CORPORATION BANK PO HELD ON 16-01-11

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Give answer' (1) if the data in

Directions (22 - 26) . : In each
statement I alone are sufficient to anquestion below is given a statement
swer the question. while the data In
followed by two assumptions numstatement II alone are not sufficient to
bered I and II. An assumption is someanswer the question.
thing supposed or taken for granted.
You have to consider the statement and
Give answer (2) if the data in
the following assumption and decide
statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data .in
which of the assumptions is implicit
statement I alone are not sufficient to in the statement.
answer the question.
Give answer (1) if only assumpGive answer (3) if the data eition I is implicit.
ther in statement I alone or in state Give answer (2) if only assumpment II alone are sufficient to answer
tion II is implicit.

the question.
Give answer (3} if either asGive answer (4) if the data even
sumption I or assumption Ii is implicin both statements I and n together
it.
are not sufficient to answer the quesGive answer (4) if neither astion.
sumption I nor assumption II . is imGive answer (5) if the data in
plicit.
both statements I and II together are
Give answer (5) if bOth assumpnece,ssary to answer the question.
tions
I a nd H are implicit.
17. Who amongst L, M. N, 0 and P
22. Statement .: If parking space is
is the shortest.
n ot available in office, park your
! . 0 is shorter than P but taller
vehicles
in the mall and walk to
thanN.
the office.
II. M is not as tall as L.
Assumptions
18. Are all the five friends viz. LeeI. The mall is at a walkable dis~
na. Amit. Arun, Ali and Ken who
are seated around a circular tatance from the office.
ble facing the centre ?
II. The office does not allow visiI. Leena sits second to left of
tors vehicles in its premises.
Amit. Amit faces the centre.
23. Statement : Farmers must'imArun sits second to right of
mediately switch over to organic
Leena.
fertiliZers from chemicalfertilizII. Ali sits third to .the left of Ken.
ers for better yield.
Ken faces the centre. Amit
Assumptions
sits to the immediate left of
I. All the farmers use only
Ali but Ken is not an immedichemical fertilizers.

ate neighbour of Amit.

II . Organic fertilizers are readily
19. 1sT grandmother of Q ?
available to the farmers.
I. Pis the mother ofQ. Q is the
24. Statement : An advertisement
son of R. R is the son ofT.
by bank X 'Our interest rates for
II. L is fa ther of N and N is
education loans are lower t han
daughter ofT.
_
any other bank' .
20. Point A is towards which direcAssumptions
:
tion from point B ?
I. Some other banks a lso proT. If a person walks 4m tovide education loan.$.
wards the north from point
II. Interest rates charged on
A, a nd takes two consecutive
right turns. each after walk. education ioans are different
ing 4 m. he would reachpoint
for different banks.
c . which is 8m away from 25. Statem.ent : For any kind of
point B.
problem with your mobil e'
H. Point D is 2m towards the
phone, contact our help d esk
east of point A and 4 m toimmediately.
wards the west of point B.
Assumptions :
21. How many brothers does BharI. Help desk has a solution to
at have?
all kinds of problems related
I. Shiela. the niother of Bharat
to mobile phones or will
has only three children.
guide accordingly.
' II. Meena, the grandmother of
II. Unless the problem is reBharat has only one grandported immediately, it candaughter.
not be solved.

Statement : Use our medicine

to fight the problem of obesity.
Assumptions :
.
I. Other slimming medicines
available in the market do not
reduce weight.
I I. Obesity cannot be controlled
without medicines.
Directions (27- ~1): Study the
following information carefully and
answer the given questions :
One of the seven subjects, viz.,
Maths. Zoology. Botany, Chemist1y.
Physics. English and Statistics is
taught on one day in a week starting
from Monday and ending on Sunday.
Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next
to the day when Zoology is taught.
English is neither taught on Tu esday
nor Saturday. Only one lecture is held
between Chemistry a nd Botany . Two
lectures are scheduled b etween Maths
and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught
<;>ri Monday nor Sunday.
27. On which of the following days
is Physics taught?
(1) Monday
(2f Tuesday
(3) Wednesday (4} Thursday
(5) Friday
28. How many subjects are taugh t
between Botany and Zoology ?
(i) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5 ) Four
29, Which of the following s ubjects
is taught on S atu rday?.
(1) Botany
(2) S tatistics
(3) Zoology
(4) Maths
(5) Physics
30. On which of the following days
is statistics taught ?
(1) Tuesday
(2) Wednesday
(3) Thursday
(4) Friday
(5) Ca nnot be determined
31. If Statistics is related to Zoology
a nd Physics is related to Botany
in a certain way. then to which
of the following would Chemis try b e related to, following the
same pattern ?
( l) Maths
(2) Statistics
(3) Physics
(4) English
(5) Cannot b e determined
Directions (32 -34) :The following questions are based upon th e
alphabeti'c al series given below :
26.

SLU A YJVEIONQ~ZBDRH

32.

If'SU' is related to 'HD' a nd 'UY'

is rei<!ted to oz in a certain W<1Y.

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138.

uncut omit gem stat ace rate era

input fan cast
(1) II
(2) .III
(l)ZQ
(2) IN
(3) V
(4) IV
(4) go
(3) BG
(5) None of these
(5) DZ
44. In step IV of the rearrangement,
if omit is related to era and rate
.33. What will come in place of ques~
tion (?) mark in the following seis related to fan in a certain way.
(4) lo
(3) ze
to which of the following would
ries?
(5) fe
ace be related to. following the
LAUJYIEG?
40. 'grace of money', maybe coded
same pattern ?
(l)ZH
(2) IB
as
(I) rate
(2) input
(3) NR
(4) QR
(1) ka da fe
{2) we ka so
(3) stat
(4) gem
(5) QH
(3) ja da we
(4) ka we yo
(5) None of these
34. If in a certain code 'VERB' is cod(5) ja kaze
45.
Which
of the following would be
ed as 'YJBG' and 'QUIZ' is coded
Directions (41-45): Study followStep VII?
as 'OSVQ' howwill ' JOHN' be cod- ing information to answer the given
( 1) Uncut omit input era ace stat
ed in the same code language?
questions :
rate gem fan cast
(1) EQDG
(2) AEDI
A word and number arrangement
(2) Uncut omit input era ace rate
machine when given an input line of
(3) YIRO
(4) VNRQ
stat fan gem cast
words rearranges them following a
(5) EQGD
(3)
Uncut
omit input era ace cast
particular
rule.
The
following
is
an
ilDirections (35-36) : Read the
fan gem rate stat
following information carefully and an- lustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : age road own wire tire ink
(4) Uncut omit input era stat ace
swer the questions which follow :
rate gem fan cast
pen
uni
dice
eat
.
If 'A x B' means 'A is son of B'.
Step I
uni age road own wire tire
(5) There will be no such step as
If'A + B' means 'A is daughter ofB'.
ink pen eat dice
the input gets rearranged beIf 'A+ B' means 'A is wife of B'.
Step II
uni own age road wire tire
fore step VII
If 'A- B' means 'A is father of B'.
ink eat pen dice
Directions (46-50) : In these
35. What will come in the place of
Step III : uni own ink age wire tire questions, relationship between differthe question mark, to establish
eat road pen dice
ent elements is shown in the statethat Q is mother of N in the exStep
IV : uni own inkeat age wire tire ments. These statements are followed
pression:
road.pen dice
by two conclusions.
'N + 0-P?Q'
And step four is the last step
Mark answer
If
(1) +
(2) X
of the rearrangement.
(1)
Only conclusion I fol(3)(4) +
As per the rules followed in the
lows.
(5) Either (1) or (2)
above steps. find out in each oCthe
(2)
Only conclusion II fol36. Which of the following relations following questions the appropriate
lows.
are true based upon the relations steps for the given input.
(3)
Either conclusion 1 or
given in the equation :
Input for the questions
II follows .
'S + T X v - w + Y' ?
' Input : gem stat ace cast omit fan
(4)
Neither conclusion I
(1) Tis brother ofY
rate uncut era input
nor 11 follows.
(2) Sis daughter-in-law ofW
41. _Which of the following would be
(5)
Both cpn~lusions I and
(3) Sis daughter-in-law ofY
the final arrangement?
II follow.
(4) Y is daughter of V
(1) cast gem fan rate stat uncut 46. Statement :
omit input era ace
(5) None is true
P~Q=R>S>T
(2) uncut omit input era ace cast
Directions (37- 40) : Study the
Conclusions :
fan gem rate stat
following information to answer the givI. p ~ T
(3) uncut omit input era ace stat
en questions:
II. T < Q
rate gem fan cast
II) a certain code, ~ze lo ka gi' is
47.
Statement:
(4) uncut omit input era ace stat
a code for 'must save some money', 'fe.
LsM<N>O~P
fan gem rate cast
ka s0 ni' is a code for 'he made good
Conclusions :
money', 'ni to da so' is a code for 'he
(5) None of these
I. 0 < M
must be good' and 'we so ze da' is a 42. In Step III, which of the followcode for 'be good save grace'.
II. P s N
ing word Would be at 6th posi37. Which of the following is the code
tion from the left ?
48. Statement :
of'must' ?'
(1) rate
{2) ace
A > B, B ~ C = D < E
(1) so
(2) da
(3) stat
(4) gem
Conclusions :
(3) lo
(4) ni
(5) None of these
I. C <A
(5) Cannot be determined
43. Which step number would be the
II. D s B
following output ?
to which of the following is YV
related to. following the same
pattern?

What does the code 'ze' stand for?

(l) some
{2) must
(3) be
(4) grace
(5) save
39. Which of the following is the code
of'good'?
(1) so
{2) we

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49. Statement :
H > J =K. K ~ L, L > T, T < V,

50.

