You are on page 1of 64
This Booklet contains 64 printed pages. we gfe #64 ata EL AK14I1 ‘Test Booklet No. cate gfe een /PAPER—II : MAIN TEST BOOKLET| SeA-Wa——u : Bier Ute yferat Test Booklet Code atten gferan dara Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. we wlan Geren Baa we Fahd ga TH ae 3 ATU! Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet w ven gra % fea sre wm Re me Pe st om a eI Instructions for Candidates : 1, ‘The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are drected to open the Tea Booket take out the Answer Sheet and fil in the particulars on Side-] and Side-2 carefully with blue/btack ballpoint pen only. 2. The test is of 2¥% hours duration and consists of 180 questions. There is no negative marking. 3. Use Blue/Black Ballpoint Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. 4. The CODE for this Booklet is M. Make sure that the ie anal Scent acatarak at Sie eine casas ee eee fia ste ste Teg ata ea ts er Ue aan at pet Somat rsa fe bt borane Eerie” dhcratd a Eee Puts th Pat :Language-tt (Emplsh/Hind) (G° Nos. 121-180) «Pana ee geste tn ee fem is cre er ce enhbere 1 tre cae gt range en ra ontains 30" questions for’ Languagecit’ in tis eat Saat Sets eee a ak ae eee mist arin tea awe opted for an gel and/or Languagestt Reeopgee da bea ia earn sie (Q. Nos. 1-30) (9. Nos: 31-50) (0. Nes. ia Font Becket Sat Seniane Language. The languages ‘with the languages opted for in your Application Form 8. Candidates are required to att Part-V (Language-tl} in chosen as Language-t {ia ‘Jonguages. ough work should be dane onty in the space provided in the ‘Feat Booklet for the same. ‘The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is ‘or changing answers. », M iter tat & fore Fea: 1. one area gate fen ret a 8 ee eae fee aes ret ar, Tr FR Ye Ba-2 1 ea 8 arr fare eee ae stn 48 aft a% ue? E ei en Faso or BI ote eee sia = 21 8. wage st Pen sifted i sacra em fre ‘Sore ate eer wievaige a a wat a2) 4 gata gin Mth gin ed ee gon Bath nyees cancers heen ‘ete a Fe ten fer vee ath ee ete fe | TCT, fier @, 2 ater ged ata gfe ae Sur 28% Fre ftir st gee sree 8. aa ter geen dae as, n,m, ov ate vf, Pat 380 aeqhty yer & ae seas 1 sis aR: (seize 1-20) (ee %e 31-90) fen ores fs (rio 31-90) aici sore (site /fe) (seis 91-120) sev ret (sts /FeA) (8% 121-150) 66. thi se 31 8 90 wnat M(t ah Fra) ‘an ein (fire areas fe fara) wl EL 7. syd rm fe 90 mer wy Ha fr, 0 ue fqn va ster gern 8 are afc a fe re mera avredn ses wu gf md ere mit & sort, “Be ste ae ten ferent PST ‘weal rt ome 8 8 E ay ortea oa Hh mr a sara fe ort erfeei 8. flare army (srer-nt) fee, rer aa et a Stoarrereed (meay) agen mee 9. psd ten gr wah fe tod et ae a 20. wa mr ban OMR se H @ sift eli ond soragds afta nti oeeacat ig a tars Bie Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) : ‘attare ar a (8 sre 3) Roll Number (in figures) : sgris (sist) (in words) : (wh) Centre of Examination (in Capitals) van (a art) Candidate's Signature ‘ane eet Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent Invigilator’s Signature : Frees 3 eee, PART—1 / a1—I CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY / care faeara itt frran—arret Directions : Answer the following questions ‘py selecting the most appropriate option. 1. Which of the following figures correctly represents the development according to Piaget's developmental theory? ollg ele he = @ | @ VW Te me 2. Ateacher found that a student is facing difficulty in drawing a square. He/She assumes that this student would also find it difficult to draw a diamond. He/She applies which of the following principles to arrive at his/her assumption? (1) Development tends to follow an orderly sequence (2) Development is saltatory (3) Development is gradual (4) Development is different for different people 3. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the role of heredity and environment. in human development? (1) The role of environment is almost fixed, whereas the impact of heredity can be altered (2) The theories based on the ‘pehaviourism’ are largely based on the role of ‘nature’ in human development (3) The relative effects of heredity and environment vary in different areas of development (4) The policy of compensatory discrimination of the Government of India is based on the role of ‘nature’ in human development 2-M fin: fatten wei on BH Ke wa fir Frere @FiQ! 1. ard & Preven fers ‘after Refit 4a aw site fiera a age eq a we amt? = = @ ED) oF ay a5 2. es sear (sean 9 en Po fell at am fatal ogwa H wt) ee AGT ara f& ae # (diamond) # fea a a wf afd sigue tml Jal Frafefed A 8 Frou Rrara w srenfta Sewe 4e HAAR STEN? (1) Prore ew seas BH AA A safe A wae t (2) Rear A sien es seater wt (a) Frere Faas att cea (4), orem-arern at & fre feo A Bear oA re-set Bret 3. wrrca Frere Horgan wed wien fer ic wt eta 49 ch ao TE 2 () saa A afer ar feet wht ee (2) ‘rare’ % Fara ra: weedta Free spf’ after ames & (3) Pere % Ae Bal A angie afta a ares wera oeadattet & (ome wan A fitz fig (compensatory _discrimination) wea AR avata free F ‘ogi’ A vafteor we areta @ 4..In the, context of socialization, schools often have a hidden curriculum which consists of y (1) forcible learning, thinking and behaving in particular ways by imitating peers and teachers the informal cues about social roles presented in schools through interaction and materials (2) (3) negotiating and resisting sociali- zation ‘of students through their families - : 4) teaching and assessment of values and attitudes 5. Which of the following implications cannot be derived from Piaget's theory of cognitive development? (1) Sensitivity to ,children’s readiness to learn (2) Acceptance of individual differences (3) Discovery learning (4) .Need of verbal teaching 6. Which’ of the following is a characteristic of Kohlberg’s stages of moral development? a) (2) Variable sequence of stages Stages are isolated responses and not general pattern (3) Universal sequences of stages across ail cultures (4) Stages proceed in a non-hierarchic manner 7. Teachers and students draw on one another's expertise while working on complex projects related to real world problems in — classroom. a) 2) (3) (4) social-constructivist traditional constructivist teacher-centric 2-M 4. ante & aed § flere & we wa. oe wooa wigraal fact cee &, fared Fafa & (1) arene siftrm, far a areata wet rome