CMAT MOCK TEST

Section I (Quantitative Techniques & Data Interpretation)

1.

A sum of money was deposited at a compound interest at a certain rate. If simple interest instead
of compound interest had been calculated, then the interest for the first two years would have
decrease by `20 and that for the first three years by `61. What was the sum that was deposited?
(a) `7,500
(b) `7,000
(c) `8,000
(d) `6,500

2.

Two vessels contain spirits of concentrations 50% and 75% respectively . If two litres from the first
vessel and three litres from the second vessel are mixed, then what will be the ratio of spirit to water
in the resultant solution?
(a) 15 : 17
(b) 7 : 17
(c) 13 : 7
(d) 17 : 15

3.

On a perticular day, the ratio of the number of passengers travelled by first class and to that of by
second class between two railway stations was 1 : 50, whereas the ratio of fare of first class to that
of second class between the same stations was 3 : 1. The amount of `1,325 was collected from the
passengers travelled between the two stations, what was the amount collected from the passengers
travelled by second class?
(a) `850
(b) `750
(c) `1,000
(d) `1,250

4.

There are 2,94,000 tractors in a particular state, out of which 1,50,000 are manufactured by
Mahindra. Out of every 1,000 Mahindra tractors, 98 are red in colour and 5.3% of the total number of
tractors in the state are red. What percentage of non-Mahindra tractors are red?
(a) 0.6125
(b) 0.5025
(c) 0.5130
(d) 0.6425

5.

Two shopkeepers sell radios of the same brand at the same list price of `1,000. The first shopkeeper
allows two successive discounts of 20% and 10% and the second allows two successive discounts
of 15% and 15%. Find the difference in the discounts offered by the two shopkeepers.
(a) `3.50
(b) `1.50
(c) `2.50
(d) `1.75

6.

A and B run a 5 km race on a round course of 400 m. If their speeds are in the ratio 5 : 4, then how
many times will the winner of the race pass the other participant?
(a) 5 times
(b) 3 times
(c) 4 times
(d) 2 times

7.

Bar graphs given below show the details of number of Right issues (in Lakhs) and Public Issues (in
Lakhs) floated and the amount (in ` Crores) raised by Indian companies.
600
500
400
300
200
100
0

564

3000
2500

378

2462

2358

1856

2000

298

1500

158

131
49

1000
500

751
428

150

2001-2002 2002-2003 2003-2004

Right Issues (in Lakhs)

Amount (in `Crores

2001-2002

2002-2003

Public Issues (in Lakhs)

2003-2004

Amount (in `Crores)

In which period was the ratio of Right issues to the total number of issues minimum?
(a) 2002-03
(b) 2001-02
(c) 2003-04
(d) Data insufficient
Page 1

8.

The distance between the two stations X and Y is 220 km. A train leaves station X for Y at a speed
80 km/hr. After half an hour another train leaves station Y for X at a speed 100 km/hr. Find the
distance of the point from X, where the two trains meet.
(a) 100 km
(b) 120 km
(c) 80 km
(d) 140 km

9.

If 15 men or 24 women or 36 boys can complete a piece of work in 12 days by working 8 hours a
day, then how many men must be required to work with 12 women and 6 boys to complete another
piece of work 2
(a) 6

1
times the previous piece of work in 30 days by working 6 hours a day?
4
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 10

10.

The average age of a class of 60 students is 12 years. If the number of girls is increased by 3/4th
and the number of boys is decreased by half, the total number of students does not change; nor
does the average age of either the boys or the girls change. But the combined average age changes
to 13.5 years. The average age of the boys is
(a) 8 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 12 years
(d) Cannot be determined

11.

f(x) and g(x) are two functions defined as:

f(x) = 2x + 3 and g(x) = 3x + 7, then what is the value of g(f(5))?
(a) 51
(b) 42
(c) 46

(d) 37

12.

Four prime numbers are written in ascending order. The product of the first three is 385 and that of
the last three is 1001. Which one is the largest prime number among them?
(a) 7
(b) 11
(c)17
(d) 13

13.

The question given below is followed by two statements, I and II. Mark the answer using the following
instructions.
(a) if the data in both the statements I and II is required to answer the question.
(b) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement
I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) if the data given in both the statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question.
Q. Who is the slowest among the three workers P, Q and R?
I. P and Q together can fence a garden of perimeter 800 m in 11 hours.
II. P, Q and R together can fence a garden of perimeter 800 m in 5 hours.

14.

The sum of a 2-digit number and the number obtained by reversing the digits is a perfect square.
How many such numbers exist?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

15.

Between 1 to 1000, how many natural numbers are there which when divided by 3, 4 and 5 leave a
remainder of 2, 3 and 4 respectively but when divided by 7 leave no remainder?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None of these

Page 2

7
times the square root of the total number of swans are playing on the
2
shore of the pond. The remaining two swans are inside the pond. Which of the following can be the
total number of swans?
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 16

16.

Out of a group of swans,

17.

Co-efficient of x in the equation x2 + px + q = 0 was wrongly written as 17 in place of 13 and the roots
thus found were 2 and 15. The roots of the correct equation would be
(a) 3, 10
(b) 3, 10
(c) 3, 10
(d) 3, 10

18.

How many terms are there in an A.P. whose first and fifth terms are 14 and 2, respectively and the
sum of the terms is 40?
(a) 15
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 20

19.

After three years, Arun would be twice as old as his brother was four years ago. His sisters present
age is half of his brothers age that would be 12 years from now. If the sum of present ages of all the
three is twice as much as Aruns age one year from now, his brothers age 2 years ago would have
been
(a) 47 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 28 years

20.

A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions in an examination such that he must choose exactly
four from the first five questions. The number of choices available to him is
(a) 140
(b) 196
(c) 280
(d) 346

21.

In a class, 50 students play cricket, 20 students play football and 10 students play both cricket and
football. How many students play at least one of these two games?
(a) 10
(b) 50
(c) 80
(d) 60

22.