Conclusions :
I. K > T
II. L 5 H
Statement :
A 5 B = C, D > C = E

Conclusions :
I. E~A
II. A< D
Directions (51- 55) : Study the
following arrangement carefully and
answer the questions given belo~ :

South of point P. PointS is 3m towards

the West of point R. Point T is 5m towards the North of pointS, Point Vis
7m towards the South of pointS.
56. If a person walks in a straight
line for 8m towards west from.
point.R, which of the following
points would he cross the first ?
(1)

If all the even digits are deleted

from the above arrangement,
which of the following will be
seventh from the right end of the
arrangement?
(1) 3

(3) 1
(5) 7

(2) 5
(4) 9

52. How many such 2s are there in

the above arrangement each of
which is Immediately preceded
by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
53. How many such Is are there in
the above arrangement, each of
which is immediately preceded
by a perfect square ?
(1) None.
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
54. If one is added to each of the
even digits and two is added to
each of the odd digits given in
BOLD in the above arrangement,
how many digits will appear twice
in the new numbe r thus
formed?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
55. Which of the following is seventh
to the right ofthe nineteenth
digit from the right end of the
above arrangement?
(1) 3

(3) 1

(2) 5
(4) 7

(5) None of these

Directions (56- 57) : Study the
following i nformation to answer the
given questions :
Point P is 9m towards the East
of Point Q . Point R is 5 m towards the

(2)

(4) S

(5) Cannot be determined

(1} B

57. Which of the following points are

(3) E

(2) S, T. Q
(4) V. T, R

(l) P, R, V
(3) P, T , V
(5) S, V, T

(2)

in a straight line ?

4261389581651585
39492321572624274
51.

(3) T

lives on the floor immediately b elow

F's floor. F does not live on the second
or the seventh floor.
C does not live on an odd numbered floor. B does not live on a floor
immediately above or below C 's floor.
D does not live on ~he topmost floor.
G does not live on any floor below E's

floor.
58. Who lives on the topmost floor?

(4) G

(5) Cannot be determined

59. Who lives immediately above D's
floor?
(l) A
(3) C
(5)G

.
Directions (58-60) : Study the
following information to answer the
given questions :
A building has seven floors num60.
bered one to seven, in such a way that .
the ground floor is numbered one, the
floor above it, number two and so on
such that thetopmost floor is numbered seven. One out of seven people.
viz. A. B, C, D, E , F and G l ives ori
each floor. Alives on fourth floor. E

(2)'B
(4)F

Four of the following five a ie

alike in a certain way and so form
a group. Which is the one tha t
does not belong to that group ?
(1) F

(3) B

(2) D

(4) G

(5)

Directions (61 - 75) : In each of the questions given below which one of
the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on
the left. if the sequence were continued?
PROBLEM FIGURES
ANSWER FIGURES
6

aIa-ln!DIP-l \VIVIP-IVIPI

'1

62.

Ill

II

1111

-.

----

IIIII\

\IIIIIII

111111 1111

1111111111

- ------ - - -- - --- - ---- --- - --

{2 )

l!llnliin: :;;, '

- -

... -

(l)

63.1
64.

66.

-m-

s!e

olz

e !z

CD
Z L

il lll','l i:'! liili\

;i
-
-----

.. --- ...

(5)

(4)

~. ~. ~
(3)

(2)

0
L

-..-

{5)

(4)

(3)

~-

(l)

