aftrifta a8 & we F ta & a 23K3 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 25 [P.T.0.54, Match List-I with List-lI and select Select the correct answer using the the correct answer using the code code given below : given below the Lists : List List- Code (Advocate) (fodel) A. Herbert 1. Mixed-scanning (a) 1, 2 and 3 only Simon model 2, 3 and 4 ont , 3 an B. Charles 2. Economic ° ony Lindblom rationality model fe) 3 and 4 only C. Amitai Etzioni 3, Bounded rationality model (a) 1,2,3and4 4. Incremental model 56. Which of the following are Code : propounded by the Theory Y of Douglas McGregor? fa) A B c 293 4 A person in an organization mA BoC 1. exercises self-direction in the 3 2 1 service of objectives that he A B Cc seeks to realize 2 1 3 2. thas commitment to objectives (a a B c as a function of rewards 3 4 1 3. inherently likes work 4. has a capacity for imagination, 55. According to Yehezkel Dror, which of ingenuity and creativity the following characteristics of the a optimal model of policy ing help Select the correct answer using the man in understanding the optimal code given below : model? 1. It contains both rational and Code extrarational elements. 2. It has basic rationality and (a) 1, 2 and 4 only economic rationality. 1, 2 and 3 onl 3. It contains a built-in feedback ° ¥ system. (} 1,2,3 and 4 4. It adopts the methodology of logical positivism. (dj 3 and 4 only P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 2684. at a qa & aa gale Afra sic We Rem ew wT eK a a afa: ‘afta & A faq ay qe wT val a aI ae BIg : BfiR =: wey en fo ean, a3ha A. eld are 1, fire gonetteror ) Fa 2, 3 sia wea () Frisina B. aed fas 2, safes were iea @) 1,2, 334 C. ante qe 3. afte abate vist 86. Prfottrs 4 a aaa orem fa & 4. adn aise Y fara & arm afar fa ae €? me: ‘fireh dra A oats 1. fa eet a ae ae A ar ma ps eo &, 38 ante H ona. ar ear een oe pe 2. ae a oft fazer fine wer % er A cae Oo s 9. sare wy 8 arf sc EE ST (ad) A B c * 3 4°21 4. ser, wen sk whee A * aut Tae R 88. taea gt S agar, fs fain & ea vise A Prafatza 4-8 staat Peteg a Ram gw wi ae AA TT Tye a gers dist Swe A nee af: were 82 ; 1, we deine oh tte ohare ee ari re Fa EL fa) aa 1, 29h 4 2. sat srercyg aire sit snflai adhere Bet 81 ) ¥aa 1, 233 3, aa siafitite sage soneh ee 21 9 1,2, 39m4 4. we afte wagae A arberef arent t1 (a) Pas 3 a4 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A. 27 [P.T.0.87. Which one of the following leadership 60. Match List-I with List-II and select styles was identified by the the correct answer using the code Michigan University Leadership given below the Lists : Studies as the most effective leadership style? List-I List (a) Democratic style leadership (Commission/ (Recommendation) Committee) () Employee-centred leadership A. First Hoover 1. Division of () Participative group leadership Comsaission training and (a) Team leadership education B. Assheton: 2, Reorganization 58. Who among the following has Committee of US President's observed that instead of hierarchy oitee of needs, motivation should be understood in terms of series of ©. Brownlow 3. Senior policy needs? Committee advisors hester Barnard (4) Chester D. Fulton 4, Senior executive (®) David McClelland Committee service (c) Abraham Maslow 5. Office of general | services (d) Warren Bennis administration 59. According to Frederick Herzberg, the determinants of job dissatisfaction Code include 1. working conditions G 2. supervision @A Bc oD 3. salary 4 2 1 3 4. responsibility 5. recognition ® A BoC oD Which of the above are correct? 5 1 2 3 (a) 4 and 5 only (A B c D (6) 1, 2 and 3 only 2 1 3 4 (} 1, 2, 3,4 and $ (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 3 P-DTQJ-QVB/8A,87. firafaftia @ a ahah om Agm-atet, 88. frafafia 4 a ae faa afte & after a omeaeast & afte & aaa seers A jae wet eran ar arfee? (a) ex ats tb) Site tarts: (co) saree are @ awe ate 50. iets wii & sigan, aed onde & Pratl # anfiia & 1, arent 2. wader 3. a 4, waar 5. ART aude Ha ata ad 8? (a) Fra 4 sits (b) *aat1, 233 () 1, 2,3, 435 @) Fa 1, 2, 3 aft 5 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 60, ait a agi & ara gilt Sify afk upel & AS Re my ae a rN aR TA wae afi : wha agian (aii /atea) (Remtier) ‘A. mem ge omen vee fh an fe B. wide wR 2. do wo TENA rater ar grtar Cc. arareh af 3. afte af wera Di gees wit 4. afte ara Sat 5. ara dar FAT arate i @ A B C D 4 2 1 3 ® A B Cc D 5 1 2 8 (A B Cc D 2 1 3 4 @ A B Cc D 3 4 5 2 [P.T.0.61, Which one of the following shows the Select the correct answer using the correct sequence of the four basic code given below : steps in the position classification plan? Code (a) Job analysis-Grouping of (a) 1,2and3 positions-Standardization- Position allocation (o) 2 and 3 only (0) Standardization~Job analysis- (c) 1 and 3 only Grouping of positions- Position allocation (d) 1 and 2 only () Grouping of _ positions-Job 7 analysis-Position allocation - 63. Which of the following scholars Hon has/have not laid any marked Standardization emphasis on administrative ethics? (d) Job analysis-Grouping of (a) Paul Appleby positions-Position allocation- Standardization (®) Frederick Mosher () Chanakya 62. According to W. F. Willoughby, which | of the following are correct about (a) David Osborne and Ted the essentials of a sound promotion Gaebler system? 