argpte wm Fede 7 A aA ara aren aT (2) seafien a anh arm Perea A xeqa fru sn ara aes yatoH, wary » ata a (3) sitari & wre & feenfilat a anehargt (negotiating) 4 sfrterars aarstaier (4) att a ight a reer ea orem 5. Prsfefaa 4 8 tem Aft’ fend signet Rare % Rea a ae Reve ot aaa? Q) a A afer ae Werte (2) Aafia Fa A ere (8) Gtagi afte (4) Wie foe t sree & oft 6. frafefiaa 4 8 ata steel & Affe Rena & sei oa cam 8? (1) 3 rater ag 2) Ria an orem-ore gM Et fe ‘ara fee (3) wh depftat a wars aor A: arhhy Fee (4) Ria ser ws tera ey a ont A a aga 7. — ar 4 arafis vinta aremil a wae atta otorrall marl aR’ ge aTeaTIG hha gt} oped a cen eM HA (1) TRE : (2) THIET (Constructivist) (3) sree -3fBa (4) areas -crarere [ PTO. 8, In the context of progressive education, the term ‘equal educational opportunity’ implies that all students should (1)' receive equal education irrespective of their caste, creed, colour, region and religion (2) be allowed to prove their capability after receiving an equal education (3) be provided an education by using the same methods and materials without any distinction (4) be provided an education which is most appropriate to them and their future life at work in the context of language develop- ment, which of the following areas was underestimated by Piaget? (1) Heredity (2) Social interaction (3) Egocentric speech (4) Active construction by the child 10. An eleven-year-old child’s score on Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale_is 130. By assuming = 100 and o = 15 in a normal probability curve, calculate the percentage of 11-year-old children this child has scored better than. (1) 98% (2) 88% (3) 78% (4) 80% 11, Which of the following observations supports Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences? (1) Damage to one part of the brain affects only a particular ability sparing others (2) Intelligence is an interaction of analytical, creative and practical intelligences (3) Different intelligences are hierar- chical in nature (4) Teachers should follow one specific theory of educational innovation at the time of designing instruction 2-M 8. wnficfter Fre eraad “are fers sr” Be afiora @ fe asf ort (a) fant st one, oe, i, Ba a aH A He fh a RT (2) ae Rat oA are srt eT Fee aa ; (a) fen ea eg wore wee aT fre a at (4) Bef Fog ore St SR Fre we aire & weal F aes sere ta 9. unn-free & wet # frefefead 8 aa a Pears 3 are aerat ala eA? (y srgafireat 7 (2) anti orate (3) 38-3630 are (4) Preref are afbearers TAT 10. wom rareg-andia wa A VaaAS-PA gfe TF 130 aie ae) ara fire fA; CH BATA AENTET am Hip = 100 amt o =15 &, A Raa rail 3 afters A corr Fe Fea ea TAF een sie wm FRI 4a) 98% (2) 88% (3) 78% (4) 80% 11. Prefer # & aa Peter wad eC ‘agfa-af& ferara a Hele HT 8? (1) fees ae TH i aft Sra Feet ow fae eh ne we 8 Fo ee 2) ae Redes, yore we rE aaa A ora & (3) Fae gfe at eae H seagATENE F (4) ser wee wi Pinion ed er srearent @ Fe eo Fate fare vere 3 Rear a1 Sage eH HART 12, 13. 14, 15. Which one of the following statements is true about ability and - ability grouping? . (1) Students lea better in homo- geneous groups (2) For smooth and effective teaching, class should be. homogeneous (3) Children are intolerant and do not accept differences (4) Teachers ‘may use’ multilevel teaching to cater to different ability groups Which one of the following statements is true? (1) ‘The formative: assessment can sometimes be, summative assess- ment and vice’ versa ‘The summative assessment implies that assessment is a continuous and integral part of learning ‘The major objective of the formative assessment’ is to grade the achievement of students (2) 3) ‘The formative assessment summa- rizes the development of learners during a time interval A teacher asks his/her students to draw a'concept map to reflect their comprehension of a topic. He/She is (1) jogging the memory of the students (2) conducting formative assessment (3) testing the ability of the students to summarize the main points trying to develop rubrics to evaluate the achievement of the students » 5 @) (4) Which one of the following represents the domain ‘evaluating’ in the Bloom’s revised taxonomy? (1) Creating a graph or chart using the data a Judging the logical consistency of a solution Evaluating the pertinence, of the data provided Formulating a new way for categorizing objects 2) 8) (4) 2-M 12. 13. 14, 15. ahaa a ahr aaa & alter f fisfetira 9 ahaa ger ae 7 (1) Pree agg eee te (2) sare = war fhe &q ser a} are (homogeneous) é1 anfeq (2) we orfeog a8 Fa Set at ten ae (4) Patra aera area eagi at mem ah & fore srameat Bayete fire a arr safe, ‘Frevferfira 3 8 staan ae aes 8? () Rae sneer amt dee A Beet 8a eh wae Fata: (2) teeerares armen & oft 8 fis ora cfs an ea Bean a airs sin (3) Carrere ore a ye sea @ fetal Baa a Ava (4) were arene Bora Uc Pref & ‘remreh aa a Mega weeT & {ee sear reer Fei hh fea A sre seater a ofa ae dace mR (concept map) # FO at Seated Be (1) ai eel eto a BUTTE TE SPR AK H/T aod ag Regal at a era A re aor there a eI (4) oot A ayaa & apaior tq atti (rubrics) & feera a ware He 1/2. (2) @) Prfeiia 7 a ahem a % vffert 4 ‘spaia’ (evaluating) & a ‘wefiia em 8? (1) sited er eit aa AM (graph) area ed (chart) fin eon (2) ame A wes gra a ete = (3) wen sitet Borer a Eales ae (4) Rit & Ante 8g wi aA Taft a ‘frat aca [ PTO. 16. 17. 418. 19. 2-M Teachers must believe in which of the following values in the context of dealing with disadvantaged learners? (1) Personal accountability students’ success High expectations of appropriate . behaviour No demands of any sort on the student for 2) (3) (4) For immediate compliance of students, use of being shocked and angry Stuttering problems in students can be dealt by applying which of the following methods? (1) Dictated speech (2) Prolonged speech (3) Pragmatic-speech (4) Protracted speech In the context of learning-disabled children, providing immediate connec- tions, stressing: collaboration- and leveraging non-learning technologies such as instant messaging, intelligent search and content management are associated with which of the following designs? (1) Embedded learning (2) Interventionist learning (3)-Reply to remediation (4) Universal design for léarning An a) inclusive classroom is-that where assessments are repeated till the time every learner achieves minimum grades ° (2) teachers teach’ from only prescribed books to lessen the burden of the students there is an active involvement of children in solving as many problems as possible (3) (4) teachers create diverse and meaningful: learning experiences for every learner : 6. afra frend & wa wae Fe eet F 17. 