What is the least multiple of 7 which leaves a remainder of 3 when divided by 4 or 12 or 16?
(a) 142
(b) 147
(c) 91
(d) None of these

23.

The question given below is followed by two statements, I and II. Mark the answer using the following
instructions.
(a) If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone.
(b) If the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
(c) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together.
(d) If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. Let x be a real number. Is the modulus of x less than 8?
I. x (x + 8) < 0
II. x (x 8) > 0

Page 3

24.

The table given below shows the monthly expenditure (in `) on various heads Food, Clothing,
Transport, Education, Rent and Entertainment of a family during the period 2001 to 2006.
Ye a r
Ite m

2001

2002

2003

2004

2005

2006

Food

1800

2000

1900

1500

1700

2400

Clothing

1200

800

1000

1300

1400

1200

Tra nsport

500

600

550

450

700

600

Educa tion

1100

1200

1000

900

1300

1200

Re nt

400

500

550

600

650

700

Ente rta inm e nt

300

350

400

500

600

600

If savings are 20% of income in each of the given years, then during which year was the total savings
(in `) highest assuming that the person used to spends his income only on the given six heads?
(a) 2004
(b) 2003
(c) 2006
(d) 2005
25.

In a factorys total daily wages of 20 men, 30 women and 36 children is `78. The ratio of work done
by a man, a woman and a child in a day is 3 : 2 : 1 respectively. What will be the total wages of 15
men, 21 women and 30 children for 18 weeks?
(a) `7,371
(b) `9,585
(c) `6,956
(d) `5,000

Page 4

Section I (Quantitative Techniques & Data Interpretation) Solutions

1. c

Let the principal and the rate of interest be P and r

respectively.
We have,

Let the speeds of A and B be 50 m/sec and 40 m/sec,

respectively.
Time taken by A to complete the race =

Pr 2
= 20
1002
3

6. d

... (i)

= 100 sec.
Time interval after that A crosses B every time

Pr
3Pr
+
= 61
1003 1002

... (ii)

400
= 40 sec.
50 40
Hence, in 100 seconds A will cross B two times.
=

Solving (i) and (ii), we get

r = 5% and P = <8,000.
7. a

Ratio of Right issues to the total number of issues in:

2. c
2001-02 =
2002-03 =
0 .5
S

0 .5
W

5000
50

0 .75
S

0 .25
W

298
0.41
726
131
0.15
882

49
0.25 .
199
Hence, it was the lowest in 2002-03.

2003-04 =
Quantity of spirit in the resutlant solution
= 50% of 2 + 75% of 3
= 1 + 2.25
= 3.25 litres.
So, the amount of water = 5 3.25 = 1.75 litres.
Hence, the ratio = 3.25 : 1.75 = 13 : 7.
3. d

As per the question,

Ratio of the number of passengers travelled in first
class to that in second class = 1 : 50,
Ratio of fair of first class to that of second class =
3:1
Ratio of amount collected from passengers travelled
in first to that in second class = 3 : 50.
Hence, amount collected from the passengers travelled
in second class =

4. a

8. b

= 80

220 40 180
=
= 1 hour.
100 + 80 180
Hence, the distance = 40 + 80 1 = 120 km.
9. c

Let the number of men required be x.

2.25 (15m 12 8) = (xm + 12w + 6b) 30 6

18m = (xm + 7.5m + 2.5m)

x = 8.

98
150000 = 14700
1000
Non Mahindra tractors that are red = 15582 14700
= 882
Hence, the answer =
5. c

882
100 = 0.6125.
144000

S.P. of Ist shopkeeper = 1000 0.8 0.9 = <720

S.P. of IInd shopkeeper = 1000 0.85 0.85 = <722.50
Hence, the difference = 722.50 720 = <2.50.

Let units of work done in an hour by a man, a woman

and a boy be m, w and b respectively.
15m = 24w = 36b

12w = 7.5m and 6b = 2.5 m

Total number of tractors that are red

1
= 40 km.
2

So, they will meet after =

50
1325 = <1,250.
53

294000 5.3
= 15582
100
Number of Mahindra tractors that are red

Distance travelled by 1st train in 30 minutes

10. b

Let the number of boys and girls in the class be b

and g respectively and the average age (in years) of
boys and girls be x and y respectively.
b 7g
= 60
Given, b + g = 60 and +
2 4
b = 36 and g = 24
Now, 36x + 24y = 720 and 18x + 42y = 810
x = 10 and y = 15
Hence, the average age of the boys is 10 years.

Page 1

11. c

12. d

13. d

14. d

15. c

f(x) = 2x + 3 and g(x) = 3x + 7

f(5) = 2 5 + 3 = 13
Hence, g(f(5)) = g(13) = 3 13 + 7 = 39 + 7 = 46.

n2 8n 20 = 0

Let the four prime numbers in ascending order be A,

B, C and D respectively.
A B C = 385 = 5 7 11
and B C D = 1001 = 7 11 13
Hence, the highest prime number (D) is 13.

n = 10 or 2.

Statement I gives information about time taken by P

and Q together, so it is not sufficient to the answer
question.
Statement II gives information about the time taken by
P, Q and R together, but does not give information
about the time taken by indivisual.
If both statements are combined, then we can find the
time taken by R, but the individual times taken by P and
Q cannot be found.
Let the number be 10a + b.
10a + b + 10b + a = 11(a + b).
Thus, for 11(a + b) to be a perfect square, a + b =
11.
Possible values of (a, b) are (2, 9), (3, 8), (4, 7), (5,
6), (6, 5), (7, 4), (8, 3) and (9, 2).

19. d

20. a

21. d

q
(2) (15) = q
1

q = 30
Hence, the correct equation is x2 + 13x + 30 = 0
and its roots will be 3 and 10.

18. c

Let the number of terms in the AP be n.

40 =

n
[2( 14) + (n 1)4]
2

80 = n [ 28 4 + 4n]

Page 2

The number of choices available to him

C ricket
(5 0)
40

10

87
= 140
2

Fo otba ll
(2 0)
10

Required number of students = 40 + 10 + 10 = 60.