1, Adoption of standard speci- 64. Which of the following was not fications setting forth the identified by the Santhanam duties and qualifications Committee as a major cause of required for all positions in a corruption in India? government service . Administrative del: 2." Classification of all positions (a) rT ielays into distinct classes, grades ; and services based on duty (b) Scope for personnel discretion classification in the exercise of powers 3. The inclusion within this () Cumbersome procedures classification of all adminis trative positions except those (d) Absence of -_—_ regulatory having a political character functions of the government P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A. 3061, Rafiaa a a em ww seem sonch & ane ara sot & wel 3TaHR ay eaten 8? (a) ard Peo ae aN fahor (b) wrrfercaard fara ne eR vefahar (o) a aa ard Perdana aT (a) ard Reese aap aefater— arte 62. SeIo Use faci % agen, de wlaft arent & arog oat & at afar ara ad 1. fat aeart dar a nt wai & fee rem adel oft agai at aa aret Here fae st sea 2, wd affoer & omer yea a, Ba ok dash F wh wi a aetieo 3. We wer ae ch a cigar ara wt smufte ot ar a afar fanart P-DTQJ-QVB/8A. a fem gz a win a a TT aha: Fe: (a) 1, 233 ) ra 2 ait 3 @ Farias (@) Fat 1 sik 2 63. Refafir # a fee faaa/fan-aa > Trats srarcifa mages ea at rat fern 8? fa) ier wren fo) Sefer he (co) SR (@) 2fs stead sit 2s tae 64, warn ad ao Prafataa 4 @ feast, ana 4 vera & we aya aH wT srt Tera TAT? (a) wareftes Prema ®) afd & san a aiff fae & fer gare Co) ee vibe (a) Wan & Rare eet ar are 31 [P.T.0.65. By which one of the following Acts, are the political activities of civil servants in the USA regulated? (a) The Hatch Act of 1939 (b) The Civil Service Act of 1883 (c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940 (d) The Taft-Hartley Act of 1947 66. The office of the Ombudsman like institution in the form of Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration in the United Kingdom was set up on the recommendations of which one of the following Reports? (a) Sir John Whyatt Report (2) Northcote-Trevelyan Report () Fulton Report (d) Aitchison Report 67. Which one of the following statements in respect of the French Civil Service is not correct? fa) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel (6) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps (6) French Civil Service is elitist (d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 68. Which of the following local government units are prevalent in France? 1, Département 2. Arrondissement 3. Canton 4. Commune Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1,2 and 4 only (6) 2, 3 and 4 only ( 1,2,3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only 69. The Amakudari system in respect of the civil service in Japan is (a) @ post-retirement assignment (6) professional training () foreign posting (d) monetary compensation6s, fafeftrr 4 8 fee we sftfer & arr Jo Wo Uo F fafa dant A asahta nfefateeat = frataa fren an 8? (a) 1939 = ta afer (bo) 1883 fafa Sar afar fo) 1940 5 trates sf (a) 1947 # areata afer 66. wets fren A wera & fee dada ari aH seagate arate eh ten, Prafatta 4 a fea cw fotd ar Fersateer atta AG eh? (a) Be sia aera Peete (by Fiate Pacer PAE (co) oer Feats (cy Urea RAE 67. ithe fafa dar & an 4H Peaferfaa 4 a ‘A-B GH HE TE ATE BP (a) 3° We to, wad afta 3% after & arate & () fefra Fa % tre A ore wad #1 ated ee stat (co) ict ere Ber siftrertarg & (a) efter tat wt ge Bat Tatas wat & fre Gara ast segata e P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 33 68. vid 4 wana ear A frafefa Fa ara gargal wae # £7 Wa Rene ae a wn a a oA ae: e (a) aa 1, 234 &) %aa 2, 3 ai 4 ( 1,2, 334 (a) Faw 1 ate 3 69, srr fata ar @ arafata srg? maaan aa 8? (ay) Ragan ered (b) maaan sitter fe) frea-tardt (a) sifttes oferta [P.7.0.70. Which of the following statements regarding civil services in Japan is/are correct? 1, The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies. 2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Codi (a) 1 only () 2 only (©) Both 1 and 2 (@) Neither 1 nor 2 71. Who among the following has focused on the politics of the budgetary process? (a) Robert Golembiewski (e) Aason Wildavsky (o) Jesse Birkhead (4) A. Premchand 72, Which of the following is/are advantage/advantages of zero- based budgeting? 1, It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes. 2. It improves the programme effectiveness. 3. It facilitates critical review of schemes in terms.of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits. P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (@) 1 only - (&) 1 and 2 only () 2 and 3 only (@) 1, 2 and 3 78. Consider the following statements : The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of 1. pension payable to Judges of High Court debt charges for which the Government of India is liable 3. salary, allowances and pension payable to Comptroller and Auditor General of India Which of the statements given above are correct? (@) 1, 2and3 () 1 and 3 only () 2 and 3 only {d) 1 and 2 only70. war H fafa Varsit & at A Aeiferfea Fa aaa we we 8/8? 