---

(21

~~~ ~\G> I ~I ~
0 I* c. 0 o LC 0 z
cc DO L

{3)

(4 )

liiOID

lii0/0

CD

(5)

ZliiiO:

ZL

ZL

( 1)

(2)

(3)

I
,s
s

I ~L

SI

( 1)

(2)

'
(3)

(4 )

(5}

Sfo
~T;

~
z.v

S !o

Z le

zt\

~~-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(4)

(5)

SI 7 \
(..;

.J

** *
6?.l<il~loJQI~I IPIPIPit>l~l
LI ,S

Z \N

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o&L*l~~IJ 1.~ I:* I I> 1:~ I> I> I> I

t
69.1 1 ZI3J~J " ~ " ~ " ~ ~ ~ '
(2) .

(l)

{~~)

(4)

(5)

'y

~,~ ~\.~

(l}

(2)

~"~
(3)

"~ ~"~
(5)

(4)

ltriirltriKrlh-1
1+1+f+l+l+l 1+1+1+1+1+1
"1 c I~) I(l) I!:I c I I(-=-I('> I(::I( -)I c I

?O.I~I--rrl.-vlnl~l

(l)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

( l)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

71

72

73 CSTUB UBCST STUBC BCSTU TUBCS

CSBUT STUBC CSUBT CSTUB STBCU

( l)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

'1 ~1 ~1* I* I1J I I~ I* 1~ 1~ I~ I

.al; ;1~ f ~~~ ~r ~ 0 ** 0*

( l)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

z ez z z z
s

Ollill

(l)

Directions (76 - 80) : In each

questions below five figures are given.
Four are similar in a certain way and
so form a group. The question is which
one of the figure does not belong to
that group?
76

'.1*1*[*1*1*1
(1)

77.

(4)

(5)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

111111
(l)

79

(3)

IHIXI1~1~~~~~1
(l)

78.

(2)

(2}

(3)

(4)

{5}

'1~1~1~1~1~1
(l)

(2)

(3)

{4)

(5)

~ IOIOP10IOI
( l)

(2)

(3)

(4)_

(5)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

81. To navigate to a new Web page

for which you know the UR4. type
that URL in the browser:s ... ... ..
and press Enter.
(1} Address bar (2} Domain bar
(3) Address button
(4) Name button (5} None of these
82. The CPU. also called the .... ,...
when talking about PCs, does the
vast majority of the processing for
a computer.
(1) macroprocessor
(2)RAM

Memocy System
(4)microprocessor
(5) None of these
83. A Computer's type. processor,
and operating system define its
( 1) brand
(2) siZe
(3) platform
(4) speed
(5) None of these
84. Akiosk
(1} is data organised and presented in a manner that has
additional value beyond the
value of the data itself
(2) combines microscopic electronic components on a single
integrated circuit that pro(3}

cesses bits. according to software instructions

(3) is a computer statiQn that provides the public withspecific
and useful information and
service
(4) describes a computer's type.
processor, and, operating system

None of these '

85. The part of the CPU that accesses
and decodes program instructions. and coordinates the tlow
of data among various system
components is called
(1} ALU
(2) control unit
(3} megaheriz
(4) mother board
(5) None of these
86. Computer programs are written
in a high-level programming language; however, the human-readable version of a program is called
(1) cache
(2) instruction set
(3} source code
(4) word size
(5) None of these
87. What is the difference between a
CD-ROM and a CD-RW?
(l) They are the same-just two
different terms used by different manufacturers
(2) ACD-ROM can be written to
and a CD-RW cannot
(3) A CD-RW can be written to.
but a CD-ROM can only be
read from
(4) ACD-ROMholds. more information than a CD-RW
(5) None of these
88. What is the term for how Words
will appear on a page ?
{ 1) text formatting
(2) Character forrilatting
(3} Point size
(4 ) Typeface
(5) None of these
89. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on
the Internetis known as
( l) pulling
(2) pushing
(3) downloading (4) transfening
(5) None of these
90. When sending an e-maiL the
........ line describes the contents
of the message.
(l) subject
(2)to
(3) contents
(4) cc
(5) None of these
(5)

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91. All the deleted files go to

(I) Recycle Bin
(2)TaskBar
(3)Tool Bar
(4) My Computer
(5) None of these
92. You organise files by stoling them
in
(2) folders
(1) archives
(4) lists
(3) indexes
(5) None of these
93. A Web site address is a unique
:' a rne that identifies a specific
..... .. on the Web.
(l) Web browser (2) Web site
(4) link
(3) PDA
{5) None of these
94. . ...... are specially designed com-
puter chips that reside inside
other devices, such as your car
or your electronic thermostat
(1) Servers
(2) Embedded computers
{3) Roboticcomputers
(4} Mainframes
!5} None of these
95. Whichof the following places the
common data elements in order
from smallestto larges t?
(1) Character, file , record, field,
database
{2) Character, record. field, file,
databas e
{3) Character. field, r ecord, file,
database
(4) Bit. byte. ch aracter, record,
field, file. da tabase
{5) None of these
96. Which of the folloWing statements is false concerning file
names?
(1) Files may share the same name
or the same extension but not
both
(2) Every file in the same folder
must have a unique name
{3) F ile exte nsion is anothe r
n a m e for file type
(4) Tbe flle extens ion comes before the dot(.} followed by the
file name
(5) None of thes e
97. A dis k 's conte nt that is recorded
at the time of manufacture and
that c annot be c h a n ged or
erased by the user is
(1) me mory-only {2} write-only
(4) run-only
(3} read-only
(5} None of these

98. . Distributed processing involves

(I) solving computer component
problems from a different
computer
(2) solving computing problems
by breaking them into
smaller'parts that are separately processed by different
computers
(3} allowing users to share flles
on a network,
(4) allowing users to access network resources away from
the office
(5) None of these
99. The operating system determines
the manner in which all of the
following occurs except
(l) user creation of a document
(2} user interaction with the processor
(3) plinter output
(4) data displayed on the monitor
{5~ None of these
100. Office LANs.that are spread geographically apart on a large scale
can be connected using a corporate
(2) LAN
(1) CAN
{4}WAN
{3}DAN
(5)TAN

IQUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions (101:_10\S): What will

come in place of the question mark (?)
in the following questions ?
101. 348 + 29 X 15 + 156 = (?)3 + 120
(2) 6
(1) 12
(4) 9
(3) 36
{5} None ofthese
102. (4 X 4} 3 + (512 + 8}4 X (32 X 8) 4

= (2 X

2)1+ 4

(1}8
(3} 6

(2}

12

(4) 14

{5} None of these

Io3. (2~392
(1} 4
(3}

12

- 21) + ( Ja - 7)
(2) - 4
(4) 2

(5) 6

I
1 . 1
1
104 1- +I- - 1-=?+112
8
6
4
5

( 1) 24

{2 ) 24

= (?f

131

(4 ) 12

12

(5) None of these

105; 76o/o of 1285 = 35o/o of 1256 +?
(2) 537
(l) 543
{4) 533
(3} 547 .
.
{5) None of these
Directions (106 - 110) : What
appro:d.Jnate value will come in place
of the question mark{?) in the following questions? (You are not expected
to calculate the exact value)
106. 499.99 .f. 1999 + 39.99 X 50.01
=?
(l) 3200 .

(2) 2700
{4) 2500
{3) 3000 .
{5} 2400
107. [{7.99) 2 - (13.001)2 + (4.01) 3 ]2
=?
(1) -1800

(3) -1660
(5} -1450
108

601
49

(2} 1450
(4) 1660

399 + 29 _ ?
201 - .
81

{2) 360
(4) 500
(3} 460
(5} 420
109. 441.01 - 232.99 + 1649.99
+ 1225.92
(2) 63 0
(1) 600
{I) 520

(3) 660

=?

(41 690

(5) 720
110. (21.5% of 999) 1' 3 + (42o/o of601) 1' 2
=?

(1) 18
(3} 26

(2) 22
{4)

30

{5} 33

Directions (111- 115): Wha t

will come in place of the ques tion m ark
(?} in the following numbe r series ?
39 77 143 (?)
111. 15 21
(2} 24 0
(1) 243
(4) 24 5
(3} 253
{5) None of t hese
129 (? )
112. 33 39 57 87
(2} 177
(1) 183
(4) 19 9
(3) 189
(5) None of thes e
113. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)
(2}. 693
(1) 731
{4) 683
(3) 712
{5} None of thes e
(?)
124
114. 19 26 40 68
{2) 238
(1} 246
(4) 256
(3) 236
(5) None of these

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115. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)
(l) 62
(2) 98
(3) 109
(4) 63
(5) None of these
Directions ( 116 - 120) : In the
. following questions two equations numbered l and II are given. You have to
solve both the equations and
Give answer if
(1)
X> !:J
(2)
X~ !:J
X< !J

(3)
{4)
(5)

X$

!J

x =y or the relation-

116. I.
II.
117. 1.
II.

ship cannot be established

XJ-- llx+ 24 = 0
2!/- 9y + 9 =0
XJ X 13 = Jr!l X 247
y 113 x 14 = 294 .;- if 13

118. I.

12x4 3x4
-;r;J'7- . 4 / 7

II.

119. I.

10/7
=X

!f3 + 783 = 999

.J5oox + .)402 = o

II. J360y + (200) 112

=0

120. 1. (17)2 + 14 4 .;- 18 =X

II. (26)2- 18 x 21 = !J
121. The respective ratio between the
present ages of Ram and Rakesh
is 6 : 11. Four years ago the ratio of their ages was 1 : 2 respectively. What will be Rakesh's age
after five years ?
(1) 45 years
(2) 29 years
(3) 49 years
(4} Cannot be detemiined
{5) None of these
122. The circumference of two circles
is 88 metres and 220 metres respectively. What is the difference
between the area of the larger
circle and.the smaller circle?
(1) 3422 sq. metre
(2} 3242 sq. metre
(3) 3244 sq. metre
(4) 3424 sq. metre
(5) None of these
123. One of the angles of a triangle is
two-third of sum ofadjacent angles of parallelogram. Remaining
angles of the triangle are in ratio
5 : 7 respifCtively, What is the
value of second largest angle of
the tria ngle ?
{l) 25
(2) 40
(3) 35

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these
124. Pradeep invested 20% more than
Mohit. Mohit invested 10% less
than Raghu. If the total sum of
their investment is ~ 17,880,
how much amount did Raghu invest?
(1) f 6,000
(2) f 8,000
(3) f 7,000 .
{4) f 5 ,000
(5) None of these
125. Average score of Rahul. Manish
and Suresh is 63. Rahul's score
is 15less than Ajay and 10 more
than Manish. If Ajay scored 30
marks more than the average
score of Rahul , Manish and
Suresh, what is the sum of Manish's and Suresh's scores ?
(I) 120
(2) 111
(3) 117
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
126. Fifty three percent of a number
