i1- Drugs given systemically may cause all the following EXCEPT A) Hair loss B) Chronic urticaria C) Erythema

multiform D)Fungal infections of the skin i 2- Grape fruit juice should be avoided with many drugs because A) It spoils the taste B) It increases the drug metabolism C) It decreases the drug metabolism D) It delays gastric emptying i 3- Graves disease may be characterized by A) Hypothyroidism B) Hepatic cirrhosis C) Cortisol insufficiency D) Hyperthyroidism i 4- Hypercalceamia dose not occur in normal individuals because A) Calcium is rapidly excreted B) Calcium is rapidly biotransformed C) Calcium is insoluble D) Exccess calcium is most absorbed i 5- Hyper- responsiveness of the trachea and bronchi to stimuli with bronchi to stimuli with bronchiolar constriction and symptoms of wheezing and dyspnoea describes A) Chronic obstruction B) Asthma C) Pneumonia D) Chrocic obstructive pulmonary disease i 6- If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at the PH of blood ,it will A) Penetrate the Blood Brain Barrier slowly B) Penetrate the Blood Brain Barrier rapidly C) Be eliminated slowly D) Not be distributed to any tissue sties i 7- In a hypertensive patient taking insulin which of the following drugs to be used with extra caution and advice to the patient

A) Hydralazine B) Prazosin C) Propanolol D) Methyldopa i 8- In migraine management, which one of the following is contraindicated in ischeamic heart disease A) Pizotifen B) Sumatriptan C) Propanolol D) Flunarizine i 9- Iron is required by the body to maintain normal A) Digestion B) Bone growth C) Vitamin absorption D) Oxygen transport i 10- Levocabastine nasal drops are classified as A) Corticosteroid B) Sympathomimetic C) Antihistamine D) Astringent

2
i11- Lidocaine HCL is not usually administered orally because it is A) Has no systemic activity B) Too acidic C) Too basic D) a cause of arrhythmia i 12- Megaloblastic aneamia may be responsive to administration of all of the following EXCEPT A) Cyanocobalamin B) Intrinsic factor concentrate C) Ferrous sulphate D) Folic acid i 13- Nasal carriage of Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) can be treated with ointment that contains A) Mupirocin B) Gentamycin

C) Nystatin D) Chloramphenicol i 14- Oestrogens tend to increase the risk of A) Endometrial carcinoma B) Hirsuitism C) Hearing loss D) Visual problems i 15- Pencillamime is the antidote for A) Copper and lead B) Iron C) Cobalt D) None of the above i 16-Prostaglandins are chemically similar to A) Proteins B) Carbohydrates C) Lipids D) Enzymes i 17- Radioactive isotopes of which substance are used widely in diagnosis andtherapy A) Carbon B) Iodine C) Radium D) None of the above i 18- Sertraline is classified as A) Selective Mono amine oxidase inhibitor B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor C) Tricyclic antidepressant D) Dopamine receptor blocker i 19- The normal range of FASTING blood glucose is A) 3.0-4.0mmol/L (55-75mg/dL) B) 4.0-8.0mmol/L (75-150mg/dL) C) 8.0-10.0mmol/L (150-180mg/dL) D) 5.0-6.0mmol/L (90-110mg/dL) i 20- The anti diuretic hormone is secreted from A) The renal cortex B) The renal medulla C) The adrenal cortex D) the posterior pituitary

i21- The anti obesity drug Orlistat acts mainly by A) Inhibition of glucose absorption from GIT B) Inhibition of fat digestion by inhibiting pancreatic lipase C) Inhibition of bile salt secretion D) Chelate with amino acids and prevent their uptake through the GIT wall i22- The approximate *****alent dose of Lorazepam to 5mg of Diazepam is A) 0.5mg B) 4mg C) 5mg D) 0.1mg i23- The breakdown of glycogen is initiated by A) Trypsin B) glucagons C) Pepsin D) Renin i24- The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg What dose should be given to a 6 yr. old child who weighs 44 lbs.2.2 lbs =1kg approximately A) 0.003g B) 0.010g C) 0.033g D) 0.05g i25- The drug of choice for treating an acute attack of re-entrant supraventricular tachycardia A) Verapamil B) Digitalis C) Propanolol D) Phenylepherine i26- The enzymes involved in ethanol metabolism are peimarily A) Lipases B) Ketases C) Dehydrogenases D) None of the above i27- The least stable of water soluble vitamins is A) Ascorbic acid B) Thiamine C) Niacin D) Folic acid i28- The main function of the gall bladder is to A) Concentrate bile B) Secrete bile C) Eliminate bile D) None of the above i29- The major mechanism f degradation of drugs in the Gl tract is A) Oxidation B) Hydrolysis