1. We he ue she Te te Uo TK aun Pass sik wraas after a 2, wir ser fatter dar sifttsrard a aa fem gw Rin aR a TT afc: ee: (@) Fas 1 () Fa 2 () 1:32 et @) atiseaa2 71, fefefan 48 fen anda sie A Tarif ot eae SfBa feat 8? (a) ad mate (b) ais Pareeeht (o) Rit ares (a) Yo tre 72. Prfafar 4 a aa-a1/a yemaia set war/% BH BR? 1. 3e=R weften aa ada a Prar sea serena sem 81 2. 7 are A wraaitn al gat wT eh 3. 7 akan A, aA am surat wd aa omy a ea aoten at Ga aaa Bi P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 35 a fen az a i wt a TT aR: We: (a) aa 1 (bo) ¥aa 1 si 2 ©) FAI 2 33 (a) 1,233 73. Profafad aert ot Rran aifare : wana A afta AR KK an oF fir & 1, 3a wre & caerisih a a aaa 2. Fam sre PAR fore, see AAT ATH 8 3. wa & Peavaa ud wereraradiars a aa dem, wa otk ee sade set 4 8 aaa wet 8? @j 1,23mR3 (o) Faw 1 ais (Baa 2 aft 3 (@) ¥aa 1 stk 2 [P.7.0.74, Which of the following statements about separation of the Railway Budget from the General Budget of India are correct? 1, To introduce flexibility in railway finance management 2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy 3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribu- tion from railway revenues 4. To enable the railways to keep their profits for their own development Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code = (a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only () 1, 2 and 3 only (@) 1, 2,3 and 4 ‘78. Consider the following statements A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the 1. imposition, abolition, remis- sion, alteration or regulation of any tax 2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government 3. appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India 4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India P-DTQJ-QVB/8A Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only () 2, 3 and 4 only () 1 and 4 only (@ 1,2, 3 and4 76. Which one of the following * statements is correct with regard to the powers of the Parliament of India in enacting the budget? (a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it (6) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it () It cannot increase a tax, but can reduce or abolish it (d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it ‘77. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of parliamentary debate on. Appropriation Bill? 1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure. 2. Speaker is empowered to with- hold permission on matters of repetitive nature. 3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (2 and 3 only (@) 1,2and374. ne & UT ase a ta awe & yet & at § Arafat #2 ae-8 wert we ® 1, ta A ae 4 onfare at & Rie 2. Yet ARE af eres gor RE wan % fer, 3.° ta ame & seater skeet ere ah QT TS A FRM Ba a & fee 4, Wa ae ta ae hie a met cat aH od ead 3 Pare fora A Req mq ge I a Te aT afr: e: (@) aa 2,334 o) Fa sik 4 () *aa 1, 2 3h 3 (a) 1,2, 334 78. Prafaftan sent ox fran aifire : eg fda wa fata arr orm 2, af wet 1. Prat ae afta, ser, an, tee a aS war | daa wierd a 2. FR mI a wen fet ot & fafa & aare 4 aaa aeeru a 3. uma A aia AR A a ts ffea & wae f dae srry at 4. a # arefees Ae A afte were F Saat sere P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A. 37 oad wert 9 ata-3 wl 87 (a) *aa 1, 233 o) *aG 2, 3 3h 4 fc) Fat 1 ste 4 (a) 1,2, 33h 4 76. az Bt ofattatia ee A ana A crag Ft cfedt 3 wear # fratetiad 4 a ata Wh Bert wel 8? (a) 7e fat ar a agr wart 2, Reg wren et eRe ae fret et a ag wart & ara eh wa wah wal to sa SE via wad t (co) 46 NE aR ag AE Te, fg wa wa wed 8 a se SR wad & wes al a mR ag wad Baa wal tat 77. fam fatas q dag i aga % at F Preafeftan 4a aaa wer ae 8? 1, a A oR a ang ther at ay a awa B1 2. Sad? wer & amet w aaah de at Ft af te an sea A a 3. Te aT & we fates § deter mA Ta Tete HA A afte 31 Ae Rene a a wa aK TE se afc: ® fd) We: (a) Far 1 a2 ) Br 1 sit 3 () FM2 ses @ 1,23R3 {P.T.0.78. To which of the following, the executive and bureaucracy 4. Relations between municipal government and para-statals 1. 79. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of ‘Zero Hour’ discussion? 1. It is not directed against individual Minister. 2. It covers questions raised over 2. matters of public importance. Select the correct answer using the Code : P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 80. Through which of the following is 74th Constitutional Amendment judicial control over administration has not paid attention? in India exercised? 1. Municipal personnel system 1. Adjudication 2. Constitution and composition 2. Judicial Review of municipality 3. Writs 3. Relations between elected 4. Public Interest Litigation Select the correct answer using the code given below : Select the correct answer using the Code : code given below (@ 1 and 4 only Code (b) 2 and 3 only fa) 1 and 2 only fe) 1,2, 3 and 4 ) 1,3 and4 (@) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2,3 and 4 81. Which of the following statements is/are correct of the writ of (a) 1,2 and 3 prohibition? It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some matters not within its jurisdiction, It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right. code given below : Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (@) 1 only {a} 1 only (b) 2 only (b) 2 only () Both 1 and 2 : () Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 () Neither 1 nor 278. frafatar + % far we, 743 Bfaar ‘divert 3 wars set feat 8? 