Alternate:
n(A B ) = n(A ) + n(B ) n(A B )
= 50 + 20 10
= 60.
(A represents cricket and B represents football)

22. b

The numbers which satisfy the given condition will be

of the form:
k LCM[4, 12, 16] + 3 = k 48 + 3
(where k is a natural number)
For k = 3, above number will leave reamainder 3 when
divided by 7.
Required number = 48 3 + 3 = 147.

23. a

From statement I, x (x + 8) < 0 8 < x < 0

|x| < 8.
Hence, from statement I alone we can answer the
question.
From statement II, x (x 8) > 0
x > 8 or x < 0
|x| > 0.
Hence, from statement II alone we cannot answer the
question.

Let the total number of swans be x.

Product of the roots =

b 2 = 28.

5
8
= C 4 C6 = 5

It is given that

17. b

Hence, two years ago his brothers age was 28 years.

The smallest number which when divided by 3, 4 and

5 leaves a remainder of 2, 3 and 4 respectively is
LCM (3, 4, 5) 1, i.e. 60 1 = 59.
So, the required number is of the form 60K 1, where
k is a natural number.
When k = 2, above number is divisible by 7. So, the
smallest number which satisfies the given constrains
is 60 2 1, i.e. 119. Therefore, the generalised form
of the number will be LCM(3, 4, 5, 7)k + 119, i.e. 420k
+ 119, where k is a whole number.

7
x swans are playing on the shore
2
of pond, it means x must be perfect square of even a
even natural number.
By checking the options, we get x = 16.

64 + 80 8 12
=
2
2

Let the present age (in years) of Arun, his brother

and his sister be a, b and s respectively.
According to the question,
a + 3 = 2(b 4), s = 0.5(b + 12) and
a + b + s = 2(a + 1)
Solving these equations, we get
b = 30

From 1 to 1000, there are three such number, i.e. 119,

539 and 959.
16. d

n=

24. c

Income :
100
:

Expenditure
80

Savings
: 20

Expenditure
4
So, savings will be the highest in the year in which
expenditure is highest. Hence, savings will be the
highest in year 2006.
So, savings =

25. a

Let the work done by a man, a woman and a child

in a day be m, w and c respectively. Then,
m = 3c and w = 2c
20m + 30w + 36c = 60c + 60c + 36c = 156c
Total units of work done in second case
= (15m + 21w + 30c) 7 18 = (45c + 42c + 30c)
7 18 = 117c 7 18
Hence, the answer =

78
117c 7 18 = <7,371.
156c

Page 3

Section II (Logical Reasoning)

26.

Pointing to a man, Radhika said, His sister is my daughters brothers mother. How is the man
related to Radhika?
(a) Brother
(b) Father
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather

27.

Complete the series: 9, 15, 23, 33, ?

(a) 36
(b) 44

28.

(d) 45

Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6. Three different positions of that cube are as shown
below. Which number is exactly opposite to 6?

5
4
(a) 1
29.

(c) 38

5
1

3
1

3
(b) 2

(c) 3

Find out the wrong number in the series: 89, 78, 86, 80, 85, 82, 83
(a) 83
(b) 82
(c) 86

(d) 4

(d) 78

30.

The door of Adityas house faces East. After exiting from the rear side of his house, he walks
straight 50 metres, then turns right and walks 50 metres. Finally, he turns left and stops after
walking 25 metres. Which direction is Aditya facing now?
(a) North-east
(b) South-east
(c) South-west
(d) North-west

31.

Five houses A, B, C, D and E are in a row. A is to the right of B, E is to the left of C and right of
A, and B is to the right of D. Which house is situated in the middle?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) B
(d) E

32.

Find the next term in the series: KUZ, MVX, OWV, QXT, ?
(a) SUR
(b) SAQ
(c) RAR

(d) SYR

33.

In a row of children facing North, Shweta is fifteenth from the left end and Jyoti is third to the left of
Shweta. Ram, who is seventh to the right of Jyoti, is fifth from the right end. What is Shwetas
position from the right end?
(a) 12th
(b) 10th
(c) 8th
(d) 9th

34.

If the alphabet series is written in the manner AZBYCX ... and so on, what will be the fifth letter to the
right of fifteenth letter from the left?
(a) S
(b) J
(c) P
(d) Q

Page 1

35.

In the diagram given below. The square represents the number of families having VCR, the rectangle
represents the number of families having scooter, the smaller oval represents the number of families
having TV and the bigger oval represents the number of families having Maruti Car.

N u m ber of fa m ilies
ha ving V C R

11 0

20

18

10

N u m ber of fa m ilies
ha ving S co oter
80
20

50

30
15

N u m ber of fa m ilies
ha ving TV

15

15

40

N u m ber of fa m ilies
ha ving M a ruti C ar
How many families own all the four things?
(a) 40
(b) 30

(c) 35

(d) 20

36.

Four girls A, B, C and D are sitting in a circle facing the center. B and C are facing each other.
Which of the following is definitely true?
(a) A is to the left of C
(b) D is to the left of C
(c) A and D are facing each other
(d) A is not between B and C

37.

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
N5V, K7T, ? , E14P, B19N
(a) I10R
(b) H10Q
(c) H9R
(d) H10R

38.

Sanya and Shikha are standing at point X, facing North. Sanya moves 3 km, and turns left and
moves 6 km and then turns right and moves 3 km. At the same time, Shikha turns left and moves 4
km and then turns right and moves 9 km. What is the shortest distance between the final positions
of Shikha and Sanya?
(a) 13 km

39.

(b)

14 km

(c) 4 km

(d) 2 3 km

Five students participated in a scholarship test. Sudha scored more than Puja. Kavita scored less
than Suman but more than Sudha. Mamta scored between Puja and Sudha. Who scored lowest in
the test?
(a) Puja
(b) Kavita
(c) Mamta
(d) Sudha

Page 2

40.