is 358less than the square of26.
What is the value of three-fourth
of 23 per cent of that number ?
(I) 101
(2) 109.5
(3} 113
(4) 103.5
(5) None of these

127. The average speed of a car is 15

(l) 340 km

(2) 480 km

(3) 360 km

(4) 450 km

(5} None of these

128. The simple interest accrued on a
sum of certain principal is ~
2 ,000 in five years at the tate of
4 p.c.p.a. What would be the
compound interest accrued on
same principal at same rate in
two years?
(1) f 716
(2) ~ 724
(3) f 824
(4) ~ 816
(5} None of these
129. Rehaan purchased a bike for ~
54,000. He sold it at a loss of 8
per cent. With that money he
again purchased another bike and
sold it at a profit of 10 per cent.
What is his overall loss/profit?
(1) Loss of~ 657
(2} Profit of ~ 567
(3) Loss of ~ 648
(4) Profit of f 648
(5) None of these
130. Two men alone or three women
alone can complete a piece of
work in 4 days. In how many
days can 1 woman and one man
together complete the same piece
ofwork?

times the average speed of a bus.

A tractor covers 575km in 23
hours. How much distance will
the car cover in 4 hours if the
speed of the bus is twice the .
speed of the tractor. ?

(1) 6 days

24
(2)

days

12
(3) 1.
days
75
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

Directions (131 - 135) : Study the folloWing table carefully to answer the
questions that follow :
Number of employees working In four different companies in
five different years
Company

Years

A
B
Male
Female Mate Female
2004
200
400
250
450
2005
250
150
400
100
2006
400
400
250
850
2007
650
400
500
150
2008
750
600
350
300
131. What was the total number of 132.
males working in company A in
the year 2007. males working in
company-B in the year 2005 and
females working in company-0 in
the year 2006 together ?
(1} 1550
(2) 1600
(3}. 1450
(4} 1400 .
(5) None of these

D
c
Male Female Male Female
350
400
450
600
550
350
550
600
350
500
650
450
650
500
700
600
300
650
400
400
What was the average number of
female employees working in ali
the companies together in the
year 2004?
(1) 475
(2) 385
(3) 450
(4) 300
(5) None of these

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133. Total number of male employees

working in company-C over all
the years together was apprpximately whatpercentage of total
number of employees working in
the year 2007 in all the companies together ?
(1) 41
(2) 46
(3) 51
(4) 55
(5) 59
134. If 20 per cent of male and 30
per cent of female employees in
cotnpany-B in the year 2004
were handicapped, then what
was the total number of handicapped candidates in that company in that year ?
(2) 170 .
(1) 185
(4) 195
(3) 190
{5) None of these
135. What was the respective ratio
between the number of males in
company-0 in the year 2005.
number .offemales in companyA in the year 2006 and the number of males in company-Bin the
year 2005?
(2) 11 : 6 : 8
(1) 11 : 5 : 8
(4) 12 : .5 : 7
(3) 12 : 5 : 9
(5) 11 : 5: 9
Directions (136-140) : Study
the following graph carefully to answer
the questions that follow:
Number of students (in hundreds)
from two different schools who
qualified in an exam in six different years

D School-P School"Q
~ 100 ----------------~---
" 90 ------~ 80
.c
.5 70
-; 60
~ 50
!! 40
~0 30
~ 20
10
.g 0 L.....L---l.....J-..;~LJ,..---..J.-1--..a--

.a

..

.,

2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

YEARS

136. What was the approximate per

cent increase in the number of
students who qualified in the
exam from school-Q iri the year
2007 as compared to the previousyear?
(2) 36
(1) 30
(3) 45
(4) 49
(5) 26

137. What was the respective ratio

between the number of studentswho qualified In the exam from
School-Pin the year 2005 and
the number of students who qualified in the exam from school-Q
in the year 2008 ?
(l} 13 : 18
(3} 17 : 19

(2} 17 : 18
(4} 13 : 19

(5} None of t~ese

138. What was the difference between
the total number of students who
qualified in the exam in the year
2005 from both the schools together and the total number of
students from school~Q who qualifieq in exam over all the years
together?
(l) 30000
(3) 29000 .

(2) 30500
. (4) 29500

(5) None of these

139. Total number of students who
qualified in the exam from school. Pover all the years together was
approximately what percentage
of total number of students who
qualified in the exam from both
the schools together in the years
2006 and 2007 together ?
(1) 143
(3) 155
(5]" 147

(2) 159
.(4) 165

140. If 40 per cent of the total students whO qualified in the exam
from both the schools together
over all the years are females,
then what was the total number
of males who qualified in the
exam over all the years from both
the schools together ?
(2) 54000
(1)51000
(3) 56000

Directions (141- 145) :Study

the following Pie-chart carefully to a nswer these questions.
Total Nwnber of Passengers= 8500
Pereentage of Passengers

(4) 52000

(5) None of these

141. What was the approXimate average number of passengers in

train-S, train 1\1 and train -L together?
(1) 1521
(2) 1641
(3) 1.651
(4) 1671
(5) 1691
14~. If in train-R 34 p ercent of the

passengers are femal es and 26

percent are children , what is the
number of males in that train ? .
(l) 306
(3) 308

(2) 316
(4) 318

(5) None of these

143. Number of passengers in the
t rain-Q is approximately wh a t
percentage of the total numbe r
,of passengers in train -A and
train-R?
(2) 70
(l) 90
(4) 80
(3) 75
(5) 86
144. Which train has secon.cl highest
number_of passengers?
(1) A

(2) Q

(3) S
(5) L

(4) M .

145. How much more percent (approximately) number of passe ngers

are there in train-Mas compa1;ed
to the number of passenge rs in
train-L?
(2) 49
(l) 29
(4) 33
(3) 43
(5) 39

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(3) Unrecorded goods

(4) Goods through smuggling
(5) All the above
163. Indira Gandhi Canal' which is
around 450 km long provide irrigation facility mainly to which
of the following states ?
(2) Hruyana
(1) Punjab
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(5) Rajasthan
(4) Gujarat
164. The rate of MAT has been increased from the present 15%.
to 18% with effect from April
2010. What the full form of
MAT?
( 1) Maximum Alternate tax
(2) MinimumAlternateTax
(3) Minimum Affordable Tax
(4) Maximum Affordable Tax
(5) None of these
165. RBI has asked banks to make a
. plan to provide bankihg services to all villages having a population upto 2000. This directive
issued by the RBI will fall in
which of the following. categories?
(1) Plan for Financial Inclusion
(2) Efforts to meet.the targets of
Priority Sector Lending
(3) Extension of Relief Packages
to the Farmers
(4) Plan for opening morerural
branches
(5) None of these
166. Which of the following is not a
part of the scheduled banking
structure in 'India ?
(1) Money Lenders
(2) Public Sector Banks
(3) Private Sector Banks
(4) Regional Rural Banks
(5) State Co-operative Banks
167. The rate of interest on Savings
BankAccountis stipulated by

(I} The concerned bank

(2) RBI
(3) Indian Banks Association
(4) Government of India
(5) Banking Codes and Standards Board of India
168. Many times we read a term CBS
u sed in banking operation. What
is the full form of the letter 'C' in
the term 'CBS'?
(l) Core
(2) Credit
(3) Contim.ious
(4) Complete
(5) None of these

169. In the year 2010. Common-

176. What do you understand by

wealth Games were organised in

which ofthe following countries?
(2) South Africa
(I) China
(4) Brazil
(3) Canada
(5) India
170. Which of the following metals is
used for generation of nuclear
Energy by most of the Nuclear
Power Plants ?
(2) Platinum
(1) Zinc
(4) Nickel
(3) Uranium
(5) None of these
171. Many a time we read a term 'FPP'
in financial dailies/magazines.
What is the full form ofthe same
as used in financial world ?
(1) Public Per Capita Power
(2) Per Capita Potential Purchases
(3) Purchasing Power Parity
(4) Present Purchasing Power
(5) None of these
172. The recent press report indicates
that one of the Economies of the
world took over another Economy in GOP terms to gain number Two ranking at world level.
Which one of the following country is that?
(2) China
(1) Japan
(4) AUstralia
(3) Germany
(5) India
173. Which of the following villagers
received first lot of UID numbers?
(1) Vaijapur ill Maharashtra
(2) Bedkihal in Karnataka
(3) Tembhli in Maharashtra
(4) Navagam in Gujarat
(5) None of these
174. The highest weight in the revised
Whole Sale Price Index, implemented from September 2010 is
given to which of the following
item?
(1) Fuel
(2) Food items
(3) Manufa ctured items
(4) 'Primary Articles
(5) All of these
175. Which one of the following is a
driving force influencing the industrial growth ofan economy ?
(1) Economic Factors only
(2) Investment only
(3) Innovation/Market Base only
(4) Only (1) & (2)
(5) All (1)' (2) & (3)

Community Development programmes?

(I) Villages participation in the
programme
(2) A movement to promote better living for the whole com.
munity
(3) A movement to promote better living for the whole community with the assistance of
local Government
(4) A movement designed to promote better living for the
whole community with the
active participation and on
the initiative of the community
(5) None of these
177. In which one of the following activities percentage share of cooperative sector is the highest ?
(1) Agricultural Credit disbursement
(2) Sugar production
(3) Wheat procurement
(4) Fertiliser distribution
(5) Handlooms
178. What is a Panchaya ti Raj ?
(I) It is a community develop
ment programme
(2) It is a cooperative movement
(3) It is a scheme of self governance
(4) It is an exercise in decentra J-,
isation of administrative a u thority
(5) It is an out dated system, n ot
followed now
179. Which one of the following is the
updated base for Wholesale