1 areata ais araeet 2, amenferat ar mas fk AHA 3, Raita arias we sifterters fs aera 4. arom ait ad-asy densi (ta-eeva) & ofa ara a fam a a win Re we TK gr: Re: (a) %aa 1 oie 2 ) 1,334 ) 2,33K4 a 1,233 79. ‘qa wet wal % at A Prfaten 4S waa /8 BE B/E 1, 7@ aaften at & fees Pata wet Wei 2. weit ches were & arret Te soe TE srr ot 81 MA Re me a wr wi a we oT afr: me: (a) tra 1 ) Bra 2 (1 9it 2 at (a) tai ease P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A a9 80, ree A were ae aaa Rae fafa Ha fare are Pen ora BP 1, =ara-Pofar 2, mates gaffer 3. fe 4, theita gece AA Re me Re eT eT ee AE TT ara: ee: fa) Faas 4 (o) Fat 239N3 () 1,2, 334 (a) Fra 2, 3a 4 81. sfttu fe & arcu 4, Peafefta Fa ar /S wer ae 8/8? 1 3 PAR aR A sa ae ETI aH sree &, ra sa w nme & arf He a dar are &, sh geht aiftrarten i wel 81 2. Fret after fers are 3 er F, ech cater eran are creat PAT TT Wem 81 A Rem gz aH wi a ad TT gr: Re (a) %aat 1 (&) Fa 2 © 1K 2et (4) tai skaha [P.T.0.82. In which among the following countries is Charter Mark Programme being effectively used Select the correct answer using the code given below : to evaluate the performance of Code : government agencies through outside independent agencies? (@) 1, 2 and 4 only Jay @) Japan (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) France () Great Britain () 3 and 4 only (a) USA (d) 1,2, 3and4 83, Poly-communalism’ is the term coined by Fred Riggs to describe (a) integrated society (b) plural society () diffracted society 86. Which of the following is/are not correct in respect of the Right to Information Act, 2005? 1, Information in allegation respect of of violation of (a) parochial society human rights can be obtained in 30 days. 84, The ‘Collegial’ type of executive can 2. There are restrictions for third be found in which one of the party information. following countries? 3. Total penalty for not providing (a) Japan information shall not exceed @) France Rs 5,000. (Switzerland Appeal against the decision of the Central/State Public (@) Great Britain 85. On which of the following factors does people's participation depend for its success in influencing the governance process? Information Officer can be made to officers of higher rank. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, Ability of the people to Code : participate 2. Willingness of the people to (a) 3 only participate 1 om 3. Opportunity to the people to @) 1 only participate anda 4. Mechanisms available for participation : (d) 2 and 4 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 4082, Prafatiza 4 8 fra en tarde ok sit wm, aed tara oftecih er wert aPreit & fone ar qqaiea aa & fem, weet ate oe suite Fret ST zat 8? (a) wa (b) i te) Be fer (d) Wan 0 atte 83, ‘agtveware’ we ike fea 3 fa afin wea & foe a? (a) bra ATT () aR BAS (cq) Prati ars (a) art Ts 84. ‘atest’ san A ariorera Prater # & fae UH au Foe on oat 8? (a) SI (b) ia (Q) fens (a) He fea 88. med set a maa art & fee, a wetter set apeten & fare Prafefiar 48 fae areal Pk aie 8? 1. at A cert a A area 2. chit Al wef a A eT 3. abit at went 8 aT rae 4. wernt a & far sae freee P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 41 a Rem ge A win Rw a a aq: : (a) Fa 1, 234 &) FW 1, 23s () Fra 3 ak 4 (d) 1,2, 334 86. GT Hw afte afta, 2005 % rae 4 Refafaa ta ae-a/a wet we Ree 1. aMafien & sitar & ofr & weary 8 ga 30 Rat A wm waa & 2. Ata vera Germ & fare Pde 81 3 ITs he ge win 5,000 to @ siftre wei em 4. Shafer ate ae often & fila 3 fie Tara Boh (te) aftr & arta at aa 31 a Rem ge A en a a TK aft: : (a) Fa 3 (b) FA @ 193 (a) 234 {P.T.0.87. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-t List-It (Committee/ (Recommendation Commission) A. Macaulay 1. Classification of Committee civil services B, Aitchison 2. Changes in Commission _stafiing pattern of Central Secretariat ©. Tottenham — 3. Competitive Committee examination for recruitment to civil services Islington 4. Establishment of Commission Public Service Commission 5. Promotion of provincial civil services members to Ics Code : @ A B Cc D 3 1 2 5 oA BoC D 5 4 2 3 OA B Cc D 5 4 1 3 @aA B C D 3 1 5 2 88. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides provision for the creation of All India Services? (a) Article 300 (®) Article 312 () Article 320 (d) Article 321 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 89. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has/have made the decisions of the Council of Ministers binding on the President of India? (a) 42nd and 44th Amendment Acts (2) 43rd Amendment Act (c) 40th Amendment Act only (d) 40th and 41st Amendment Acts 90. Which of the following are the functions of the Cabinet according to the Haldane Committee Report (1918)? 