My bag can carry not more than ten books. I must carry at least one book each of Management,
Mathematics, Physics and Fiction. For every Management book, I must carry two or more Fiction
books, and for every Mathematics book, I must carry two or more Physics books. I earn
4, 3, 2 and 1 points for each Management, Mathematics, Physics and Fiction book respectively,
I carry in my bag. The maximum points that I can earn is
(a) 21
(b) 20
(c) 22
(d) 23

41.

Five friends are sitting in a row facing North. Sunil is sitting adjacent to Sunita and Sanjay is sitting
adjacent to Bindu. Sumit is sitting at the left end and Sanjay is sitting second from the right end of
the row. Sunil and Sanjay are sitting adjacent to each other. Who is sitting at the middle position?
(a) Sumit
(b) Sunil
(c) Bindu
(d) Sanjay

42.

In a certain code, PEAK is written as 3512 and DINE is written as 6895. How is KIND written in
that code?
(a) 2986
(b) 2396
(c) 2896
(d) 2596

43.

What is the next term of the series: 12, 12, 18, 42, ?
(a) 102
(b) 106
(c) 108

44.

Which of the following number can replace the question mark in the figure given below?

(a) 3
45.

(d) 100

(b) 9

(c) 1

(d) 2

My uncle shall visit me on the 64th day after my fathers birthday. If my fathers birthday falls on
Tuesday, then what shall be the day on my uncles visit?
(a) Tuesday
(b) Sunday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Monday

Page 3

Directions for questions 46 to 48: In each of these questions some statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and IV are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
46.

Statements:
i. Some chairs are desks.
ii. All desks are dogs.
iii. Some dogs are cats.
Conclusions:
I. Some dogs are chairs.
II. All dogs are chairs.
III. Some cats are desks.
IV. Some dogs are desks.
(a) Only I and II follow
(c) Only I and IV follow

47.

(b) Only II and III follow

(d) All follow

Statements:
i. Some ice are ring.
ii. No ring is paint.
iii. Some ring are gold.
Conclusions:
I. No gold is paint.
II. No ice is gold.
III. Some rings are paints.
IV. All gold are rings.
(a) Only I and III follow
(c) Only III and IV follow

48.

(b) Only I and II follow

(d) None of these

Statements:
i. All horses are doors.
ii. All doors are pens.
Conclusions:
I. All horses are pens.
II. All pens are doors.
III. All pens are horses.
IV. Some pens are horses.
(a) Only I and II follow
(c) All follow

Page 4

(b) Only I, II and III follow

(d) Only I and IV follow

Directions for questions 49 and 50: In each of these questions, a statement followed by two assumptions
numbered I and II is given. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to
consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is/are implicit
in the statement.
Mark your answer as:
(a)
if only assumption I is implicit
(b)
if only assumption II is implicit
(c)
if neither I nor II is implicit
(d)
if both I and II are implicit
49.

Statement:
In the originally conceived plan, the Union Government was supposed to subsidise only the sale of
wheat and rice through the PDS.
Assumptions:
I. The Union Government has slashed subsidy on these commodities now.
II. Later on the Union Government subsidised other commodities also.

50.

Statement:
In a replay of the events that followed the presentation of the budget last year, the RBI has cut the
CRR, the bank rate and the repo rate, by one percent each.
Assumptions:
I. The RBI had made similar cuts last year.
II. Budgets are presented every year.

Page 5

Section II (Logical Reasoning) Solutions

26. a

Radhikas daughters brothers mother is Radhika

herself. Hence, the man is the brother of Radhika.
+6

+8

+10

36. c

A /D
C /B

B /C

+1 2

27. d
9

28. a

15

23

45

33

D /A

From the given figures, we can conclude that none of

the numbers 2, 3, 4 and 5 are opposite to 1. Thus, the
number 1 is opposite to the number 6.

Hence, A and D are facing each other

37. d
3

29. c

The series is progressing as:

89

11

N 5 V

(87)
86

78

+9

80

+5

82

85
3

83

K 7

H 10 R
+3

+2

+1

14 P B

+4

19 N

+5
2

Hence, 86 is the wrong number.

30. d

Rear side of the house indicates west.

38. a
E n d po in t

5 0m

3 km

B a ck

S an ya

Fron t

50 m

2 km
3 km

Sta rting p oin t

4 km

Now, Aditya is in North-west direction with respect

to the starting point.
31. b

32. d

Alphabetical position number of the first letter of each

successive term increases by 2, for the second letter
it increases by 1 and for the third letter it decreases
by 2. The required term is SYR.
12 th
(Jy oti)

(2)

15 th
(S h w eta)

(3)

19 th
(R am )

35. d

AZBYCXDWEVFUGTHSIRJQKPLO
Fifth letter to the right of fifteenth letter from left will be
(15 + 5)th letter from the left, which is Q.
Number of families own all the four things is 20.

3 km
4 km

Sta rting po int

Applying Pythagorean Theorem,

The required distance = 22 + 32 = 13 km.

39. a

Score of the five students in decreasing order is

Suman > Kavita > Sudha > Mamta > Puja
Hence, Puja has score the lowest.

40. c

For points to be maximum, combination of books will

be 1 Management + 2 Mathematics + 5 Physics + 2
Fiction books.
Hence, maximum points will be 22.

41.b

The given information can be shown as:

(4)

The arrangement given above shows the numbering

of the children from the left end.
Hence, required position number = 4 + 1 + 3 + 1= 9th
from the right end.
34. d

3 km

Arrangement of the houses in a row will be as:

D B A E C
Hence, middle house will be A.

(11)

33. d

S hikh a

25 m

X
X
X
X
X N orth
S um it
S un ita
S un il
S an jay
B in du
Hence, Sunil is sitting at the middle position.

42. c

Clearly K = 2, I = 8, N = 9, D = 6
Hence, KIND is written as 2896.

Page 1

43. a

The series is progressing as:

12 + (13 1) = 12
12 + (23 2) = 18
18 + (33 3) = 42
42 + (43 4) = 102.