C) Reduction D) Conjugation i30- The manifestations of Myasthenia Gravis are due to A) hypertonicity of smooth muscles B) Hypertonicity of striated muscles C) Weakness of striated muscles D) Sclerosis os striated muscles

4
i31- The most prevalent type of white blood cells are the A) Monocytes B) Lymphocytes C) Neutrophils D) Basophils 32- The parathyroid gland is responsible for A) Pulmonary function B) Maintaining the parasympathetic nervous system C) Cardiac output D) Calcium metabolism 33- The primary function of gastrointestinal villi is A) Facilitating the passage of chime through the GIT B) Increasing the surface area of the GIT C) To breakdown aminoacids into smaller molecules D) None of the above 34- The sympathetic ganglia are located A)Near the heart B) Near the spinal cord C) Near the adrenal glands D) Near the tissues they innervate 35- Tocopherols are a form of A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin E C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin B complex 36-Tricyclic antidepressants should be avoided in which of the following conditions A) Depressed patients with insomnia B) Closed angle glaucoma C) Diabetic peripheral neuropathy D) Nocturnal eneuresis 37- What is the weight used to make 1500 units, each of which contains 250 microgram of a drug A) 37.5 milligram B) 37500 microgram C) 375 milligram D) 3750 milligram

38- What will result if the distribution of drug drugs is slower than the process of biotranaformation and elimination A) Increase blood level of drug B) Decrease blood level of drug C) Synergism D) Failure to attain diffusion equilibrium 39- Which is recommended for acute cyanide poisoning A) Desferrioxamine B) Dimercaprol (BAL) C) Dicobalt edentate D) Pencillamine 40- Which of the following drugs increases the risk of digoxin toxicity A) Neomycin B) Hydrochlorthiazide C) Phenobarbital D) Oestradiol

5
i41- Which of the following drugs is classified as an HMG CO-A reductase inhibitor A) Probucol B) Clofibrate C) Gemfibrozil D) Lovastatin 42- Which of the following drugs undergoes mared hydrolysis in the Gl tract A) Aspirin B) Pencillin G C) Paracetamol D) Hydrocortisone 43- Which of the following is a contra indication of for Tricyclic antidepressant A) Insomnia B) Recent myocardial infarction C) Essential hypertension D) Nocturnal eneuresis 44- Which of the following is a metabolic product of alcohol A) Acetaldehyde B) Formic acid C) 4- methyl pyrazole D) Pyridoxine 45- Which of the following is an indication for pancreatic enzyme supplements A) Cystic fibrosis B) Post pancreatectomy C) Post total gastrectomy D) All of the above 46- Which of the following is found in vitamin B12 A) Magnessium B) Nickel

C) Cobalt D) Iron 47- Which of the following is associated with less gastric side effects A)Difflunisal (Dolobid) B) Ibuprofen (brufen) C) Ketoprofen (Oruvail) D) Piroxicam (Feldene) 48- Which of the following is not indicated for use in children less than 12 years old A)Domperidone (Motilium) B) Doxycycline (Vibramycin) C) Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin) D) Astemizole (Hismanal) 49- Which of the following is NOT naturally occurring A) Oestradiol B) Diethylstilbesterol C) Oestrone D) Ethinyl oestradiol 50- Which of the following is not used as a vehicle for injections A) Peanut oil B) Cotton seed oil C) Corn oil D) Theobroma oil

6
i51- Which of the following is TRUE about ORS in severe diarhoea A) Sugar and amino acids inhibits sodium and water reabsorption B) ORS includes sodium acetate and calcium C) ORS is the treatment of choice in children with diarhoea D) All of the above 52- Which of the following is used as a plasma expander A) Sodium salts B) Starches C) Dextrans D) Calcium salts 53- Which of the following is used to treat hyperthyroidism A) L- thyroxine B) Thyroglobulin C) Liothyronine D) Carbimazole 54- Which of the following is used to treat paracetamol overdose A) Acetylcysteine B) Methylene blue C) Pyridoxine D) Methylprednisolone 55- Which of the following prokinetic drug is a dopamine receptor antagonist A) Metoclopramide