1, The final determination of the policy to be submitted to the Parliament 2. The supreme control of the National Executive in accordance with the policy agreed by the Parliament 3. Recommendation of important policies to the Prime Minister for his/her final decision 4. The continuous coordination and delimitation of the authority of the — several departments of the State Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code (@) 1,2, 3 and4 fb) 1,3 and 4 only () 2 and 4 only (@ 1, 2 and 3 only87. a A a & we Wea Fife ae afrat & aS fee me Ee aT aT ae FA ae afig : at ae (afta /srraim) (Frente) AL terra aft 1, afte das at aia B. ofr srr 2. Fata aftarera aatard afieare A ofa C. derta afte 3. fafa tarst F sat & fore weet weet D. wafers arin 4. che Bar oi Ft eet 5. wetta fafae tar well A Ics & wetafe : @ aA BC D 3 1 2 5 oA BC OD 5 4 2 3 A B Cc D 5 4 1 3 @a Bo Cc D 3 1 5 2 88. una & aftera ar Prafeftsa 4 a staat Te aged afte aretia Saroit & 1 STaT ara 8? (a) %q=3% 300 (ob) Hae 312 (c) 3a=d% 320 (a) wae 321 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, go, frfafere 4% Ara/fia afta dhe anf safe 3 aff, 3 Fake Bh rea 3 gh ee areal ar ea 8? (a) 420i ae sat dete afte (o) saat eater afro (oy ae aoat ester sate (@) 40at sik a 1af dates afta 90, weer ae feté (1918) % sgER, ‘eft & Petes 4 8 aaa BH 1, Aft ar sica-Rufen dag at rege ‘feet STAT 2. nga wndantoh ar adie eran, deg are weRT A a syER BAT 3. neat afta at arm a ar sifam Pofa % fore dega eT 4, wet se Pet & often a Pron ara aft afte eT AR Rene a sein ae a TAT Wt: ee: (a) 1,2, 334 (b) ¥aH1, 334 () FRIAS (a) %am1,23K3 [P.T.0.91. Which of the following statements 93. Which of the following accounts with regard to the Prime Minister’s is/are not maintained by the Office (PMO) is/are correct? Comptroller and Auditor General of 1, The PMO was given the status India? of a department under the 1. The Accounts of a State Government of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961. 2. The Railway Accounts 2. Jurisdiction of the PMO 3. The Union — Government extends over all such subjects Accounts and activities as are not specially allotted to any individual department. 4. Defence Accounts Select the correct answer using the Select the correct answer using the code given below: — * code given below : Code : Code : 1 onk (@) Tony (a) 2 only (b) 2 only () 2 and 4 () Both 1 and 2 (d)- Neither 1 nor 2 () Land 3 92. Consider the following statements : (@) 1and2 Indicative planning indicates the 1. broad directions of deve- 94. Which one of the following lopment statements is not correct? 2. long-term goals in strategic (a) ‘There are two categories of areas Mini Ratna Public Sector 3. exclusive areas of government Enterprises (PSEs) in India planning Which of the statements given (o) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have above is/are correct? wholly owned subsidiaries (a) 1 and 2 only (c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the (o) 1,2 and 3 international market (c) 3 only fd) The Mini Ratna PSEs can (d) 1 and 3 only induct non-official directors P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, a491. vernal rato & arava F Beater 93, Prafatta 4 8 Ree /Ra car/aarst a a ay-ay/a sen wel RR? ~ rea Raras ei wertaratiers are wt 1. gUEEA srafaa a, a TA var orn? .- aad mica Pome, 1961 1 wa Haart cet Bhar a asf Peat TT 2 wamnt 2. senERA aria At afrenftar 7 * + af fet wei rere ae Rega 3. Rerecen Sane 8, oh Rat cw fan Rate os 4 rar dart srrafa Tet #1 AR Rene ge at win ee a afie: : Ee: (a) Baa. @ (b) FA 2 @ fe) 13te 2a © (@) am@ishaa2 (a) 92. Arafat wert 1 far Fre : woes (GRA) ahaa Rie ae & u 1, feera A eames Rar 2. writes re & oat A data wea 3. wert aon srr a sate wet 4 aha-a/8 wat 8/87 (a) ae 1 32 @ ) @) 1,23R3 a () Faas (@ Fa 133 (a) P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 45 a8 Rem RH win a we TR aay: ‘Fae 2 23k 4 rats 132 94. Prafafird 4 a aa-a we wer wl at area arg (Pr) To Rw Beet ae AA Afra ® ag TH afte Bae sem areca ara @ Soh uaa vet ae THA E ay wl vias dae Jam haa ‘frewat a adi ax Tat S [P.T.0.95. Which of the following trends are emerging in Public Sector Enterprises in India due to the impact of liberalization? 1. Strengthening the operational autonomy 2. Encouraging competition with private sector 3. Motivating competition among public enterprises themselves Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only () 1 and 3 only (a) 1,2 and 3 96. On which of the following matters does the Finance Commission make recommendations to the President of India? 1. The distribution between Union and States of net proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States of their respective shares of such proceeds 2. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1 only (o) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d@) Neither 1 nor 2 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 97. Consider the following statements with respect to the Election Commission of India : 1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission. 2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred to the President of India. 