918. 19, aenrs/senie a Pete yea 7 8 ‘fired favara ora eT safe? (1) oat A ave by safRorT Trea (2) ware ara A sa sie (3) Pree & FA sea aA (4) Rent ara eg ty see (shocked) 3 te a sri cn Rafer A a fa walt a ae RA ear (stuttering) M aren & fra oT ‘awe 8? (1) s1y4A arg (Dictated speech) (2) fea arg (Prolonged speech) (3) sftormart arg (Pragmatic speech) (4) waa arg (Protracted speech) viel 4 airaq (disabled) wat & wo AERTS WAST WE UM, BRAT TC ae BAT TAT feotemaras wea, A Tet aarrerent, gfagde Tom ae WH we, ar arte (leveraging) Peas 4 8 Ree rey @ are #7 (1) Saft sifiema (Embedded learning) (2) ea ftir (3) Sear we (4) softens aa are sree ee ade ar ae 8, vet (1) wa ae see A we as a (2) Rene ern am wa fay sre ara open geal @ ard (3) wR a sift, a ae A aout gf @ aa afi aitetcar weft (4) steam wate aire & ere Ae a ards afirmarers agual &q viten a Frm ara @ . : Beh ce 8 ot ag Doh ora aR a1. . Problem solving 0. Which one of the following is an appropriate assignment for a gifted student? (1) Many more exercises of the same type in comparison to other students Asking him/her to tutor the peers to channelize the energy-and keep him/her busy Create a prototype of a new Science book based on different themes Letting him/her finish the textbook on his/her own before the entire class (2) @) 4) Many measures have been taken at institutional level to check the dropout cases in the schools run by government agencies. Which of the -following is an institutional reason for children dropping out of these schools? (1) There is a lack of infrastructure, such as blackboards and toilets Teachers are. not _—_having appropriate qualifications and are paid lesser salaries Teachers have not been sensitized about the need of treating children well There is no alternative curriculum for children who reject the compulsory curriculum offered (2) (3) 4) Learning disabilities are (1) objective facts and culture has no role in determining them synonymous with dyslexia also present in children with average or above average IQ not immutable irrespective of time and nature of interventions 2) (3) 4) is more likely to succeed in schools where (1) a flexible curriculum is in place (2) homogeneous groups of students are present in the classes (3) the emphasis is only on higher order academic achievement (4) teacher-centric pedagogy is in effect 2M 20. a1. 22. 23. Refer #8 eee. yea (assignment) sftwrnet Pemll % few ‘se 8? (1) 9a Refi <8 gee a ya 3 oy stage aR Sie (2) 33 ort wraaedt aid gh seg 23 & fore wen af see af at Re fire we er ae EI OF GH (9) faite fai (themes) #7 i vad fan & we af srenfers FETs aT =a (4) opt war A ater 38 ore Tee a ai wee aa Ba Rrarera ated ara Prot & Pra oA 8 want trad amt den RK Pra oT fg om #1 frefafaa #8 aan a ieee at & get 8 Brat arm and fre is 887 () fora % emg. she stare Set ange Sarai a1 snare Bat (2) see a aaIERT ater aren 7 a wa 38 aH ona 2 (3) sai) 8 weit cae a Aare 3 oft sreareat an cdematte a aa (4) Sia offal aera a eter ah a wa wae fae Perro Terral ara a sxftora-seaa (1) aqTE ver § aa dig A GH aE pr aah t (2) vor-sramen % vata & (9) ware a sad sifis ae-cauis ara a Fh og ort & (4) wa a ead} we A en ad A sraftadaetter 7a ret area aint ra: a Pend ae 8 oe (1) serettrereiet reat & (2) ensit wri at ane aver & (3) 34a seeate te aR A ae fear aren 8 (4) sreama-3F30 freer rh & [ Pro. 24. Cognitive 2-M apprenticeships and instructional conversations (1) conceive learning as a social activity (2) are based on application of inductive reasoning (3) emphasize on systematic organiza- tion of textual material (4) highlight the‘ need of practical training to achieve efficiency 25. Which of the following should be a right away for a teacher who intends to correct errors of his/her students? (1) He/She must correct every error of his/her students even if it requires late sitting in the schoo! (2) He/She should correct _tess- frequent errors more often than high-frequent and generality errors (3) He/She should correct errors that interfere with the general meaning and understandability (4) He/She should not correct errors if it irritates children 26. The following skills are involved in emotional intelligence, except (1) awareness of emotions (2) management of emotions (3) criticism of emotions (4) amicable relation with class fellows 28, 3 sears /srention are Renfat A abet 24. darren area men een dare (Q) afi at ce annie wah & ea % em aa & Q) ames ate & og mertta & (3) srarenet 5 scat war we we 23 (4) gece A ont 8 omaete sft A aR we YE PER Ben Sreat/areh &, see fee Pevferfira 8 iar waft art 87 a 2) 38 aran A a act wer am gd @ otter we ae AF ae gal a ates her on afte (9) 8s ah wher ec tte A ara sel a sade # madq ach (4) or gsc afbem aa ae ach 2, 858 or ithe aa so afte, 26. Refaftes & 8 staan ater waren afk & are, eR? Q) sri & oft sea (2) wrest ar weet (3) srernsit A sete (4) om etal ee Sata axe 27. 28. 30. 2-M While appearing in an assessment, Devika finds her arousal as energizing, whereas Rajesh finds his arousal as discouraging. Their emotional experiences are most likely to differ with respect to (1) the duration of time (2) the extremity of emotion (3) the level of adaptation (4) the intensity of thought ‘The Government of India has started Midday Meal Scheme for the elementary schools. Which of the following theories. of — motivation supports this Scheme? (1) Behaviourist _ (2) Socio-cultural (3) Cognitive (4) Humanistic Attaching importance to the home setting of students for understanding children’s behaviour and using this information for building effective pedagogy is related to which of the following theories of learning? (1) Behaviourist (2) Ecological (3) Constructivist (4) Social-constructivist Which of the following may be the best way to deal with an inattentive child in the classroom? (1) Nag the child as frequently in front of the class to make her/him realize Make the child sit in the most distraction-reduced area Allow the child to stand while working so as to enable the child to focus attention Provide the child frequent breaks to refresh her/his attention @) (3) 4) 27. 