44. d

{(5)2

(4)2}

{(3)2

47. d

G old
P a in t

(2)2}

+
= (25 + 16) (9 + 4) = 41 13 = 28
Similarly, {(8)2 + (4)2} {(8)2 + (x)2} = 12
(64 + 16) (64 + x2) = 12
x2 = 4
x = 2.

Ice

46. c

64
, (Remainder = + 1)
7
Hence, Tuesday + 1 = Wednesday.

D e sks

P e ns

H o rse s

C a ts
D o gs

49. b

(II) is implicit from the words "to subsidize only the

sale of wheat and rice". This implies that the original
plan was to subsidize wheat and rice but later certain
other items were also included. (I) is not implicit. Thus,
option (b) is correct.

50. a

(I) is implicit from the phrase replay of the events.

But (II) is not implicit. While the statement assumes
that budget was presented last year and so has it
been this year, we cannot extrapolate this to every
year.

It is clear that some dogs are chairs (I), and some

dogs are desks (IV). Hence, only the conclusions I
and IV follow.

Page 2

Only I and IV

D o ors

From the Venn diagrams,

C h airs

R in g
G old

48. d
45. c

It is clear from the following Venn-diagram that none

of the choices from (a) to (d) are true.

Section III (Language Comprehension)

Directions for questions 51 and 52: In these questions, each sentence has been divided into four parts.
One of the parts contains an error. Identify the part that is erroneous.
51.

To some, censorship is a powerful example of loss of personal freedom(a) / and a step towards
totalitarianism; others see (b) / it as a necessary part of protecting the values that has provided the
(c) / moral foundation to our society for generations (d).

52.

Auxiliary Bishop Giacinto-Boulos Marcuzzo of Jerusalem says (a) / that the number of pilgrims
visiting (b) / the Holy Land increase every year, (c) / thus allowing peace
and harmony in the Middle East to be promoted (d).

Directions for questions 53 and 54: For each of the questions given below, determine the relationship
between the pair of words in the question and then select, from the options, the pair having a relationship
similar to the first pair.
53.

54.

Clothes : Tailor
(a) Optimism : Pessimism
(c) Currency : Bank

(b) Shoes : Cobbler

(d) Ring : Finger

Nurse : Clinic
(a) Chef : Kitchen
(c) Rupee : Currency

(b) Dog : Bark

(d) Hen : Chicken

Directions for questions 55 and 56: There are two blanks in each of the following sentences. From the
pairs of words given, choose the one that fills the blanks most appropriately. The first word in the pair
should fill the first blank.
55.

Mr. Kapoor will address the members on my _____ but do let me know the_____ of the meeting.
(a) place, transcript
(b) behalf, outcome
(c) instead, element
(d) chair, conversation

56.

The commissioner should try to _____ more _____ standards on Europes many securities
exchanges.
(a) bring about, burdensome
(b) regulate, flexible
(c) impose, onerous
(d) apply, generous

Page 1

Directions for questions 57 and 58: In the following questions four sentences A, B, C and D are given.
You have to arrange them in a logical order to make a sensible paragraph.
57.

A. No other document gives us so intimate a sense of the tone and temper of the first generation
English poets.
B. Part of the interest of the journal is of course historical.
C. And the clues to Wordsworths creative processes which the journal affords are of decisive
significance.
D. Not even in their own letters do Wordsworth and Coleridge stand so present before us than they
do through the references in the journal.
(a) BADC
(b) BDAC
(c) CBAD
(d) DABC

58.

A. These high plans died, slowly but definitively, and were replaced by the dream of a huge work on
philosophy.
B. In doing whatever little he could of the new plan, the poet managed to write speculations on
theology, and political theory.
C. The poets large ambitions included the writing of a philosophic epic of the origin of evil.
D. However, not much has been done in this regard either, with only fragments being written.
(a) ABCD
(b) CBAD
(c) CDAB
(d) CADB

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Choose the option that is closest in meaning to the capitalized word.
59.

60.
61.

62.

INTERMIT
(a) Adjourn

(b) Commence

(c) Revile

(d) Expedite

PUNCTILIOUS
(a) Assuasive

(b) Decorous

(c) Unperceptive

(d) Insensitive

SUNDER
(a) Beautify

(b) Connect

(c) Disperse

(d) Split

SUBVERSIVE
(a) Allegiance

(b) Seditious

(c) Audacious

(d) Maverick

Directions for questions 63 to 65: Each of these questions has an underlined part. Choose the option
that most appropriately replaces the underlined part.
63.

Aakash Airlines recently announced aggressive cost-cutting measures ranging from new airport
check-in procedures that encourage passengers to use self-service kiosks and reductions in the
size of its fleet.
(a) ranging from new airport check-in procedures that encourage passengers to use self-service
kiosks and reductions.
(b) ranging from new airport check-in procedures that encourage passengers to use self-service
kiosks and to reductions.
(c) such as improvement of airport check-in procedures, encouragement of passengers to use selfservice kiosks and reducing.
(d) ranging from new airport check-in procedures that encourage passengers to use self-service
kiosks to reduction.

Page 2

64.

In the latest instance in Delhi, local residents have been gathering daily at the lake side to catch a
glimpse of the seven-foot alligator which has already christened as Carlito and suspected to be an
abandoned pet.
(a) which has already christened as Carlito and suspected to be an abandoned pet .
(b) which has already been christened as Carlito and is suspected to be an abandoned pet.
(c) which has already been christened as Carlito and which is suspected to be an abandoned pet.
(d) which has already christened itself as Carlito, suspected to be an abandoned pet.

65.

Both Rhea along with Seema have gone to watch the movie.
(a) Both Rhea along with Seema
(b) Both Rhea and Seema
(c) Both Rhea as well as Seema
(d) Both Rhea accompanied by Seema

Directions for questions 66 and 67: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
An analysis of the relationships between 43,000 transnational corporations has identified a relatively
small group of companies, mainly banks, with disproportionate power over the global economy.
From 37 million companies and investors worldwide, 43,000 TNCs (transnational corporations)
have been pulled out along with the share ownerships linking them. A core of 1318 companies with
interlocking ownerships has been identified. Each of the 1318 companies has ties with two or more
other companies, and on average they are connected to 20. Although they represent 20 per cent of
global operating revenues, the 1318 appear to collectively own through their shares the majority of
the worlds large blue chip and manufacturing firms - the real economy - representing a further 60
per cent of global revenues. Further, a super-entity of 147 even more tightly knit companies - all of
their ownership is held by other members of the super-entity - controls 40 per cent of the total wealth
in the network.
66.