3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (@) 1 only () 3 only ( 1and3 (d) 2and 3 98. Which among the following countries does mot have a Central Civil Service Commission charged with the responsibility for recruitment to the higher civil service? (a) Canada (®) Great Britain () USA (a) France98. sateen wera & rer area 4 afer aa sent Feet 4 a ate waft ome ott 87 1. BfeaTaRs TaraTa eg SAAT 2. mee Bat & are wf at sttenfta ser 3. want set Ho oraat ufteret safintite Fe ae fa my ae a win ax mt HK are: m (a) Faw isk ) aa 23k 3 fo) FI sis @ 1,23K3 96. Refafer 4 a fa/fa ama jae fae ordi area agehe wt aeghh Bat v 1, Pract ar snftat ar aa sit ost & ate onder ot go saftat ar asa & da HF ont-at ftel & SEK Tae 2. at A dir Ae 7 a ol Tae % were ager # faPafia wet are fart A Re Te a eT wT aR a TT we: (a) FH (bo) aa 2 () 19 2 at fd) amisag2 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 97. 47 wei & falar oni way 7 Prafefaa seri x Ran Aig: 1. Rafae onget ft vera da che aa art & sera Al cara amt! 2. ge fafer onge sitja sr Prats snget % ata aia 8 ATRen ures % cesta wt ffs fee ‘sat 81 3. Rake anit At aean ott ardaritan & werda & gee Ga una & dient & sigede 324(5) 3 adits Rate seaeu gro yA Pen mat sade aera 48 aha-a/a ae 8/8? (a) a1 ) ¥aa 3 @ 13K3 @ 29R3 Prfifaa 48 fa tS ce ase ‘fafaer Gar aim, fara oa Tern fefaa Bar A ae & arfarea ar oe Bt, et 8? (a) SATET (b) Re fae (e) Fo Te Bo (a) re [P.T.0.99. Recruitment to the higher civil services in India is based on the recommendations of which of the following Committee/Commission Reports? 1, Paul Appleby Macaulay Hanumanthaiah D. S. Kothari Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code : (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 () 1,3 and4 (d) 2 and 4 only 100. Which one of the _ following statements is not correct with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)? (a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status (®) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President (¢) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years P_DTQ-J-QVB/8A 48 101. A Member of the UPSC may be removed on the ground of misbehaviour by (a) both the Houses of Parliament by way of impeachment () the President on the basis of enquiry by the Supreme Court (@) the Chairman of the UPSC (@) the Prime Minister on the basis of the recommendation of the Cabinet 102. Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Prime Minister according to the Constitution of India : 1, To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business 2. If the President so requires, to submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2) 1 only (b) 2 only (} Both 1 and 2 () Neither 1 nor 299. ma HF sam fafa dat a ad Prefers 3 2 fea ue afifa/arin A featé aft degfeal ow sienfta 8? 1, Vet wre 2. tart 3. egitar 4. Go wae wart ee ee ®: fa) 1, 23% 4 ) 233 @ 1,334 (a) aa 2 ott 4 100, Rafafara 4 3 a-e uH ae wT fdas ud mecartters (CAG) & fer aad et 8? (@) CAG a pia: wada fafa yer Ai mee () CAG @ Baa TAR A sei K ‘deen weet (o) CAG % aaa atk ata ae afta Far ae wer BT @) CAG @ ata o: at & foe frat P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A loi, wa ote aa ain ar wee sere & SET GET TH HATS (a) Wea % St wait aa, wafer rat ) TER aU, Fat TTA TT A ag sta & onan (co) 8a cite San arin area ert (@) wemrA wo, awe A aie % STUER 102, ana % afar & agen, wer & eral Sa a fafaea set x fra waif: 1 wea ween & ard} tere afte gta tater % fax sik ae or & afta & de oer fee Ram saat ‘aft mente Gar =e, at ate HeeT, ‘fare oe feet wat are Poke fern rer 7, fag afaateg gra fran a Peat Ten @, afaaieeg % frend deaT sade ser Fa aa-a/a aah 8/8? (a) aa 1 (o) %aa2 © 1 ott 2 at @ 7HIMM AB? [P. TO.103. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Committee/Commission Reports? (a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee~ Pulton-Islington (®) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton- Islington-Lee fc) Macaulay-Aitchison-Islington- Lee-Fulton (4) Islington-Aitchison-Lee- Fulton-Macaulay 104. Which one of the following features does not necessarily apply to generalist administration in India? (a) They are trained professionals in administration (b) They have been educated in technical disciplines (c) They can head or work in any government department (4) They have a broader view of administration 105. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the Governor’s Ordinance-making power? (a) It is exercised only when the Legislature is not in session (®) It is a discretionary power which need not be exercised with the aid and advice of Ministers (c} The Governor himself is competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time {d) The scope of the Ordinance- making power is limited to ‘subjects in List II and List III of Schedule VII P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A. 106. Which one of the following statements, with regard to the State Legislature, is not correct? (a) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Governor (e) Under Article 167 of the Constitution of India, the Chief Minister has to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation () Once the Governor reserves a Bill for the consideration of the President, the subsequent enactment of the Bill is in the hands of the President and the Governor shall have no further Part in its career (@) The -executive power of the State is vested in the Governor and all executive actions of the State has to be taken in the name of the Governor 107. Which one of the _ following statements