Price Index (WPI) ?
(1) 2002 - 2003

(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

2003
2004
2005
2006

2004
2005
2006
2007

180. What is a Green Index?

(1). It measures nat ion's wealtl-.
according to GNP per capita
(2) It measures nation's wealth
according to GOP per capite:
(3) It meas ures na tions wealt:-.
a ccording to provisions o:
control on Green house gases
(4) It measures nation's wealtl-.
in terms of coverage a f for est area
(5) None of thes e

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181. In which one of the following city,

sured by the international pov2012 Olympics, are proposed to .
erty line standard of below a dolbe held?
lar a day, approximately what
. percent of people will be living in
( 1) Frankfurt (2) London
India below pqverty line ?
(4) Washington
(3) Tokyo
(2) 27.5
(1) 25.0
(5) Dubai
(4) 58.5
(3) 34.5
182. In which one of the following
.
(5) 10.5
states, Rosa Power Plant is locat~
Basu ?
Kaushik
is
Who
190.
ed?
RBi
Governor.
ny:
(l)
(1) U.P.
(2) M.P.
(2) Member Planning Commission
(3) Orissa
(4)Haryana
(3) Chairman, Prime Ministers'
(5) Punjab
Economic Advisory Council
183. Which one of the following is
Economic Advisor
Chief
(4)
present Savings Bank Interest
General FICCI
Secretary
(5)
Rate (in percentage terms)?
Pyramid index,
Poverty
a
In
191.
(2) 3.5
(1) 3 .0
following segthe
of
one
which
(4)4.5
4.0
(3)
face highest
population
of
ments
(5) 5 .0 .
poverty risk ?
184. .For calculation of poverty line in
(I) Formal wage employment
rural area, which one of the fol(2) Informal Self Employment :
lowing calories consumption per
Employers
day per person has been stipu(3) Regular Informal Wage emlated by Planning Commission ?
ployment
(2) 2100
(1) 2000
(4) Informal self Employment :
(4) 2500
(3) 2400
own account
(5) None of these
(5) Casual Informal Wage Em185. Who is Julian Assange ?
. plbyment and domestic work
. (1) Founder, Googles
192. Which one of the following is a
(2) Founder, Rediffmail
Self Employment Programme for
(3) Nominee, Nobel Prize for litEducated Unemployed Youth ?
erature 2010
(1) Prime Minister's RozgarYoja(4) Founder, Wikileaks
na
(2) Swaran Jayanti Sahakari
(5) None of these
Rozgar Yojana
186. For which one of the following
(3) National Social Assistance ProStates, interloculators panel has
gramme
been appointed by the Centre ?
Jayanti Gram
Swaran
(4)
.
(1) Maniplir
Swarozgar Yojana
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(5) None of these
(3) Assam
193. In which one of the following
(4) Nagaland
Sta:tes, Sariska Tiger Reserve is
(5) Jammu & Kashmir
located?
187. Expand the term BCBS.
(1) M.P.
(2)Gujarat
(1) Bank's Committee on Banking
(3) Rajasthan (4) West Bengal
Supervision
(5) Orissa
(2) Basel Committee on Banking
194. Who is Mohammed Yunus ?

Supervision
(1) Finance Minister, Bangladesh
(3) Bank's Commission on Bank(2) Founder. Grameena Bank
ing Supervision
(3) Nobel Laureate for peace
(4) Basel Commission on Bank(4) Foreign Minister, Paklstan
ing Supervision
(5) Founder Micro Finance Insti(5) None of these
tutions in India
188. By which one of the following 195. Which one of the following is the
years, Government proposes to
primary source of energy in In, introduce IFRS norms ?
dia?
(1) April2011 (2) October2011
(I) Hyde! Power
(3) April 2012 (4) October 2012
(2) Natural Gas
(5) None ofthese
(3) Coal
World Development Re189. As
(4) Naptha
port 2009, if the poverty is mea(5) Non-conventional energy

per

196. At which one of the following rate,

the Central Bank lends to banks
against govemm~nt securities ?
(1) Repo Rate
(2) Reverse Repo Rate
(3) Bank Rate
(4) SLR .
(5)CRR
197. Which one of the following is not
a member of BASIC?
(2) China
(1) India
(3) South Africa
(4) Brazil
(5)

Indonesia

198. Which one of the following Cor-

porate Groups has argued in Supreme Court that leaks of Radia

Tapes has affected its reputation?
(2) Jindal S teeis
(1) RIL
(3) Bajaj Group (4) Adani Group
(5) Tata Group
199. Yuan currency belongs to which
one of the following countries ?
(2) Thailand
(1) Japan
(3) South Korea
(5) Vietnam
(4) China
200. Aung San Sau Kyi. Nobel Pea ce
Prize Winner belongs to which
one of the following countries ?
(2) North Korea
(I) China
(3) South Korea
(5) Myanmar
(4) J apan

ENGLISH LANGUAGE .
Directions (201- 205) : Rear range the following five sentences (A).
(B) , (C). (D) arid (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) "What a wa ste of my tax money",
I thought, walking past the_ people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) "Speak to her", he said, ."She's into
books".
(C) The friend who had brought me
there noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying
taxes in America, so it horrified
me that the US Consulate wa s
hosting a "Gallo di-inking appreciation event".
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim
short woman was dancing around

hbn.

201. Which of the folloWing woul9 be

the FOURTH sentence ?

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(2) B
(4) D

In thatsense, legislators' assessment

of ground realities is (213) target when
they endorse the closure of tens of
thousands oflow-cost p rivate schools
202. Which of the following would be
for not meeting the minimum standards
the FIRST sentence?
of land plot, building specifications and
(l) A
(2) B
playground area as laid out in the _RTE
(3} C
(4) D
Act.
Instead of bearing down (214) on
(5) E
private schools for failing to_conform
203. Which ofthe following would be
to abstract bureaucratic . criteria, efthe FIFTH (LAST) sentence?
forts to bring about universal educa{1} A
(2) B
tion should focus on upgrading and
(3) C
(4) D
expanding the existing government
(5) E
school inf~;-astructure to accommodate
all. Only then can we ensure the much204. Which of the following would be
needed supply-demand (215) in the
the SECOND sentence ?
education sector.
(1) A
{2) B
206. (1) with
(2) for
(3) C
(4)D
(3)
on
(4) into
(5) E
(5)
in
205. Which of the following would be
(2) near
207. (l) around
the T;aiRD sentence ?
(3)
into
(4) about
(1} A
(2) B
(5)
reaching
(3} C
(4) D
208. (i) forming
(2) translating
(5) E
{3) having
(4) taking
Directions (206 - 215) : In the
(5) framing
following passage there are blanks,
(2) ideas
209. (l) affect
each of which has been numbered.
(3)
practice
(4) concept
These numbers are printed below the
(5)
procedure
passage and against each, five words
(2) merit
210. (I) benefit
are sugg~sted, one of which fits the
(3) chance
(4) basis
blank appropriately. Find out the ap(5)
method
propriate word in each case.
211. (1) Unless
(2) until
The Right of Children to Free and
(3) executed
(4) provided
Compulsory Education (RTE) Act,
(5) exercised
2009,.which came~ effect in April
(2) any
this year, is meant to transform the
212. {1) other
education sector and take India clos(3) two
(4) differ
er to the goal of universal schooling.
(5) afterBut with admissions to the new aca213. (1) on
(2) of
demic session just (207) tht; corner, it
(3) often
(4) taken
is fast becoming clear that (208) well(5) off
intentioned ideas into (209) will tal\e
214. (1) soft
(2) more
some doing. For a start, the guidelines
(3) less
(4) only
for admissions under the RTE prohibit .
(5) hard
schools from conducting any sort of
215. (1) need
(2) equilibrium
student profiling. The stress on a ran(3)
expectation
(4) attempt
dom yet justifiable admission process
(5) aspects
means that schools will have to resort
Direction (216 - 225) : Read
to something as quirky as a lottery
each
sentence
to fmd out whether there
system. However, leaving admission to
is any grammatical error or idiomatic
a good school to pure (210) will only
error in it. The error, if any, will be in
incentivise manipulations, defeating
one part of the sentence. The number
the very essence of RTE.
of that part is the answer. If there is
The main problem facing the edno error, the answer is (5). (Ignore erucation sector is that of a resource
rors of punctuation, ifany) .
crunch. The provisions for ensuring
216.
The President has denied (1)/
universal. access to education are all
that the economy is in recession
very well, (211) we have the infra(2)/ or was go into one (3)/ destructure in place first. Brick and morspite
a spate of downcast reports.
tar schools need to precede open ad(4)/ No error (5).
mission and not the (212) way around.
(l)A

(3) c
(5) E

217. The angry at being (1)/ left out

of the bonanza (2) I is p alpable

among (3)/ employees of the organisation. (4)/ No error (5) .
218. His comments came after (1)1
the research group said that its
(2) 1 consumer confidence index
were (3)1 slumped to its lowest
level. (4)/ No error (5).
219. If all goes well, (1)/ the examination scheduled for next month
(2) I is all set to be completely
free (3)/ from annoying power
cuts and disruptions. (4}/ No
error (5).

220. There are just too few trains (1)1

for the ever-grow (2)/ number
of passengers (3)/ in the city.
(4)/ No error (5).
221. The buzz at the party was (1) /
that a famous (2)1 filmstar and
politician, (3)/ would probable
drop by for a while: (4)/ No error(5).
222. The Opposition disrupted proceedings (1}/ in both Houses of
parliament (2) I for the second
consecutive day (3) I above the
plight of farmers in the country.
(4)/ No error (5) .
223. In response to the growing crisis, (1)/ the agency Is urgently
asking for (2) I more contrtbutions, to m a ke up for {3)1 i t~ '
sharp decline in purchasing power. (4)/ No error (5) .
224. The tennis player easy through
(1)/ the opening set before her
opponent, (2)/ rallied to take the
final two sets (3)/ for the biggest victory of her y<;mng career
(4)/ No error (5) .
225. Aggression iri some teenage boy~
(1)/may be linkage to overly (2) 1