Which of the following, if true, weakens the analysis?

(a) Such a connectivity is inevitable in times of globalization and privatization.
(b) Certain aspects of this system of architecture of global economic power are very vulnerable.
(c) The analysis has been designed by a single person who is not an economist.
(d) Most company shares are held by fund managers who may not control what the companies
they partially own actually do.

67.

On the basis of your understanding of the given analysis and its results, which of the following
mitigates the validity of the argument?
(a) Analysis assumes the super-entity is unlikely to be the intentional result of a conspiracy to rule
the world.
(b) The number 147 is too many to sustain collusion.
(c) Analysis assumes that ownership equates to control, which is not always true.
(d) None of these

Page 3

Directions for questions 68 to 75: Read the following arguments/passages carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
68.

In product development, a popular tool is the quick-and-dirty prototype. Because simple prototypes
make the abstract concrete, they can guide innovators conversations and focus their attention,
helping them to move forward. But many companies rapidly follow them with polished prototypes
and the trouble begins. Research Ive conducted in the auto industry shows that when people see a
detailed prototype, something odd happens: They concentrate on the prototypes form and function,
forgetting to attend to any remaining ambiguities about the problem the product is meant to solve or
the obstacles in the way.
Which of the following can be concluded from the given argument?
1. Polished prototypes, instead of clarifying the path ahead, put a halt to useful brainstorming.
2. In the early phases of development, the team/group should retain the ambiguity inherent in any
technological challenge, moving on only after everyone is clear on what problems the product
should tackle and how.
(a) Only 1

69.

(b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Under conditions of uncertainty, people show a decidedly negative bias toward creativity relative to
practicality. This is where we, the designers, have something to offer the public sector. If we want to
explore a new strategy, product, or service, we dont describe it to a dozen groups in hopes theyll
adopt it wholesale. We make prototypes and test them, internally at first, then with the client, and
then with small sets of users. We modify and make new prototypes depending on how the previous
batch worked. We might even roll out a new offering in a limited market to see how it does.
Which of the following can be inferred from the given data?
(a) Designers are less hopeful about the success of wholesale selling of new ideas.
(b) Designers have come up with a lot of innovative strategies to woo the public sector.
(c) People are wary of new ideas.
(d) None of these

70.

There is a rising and unproductive trend towards people trying to do digital conflict resolution. The de
facto path for issue resolution seems to be increasingly via email. More accurately, email has
become a convenient mechanism for issue-avoidance. It is easier, quicker, less stressful, and less
confrontational to have critical or challenging issues sent over email versus a live one-on-one with a
counterpart. I have experienced too many unproductive strings of back-and-forth emails or texts that
should have stopped in round two, but continue. Worse, I have experienced situations that start
relatively benignly over email, only to escalate because feelings and interests are easily misunderstood
online.
Which of the following can be inferred from the given argument?
1. In case of an email, its hard to understand the intentions behind the words.
2. The conflict may aggravate in case of an e-mail communication.
3. Issues seldom fail to resolve when communicated via e-mails.
(a) Only 1

Page 4

(b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

71.

By directing more customer acquisition and loyalty costs towards that top cohort, you will be
implicitly de-focusing or firing in advance the less valuable customer segments. For example, for
current customers who spend little but cost dearly in terms of customer support or other costs,
consider a new pricing structure where higher support services are only free for accounts of a certain
size. In effect, you can offer customers the choice to become profitable cohorts or to leave.
Which of the following is a valid inference?
(a) Firing a customer in advance means to segregate customers on the basis of their profitability to
the company.
(b) Firing a customer in advance means to create an unhealthy environment for the less priority
customers.
(c) Firing a customer in advance means to reject the needs of a less profitable customer and give
priority to the needs of a profitable customer.
(d) Firing a customer in advance means to set conditions whereby lower- priority customers selfselect out and higher-potential ones self-select in.

72.

The human body produces energy by metabolizing oxygen. This metabolic process forms free
radicals as a natural by-product. Free radicals are individual atoms or sometimes groups of atoms
that have unbalanced or unpaired electrons. These free radicals are volatile particles and they rob
electrons from other molecules and cells within the body, causing cell damage that manifests itself
as disease and aging.
Which of the following, if true, weakens the argument about the baneful effects of free radicals most
effectively?
(a) Within our cells, we have a highly effective system that uses antioxidant compounds to control
and counteract free radical damage.
(b) There is not just one free radical, but a dizzying array of them at work in living organisms.
(c) The wrecking ball qualities of free radical are often needed by cells and tissues to remove what
is no longer useful and make way for the new.
(d) None of the above

73.

Film Critic: Movies have been remade for almost as long as theyve been made. I wouldnt call it a
curse. The remake can bring the movie to a new younger audience and at times even improve upon
the original film.
Which of the following, if true, supports the claims made above?
(a) Most remakes generate a lot of excitement and go on to do well financially.
(b) Most remakes retain the distinctiveness of the original films and present it in a way relevant to
the new generation.
(c) Most remakes are very popular among fans of the original film.
(d) Most remakes are negatively received by critics and are unsuccessful at the box office.

Page 5

74.

Work harder, feel emptier, buy more, grow poorer...work harder. Sound familiar? Thats the conventional
wisdom of the omnipresent church of more, bigger, faster, cheaper, nastier, now. The problem is that
the conventional wisdom isnt just wrong. If we want real human prosperity, the ability to live a life
that not merely glitters, but that matters well, then it was never right.
The author lends support to which of the following?
1. To lead a happy life, one should defy conventional wisdom and listen to his heart.
2. Spiritual way is the better way to prosperity.
3. Working too hard to become opulent defies the purpose of life.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None of these

75.