is not correct with regard to the Cabinet Secretary of India? (a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950 (6) The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister () The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet committees (@) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years103. frafafad 4 8 seem we afifa/are oft feel ar wal wreregeH 2? (a) tear Rfrer ah -grer—geferest fb) Pra fenregeer-gaterrenatt fe) tard Regain gee (a) eafemren deren atgeen Stare 104, Prafafaa #8 saa oe Pate rea F ARR HE Sra BT AP] Tet eet? (a) 3 wares 4 férfire saree & (&) 2 woe fem Tens FAR faq me & (co) 2 Feet wart Bem Ft srexer aT ard x ued & (4) FS Ta TIA wT stag siti ware gear & 108, Terra A stata aa A afte & att Frater 4 8 atr-ar ow wet ae 87 (@) year win Hae wht feet oT 8, wa fermen wa aa >) we Freee &, Ree sit & fre aBat A wa aw sree ES (o) Wea sea et A aT wearetot & fare ead wee B (@) sara ea Al af a feat oyeh vi A ah n att etm & Raval am ata & P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 106, Tse framing % fava 4 frfefad 3a AR-BI UH wert Tet et 8? (a) “facies Teme & wfa anaes eT a reer & (o) we % aur % spas 167 F aun, genet @ ost & anil & weet wef oi faut far vera ward nfagieg & wht fiteq ware a dgfa act tank oC W&M Tea RE fs Tenfa & fran & fer omefira a ea 2%, ft fates a waned aftPana agate & oe star & aie Teams a at aA gt A aE ar ae a (@) ws Ht arin ait cer & Rift 8 ok usa A wt seiner arfafeal sara & am a A ar ane 107, at Baer aa & fava t frefofian #8 ata we ae wet AEE # (a) Wrawen afra ae af 1950 # “aftr Pen rar er o) saree afea sur a WUT afta dian & () Wet via a afta aif at efia were weet 8 (d) Wwe afta a ariara uta ae % fee faa & 51 [P.T.0.A D. Which of the following statements with respect to State Level Directorate is/are correct? 1. It is always headed by a specialist. 2. It is a line organization. Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code (a) 1 only fb) 2 only () Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 109, Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List List-IT Lord Wellesley 1. Created the post of Civil Judge . Created the office of Chief Secretary 3. Created the office of District Collector Lord Cornwallis 4. Created the post of Deputy Collector Code : @ A B CD 2 4 3 1 @ A BoC OD 1 3 4 2 () A B C D 203 4 4 @a B CD 1 4 3 2 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 110. Which one of the following recommended the separation of regulatory and —_ development functions at the district level? (a) Dantwalla Committee (o) Hanumantha Rao Committee (c) Administrative Reforms Commission {a} G. V. K. Rao Committee 111, Consider the following statements : ‘The Prime Minister as the head of the Council of Ministers 1, has a free hand in the distribution of portfolios 2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign 3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers 4, advises the Ministers in day- to-day administration _ of Ministries Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2and3 () 1,2 and 4 (a) 3and4108. Te aida Peeen & free 3 Peafeitar # Batra wer we A/e 1, yaar aya ata AE fetes eh t1 2, ae aR ast eI a8 fam a a win wR at oH ee: (a) Fa (b) Fa 2 132 eH (@ amishade 109. ater at aan are gittra Sq site aril & f3 Re me RW wi we BR BAR: wha agian A. até Fateh 1. faa 3a ae ‘faa fem B. ait aa 2. yer afta sve “aa Peat c. fafean aes 3, fren weet HTS “afi fra D. até attarfera 4, STRAIT HE efaa feat e: @aA B Cc D 2 4 3 1 A BC D 103 4 2 @ A B C D 2 3 4 1 @ A B C D 14 3 2 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 83 110. frafefaa 1 8 fart fren en we far a Rare wel F game A fran 7 (a) eran ARR (b) Ba Ta fo) Farah gun sri (a) Ho Hho Fo Ta BAA 111, Rafetta sent x fran afi: wera ahaa & age & wT 1, Sanrio H ears Ghat t 2, wad i hac a wan @ sit ‘feel aA at cara in aaa e 3. uaa A aoe 8 der gat & 4. uP at weareit & Safe wer Awe tae sage wert 4 3 at-a at 87 (a) Fa 1 sik 2 &) 23K3 () 1,234 @ sae [P70112, The Administrative Reforms 114. Consider the following statements : Commission (1966) recommended the establishment of ‘Lokpal’ in State Finance Commissions India on the lines of Ombudsman of 1. receive grants directly from the which of the following countries? Finance Commission set up by 1. Finland the Union Government 2. review the economic conditions of the various Panchayati Raj 3. Norway Institutions and Municipal Bodies in the State 2. Denmark 4. Switzerland Which of the statements given Select the correct answer using the above is/are correct? code given below : (a) 1 only code + (b) 2 only () Both 1 and 2 (@) 1,2 and4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 2 only 118. Consider the following statements : : The 73rd Constitutional Amend- 1,2 and 3 @ ans ment Act provided (d) 3 and 4 1, for 27% reservation of seats at the Panchayats for the Other Backward Castes (OBCs} 113. Mayor-in-Council form of Municipal 2. that the Chairpersons of the Corporation is Panchayats at intermediate or district level, shall be elected (a) brought in by the 74th by, and from amongst the Constitutional Amendment Act elected members thereof Which of the statements given (b) based on the theory of above is/are