28, 30. reer afer % dha Ban oH stken sath Bet 8 wah ae A torn oRREMA sea 2 rae sequal a see fad wea 87 (1) were (2) srISt A corer (8) STE AER (4) a an are wna ater 3 refs fame farm, wemg-tsra at wey Ft 81 Prathftra Fa eg aes fara ye Aer wo aor rat 8? (1) =rtereret (2) ware-aieptecs (3) Serato (4) Bret wall & cage @ une & fem feria & & amas ar aeerpl em & wat ead Waa a wuraench enw & Pann a i Raat 81 ae AER sem & fa Rare wag t? (1) srteraré (Behaviourist) (2) saute (Ecological) (3) wear (Constructivist) (4) woafrg errand (Social-constructivist) nada wan Homa Bard ae a ora wa A fee ala-an gua wafites arvart at wact 8 (1) 48a weg BE re a er A ew ar-an sien-avem (2) 78 Wwe ome tom ae ad an eary-i h a (3) war Ba wa fee, orl ad A Ae eH aga Bt @ 78% on A aga aA A fe afra-ata it 38 ora Ba [ PT.0. Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 Either from Part—II (Mathematics and Science) Or from Part—Ill (Social Studies/ Social Science). ' ‘ilenidat wre 91 8 90 ata IT (aa aT fag) a un (wna: sree, / renee far) daa #1 PART—II / w--Ir MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE / aftra ait fart Directions : Answer the following questions oy selecting the most appropriate option. 31. The value of 0-001+1-01+0-11 is (ban (2) 1-101, (3) 1-013 (4) 1121 32. In 1999, the population of a country was 30-3 million. The number which is the same as 30-3 million is (1) 303000000 (2) 30300000 (3) 3030000 (4) 3030000000 Ha? =147, 3% =1+74b and 4° =1+7+0, where a, b and c are different positive integers, then the value of at+b+c is (1) 58 (2) 68 (3) 77 (4) 79 We call a number péFfect if it is the sum of all its positive divisors, except itself. For example, 28 is a’ perfect number because 28 =1+2+4+7 +14. Which of the following numbers is a perfect number? () 13 2) 10 (3) 9 a 6 Which of the following numbers is a perfect square? (a) 548543213 (2) 548543215 (3) 548543251 (4) 548543241 33. a4, 38. féa : freafefad vet a Ba ee waR afta fea afi 82, 0-00141-0140-11 a1 HAR (at 4 @ 101 (3) 1-013 (@) aaa 32, 1999 4 fiat 2a At serie 30.3 fifa iy wtf deer 30.3 fife % amr 87 (2) 303000000 (2) 30300000 (3) 3030000 (4) 3030000000 83.2 a =147, 39 21+74b ait 48 314746, 981 & bc fafa UTR pis §, matb+cm me (58 (2) 68 (3) 7 (4) 79, 34, @ Ret don a -opt diem wet EAR ae Hon wk wh une gard & (em a Bim) aS au Ai seecTT 28 wel tiem & wiih 28 = 1424447414 81 fea 8 8 ahaa ston wept dem BY (18 (2) 10 Bo 4) 6 85. fr Fa aha den we pf af cio 87 (1) 548543213 (2) 543543215 (3) 548543251 (4) 548543241 SPACE FOR ROUGH WoRK / th ard & faq ame 2-M 10 36. The product of two whole numbers is 24. The smallest possible sum of these 36. 2 wf densi a paee 24 81 deTol Fag amg numbers is () 8 9 he Geo (3) 10 (4) 12 (3) 10 @ 12 37. The value of 350? - 350 416 350 42, is (y 2 2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16 38. a 38. If 800880 = 8 x10* +8 10% +8x107 800880 = 8x10* +8x10¥ +8x107 sel 2g y ott 2 gf deme ft, ext y scm where x, y and z are whole numbers, mt then the value of x+y +z is wu Q 8 ou 2) 8 () @) ae “s 3) 6 a) 8 39. One factor of x4 +x? 41 is 89. x4 +x? +11 Gm ora & (1) x? 41 (2) x? 4-1 (1) x? 41 (2) x? 4x-1 (3) x? -x41 (4) x? -x-1 (3) x? -x41 (4) x2 -x-1 40. The scale of a map is given as 1: 10000. On the map, a forest occupies a rectan- | 40. W6 nriftra a1 Fat (scale) 1:10000 feat #1 gular region measuring 10 cm x 100 cm. anf Rus St Ft 10cm x100cm ‘The actual area of the forest, in km?, is mre & eH oar Ga % wo F fee va 8 (1) 1000 (2) 100 a sine ar areas Brea, km? A, & {3) 10 @ 1 (1) 1000 (2) 100 41, A fraction is equivalent to 2. Its Oy @ 4 denominator and numerator add’ ‘up to 91. What is the difference between | 41. um fim $ % gra Bi qh echt sin a {he denominator and numerator ofthis 91 Ri eG fra & we oh alee ope 87 a) 3 2) 13 Cie ee (3) 19 (4) 2 (3) 19 (ay at SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / tw ard & form wire 2-M ll [ PTOF 42. 43. 4s. a7. 2-M ‘The number n is doubled and then y is added to it. The result is then divided by 2 and the original number n is subtracted from it. The final result is y Wy (2) 2 (3) ney Se A polyhedron has 6 faces and 8 vertices. How many edges does it have? Ie (1) 10 @ 12 (3) 14 @ 15 1987 -a9 185s the sum of the digits @ and b is (15 (2) 14 (3) 13 (4) 12 Forty-two cubes each of side 1m are glued together to form a solid cuboid. If the perimeter of the base of the cuboid is 18cm, then its height, in cm, is ay. (2) 2 8) 3 (a) 4 In APOR, PQ=4cem, PR=6em and OR=3cm. Which of the following is correct? (l) ZR>zQ (2) .20>2R @) 2Q=2R (4) ZRezP In AABC and ALMN, AB =LM, AC=LN and 2B = 2M. Then the (1) triangles cannot be congruent 2) triangles must be congruent (3) triangles will be congruent if ZB is a right angle (4) triangles are congruent only if AB=AC —_t 42. 43. 44. 46. 47. von na gm we ww y A ag oes ‘ea ftom ay 2 8 art ach fi aa 8 areas om nwt wera en BA sa aT My @ 3 nty 2 fat agners & saat A dem 6 8 an st eh dom 8 B1 gat frat fara 8? a) 10 2) 12 (3) 14 (@ 15 aft. Gi ney @ 1957 -a9 i368 wa ait ask baw ae @) as 2) 14 @) 13 @ 12 5. wafer wat ah, Rea @ ae A op 1 cm &, are ferme GH ata aH waeT orm 2) aft ea care & aren ar afeTy 18 cm a, at wet Saf, cmH, & mt (2) 2 (3) 3 4 SPOR #, PQ=4cm, PR=6cm 3iv OR =3.cm 81 Fra 8 a ahaa ae 8? Q) ZR>ZQ— QQ) ZO>ZR @) 20=2R (4) ZR ‘Prafetea aaa Rar ren st se Bh EE TE snp eso lon —4e— BASES je— 10.18 he 19 Shes ny rep Kia's na room x | ¢ 2 #8 | as 110) Grea oof 5 £ fl maz, “qe TS | ae ‘Connecting lobby 5 o ph pet fe aware Sa BE aay ST est: Fe gegggit fs cnt pling a 118) room, "] Bedroom fF “Pi robin 1a] sesh mais |? 