large glands in their brains, (3] /
anewstudyhasfound. (4)/ Nc
error (5).
Directions (226 - 240) : Read
the following passage carefully and
answer the questions given below it
Certain words/phrases have been
printed in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of t ht
questions.
A new analysis has detennlnec
that the threat of global warming can
still be greatly diminished if natiom
cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70010 this century. The
analysis was done by scientists at the
National Center for Atmospheric Re-

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search (NCAR). While global tempera- three-quarters and continuing to melt,

tures would rise, the most dangerous and Arctic warrningwould be reduced
potential aspects of climate change; by almost half.
including massive losses of Arctic sea 226. Why .has the European Union
ice and permafrost and significant seacalled for dramatic cuts in carlevel rise, could be partially avoided.
bon dioxide and greenhouse gas
''This research indicates that we
emissions?
can no longer avoid significant warm(1) As global warming is not an
ing during this century," said NCAR
issue of concern
scientist Warren Washington. the study
(2) As the temperatures may rise
paper's lead author; "But, if the world
almost by an additional one
were to implement this level of emisc
degree and this may lead to
sion cut~. we could stabilize the threat
severe climate change.
of climate change", he added.
(3) As the NCAR has forced the
Average global temperatures
European Union to announce
have warmed by close to 1 degree Celthe cuts.
sius since the pre-industrial era. Much
(4) As all the nations have decidof the warming is due to human-proed to cut emissions of carbon
duced emissions of greenhouse gases,
dioxide.
predominantly carbon dioxide. This
(5) None of these
heat-trapping gas has increased from
a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts 227. What would NOT be one of the
impacts of cutting greenhouse gas
per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to
emissions?
more than 380 ppm today. With re(1) Temperatures will stop soarsearch showing that additional warming
ing of about 1 degree C may be the
(2) Ice in . the Arctic sea would
threshold for dangerous-climate change,
melt at a slower pace
the .E uroperui Union .h as called for dra(3) The rise in sea level wpuld be
matic cuts in emissions of carbon dilesser
oxide and other greenhouse gases.
(4)
All
ofthe above would be the .
To examine the impact of such
impact
cuts on thewor:-ld's climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of
(5) None of these
global studies with the NCAR-based 228. What would be the impact of un"
Community Climate System Model
checked greenhouse gas and
(CCSM). They assumed that carbon
carbon dioxide emissions ?
dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm
(1) The temperature would rise
at the end of this century. In contrast,
from the current temperature
emissions are now on track to reach
by 2.2. degrees Celsius
about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked.
(2) The sea-level would rise by
The team's results showed that if carabout 5.5 inches
bon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, glo(3) The arctic ice would stabilize
bal temperatures would increase by 0 .6
by 2100
degrees Celsius above current readings
(4) The arctic ice would reduce
by the end of the century. In contrast,
by one-fourth
the study showed that temperatures
(5)
None of these
would rise by a lmost four times that
229.
What
can be the most appropriamount to 2.2 degrees Celsius above
ate
title
of the above passage ?
current readings, if emissions were
(1) A study of the rise in water
a llowed to continue on their present
level
course. Holding carbon dioxide levels
(2) A study of rise in temperato 450 ppm would have other impacts,
according to the climate modeling
tures
study.
(3) A study of the effects of
Sea-level rise due to thermalexgreenhouse gas emissions
pansion as water temperatures
(4) A study gf the Arctic region
warmed would be 14 centimetres
(5) A study of change in seasons
(about 5.5 inches) instead of 22 centi- 230. Which of the following statements
metres (8.7 inches). Also, Arctic ice in
is true in context of the passage?
the summertime would shrink by about
(1) At present the carbon dioxide
a quarter in volume and stabilize by
emission is about 284 ppm.
2100, a~ opposed to shrinking at least .

(2) The carbon dioxide emissions

will be about 450 ppm atthe
end of this century if un. checked.
{3) The carbon dioxide emission
was about 380 ppm during the
pre-industrial era.
(4) The carbon dioxide emissions
will be about 750 ppm at the
end of this century if unchecked.
(5) None of these
231. What does the scientist Warren
Washington mean when he says
"we could stabilize the threat of
climate change"?
(1) Climate change can be
stopped completely.
(2) Climate change can be regularized.

(3) Climate change and its effects

can be studied extensively.
(4) The ill-effects of the change
in climate can be mininiized.
(5) None of these
232. Why did Washington and his colleagues conducta series of studies?

(1) Because they realized that the

temperature increase was almost about I degree
(2) So that they could stabilize the
climate change
(3) So that they.could help the
European Union in cutting the
carbon dioxide emissions
(4) Because they .found out that
the greenhouse gas emissions
could be cut by 70%
(5) To examine the impacts .o f
emission cuts on climate
233. What would b~ the impact of
holding the carbon dioxide level
at 450 ppm at the end of this
century?

(A) Global temperatures would

iii.crease by 0 .6 degrees Celclus.
(B) Arctic warming would be re"
duced by half.
(C) Thermal expansion will stop
completely.
(I) Only (A)
(2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (B) and (C)
(4) All the t hree (A), (B) a nd (C)
(5) None of these
Directions (234""' 237) : Choose
the word which is most simf!ar in
meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.

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Answey for corporation bank Po

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'

125.(2) 126.(4) 127.(3)

129.(4) 130.(2) . 131;(5)
133.(4) 134.(1) 135.(1)
137.(2) 138.(1) 139.(5)
141.(4) 142.(1) 143.(5)
145.(4) 146.(5) 147.(1)
149.(5) 150.(1) 151.(5)
153.(1) 154.(2) 1155.(3)
157.(2) 158.(4) 159.(5)
161.(1) 162~(1) 163.(5)
165.(1) 166.(1) 167.(2)
169.(5) 170.(3) 171.(3)
173.(3) 174.(2) 175.(5)
177.(2) 178.(3) 179.(3)
181.(2) 182.(1) 183.(2)
185.(<-t-j 186.(5) 187.(2)
189.(3) 190.(4) 191.(5)
193.(3) 194.(3) 195.(3)
~
197.(5) 198.(5) 199.(4)
201.(3) 202.(4) 203.(2)
205.(5) 206.(4) 207.(1)
209.(3) 210.(3) 211.(4)
213.(5) 214.(5) 215.(2)
217.(1) 218.(3) 219.(5)
221.(4) 222.(4) 223.(1)
225.(2) 226.(2) 227.(5)
229.(3) . 230.(4) 231.(4)
233.(2) 234.(3) 235.(1)
237.(5) 238.(4) 239.(3)
241.(1) 242.(2) 243.(3)
245.(4) 246.(1) 247.(4)
249.(5) 250.(4)

128.(4)
132.(1)
136.(3)
140.(2)
144.(4)
148.(2)
152.(3)
156.(3)
160.(3)
164.(2)
168.(1)
172.(2)
176.(3)
180.(3)
184.(3)
188.(1)
192.(1)
196.(1)
200.(5)
204.(1)
208.(2)
212.(1)
216.(3)
220.(2)
224.(2)
228.(1)
232.(5)
236.(3)
240.(3)
244.(5)
248.(3)

@ EXPLANATIONS I
(1-5) :

(6- 10):

19. (4) From statement I

Q is the grandson ofT.
But the gender ofT is not given.
20. (2) From statement I
4m
North

&,friend@<> 4 4 ( D

~ lots@lmetaH4fii <D 0

ptece @ lmetall

<D&illJ

mnm

6. (4) The code for 'piece' is '7'.

7. (2) '9' stands for 'mine'.
8. (3) a~ 6; of~ 1; mine ~ 9.
The code for'pleasure' may be '2'.
9. (4) o stands for 'lots'.
10. (5) 7 ~ piece; 3 ~ metal.
'8' may represent 'Large'.
(11- 16):

South
IQ]
The position of B cannot be ascertained.
From statement II

D .
.
H
~~
4m

Ais towards west of B.

21. (5) From both the statements
Bharat has one brother and one
sister.
22. (1) Only assumption I is implicit
in the statement. Vehicle is
parked at a distance which is not
far away from the des tination.
23. (2) Only assumption II is implicit
in the statement. The use of term
'all' in the assumption I makes it
invalid.
24. (5) Clearly both the assumptions
are implicit in the statement.
25. (5) It is mentioned in the statemerit that for any kind of problem, contact help des k. It implies
that help desk suggests solutions
to all kinds of problems related to
mobile phones. .Therefore, both
the assumptions are irriplicit in the
statement.
26. (4) None of the assumptions is
implicit in the..statement.
(27- 31):

~ I 1I I 1m
rnr I I I I l~
T

11. (3) Rand P slt at extreme ends of

the rows.
12. (5) S faces A.
13 .(2) Two persons - Q and V - are
seated between T and S
14. (1) There are two persons between
Pand V.
15. (5) F faces V.
16. (4) T sits exactly between P and Q.
17. (4) From both the statements
P>O>N
L>M
18. (3) From statement I
Leef!a

Days

T
R

Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday .
Friday
Saturday.
Sunday

s
v

1. (3) T sits second to the left ofQ.

2. (4),T is third to the right ofV.
3. (4) R. W, V andY are sitting in
the middle of the sides of the table. S is sitting at the corner.
4. (2) WP and TR repres ent neighbours. There are two persons
between Q and W a s well as R
: and S. Now, we have to choose
such pair in which there would
be three persons between the two.
5. (5) None of the statements is true.

Amit
Arun sits second to the right of
Leena. If Leena faces the centre
then Arun cannot be second to the
right of Leena. It means Leena
faces outward.
From statement II
Ali
Amit

Ken
Ali is facing outward.

W e . t + E<a.t

Subject
Physics
Botany
Mallis
9hemistry .
Statistics
.7-oology
English

27. (1} Physics is taught on Monday.

28. (4)Three subjects are taught between Botany and Zoology.