correct? separation of powers (a) 1 only () akin to Cabinet form of government (b} 2 only () Both 1 and 2 (a) based on the American local government pattern (a) Neither 1 nor 2 P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 54pt 112, sues que a (1966) 3 we # “crema” Al, Prafefad a @ fra eet a siragpiia Ft we exe A sagetan A? 1 ae ae fq me ye at win et a a ae: qe: fa) 1, 2384 o) Fac 1 sik 2 @ 1,233 (a 334 113, 9m fem a wate nertk (eR-- adhd) BET @@) 744 aur deer fee at ‘waren ra 8 () Re yore % Rrra ot srt & (o) Wired cae A aR & EET * (@) RH era mA wet arent & P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A, 55 114, frafefan aert x fran ffi : oa fa or 1, Ha eran art eentta ra anata ‘Ai8 oer we Ra 2. we & faite caret oe dent att on Peart af onfties ceneit wher at & aan ert #8 ahan/d wh 2/87 (a) Fas 1 () a2 13h 2a @ AA sas]? 118. Profan seit x fran ffir : 738 afar dai afte 4 1. aa frog aiftdl (OBcs) % fre waradt # 27% earit & ame a seer fear 2. 7e sree far fe need a fret eR tart w/t ea Te Paifra wet 4 3 sk Paifea weet ar Prati A/a ‘ages werd #8 ahaa /2 wet 8/87 (a) aa ) a2 () 13m 2e @ Tai smAw2 IP. To.Directions : The following five (5) items consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion (A) and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below. Code : (@) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A () Ais true but R is false (a) A is false but R is true 116. Assertion (A) : A system constantly reacts to the outside environment and under- goes a process of change. Reason {R) : A system has an _ inherent survivability instinet, which increases its capacity to face changes. 117. Assertion (A) : Coordination is both a positive and a negative concept. P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 118. 119. 120. Reason (R) : Coordination prevents dishar- mony, inefficiency, wastage and conflict in an organization. Assertion (A) : Governor can withhold a non- Money Bill passed by the Legislature. Reason (R) : Governors are empowered by the Article 200 of the Constitution of India to do so. Assertion (A) : Conventional Public Adminis- tration is based upon the dichotomy of politics. and administration. Reason (R) : Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political role of civil servants. Assertion (A) Functional supervision runs counter to the principle of unity of command. Reason (R) : Unity of command is helpful in attaining the unity of direction.fier: Fraferftar ate (5) wevizil 4 a ater &, we at “apart (A)’ Ter Gat Sl “ANT (RY BET TAT BT al aeeil a araurfiqds vert a ge Weta or fa feu ee ge A aera a GUI ee: @ Aa R et we & aR, Az wa arte (o) AMR MH ws WER, AR we cavern et & ©) Awak, WER Tae (@) Araat, WIRAEE 116, SW (A): are ate Ura % sft Pia wfatear aaatl ¢ ott ated: nfm & gaat a RMT (R) wre 4 amsfifeer & fe met yg waft at 2, st oRadt er aren ae AeA am at agit 81 117. 7 (A) : waa wane sit aaa Ht ‘WrerT eI P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A 87 118, 119, 120. SRT (R) = we diet Ft oan, ace, saan aft wa a Parco ater 81 WH (A): Tenet frarmvea a ata feet fates a, ft ua-fadas 4 a, feeier wae a! ‘RT (R) : Tears tar #8 & fg ea & afta % smgeds 200 we wae BI ‘Se (A): werafors wider wart At wear Frans & fara 2 SRM (R) s wate A cam, ea A Gam oe et F eerag &1 {P.T.0.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK | P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A. 58P-DTQ-J-QVB/8A SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK kek JS—59*500We we arcat ae wenn yferen Utes a a wT eG wa aw a Ui Aaa. : P-DTQ-J-QVB uttenn oferan area wr et 16049 utter yfecent Al ite wert ara : ane yates : 300 ayia 1. ube eee BAB TA are, sary Fa wher yee aA ga ora a a Ae Pe aE ear oT, Tet WET oN YS sree vai oni a wi ae tert, a a wet adam yietat @ zee eR Sere He ear we taro BFE Tg A, B, Cu D aenftuhh we wa a aaa Afra 3. ya whem gitar x sr 8 faq mm ales ft snvad oe sepia fran &1 cham gem me att yo a rd 4. a wham afta #120 sean (wet) faq ma Ei wee Tee feet atk sith A oa tL wets weAiT Fae HGH (eR) Pee ae 1 ga Sew wey Ba S, Pa se sere oe sifaes eT aTeA HLA oma te aA AR WH B afte sean ae 8, aA ae ua FI siftea at A once adie erty weds veri | fom Sat ww A wean gra tr 5. aah are anh wegen ater & fee mg sears 1 A sift aa Er oer-aaw A fee ay Aer Shere 6. wh seit & sis aa B1 7. Ba] WES A omy atl yfRaT AGIA erie Beye SoU Ge aie BCH YR SE, aa sat wag & we Mia otal & sgan Bw fram swe HA EL 8. se am anf eget aA sua Hd | are gen when aa Me Are sare sitters a ae 4 sama 3 a wham gear & a A ayaa a 9. are am fire cae atten gfe & ovat ern 10. wera seit % ferq ave : arghte wer-wat F sefican are fq wg mer wet & fre wos Rat wre) (i) weds wer & fre are Senet see Bi safteare ero wets wer & Are Re me wee Tera Sat fee eA BG ‘Prag fire ore sia an ww-feerg (0-33) we % By A wr SET (ii) fe aig arte Um 8 aftrs a ee 2, at a wera se ET STEM, Tay Re my see HS eH oH we ten 2, Piet se wer & fore aeefergen et seh ace a awe fer SET (ii) A Safean wa aE we vet el een are & state, sete are gat Te fen aren &, at va we | fee, aig ws ad fea aT) Wa we arrat ae oda feet Ute Gt A HET Ge Aa TH a Tl Note : English version of the instructions is"printed on the front cover of this Booklet. i