Unemployment insurance offers funds, for a limited eligibility period (now up to 99 weeks), to covered
people who lost their jobs and have yet been unable to find and start a new job. Historically, many
of the jobless have not collected unemployment benefits because of ineligibility, lack of awareness
or unwillingness to do so. Such insurance schemes are good for the people and thus for the economy
and should prevail.
Which of the following, if true, weakens the argument?
(a) The insurance company has to suffer losses due to the mistakes of someone else.
(b) The insurance does not benefit those who voluntarily quit the job.
(c) The idea of an insurance cover creates a sense of security in the minds of employees and they
stop taking risks.
(d) The insurance prolongs unemployment as the recipients have to give up their benefits as soon
as they find a new job.

Page 6

Section III (Language Comprehension) Solutions

51. c

This question tests you on Subject-Verb Agreement.

Option (c) needs a correction. Option (c) should be
rewritten as it as a necessary part of protecting the
values that have provided the. The pronoun that is
describing the values and not censorship, which is a
plural noun. Hence has should be replaced with have.

52. c

(c) needs a correction. It should be the Holy Land

increases every year, because the number of is an
expression which is always followed by a singular
verb.

53. b

Clothes are stitched by a tailor. Similarly shoes are

made by a cobbler.

54. a

A nurse works in a clinic. Similarly, a chef works in a

kitchen.

55. b

The word behalf is associated with a representative

and outcome indicates the result. Hence, both the
words go well with the tone of the sentence.

56. c

The preposition on gives the clue impose ... on.

If a task, duty or responsibility is onerous, it involves
an amount of effort and difficulty that is oppressively
burdensome. If something is onerous in law, it involves
excessively heavy obligations.

57. a

B introduces the topic and puts across the historical

interest of the journal, A follows with more information about the document, D is the next sentence, in
which the first generation English poets are better
known through references in the journal and C is the
logical end.

58. d

C introduces us to the topic of the paragraph which

talks about the ambition of the poet. In A, the ambition
died slowly and was replaced by another dream, D
continues it stating that not much is done regarding
this work, and B is the logical ending of the paragraph.

59. a

Revile means to humiliate. Expedite does not have

a similar connotation. Commence is the antonym of
intermit. Adjourn is the only word closest in meaning
to intermit.

60. b

Punctilious means marked by or showing careful

attention to set forms and details and decorous is its
synonym. Thus, option (b) is the correct choice.

61. d

Beautify means to decorate. Sunder means to break

or split something apart, using violence or force.

62. b

Allegiance means loyalty. Audacious means willing

to take risks or do something shocking. Maverick is
someone who has independent, and different
opinions. Subversive means trying or likely to
destroy or damage a government or political system
by attacking it secretly or indirectly. The word closest
in meaning to subversive is seditious.

63. d

The sentence intends to define the range of cost

cutting measures; therefore, to should proceed
reductions - range is always defined by the terms
from and to.

64. c

Both the clauses should have the relative pronoun

which to maintain the parallel construction in the
sentence. Moreover, the underlined part should be in
the present perfect tense to indicate the completion of
christening.

65. b

Both -and are correlative conjunctions that always

appear in the form of pairs. And should always follow
both. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

66. d

Option (a) neither strengthens nor weakens the given

analysis. It only suggests the inevitability of the
connections between different companies. Option (b)
is beyond the scope of the argument because the
merits and demerits of the connectivity of companies
are neither stated nor implied. The passage discusses
the phenomenon without mentioning its effects. Option
(c) is vague and fails to present a valid reason to
weaken the analysis. The analysis is based on the
assumption that those who own the shares of the
companies also control those companies and thus
control the wealth in the network. Option (d) weakens
the analysis by stating that most of the shares of a
company are held by fund managers that may not be
the ones controlling the company. Thus, option (d)
weakens the analysis.

67. c

Option (a) and (b) are beyond the scope of the

passage. Option (c) is correct. The analysis is based
on the assumption that those who own the shares of
the companies also control those companies and thus
control the wealth in the network. Thus, the analysis
assumes that ownership of shares means control of
the company.

68. a

2 is beyond the scope of the argument as it discusses

a course of action not mentioned in the argument. 1
can be concluded from the effects of polished
prototypes mentioned in the argument.

69. d

None of the statements can be inferred from the given

data. Option (a) is an assumption and not an inference.
Option (b) is beyond the scope of the argument. Option
(c) needs to be more specific because the argument
talks about the caution people exercise towards
innovative ideas when conditions are uncertain. Thus,
none of the options follow from the given argument.

Page 1

70. b

1 can be inferred from the lines situations that start

relatively benignly over email, only to escalate because
feelings and interests are easily misunderstood online.
2 can be inferred from situations that start relatively
benignly over email, only to escalate. 3 contradicts
the argument because 3 implies that issues often
resolve when communicated via e-mails. This is
contradictory to the argument. Thus, option (b) is
correct.

71. d

Option (d) adequately explains what is meant by firing

a customer in advance. It comes from the lines In
effect, you can offer customers the choice to become
profitable cohorts or to leave. Option (a) talks only
about segregation and fails to include the idea of offers.
Option (b) mentions unhealthy environment which is
incorrect and vague. Option (c) talks about rejecting
the needs of a lower priority customer which is again
incorrect.

72. c

Option (c) weakens the argument that free radicals

cause disease and aging by stating that they help the
body in getting rid of useless cells/ cellular components.

73. b

Option (b) discusses a potential reason why remakes

are good and attract younger audience. Thus, it
supports the claim. Option (a) does not support either
of the attributes of a remake that the film critic mentions.
Option (c) weakens the argument as it states that
remakes are popular with fans of the original film.
Therefore, it is not engaging a new audience. Option
(d) directly negates the argument.