B) Bethanechol C) Cisapride D) Buscopan 56- Which of the following statements is correct about chlorhexidine alcoholic solution A) Chlorhexidine will disinfect the hands if allowed to dry B) It is most suitable for disinfection of medical appliances C) It is essential to use it on the skin before venepuncture D) It provides the best treatment for impertigo 57- Which of the following stimulates hepatic microsomal enzymes A) Phenobarbitone B) Mannitol C) Urea D) None of the above 58- Which of the following CANNOT be used as a prophylactic for migraine A) Pizotifen B) Propanolol C) Methylsergide D) Dihydroergotamine 59- Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of Attention of Deficit disorders in children A) Pseudoephedrine B) Dexamphetamine C) Venlafaxine D) Phenytoin 60- Which one the following is not an essential amino acid A) Threonine B) Glutamine C) Tryptophan D) Methionine

7
i61- Which of the following Over the Counter (OTC) medications has a dangerous drug interactions with Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors A) Chlorpheniramine maleate B) Paracetamol C) Pseudoephedrine D) Vitamin C 62- Which statement is true about Otitis media treatment A) Local treatment is more effective than systemic one B) Ear drops containing local anasethetic are of great value in the management of pain C) Systemic antibiotic is needed when bacterial involvement is proved D) Oral antibiotic use as a prophylactic measure is not indicated for recurrent otitis media 63- Which substance commonly found in fermented food, can be toxic when MAO,I are used A) Phenylalanine B) Tyramine C) Histidine D) None of the above

64- Of the following anxiolytic agents, the one that posseses the least sedating action is A) Diazepam (Valium) B) Buspirone (Buspar) C) Meprobamate (Equanil) D) Chlordiazepoxide ( Libirium) E) Oxazepam (Serax) 65- Penicillins are believed to exert their antibacterial effect by which of the following mechanisms A) Detergent effect on the bacterial cell membrane B) Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis C) Inhibition of protein synthesis D) Steric hindrance of membrane amino acids 66- Which of the following antagonizes the actions of sulphonamides A) Streptomycin B) Penicillin G C) Morphine D) Para- amino benzoic acid 67- Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of primary nocturnal eneuresis A) Ritordine (Yutopar) B) Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) C) Metrolazone (Zaroxolyn) D) amiloride (Midamor) 68- the thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of A) sodium B) Urea C) Uric acid D) Bicarbonate 69- Which of the following oral hypoglyceamic drug has the longest serum half life A) Acetohexamide (Dymelor) B) Chlorpropamide (Diabinese) C) Glyburide ( Diabeta) D) Tolbutamide (Orinase) 70- Diclofenac sodium (Voltaren) is most similar in action to A) Buspirone (Buspar) B) Dicyclomine ( Bentyl) C) Retoprofen (Orudis) D) Mecamylamine (Inversine

8
i71- Which of the following is not progestin A) Mestranol B) Nor-ethindrone C) Ethynordiol diacetate D) Levonergestrel

i72- Agents useful in the treatment of bronchial asthma usually A) Block both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors B) Stimulate alpha receptors but block beta receptor C) Stimulate beta receptors but block alpha receptors D) Stimulate alpha and/ or beta receptors i73- All of the following are bacterial infections Except A) Cholera B) Plague C) Rabies D) Pertussis i74- Which of the following statements conserning Bisacodyl is NOT true A) Laxative action occurs with 6 hours after oral administration B) Tablets should be administered with milk to avoid gastric irritation C) Action of suppositories occurs within 1 hour after insertion D) Tablets should be swallowed whole i75- The local anaesthetic most commonly used in OTC burn remedies is A) Benzocaine B) butamben picrate C) Lidocaine D) Phenol E) Tetracaine i76- Methylcellulose and similar agents are used in ophthalmic solutions to A) Increase drop size B) Increase ocular contact time C) Reduce inflammation of the eye D) Reduce drop size i77- The most potent H2 receptor antagonist A) Omeprazole B) Sucralfate C) Famotidine D) Metoclopramide i78- Which second generation cephalosporin is available as a parenteral and oral medication A) Cefuroxime B) Cephalexin C) Ceclor D) Cefonicid i79- Haloperidol is classified structurally as a A) Benzodiazepine B) Butyrophenone C) Phenothiazine D) Tricyclic E) Malonylurea i80- Chronic treatment of rheumatoid arthritis with indomethacin requires care because indomethacin