29. (3) Zoology is ta ught on Saturday.
30. (4) Statistics is ta ught on Friday .
31. (2) Zoology is taught on the next
day on Statistics. Statistics is
taught on the next day ofChemistry.
32. (1) S L U A Y J V E I (From left)
H R D B Z 0 Q N 0 (From Right)
Therefore, YV is related to ZQ.

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33. (5)

+4 ~Q

L~U~Y

+ 3 >E

A~J

~G~H

3
+ >1

34. (2)

.V E R B

I II

QUIZ

-2
-2
-2
Therefore,

J 0 H N

: gem stat ace cast omit

fan rate uncut era input
Step I : uncut gem stat ace omit
fan rate era input cast
Step II : uncut omit gem stat ace
rate era input fan cast
Step III : uncut omit input stat ace
rate era .gem fan cast .
Step IV : uncut omit input era stat
ace rate gem fan cast
Step V : uncut omit input era ace
stat rate gem fan stat
41. (3) Option (3) is the final arrangement.
42. ( l) The word 'rate' is at sixth place
from the left in the Step III.
43. (l) It is Step II.
44. (4) There is one word between
'omit' and 'era'. Therefore, 'ace'
would be related to gem'.
45. (5) Step V is the last step.
46. (2) P ~ Q = R > S > T
Conclusiona
I. P ~ T : Not True
II. T < Q : True
47. (4) L s M < N > 0 ~ P
Conclusiona
I. 0 < M : Not Ture
II. P s N : Not True
48. (5) A > B ~ C = D > E
Conclusiona
I. C >A: True
II. D s B :True .
49. (l) H .> J = K ~ L > T < V
Conclusions
I. K > T : True
II. Ls H: Not True
50. (5) A s B = C = E < D
Conclusions
I.E ~A: True
II. A < D : True
51. (4) According to the question, the
new sequence would be :
Input

----7-A E D I

IJ

.~~-tj
I II'---------=-

35. (2) N + o

N is daughter of 0 .
0 .., P -7 0 is father of P.
P ;x Q -7 P is son of Q .
Thus, Q is mother -of N.
36. (3) S -:- T -7 S is wife ofT..
T x V -7 T is son of V.
V - W -7 Vis father ofW.
W + Y -7 W is daughter ofY.
Tis son ofY.
Sis sister-in-law ofW.
Sis daughter-in -law -ofY.
Y is wife of V.
(37- 40):
-7

37. (3) The code for 'must' is 'lo'.

38. (5) Code 'Ze' stands for 'save'.
39. (1) The codeJor 'good' is 'so'.
40. (4) grace => we ; money=> ka
The code for 'of may b e 'yo':
(4145) : After careful analysis of the
given input a nd various steps of
rearrangement, it is evident that
two words are rearrange in each
step. The words starting with
Vowels are arranged from the left
in the reverse a lpha betical order
a nd words s tarting with consonants are arranged from the right
in a lphabetical order.

I 3 9 5 I 5 '1 5 5 3 , ,9 3 1 5 7

7th from the

rig~t

end

52. (3) Odd digitl21 Odd digiti

Such combinations are :

[~}@II
53. (l) !Perfect Square

l1 I

There is no such combination.

55. (l) 7th to the right of the 19th

digit from the right end means
12th from the right end, i.e., 3.
(56- 57):
~9m--?>

ITJ

Q 1----=r=--~

7rn

~
North

West+F.ast
South
56. (4) He would cross Point S.
57. (5) Points S, V and T are in a
straight line.
(58- 60):
7th
6th
5th
4th
3rd
2nd
1st

c
D
A

F
E
B

58. (4) G lives on the topmost floor.

59. (3) C lives immediately above D's
floor.
60. (5) F. D, B and G live on odd
numbered floor. C lives on even
numbered floor.
61. (2) In each subSequent figure one
line segment is added in a set
order.
62. (3) In each subsequent figure two
vertical and two horizonta l line
s egments are a dded .
.63. (5) In each subSequent figure one
dot is added and the main des ign moves to the other side after b eing inverted.
64. (3) In each subsequent figure the
four designs moves one step. ir.
clockwise direction and the design at the upper right corner i ~
re placed with a new design. The
central d esign b ecomes s h aded
and white alternately.

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65. (4) This problem is based on. the

74. (2) From problem Figure (1) to (2)
4
rule (l) = (5) and hence (2) = (6).
half leaflet is deleted from one side 102. {3l (4 2)3 + ( 512 )
and ha lf leaflet is added to the
66. (3) From Problem Figure (l)l:o (2)
X (4 X 4 X 2 X 2 X 4) 4 = (4)?.4 .
other side. Similar changes occur
all the designs move on step in
from Problem Figure (3) to (4) and
==> 46 + (43)4 X (44)4 = 4?+4
anticlockwise direction and a new
from Problem Figure (5) to Answer
design appears at the lower right
[am xa" = am+n:; am + a" = amn)
position. Similar changes occur
Figure.
==> 46 + 412 X 4 16 = 4"~+4
from Problem Figure (3) to (4) and
==> 46-12+16 = 47+4
75. (3) In the subsequent figures the
from Problem Figure (5) to Answer
designs descend or ascend, two
==>
==> 410 = 47+4 ==>? + 4 = 10
Figure.
diagonally ol)posite designs inter? = 10-4 = 6
change positions and one to these
67. ( 1) In each subsequent figure the
2
two designs is replaced with a new 103. (5) (?)2 = (2J392~21) + (JB -7)
pre-existing line segments move
design.
two sectors of a line in clockwise
76. (2) Except in figure (2), in _a ll othdirection and one line segme nt is
= ( 2J7 X 7 X 2 X ? X 2 - 21)
added in front of or behind the
ers the order of the three designs
is the same.
pre-existing designs alternately.
+ (8 + 4g - 2 X 7 JB)
77. (3) In figure (3). the upper part
68. (2) From Problem Figure (I) to (2)
all
In
image.
mirror
form
not
does
all the three designs rotate through
= 28../2-21 +57- 28../2 36
others the two designs are mirror
goo clockwise, the curves of the
image of each ot her.
_._? = J36 = 6
upper and the lower design are
78. (4) Figure (4) Is different from the 104.(1)
inverted and move one-half step
other four.
and the curves of middle design
I
1
1
1 .
79. (5) Except in figure (5); in all othmoves one- half step. Similar
1 +- + 1 + -'---- 1 - - = ?+ I + 12
8
6
4
ers, the design (T) faces inward.
changes occur from Problem Fig1
l
1
1
.
ure (3) to (4) and from Problem
80. (1) Exceptin figure (1), in all oth:=>?=l+-+1+ --l---l-Figure.
and
Answer
outward
to
(5)
faces
figure
ersfour curves
12
8
6
4
another four curves faces inward.
69. (4) In each subsequent figure one
l
1 1 1
=-+----new design appears at the upper
81. ( 1) Address bar
12
8
4 6
right comer and the designs move
82. (4) microprocessor
5
4.:...3-2
+
6
direcclockwise
in
one-half step
83. (3) platform
-~---=tion. The odd numbered designs
24
24
84. (3) is a computer station that
rotate goo anticlockwise and the
provides the public with specific
1285x76 = 1256 x35 +?
.
even numbered designs rotate
and useful information and service 105 (~)
.
100
100
through 90 clockwise in each
85. (l)ALU
subsequent figure.
= 976.6 = 439.6 + ?
86. (3) source code
_._ ? = 976.6 - 439.6 ::; 537
70. (5) The middle design moves to
87. (3) A CD-RW can be written to.
the opposite side of the line seg? == 500 + 2000 + 40 X 50
(3)
106.
but a CD-ROM can only be read
ment and the attached design is
from
2000
inverted, the other two designs
x 50
== 500 + - formatting
text
l)
(
88.
40
move one step and the attached
89. (3) downloading 90. (1) subject
= 500 + 2500 "' 3000
design is inverted. The designs
(1) Recycle Bin 92. (2) folders
91.
107. (4)?"' [82 - (13) 2 + 4 3 ]2
move after every two figures while
93. (2) Web site
the attached designs are inverted
== [64- 16g + 64)2
94. (2) Embedded computers
in each subsequent figure.
== {-41) 2 == 1681
71. (I) In each subsequent figure two
95. (3) Character, field, record, file,
:. Required answer = 1660
smaller designs move to the opdatabase
600 400. 30
posite Sides and the other two
96. (4) The file extension ~ames before 108.(5 )?"" 50 X 80 + 200
designs move in clockwise direct
the dot (.) followed by the file
and a new design appears in an600 400 200
name
==-- x - - x - ticlockwise direction starting with
97. (3) read-only
80 "30
50
the design at the left side.
98. (2) solving computing problems by
==400
.72. (3) The smallest curve rotates
breaking them into smaller parts
:. Required answer = 4~0
through goo anticlqckwise after
that are separately processed by 109. (2) 441- 233 + 1650 ==? + 1226
every two figures while the largdifferent computers
==> 1858 =? + 1226
est curve moves one step in the
( 1) user creation of a document
99.
anticlockwise direction and the
==>?"' 1858 - 1226"' 632
third curve moves in the clock- 100.{2) LAN
. . Required a nswer =630
3
wise direction.
3
(2)
110.
101. (2) ~ X 15 + 156 = ? + 120
73. (4) In each subsequent figure the
1
1
fourth and the fifth designs from
=} 180 + 156- 120 = ?3
)z
43
X
? ==(1000 X 21.5)3 + (600
the left become the first and the
100 .
.
==> 216 = ?3 =}? = ~216;: 6
100
second de~igns.

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294
_!_
II. y3x14=-2-

"' (215)3 + (258)2 .

==> 2 X

y3

,;, 6 + 16"' 22

111. (4) The pattern of the number

series is :
15+6=21
21 + 18 (:::: 6 + 12) = 39
39 + 38 (= 18 + 20) = 77
77 + 66 (= 38 + 28) = 143
143 + 102 (= 66 + 36) = j245j

112. (I) The pattern of the number

series is:
33 + 6 = 39
39 + 18 (:::: 6 + 12) = 57
57 + 30 (= 18 + 12) = 87
87 + 42 (=30 + 12) = 129

294
::::)y3xy3=-14

i=

83-19=64=43
119 - 83 = 36 = 6 2
631 - 119 = 512 = 8 3
:. ?=631+102 ,:,631+100 = j731l

21

10/7
12
48
48
-------=X
x4/7
x4/7 x4/7
48 - 12 =

10
7

::::)

::::) 36 = Jil

= .{36 = 6

II. y3 = 999 - 783 = 216

:. y = ~216

=6

-J:~~ "'~J:~~ "'-0.9

==>X=

19 + 1 X 7 = 19 + 7 = 26
26 + 2 X 7 :::: 26 + 14 :::: .40
40 + 4 X 7 ::: 40 + 28 = 68
68 + 8 X 7 :::: 68 + 56 :::: 124
124 + 16 X 7 :::: 124 + 112

n. J36o y = -hoo

115. (5) The pattern of the number

series is :
69'"' 43 = 26
58 - 69 = - 11
84-58 = 26
73 - 84 = -11

... 1 = 73 + 26 = 199J
116. (2) I. >3 - 11x + 24 :::: 0
~ >3 - 8x - 3x + 24 = 0
~ x (x - 8) -3 (x- 8) = 0

(x - 3) (x- 8) = 0
:. x = .3 or 8
II. 2!f - 9y + 9 = 0
~ 2!f - 3y - 6y + 9 = 0
~ y (2y - 3) ~3 (2y - 3) = 0
~ (2y- 3) (y- 3) = 0
~

3
' 2
.
Clearly, x ~ y
117. (3) I. :Jil X 13 = Jil

x3

247
13

+ 144x

18
= 289 + 8 = 297
II. y = 262 - 18 X 21
= 676 - 378 :::: 298
Clearly, x < y

121. (3) Let Ram's present age be 6x

years and that of Rakesh be 11x
years.