0 Dak safes yes Wer] ror Pa]ad a nadie eae wae ‘The studerits -were asked to find out the— Be no Pan om (A) wee ant A afte she see are; (A) perimeter and area of each room; (B) total perimeter and total area of the — cae (8) ven A ga vor oh SEH gH OTT wet . The above activity can be used by aa teacher as formative ,assessment task af reer frees Care ai 3 because ' a ad eda Raa (1) it will be easy for teacher to engage all the students for 40 minutes () wat & free? arent @ ah it ok ea Fen 40 Fre sea ea wa 8 (2) the students’. responses. will help we . teacher to. diagnose _ their understanding. regarding finding | +.» () Real Aman, We ae bd dimensions, calciilations, knowl- sit, acer, fhe waft edge of formulae for perimeter and cam #1 Peer wh 9 Rees A erat aA area, ete. : tole on (3) the students will :find the task (3) Prova aY ae ard tag, ein oe interesting and will not disturb Um-gat A ana or ae ET each other, 2 Vode ta ty: ~ (afi i°Will Fetfiové' the Bhobia of Maths (4) ae ard fer A ade Ba A a | * “examination® » 1% « an . SPACE" FOR ROUGH WORK / <% ard" fermcsmre 2-M 17 | Pro. 59. Students’ ability. to apply the concept of square roots in-real life situation can be assessed through the following problem (1) Find the smallest square number that is divisible -by, each of the numbers 4, 9 and-10. (2) Calculate the square, root of 25600. (3) Find the sinallest number that may be subtracted from S607 to get a perfect square. (4) 2025 plants are to be planted in a garden in such a way that each row contains as: many. flanté.as the number of rows. Find the number of rows and number of plants in seach row. vr 60. A Student writes 10cm _5 cm i2em 154 _1000m 15 m This student (1) alWays commits clerical error of . writing unit with ratio (2) has clear concept of units and their conversion : can reduce fractions to lowest term correctly and can write the units 8) 59. areas sta 6 Rt A age A sree ary se A Preah Amer ea ee afte, Pfs fe seat 8 aiden a aa Af, st (Q) Se Aa wet & Ravifirs et densi 4, 9 aar10 (2) 25600 & arty A ser FCI (3) 3a RH tem a aa Afi, FAA 5607 Suen wp at don wm eich BL (4) 2025 thi At oH carat & fae EO a. C—O seventy wat £2 et Be a ce vad (9) fit wh erga we a wal dn 8 aa wet properly she wa woe fora weet & (4) has concept of units, conversion of ‘ ate units, fractions but missed. the (4) sre a ara car 8 eal eeTTOT concept that ratio does not have sik Rial A dar stag 8 geq ae units fa age at & fe segura ser aE xs eT ere ‘SPACE-FOR ROUGH WORK / & arf % fer amg. 2-M 18 61. Study the following statements about | 61. Hrra aera 12 & fava 98 Re me wet aT excretory system in hurnans : see ARE (A) Wastes dissolved in water are % afte werd gat fag filtered out as urine in-the kidneys. . Tako a cab BR) (B) Urine stored in urinary bladder is (ey area tag, pet Pret we ea passed out through the urinary 7 ‘opening at the end of the urethra. aoe Bat 8, 8 a, are Pare (C) Ureter carries urine to the urinary sf bladder. = m () eafehat @ dar gor ETA A sre (D) Useful, substances -are absorbed a ack in the blood. () seit aed A cae A gH seats a (E) Blood containing useful and een aren Bt harmful substances reaches the (ey seivh ote aise Sat A ve & er Kidney for filtration: ° 2B yaa tae Freer fag ga Hagar 8 ‘The correct order of the processes given ‘ A * in the above statements is aa save #2 feo re ) ©), ©), A), CB) ()) ©), ©), (4), (C1, @) 2) ©), ©), A), ©), B) 2) (B,D), A), (C), B) 3) (B), ©), B), A), 3) B, ©), ©), A) ©) (4) ©, ©), A) B ©) (4) ©), ©), A), B) © 62. The pseudopodia of amoeba are used | 62 after ae aoa ‘fiat mere es ® for a) ar Sma (1) sensing the food only 2) Bere sors wen HE @) {2} capture of food only (g) Baa aa (3) movement only (a i 28 Gate wa A (4) movement and capture of food . : 63. #2 gosta Rome, 63. Below are given some organisms : oleae (A) Yeasts : (B) Bedbugs o bile é | {©} Leeches ae . (D) Cuscuta ©) {) Algae o = () Lice . (G) Mushrooms (G) B36 (TE) a (H) Lichens ) ata ‘The organisms which may be classified a whe Haig Bre att aid ts rsa mes we chang tottih (1) A), (C), (F) and (G) ae { (2) (B), (©, ©) and © ©) (Cy DLR (3) ®), (C), (D) and (F) 3) @), (OC ae 4) (C), ©), ©) and (G) 4) (©), (D), (B) at (6) = SPAGE FOR ROUGH WORK / « aod & fore se 2-M ( PTO, 64. In Column—A,. names*of scientists . aaah & am fe mg @ ust are given and in Column--B, some len BH a ahs: ee discoveries are-given : Foe Column—A + 3 Column—B BMA aL ret IB fe) Alexander.” © (i) Anthrax @) sate wi) Cae story Fleming bacterium fo) weak ae = + (i) foe | a J Férmentation . esate es | eigen meetin (c) Louis Pasteur (ii) Lactol s Some (a) ta ate SB (6) Robert Koch (iv) Penicillin ©) Fae fer fr) Smallpox vaccine saith & ama A ate 8 wl es & ‘The correct match of the names of maak scientists with their discoveries'is (ja 'b cy dx (ies bce de wv : iy Q)a by : (ie by cd) i ii iii iv 3 b- a eee rrr iv ov iit : ° @a boc a Wa pesta fv at - m9 we 65. Select the correct statémient about oe gr biosphere reserves. 5. Fane oma (sefea Ba) a wakta ae (1) These are the protected” areas wer AR meant for the conservatiin of endemic species only * ED od sah sh a Ba ets (2) These are the areas meant only for the conservation of plants and 2) Rade t at daa oe ail $e oe Seams (3) These are the areas which help vot to maintain the. biodiversity and (3) 23 da & ae A oq fate oth culture of the areas Fete Reha Re dh) (4) These aré_ the’ protected ‘areas reserved ‘for wildlife where they can (9 gn fed oa sts ge freely use the habitats and fatural arrare afte rpc sare % saat & form, resources . corre Fe 7 & SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / & arf & fay ame 2-M 20 te 66. Study the following statements : (A) Prokaryotes do not havé jidicleus. (B) A single cell can perform all the functions in a unicellular organism. (C) Blue-green alge are the examples of prokaryotes. ) Eukaryotes do not have well- " organized ‘nucleus’ with @ nuclear membrane. The correct statements.are . (1) (A), (B) and (C) 2) (A),.(B) and (D) _ (3) (A), (C) and (D) (4) B), (©) and (D) ; 67. In the given diagram, positions of four endocrine glands in, the human body are marked’ by the letters’ A,B, C and D: ‘The correct labelling of A, B; Cand Dis (1) A-pituitary gland,» B-thyroid gland, C—adrenal —gland, Do pancreas .. (2) A-adrenal gland,” *B* pituitary gland, C-—pancreas, D—thyroid gland @ xe (3) A—adrenal gland, “B—thyroid gland, C—pancregs,,, D—pituitary gland (4) A-pituitary gland, B—pancreas, (C—thyroid gland, D-adrenal gland 66. 