Page 2

74. d

1 is incorrect because of the words listen to his

heart. 2 is incorrect because spirituality is neither
mentioned nor implied in the argument. 3 is incorrect
because of the words defies the purpose of life.
Such a purpose is neither stated nor implied. The author
says that the conventional wisdom to earn more and
spend more is incorrect and does not provide
prosperity to human life. In order to be prosperous
one should focus on what actually matters. But what
actually matters has not be expressed by the author.
Hence, option (d) is the correct choice.

75. d

(a) discusses the disadvantage to the insurer which

is not the issue at hand. The argument has already
mentioned that some people are not able to avail the
insurance due to certain conditions which undermine
their eligibility. Thus, (b) is already covered within the
argument and does not weaken it. (c) is partially correct
but is vague because the disinclination towards taking
risks cannot be equated to a disinclination towards
seeking a new job or working hard. (d) weakens the
whole idea of providing an insurance cover because
it is likely to be misused by the beneficiary. Thus, option
(d) is the correct choice.

Section IV (General Awareness)

76.

In ATP Atlanta Open 2012 American Andy Roddick defeated which among the following?
(a) M. Russell
(b) Gilles Muller
(c) Lleyton Hewitt
(d) David Ferrer

77.

The first American woman space traveller has recently died of pancreatic cancer. Name her
(a) Judith Resnik
(b) Sally Ride
(c) Anna Lee Fisher
(d) Mary L. Cleave

78.

Who among the following won the 99th Edition of Tour de France Bicycle Race?
(a) Bradley Wiggins
(b) Froom Christopher (c) Mark Cavendish
(d) Alberto Contador

79.

According to National University of Educational Planning and Administration which of the following
States ranked first in the composite educational development index (EDI)?
(a) Kerala
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Punjab
(d) Puducherry

80.

Who among the following has been chosen for the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2012 for economic
empowerment of thousands of women and their families in rural India?
(a) P. Sainath
(b) Laxminarayan Ramdas
(c) Kulandei Francis
(d) Nileema Mishra

81.

Speaker Meira Kumar has set up Lok Sabha's Fellowship Committee to enabling better understanding
of the functioning of Parliament and to identify the changing nature and role of parliamentary
institutions. Committee will be headed by:
(a) Prem Das Rai
(b) L. Hanumanthaiah
(c) B. S. Mangal Murty
(d) Girija Vyas

82.

After the blacklisting of an Israeli, supplier of the FSAPDS (Fin Stabilized Armour Piercing Discarding
Sabot) used by T-90 and T-72 tanks, India has now approached for supplying these tank shells with:
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) South Africa

83.

The Russian Football Union (RFU) has appointed Fabio Capello as new national manager to revive
the flagging fortunes of the team after its flop at Euro 2012. Fabio Capello belongs to:
(a) Spain
(b) Italy
(c) Greece
(d) Portugal

84.

Along with noted physicist A. K. Sood who among the following have been chosen for the prestigious
Gujar Mal Modi Award 2012?
(a) T.V Ramakrishnan (b) K. S. Valdiya
(c) Asis Datta
(d) Palle Rama Rao

85.

Syeda Rizwana Hasan has won the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2012 for her outstanding contribution
in judicial activism for environment. She belongs to:
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Malaysia
(d) Bangladesh

86.

The expert committee on GAAR (General Anti Avoidance Rules) has been set up by the Prime
Minister Manmohan Singh under the chairmanship of:
(a) Gaurav Choudhury
(b) Parthasarathi Shome
(c) Y.V Reddy
(d) V.T Dehejia

Page 1

87.

As per the latest global ranking compiled and published by the World Federation of Exchanges
(WFE) which of the following became the world's largest bourse in terms of the number of trades in
equity segment?
(a) NSE
(b) NYSE Euronext
(c) Nasdaq OMX
(d) STNDEX

88.

Who among the following has been recently appointed as the 55th President of Institute of Cost
Accountants of India (ICAI)?
(a) S.C. Mohanty
(b) Rakesh Singh
(c) M. Gopalakrishnan (d) Ashoke Mukherjee

89.

Along with Greece, Ireland and Portugal which among the following countries has become the fourth
eurozone nation to receive emergency aid up to 100 billion euro?
(a) Switzerland
(b) Finland
(c) Spain
(d) Italy

90.

Who of the following is the chairperson of National Green Tribunal?

(a) Lokeshwar Singh Parata
(b) Anil Pandey
(c) K Vijay Kumar
(d) None of these

91.

Which Indian Company is slated to buy the English football club Blackburn?
(a) U B groups
(b) RPG
(c) Videocon
(d) Vicky

92.

Who is the new elected President of BCCI?

(a) Chirayu Amin
(c) N. Srinivasan

93.

(b) Jyotiraditya Scindia

(d) Jagmohan Dalmia

Karrar is the unmaned bomber aircraft of which country?

(a) Iran
(b) Syria
(c) Israel

94.

Who is the CMD of Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited?

(a) Kailash Chandra Purohit
(b) Harsh Marital
(c) Oskar Singh
(d) None of these

95.

Who is the Director of Intelligence Bureau?

(a) Rajeev Mathur
(c) Saikat Dutta

96.

97.

(d) None of these

(b) Nehchal Sandhu

(d) None of these

Ramagundanar thermal power project is located in which state?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala

(d) Karnataka

Project Big Green has been initiated by which company?

(a) Microsoft
(b) Apple
(c) Infosys

(d) IBM

98.

Vansadhara River dispute is between which 2 states?

(a) Orissa and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(d) None of these

99.

Aligarh Muslim University is going to set its new campus at

(a) Saharanpur
(b) Meerut
(c) Murshidabad

100.

Who is India's permanent representative to United Nations?

(a) Hardeep Singh Puri
(b) M.K. Agnihotri
(c) Vijay Pasrich
(d) None of these

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(d) Azamgarh

Section IV (General Awareness) Solutions

76. b

77. b

78. a

79. d

80. c

81. a

82. b

83. b

84. b

85. d

86. b

87. a

88. b

89. c

90. a

91. d

92. c

93. a

94. a

95. b

96. a

97. d

98. a

99. c

100. a

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