Four years ago,

= 3234 sq. metre

123. (3) Sum of adjacent angles of a

parallelogram = 180
:. One of the angles of triangle

6x-4

= 180
:. 5x + 7x = 180- 120
==> 12x = 60==> x = 5

Second angle of triangle

Third angle of triangle
:::: 7 X 5 = 35
:. The second largest angle of
triangle= 35
124. (1) Let Raghu's investment

1
2

:. Mohit's investment = ~ 90
Pradeep's investment
=

. 90 x 120
= ~ 108
100

:. Ratio of the investments .of

Pradeep, Mohit and Raghu respectively
= l 08 : 90 : 100 = 54 .: 45 : 50
Sum of ratios
= 54 + 45 + 50 = 149
:. Raghu's investment

-~-=-

=:}

llx-4
12x- 8 = llx - 4

==> X=8 - 4=4

:. Rakesh's age after five years

=llx + 5
=11 x 4 + 5 = 49 years
~

~-= --~x=19

x2

172

122. (5) 2 n, r 1

247

22
=7- x 49 .x 21

= ~ 100

y = -J200 :::: -0.74

360 '

: . y = -or 3

22
(35 + 14)(35 -14)
7

= 5 X 5 = 25

ue. (3J 1. Jsooi = -J402

120.(3)1. x=

= 35 metre

Sum of three angles of a triangle

10 4

- -+::::) 36 =X 7 7

series is:

:::: J236J

2 x 22

=~X
3 180= 120.

x7

114. (3) The pattern of the number

220x 7

= 7r(rz2-rl2)=7(r2+r !)(r2-rt)

Clearly, x < y
118. (5j I.

=:}

r2 = 220

22

1 2
::::) y3 . 3 = 21

::::) y

Required difference

-+-

129 + 54 (= 42 + 12) =J183J

113. (1) The pattern of the number

series is:
19 - 15 = 4 = 2 2

.!.

rz

==>

22

2x

22

= 88

x r1 = 88

88x7
==> n1 =- - = 14 metre
2 x 22

1t

r2

= 220

50
149

17880 :::: f 60()()

.
125. (2) Ajay's score = 63 + 30 = 93

'=

:. Rahul's score= 93 - 15 = 78
:. SumofManish's and Suresh's
scores
= 3 X 63 - 78 = 189 - 78 = I l l
126. (4) Let the number be x.
:. 262 -

53 :::: 358
100

X X

676-

X X

53

:: 358

100

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xx53
::} - - = 676-358 = 318
'
100
::} X

= 3 18 X 100 ~ 600
53

:. 600 X

23
100

Distance
Time

575
= -=25kmph
23
:. Speed of bus= 50 kmph
:. Speed of car
=

S9X 50 = 90

kmph

:. Distance covered by car in 4

hours
:; 4 X 90 = 360 km
128. (4) Principal
2000 X 100
5x4

Sl X 100
Timex Rate
= ~ 10000
..

1
C.I. = P [( +

l~Or ~ll

l~Or -1]

= lOOoo[(l+

Iooo{G~J" -1]
676
' = 10000 ( 625
'

816

54000x 92
= ~ 49680
100
Second SP

llO
= 49680 x -

100 '

= ~ 54648

:. Profit = 54648-54000
= ~ 648
130. (2) 2 men = 3 women
1 man + 1 woman

(~

= 2 women
= 2 + 1) women
'
:. Ml Dl = M2D2

::} 3x4=2X~
::} D2 =

3x4x2

24

=-

2300
= --x100,.55
'
4150
134. (1) Total number of handicapped
candidates in company B in the
year2004

---+---

5 :8

25
80-55
= - - - X 100 = - X 100"' 45
55
55
1~7. (2) Required ratio. = 85 : 90

-1)

10000x 51
=
625
129. (4) First S.P.

1900
4
133. (4) Total number of employees in
the year 2007
= 1050 + 650 + ll50 + 1300
= 4150
Total number of male employees
in company C over the years
= 350 + 550 + 350 + 650 + 400
= 2300
:. Required percentage

250 X 20 450 X 30
100
100
=50+ 135 = 185
135. (1) Required ratio
= 550 : 250 : 400 = 11 :
136. (3) ,Percentage increase

days

'

= 17 :18
138. (1) Total number of students from
school Q who qualified over the
years
= (60 + 55 + 80 + 90 + .75 + 85) X
100
= 44500
Required difference
::= 44500- (85 + 60) x100
= 44500 - 145~0 = 30000
139. (5) Total number of students from
school P who qualified over the
years
= (85 + 80 + 95 + 65 + 40 + 90) X .
100 = 45500
Total number of students who
qualified from both schools in
2006 and 2007 = (80 + 55 + 95 +
80) X 100 = 31000
Required percent
45500
=--x100=147
31000

140. (2) Total number of males who

' qualified over the years from both
the schools together
= 60% of (45500 +44500)
= 90000 X 60 = S4000

400 t 450 + 600 + 450

4

3
= 103.5
4

X-

127. (3) Speed of tractor =

131. (5) Required answer

= 650 + 400 + 450 = 1500
132. (1) Average number of female
employees in the year 2004

100
141. (4) Average number of passengers
in t(ains-S, M and L
'
'
1
= 3 (24 + 20 + 15)% of 8500

= .!_X 8500 X 09 "' 1671

100
3
142. (1) Number of passengers in trainR
= 8500 X 9 ~ 765
100
: .. Number,ofmales
= (100- 34- 26)% of 765
= 765 X 40 = f30 6

100
143. (5) Required per cent
'
19
(13+9)
144. (4) It is obvious from the pie-chart.
145. (4) Required per cent
= ---xl00=86

20 15
x 100 "'33
15
146. (5) It is obvious from the table.
147. (1) P~rcentage increase in 2006
=

12 5 5 3
- x iOO "'136
5.3
148. (2) Required difference
= (14.5 - 6.6) X 1000
=

' = ~ 7900
149. (5) Total monthly rent at Virar over
the years
= (1.1 + 2 .1 + 1.8 + 3 .6 + 5.5
7.8) X 1000
= Rs. 21900
:. Required percentage

9800
X 100 "' 45
21900
1150. (1) It is obvious from the table.
151. (5) 600 districts
152. (3) ~ 30,000 153. (1) ICICI Bank
iM. (2) Identity and biometrics details
of Indian citizens
155. (3) Railways 1156. (3) Mango
157. (2) Bangladesh
158. (4) Mobile Telecommunications
159. (5). Unit Linked Insurance Plan
160. (3) Help to solve balance of payment problems of member coontries
=

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161. (1) Balance of trade .'

162. ( 1) Services 163. (5) Rajasthan
164. (2) Minimum Alternate Tax
165. (l) Plan for Financial Inclusion
166. ( 1) Money ~nders
168. (1) Core
167. (2) RBI
170. (3) Uranium
169. (5) India
171. (3) Purchasi~g Power Parity
172. (2) China
173. (3) Tembhli in Mahara5htra
174. (2) FOOd items .
175. (5) All (1), (2) & (3)
176. (3) A movement to promote better living for the whole community with the assistance of local
Government
177. (2) Sugar production
178. (3) It is a scheme of self governance
179. (3) 2004 - 2005
180. (3) It measures nations wealth
according to provisions of control
on Green house gases
182. (1) U.P.
181.(2) London
184. (3) 2400
183. (2) 3,5
185. (4) Founder, Wikileaks
186. (5) J apunu & Kashmir
187. (2) Basel Committee on Banking
Supervision
188. (1) April 2011
189. (3) 34.5
190. (4) Chief Economic Advisor
191. (5) Casual Informal Wage Employment and domestic work
192. (1) Pritne Minister's Rozgar Yoja-

na
193. (3) Rajasthan
194. (3) Nobel Laureate for peace
196: (1) Repo Rate
195. (3) Coal
197. (5) Indonesia
198. (5) Tata Group
200. (5) Myanmar
199. (4) China
202. (4) D
201. (3) C
204. (l)A
203. (2) B
206. (4) into
205. (5) E
208. (2) translating
207. (1) around
209. (3) practice 210. (3) chance
211. (4) provided 212. (1) other
214. (5) hard
213. (5) off
215. (2) equilibrium
216. (3) Here, the sense of the sentences expresses future time.
Hence, Future Simple i.e., or will
go into one should be used.
217. (1) Here, Notin i.e. The anger at
being .... should be used ..

Look at the sentences :

He was filled with anger. (Noun)
Hundreds of angry demonstrators
filled the square. (Adjective)

218. (3) Here, Past Perfect should be

used. Hence, consumer confidence index had .... will be a correct usage. Moreover, index is
singulare and it will not agree with

were.
219. (5) No error
220. (2) Here, for the ever gro\Vfng
(Adjective) .... should be used.
Look at the sentence :
A growing number of people are
returning to full time education
221. (4) We use an Adverb to modify a
Verb. Hence, probably drop by
for a while .... should be used .
222. {4) Here, over .. , . on the plight of
farmers in the country .... should
be used.
223. (1) Here, owing to the growing
crisis .... should be used.
In response .to means : a written
or spoken answer; a reaction to
something that has happened.
224. (2) Here, the of)eningset against
her opponent .... should be used.
Look at the sentence :
We are playing against Mumbai
XI next week.
225. (2) Here, v 3 Past Participle i.e.
may be linked to overly. .... should
be used. The sentence is In passive.
226. (2) As the temperatures may rise
almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe
climate change.
227. (5) None of these
228. {I) The temperature would rise
from the current temperature by
2 .2 degrees Celsius
229. (3) A study ofthe effects of greenhouse gas emissions
.
230. (4) The carbon dioxide emissions
will be about 750 ppm at the end
of this century if unchecked.
231. (4) The Ill-effects of the change
in climate can be minimized
232. (5) To examine the impacts of
emission cuts on climate
233. (2) Only (A) and (B)
234. (3) The meaning of the word Dra. matte (Adjective) as used in the
passage is : sudden, very great
~d often surprising; exciting and
impressive; spectacular.
Look at the sentence :
The announcement had a dramatic effect on house prices.

235. ( l) The meaning of the wor

Shrink (Verb) as used in the pa;
sage is : to become smaller: co:
tract.

Look at the sentence :

The market for their products
shrinking.
236. (3) The meaning of the word Pn
dominantly (Adverb) as used :
the passage is : mainly: most~
Look at the sentence :
He works in a predominantly'
male environment.
237. (5) The meaning of the word Ma
sive (Adverb) as used in the pa
sage is : extremely large or ser
ous; severe.
Look at the sentence :
He suffered a massive heart 2
tack.
238. (4) The meaning of the word S\
nlficant (Adjective) as used
the passage Is : large or impo
tant enough to have an effect
to be noticed.
Its antonym should be unimpc

tant.
239. (3) The antonym of the word o
posed (Adjective) should

favouring.
240. (3) The word Diminish (Ver

means : to become or to me
something become smaller, wea '
er etc; decrease.
Look at the sentence :
The world's resources a re dimr
isbing
The a ntonym of diminish,
should be increased.
241. (l) Here, Past Simple i.e. gat
ered all her courage should

used.
242. (2) Here, Gerund i.e. going 1
well should be used.
243. (3) Here, V3 i.e. had threaten(V3 ) to burn should be u see
244. (5) No correction required
245. (4 ) Idiom come to the f
. means : to be very important ;r
noticed by people; to p lay an
portant part.
246. (l) calm, difficult
247. (4) unemploymen t. poverty
248. (3) failed. affected
249. (5) numerous landing
:r
250. (4) charge, quality

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