18 fog re aril ar sea ARE : (a) Siete & ace adi aft 2) (3) wears sta 8 gee attire wh ard ant #1 (C) F-@ tara stfecte % sere 1 © Bie areas fire) afta qenfaa axe wa - es Fr & (2) (4), (B) 3 (C) = 2) (4), (8) f(D), (3) (4), (C) she @D) (4) @), (C) sf D) fay my ont # ager & ade ae oat ufaal A feat A, B,, led mee: : a 67. A, B, Cok Da ae Trias & see ai, “patie of, {fea of, D—eirid a at A+ LPO of, Carer, D—areniss a (3) A-Rira oR, BLaraizs ~ of, Cara, Dag 3A (4) Anta af, Borne, C—aeigs SPACE ‘FOR ROUGH WORK / % arf % fore se 2-M 21 { pto: 68. A rectangular container given below is filled with a liquid heavier than water : Select the correct statement from the following about the liquid pressure. (1) Pressure at A = Pressure at B = Pressure at C . (2) Pressure at A > Pressure at B > Pressure at C (3) Pressure at C > Pressure ‘at B = Pressure at A (4) Pressure at C > Pressure at B > Pressure at A . Light is falling‘on the surfaces S,, S, and S3 as’shown below : ONG Ss S % The surfaces on which the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection are (1) S, and Ss, (2) Sy and Sy (3) 5 and sy (4) All the three surfaces 68, 4 faq me feet oneeren oa A wer 8 Td aE wae: wera fred fe 8 et wn gel () ART = Baa = CUT Q) Awen> BqTE> CHER Q) CRqm> Bum= AUT (4) Ctem> Bram > AR ae 69, site H cay sgAR 'S,, S, oft Sy yt Tm were Fe Tare = S a Sa 1, Fax a oe sey a wh & aT 8, aa () sits, (2) S, oi S3 3) 5, ah Sy (4) wh the SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / t ard % fey omg 22 70. In the diagram of human éye given | 70. #8 faq mara 4a ota 4 A,B, Cam D -below, the parts.marked by A, B; Cand ‘wr if aril ar arate Pea wa Fem sear D should be labelled as safe? A B c D (1): A-ciliary muscley > B+pupil, (1) Aver ef, Bare, C—at8, C-lens, D—cornea Daan . (2) Airis, ~” B+pupil, C—tens, ee (2) A—afenie,” = B-grefl, * C—aa, (3) A-iris, Becornea, C~pupil, D-lens (3) A-atotter, Bait, C—yreh, (4) A—ciliary muscle, B—iris, C—lens, oa Dacome (4) A—temt teh, Bafta, Cae, a6 si i ‘71, Impression of an image persists‘on the retina of human’ eye for about 71. ae ATS Yea Hw PA ay & fees a (1) 1 second 7 sara Yat ein Fa we a CGT 8? : (1) 1 as 2 second * 2 : - 1 . a Lie : (3) second a 1 ea ; 15 3) ee . gt . (4) zs second , @) gees ‘SPACE -FORSROUGH WORK / & ar % fore oe 2-M 23 | Bro. 72, 73. 74, Study the ‘following statements : .* (A) Gértnination of seeds does hot take place under dry conditidns.” (B) Nutrients get transported to each part of the plant in dissolved form. (©) The supply of water to crops at different intervals improves the texture of the soil. (D) The supply-of water to crops makes the soil porous due to which exchange of gases becomes easy. (©) Water protects’ the Grops frof both frost and hot air currents. The statements which justify the need to irrigate crops are.) - (1) (A), (B) and (C) - ~~ (2) (B), (C) and (D) (3) (C), (D) and (E) (4) (A), (B) and (E) Study the following statements : {A) Chromosomes are located in the nueleolus. " (B) Genes are l6éatéd ‘ in the chromosomes. (C) Unicellular organisms respire and reproduce. {D) The most important function,of cell membrane. is to control the’ éfitry and exit of materials from’‘cells. ‘The correct statements are (1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (B), (C) and (D) (3) (A), (C) and (D) (4) (A), (B) and (D) ob G ‘The ultrasound equipments used for investigating medical problems work at frequency € (1) below 20 Hz ° (2) between 20 Hz and 200000 Hz (3) between 2000 Hz and 20000 Hz (4) above 20000 Hz 720 73. 14, eRe meet era AAP: wal ge sna S A sig 8 ; var (8) Shoe arcrect Fatte aH eae yeh ef sen A at 2 (©) Atta wa sranet we wae at sa A cael & er Aa A gure di Bt () suc at ae A ary a at wis wa Fret arr Net ar fae (siTeH4-5eTA) wea @ si 81 (epae wae. A Ta (ata) after ag al Aan UM BIG. 3 wer Sa EA oe A fl Age HT ® . () (4), B) 2 (C) 2).(B), (©). 37D), (3) (©), (D) st (E) 4), @) RE) 298 ce wel a to ae: (A) ere, fa # fears BA BI (B) st, goes & fea aA {O) Raine ag ERT oh ELE E oy airs BO a, (D) wafer et aa mea Haare & sare wh Bafa aT ied wat (1) (A), (B) 3 (C) 2) @), (C) ae (D) (3) A), (C) SRD) ve ve! (4) (a), (B) site (D) fairer % da A amensit % sera & Rey ard Rig a ard ey cay Seo Beh we At ong ate TO (1) 20 Hz 8 = (2) 20 Hz sft 200000 Hz % ata 3) 2000 Hz sik 20000 He & ate (4) 20000 Hz @ sft 2-M ‘SPACE: FORPROUGH WORK / tH cord & farm STE 24 2-M 78. A solid rectangular block of irén‘s kept 76. 77. over the topjof-a table with its-different faces touching,,the: table. Indifferent cases, the solid block exerts ,-~ (1) same force and same pressure (2) same force but différent pressures (3) different ~pand. different pressures (4) different forces but sashe pressure “e £1 In the diagram of animal cell given below, the correct labelling of the parts 4,-B, Cand D is 5 forces, gee a) A-cell wall, B--vacuole, ‘C-chioroplast, D—nucleus, A-cell membrane, B—vacuole, C-nucleus, D—cytoplasm 5, A-cell_ membrane,~: B—plastids, C—nucleus, D—chloroplast A-cell wail, .. B—vacuole, C—nucleus, D—mitochondria (2) 8) 4) The, odometer reading ofa moving car at 8:00 am. ‘is 36540 km’'and at 10:00 am. 36666km. If the car is moving on a zigzag path with variable speeds, its average speed in metres per second is () 6-3 co (2) 12-6 (3) 17-5 (4) 35 D 2p aly 8. aR a GR ate straTaT a aT a fet a & ah toRs Ao sas a Aa at eal ae Be can rey B-Fiter wen a ae ale es sta ee (1) Bar ae sft wa ea (2) ara aa Teg Fira fits ere ' (6) raf zat ty, fa fia gra (4) fafa ae oeg aaa ara 76.°H3 faq ne arg TAH y ata FA, B,C bee on. ate D sil at we ania ‘aia Tht, SBR, C—aefttrere (afta ae), Dems (2) Asif fag, B-Rkrai, (Caras, 6) 4 ean (aitdhter) ae 8:00 #8 sraaie 36840 em gat ma: 10:00 wa qawis 36666 kin Bi af an 28-2 wa ae aT Gata are @, a BH A et sft dere & afer are & () 6-3 mt ‘ (2) 12-6 @aizs ‘" (4) 35 we SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /. 0% a7. % fer se 25 UBr.0, 78. A boy has a thick paste of turmeric..On ns. adding this paste to. hydrochloric acid =, and aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide separately, what colour(s) would he observe? (1) Yellow in both cases (2) Yellow in hyd¥othlox in sodium hydroxide* (3) Pink in-hydrochloric acid and blue in sodium hydroxide (4) Blue in hydrochloric acid and red in sodium hydroxide 79. Study the following statements with reference to the villi of small intestine : (A) They are finger-like outgrowths and thousaiids in number: (B) They. 4 very thin walls, (C) They have a network of thin and sinall blood ‘vessels ‘close to the surface. (D) They have small” porés through which food can easily pass. The statements which enable thé villi to | absorb the digested food are (1) (A) and (B) only (2) (C) and (D) only (3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (B), (C) and (D) e 78. fe on & we eed ag te Rie te - wagaciite ama sit: dtfeen oegienss % “aot fear A steam sek we fire 1/fea Oi an dem an? (1) St sect # ter ‘ay megs ara a oder okt aiear wrgieags