A) Is an anti-inflammatory steroid B) Cause headaches in some patiets C) Inhibits the action of prostaglandins
D) Causes tachycardia

9
i81- The aminoglycoside most likely to remain a useful therapeutic agent in the event of resistance to Gentamicin A)Streptomycin B) Neomycin C) Amikacin D) Cephalosporin i82- Zollinger- Ellison syndrome is the result of adenomas in the A) Gallbladder B) Liver C) Stomach D) Pancreas E) A,B&D i83- In Examining the patient, the physician notes that the patient complains polydepsia refers A) Excessive Urination B) Excessive appetite C) Excessive Weight gain D) Excessive thirst E) B&C i84- Which of the following should NOT be administered to a patient being treated with narrow angle glaucoma A) Dipiverine B) Pilocarpine C) Carbachol D) Homatropine i85- All of the following drugs are used to treat patients with open angle glaucoma EXCEPT A) Carbachol B) Atropine C) Dipiverine D) Betaxolol i86- Which of the following antifungal agents is NOT effective against Candida A) Nystatin B) Clotrimazole C) Tolnaftate D) Miconazole i87- Which of the following sulphonylureas has the longest half life A) Tolbutamide B) Glibenclamide

C) Tolazamide D) Chlorpropamide i88- Side- effects of lsotretinoin(Roaccutane) include A) Dermatological reactions B) Depression C) Teratogenicity D) All of the above i89- Which of the following is the shortest acting Mydriatic A) Atropine B) Pilocarpine C) Tropicamide D) A,B&C i90- Tinea infections are caused by A) Virus B) Fungus C) Gram-positive bacteria
D) None of the above

10
i91- Prolactin inhibiting factor is A) Dopamine B) Thyrotropin C) Somatropin D) Corticotropin i92- Which of the following drugs is NOT associated with increased prolactin secretion A) Chlorpromazine B) Metoclopramide C) Bromcriptine D) Methyldopa i93- The action of Digoxin is enhanced by a level of which of the following ion A) Sodium B) Calcium C) Magnessium D) Potassium i94- Which of the following is the first diagnostic symptom of Digoxin overdose A) Anorexia, Nausea, Vomitting B) Constipation C) High body temperature D) Bronchospasm i95- Which of the following is a blood platelet adhesion inhibitor A) Dipyridamole B) Nitrofurantoin C) Dextropropoxyphene D) Imipramine i96- Lidocaine is used as a A) General anesthesia

B) Antipyretic C) Antiarrythmic D) Pre- anaesthetic i97- The principal toxic effect of Heparin is A) Bronchospasm B) Chills C) Hair loss D) Haemorrhage i98- The two major properties of drugs that are usually modified by complexation are A)Odor and tast B) Tast and solubility C) Chemical structure and solubility D)Chemical structure and stability E) Stability and solubility i99- PH is A) Not temperature dependent B) A measure of acidity C) The same as POH D) igh for acids E) None of the a bove i100- Sucralfate is used to trrat A) Peptic ulcers B) Carcinoma C) Calcium depletion D) Obesity
i1D

i2C i3D i4D i5B i6A i7C i8B i9D i10-C i11-A

i12-C i13-A i14-A i15-A i16-C i17-B i18-B

i19-D i20-D i21B i22A i23B i24B i25A i26C i27A i28A i29B i30C i31C i32D i33B i34B i35B i36B i37C i38B i39C i40B i41D i42B i43B i44A i45D i46C i47B i48B i49D I50D II I51D i52C i53D i54A i55A i56A i57A

i58D i59B i60B i61C i62C i63B i64B i65B i66D i67B i68C i69B i70C i71A i72D i73C i74B i75A i76B i77C i78B i79B i80C i81C i82C i83D i84D i85B i86C i87D i88C i89A i90B i91A i92C i93B i94A i95A i96C i97D i98E

i99B i100-A