Fora” (3) wegacties ora Hyer oh afer 2 aregtaatee Aten (4) wget ara 4 fen sin atfeer eregiaargs 4 ret 79, agra Sita (wig) BOE A A Re seer at aro A : 1 2 ig se ead el 8 wt den gard F at 21 ®) ere Fa aN Hehe 8 (C) i oA ae & Foe gen afi anfearsii set ee een se () fe BR a eh @ IR wee RI we a delta va QQ ee a sata waa aad ara gar t ° (1) ee (a) at (B) (2) ea (C) sf (D) (3) (4), (B) se (C) (4) (B), (©) 3 D) SPACE *FOR"ROUGH WORK / t rf 3 fora ame. 2-M 26 80. Given below are some food items : 8) (A) Boiled and mashed potato (B) Boiled and chewed rice (C) A slice of bread (D) Sugar sotution ©) Coconut oil Which of the above will give blue-black colour when tested ‘with iodine solution? (2) 4) and (@) (2) (B) and (D) (3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (A), (C) and &) , . While teaching the correct method of using a spring Baldfice ‘to Class VIII students, Gunjan mentions the following steps (not «in correct, sequence) to be followed : (A) Note the zero error. (B) Calculate the’ actual reading. {C) Note the position of pointer on the graduated scale. {D) Record the least count of the spring balance. wo Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the steps to be followed for the said purpose? (1) (4), ©), B), () (2) (D), (A), (C), B) © (3) (A), ©), (C), BL (4) (A), 8), ©) 80. 42 go ra ward Ree: 81. (A) 3a he RB. oT, (B) 2a oh wae BR STAR (©) 38 Gs) we gas (D) 4 (rea) a het (©) safer a Ae cokes ater ra atl aA ares Ha a sierra oo ar BEA? (1) (4) sto) (2) (8) ate (D) @) @, B aC) (4) (A), (©) 8k (&) war Vl & oat A earn ga A we swear Pa Ugrd wea Ya 3 AS ee Te SU (3h at A a REE 8) TH HAS ‘fora wat: : (0) eae aR ae (B) eins sami aRefa eT (C) sien oe aes 8 FRA he CT (D) aeaetere Ger an Seems até wer Prafefted 4 & gt awit a wet wn feet fear ran 8? () (A). ©), ®), (©) 2) (D), (4), (©), 8) @) (A. ©), ©), B) 4) 4), ®), ©), © SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / T arf % ferq omg a7 ( P.T.0. 82. Which one of the following is nét:a 83. 84. 85. 2-M desired objective of learning of Science ‘at upper primary stage? : (1) To acquire scientific literacy (2) To develop rational thinking (3) To acquire: essential -process skills (4) To perform better in competitive examinations ‘The technique of . «role-play is considered to be an effective stiategy in teaching of Science because (1) it ensures better understanding of one’s role in real life (2) it ensures active. participation of students in the process of learning (3) itis likely to prothote social skills of students . (4) it ensures breaking‘of iMonotony in the process of learning Science is considered tobe questioning, exploring, doing and ‘investigating, Which of the following activities, carried out by Dipika in teaching of. Science, is, best suited to satisfy these criteria? (1) Unit test on microorganisms (2) A group dicussion "on common diseases (3) A debate ‘on environmiiital issues (4) Project work on nature of sound The National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005 recommends'that teaching of Science at. upper » primary stage shotild emphasize maximun.or (1) relating classroom learning"to life outside the school, (2) memorizing’ ail SGienlific ‘terms given in textbook. 4 (3) answering all questions given in textbook exercises 1 i (4) improving students” performance in examinations * SPACE“FOR: ROUGH WORK /'t% rd % fea sme 2, ar mrs reve Ra Shae a A feat Heat atau ate aiacta stew wei 2 (1) enties erere aia ac (2) ait as Peed aor * (3) sae firen-aterer afte act (4) sited wttenait 3, greet exis aT 83, Rar-frem 4 dass rats wee sr Aft a ar are RA, G) ke ares stan a Beat afer at adh sere 8 aa BritTEt a & (2) 3¢ aaftere-siter Ara A aba efter gta ache” @) we ok 8 efedi gree age & wrt none (4) ae often A UaRAT a aren aitaa ach 8 84, fan a wean, Godly an, epi seT3Tn seme AT. aren’ RI ata ea 2 Stara sag ore 8 fee me Hare FS 1 ahem ar area ct Bf we WPA Re (a) erated we ae be (2) rary tet a e sat (3) wate ens area (4) Saf A gi we it ante orga, At witan;.2005 4 ae sgrieT (fafa) Ame fH Sa wef eK ‘Fart-ftrar # oafire er feo rT TEE (1), sen A eed a renga & are vier & (2) reagan Hg en Aas we = ae wa & fay ete (3) Wenger % seers anit weit a se 23 S fee 4) som 3 Pref sweat S gene a bey 86. 87. Geeta’ is preparing a lesson-plan’ for teaching the topic on ‘Human eye’ to Class VIII students. Inclusion of which of the following activities in the lesson-plan is likely to be most effective in helping the’ stidents understand related concepts better? (1) Preparing a good home assignment (2) Dictating notes to students in the classroom (3) Using student activities and interactive classroom questioning (4) Demonstration using model of human eye On the basis of recommendations of National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005, NCERT textbooks in Science lay greater emphasis on (A) discouraging rote learning (B) maintaining sharp _ boundaries between different domains of Science curriculum (C) providing active - learning experiences to students (D) learning exact definitions of scientific terms* Which one of the following pairs represents ‘the combination of correct statements given above? (2) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (C) a (3) (C) and (D) “ v (4) (B) and (Cc) Boat Which one of the following approaches adopted by a Sciefice teacher! reflects scientific temper on her part? (2) Maintaining perfect discipline in the class (2) Covering the prescribed syllabus as quickly as possible Encouraging students to questions, in the classroom Preparing difficult question papers to enhance learning (3) ask 4) 86. 87. often wen VII & writ at aE 3a" & fee wedea am et 21 ate farmer 4 fare ore-ateen H aftafera we afte war aa wea orit waite dacrnsil a od we wag Tet ‘wera a Ta BP (1) sie 78 ard aa” (2) sar 4 orl @ te faa (3) ort & fraser of eer 2 oes wet #1 seat ac (4) ra 2 wee ar esis aac ie waeraat A eter, 2005 1 Arte saan % NCERT @, fig Geral # sift aa fear att ae (A) 23 A sgh a ecteafea ea oe (B) fear erga & fain ad dit tr er eon wae Ta (C) ort a abe sf ova ve ea (D) Senha oat A aerel uke erat ve 9 Ra en aa gre safe we seh widha a refta weer 27 (1) (a) afk (By (2) (A) st (C) @) sk) = 5 (4) (B) ae (Cy firm fren err sreare 2 Aq Te seat 23 eat sow om filter A Ante sft 2 en 8? (1) en ph gre aay eT (2) wae ain ea tre wT — . seat A wet a wer wd & fore sere aH (4) sit aha wa fore wa rm (3) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / t% arf % fay ae 29 a9. 90, The following steps (not in the. proper sequence) are generally recommended to be followed in scientific method : (A) Testing of hypothesis (8) Formulation of hypothesis (C) Identification of problem (D) Collection of data (©) Drawing of conclusion Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above steps to be followed for this purpose? (1) (C), (A), (D), (B), ) (2) (C), (B). (),,(4), (E) (3) (0), (C), @), (4), ©) (4) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E) Hands-on activities and projects form an integral part of learning of Science. These learning experiences primarily aim at a assessing the students on practical skills (2) keeping the students engaged all the. time (3) maintaining discipline in the laboratory . (4) providing opportunity to students for extended learning 89. Safes fate & fae amram: Prafeitter. wit Br arene A (8 er fie a FT 4 freon A are B= ) serve ar tle: (B) ahteest art oo (Cc) wren A wear (D) sted at yea Fer Telia Rrafeftaa 4 -& gr soit a eet aH aa 2? (1) (Ch, (A), (D), (8), E) - (2) (C), (B), ©), (4), () 8) ©), ©), B.A), ©. @ ©, 0, ©, 90. weaficg rare aft aftdtaad ara eth 3 soft ain 81 33 aterm argue a yea Sea (1) eae ater oe erat res (2) ont ae wa ora aT (3) sedbrerren # sige arg waa @ eaten & fe we A ara we a 2-M SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / & arf & fea amg 30 90 Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to Science) Or from Part—Ill (Social ‘Studies/ Social Science). Either from Part—Il (Mathematics and hae a wer do 91 8 90 3 A IT (nia ate ‘Brgra) Sv 10 (areas sre / er fra) @ wet Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option. 31 82. 33. 34. 2-M . The movement PART—III 7 wI—TIL ¢ < SOCIAL STUDIES/SOCIAL.SCIENCE | arent areca arenes Peart Vande Mataram in ‘Andhra region. was known.as (1) Non-Cogperation 5 (2) Swadeshi (3) Civil Disobedience. . (4) Khilafat oe ‘The book, StriPurush Tulana, which is based on criticism of the * social differences. between men and women, was authored by which of the following scholars? (1) Pandita Ramabai (2) Begum Rokeya xr © (3) Tarabai Shinde + 6 (4) Rasasundari Devi 2 ‘The Christian missicnaries in the 19th century“wanted “to” introduce Christian education in India to (1) educate elite.class “ (2) improve moral character of the people ae (3) educate, masses p+ (4) make Indians loyal to Company government With the industrialization of Britain in the-19th, century (1) India became main, supplier of the raw materials to British industries (2) India provided cheap labour to British industries (3) India became vast market for British industrial products (4) many industries were established | in India - 31 32. 33. 34. Ain: feafhtea wet oe BA Re we afte Prva gfe : ai. arn aa A ‘a8 mrad Siete Hrfeon Aa fia am & are Te a? Ce 2) wet, (3) Bia sagt (4) ere ‘rare #8 Rea rates tara A orate we st FI, ebl-ger gern ar are Feet a + (1 ven win (2) ama. @) TR, re (4) Tegeh Bf noel hot we 8 eng 3-H fen ot wt re TT? (a) i wh fee wk (2) ae Arter A gure | (ay era hr re Fae” (4) wre aA ae wea af aK ATA ee lod wa xB site we prea. AR waar aera OT? + (1) re Bia set A eA Te A oot we are Ge aT (2) sree 3 Fata se A A HE SHTT wart Lok Oe aR FETT (4) sea ke aie ect Pe { P.r.0. 85. Ini whiicty land Teveriué settlement, the Rajas and Talukadars were recognized ‘as ‘Zamindars? (1) Ryotwari Settlement (2) Mahalwari Settlement (3) Permanent Settlement (4) Pattidari Settlement 36. Begum Hazrat Mahal took'-an. dctive 4 part in organizing the uprising against British at (Q) Kanpur (2) Lucknow (3) Faizabad +4. (4) Allahabad; 37. Which of the following Acts transferred | the administration of India from the East India Company to British Crown? (1) Act of 1833 tier» fy ak (2) Act of 1858 (3) Act of 1861 (4) Act of 1868 : 38; In:the medieval Assam, (2) 1858 a afufray (3) 1861 7 after 4), 1868 aster aromreta ae Es ‘are refers aa ene () aaa (2) am 4 aim ee are (3) wt aR aa (4) afard 1 Gace ‘Sodio oft “fraeet’ Patti 8 a Fe a? (1) Stet are & sire ~ (2) far area & afte area (3) ate ater A erate areal” (4) wet a aeta” & oa 4 Re ae afte som cent nO 37. 38. Hage 39. #8 go ert GE aha se & a Re re Eset srr oth wren Fast & wer /ares oT Te ‘Pa BT * ad Poog> ‘aedea a wtenh & wh at ()) AK; BF; CE; DG - (2) AG; BH; CF;.DE (3) AB; BG; CH; DF (4) AF: BE; CG; DH 41. The Rivers Ganga- and Yamuna ~are named —— in the¢Rigueda (i) around a thousand times (2) a hundred times, (3) twelve times | * (@)once : 42. Which one of the foiovin.f features is common to Buddhism ‘Sainism both? (Q) Only those who left their. homes could gain true knowledge (2) Both of these religions ' supported mainly by traders (3) Man had to give’ up “everything, including their, clothes to gain salvation (4) The constant “craving .for more - could ‘be..removed by:" following moderate path were 43. Who amongst the following: said that, “The upper castes had no right to their land because in, reality, the land belonged to indigenous ‘people, the so-called low castes”? + (2) Shri Narayan Gura.. A (2) Haridas Thakur * (3) Ghasidass (4) Jyotirao Phule Which one of the following statements is appropriate in reference ‘to the construction of | Audience , Hall (Diwan-e-Aai), by’Shah" Jahan? * ~ (1) White marble of the Taj Mahal i isa symbol of peace” King’s justice would treat the high and the low as equals’. , 1 (2) (3) to rule better It was a‘necessity to bring the rate of crimes under control @ 45. Who amongst the-following could not be a member of-a-Sabha as laid down | in the inscriptions from,Uttaramerur in Chingleput district of Tamil Nadu? (1) Those. between the age.of. 35 and 70 years (2) Those having. knowledge of the Vedas (3) Those who have’their owni homes (4) Those who have ‘not''submitted their accounts 7+ +” 2-M Contentedness in the subject helps | 41, ade Aim, co SRT + (a) amr gn eae ge 8 aa a ae (3) ares? ee ae oa 4a, Brain #8. ate ta of Ba Be wl 22 RE ig a ana y cek fO (0) Baer ae wa it gece EAH La 8S (2) naa wit als ; me ere 7) aa of fae ager A me met afi igo crate ae «Ugh Site 98, Beacon a Hel tnt reese wa Fo HAR, 0 fee ot) 43, Preteen Bret aati Psst a aA afi qa oft 2, ‘wifioaeaa # ht ar exe tas aha. sratasrarati rea oft 27 eae Mi loot teststo es (1) starr Te aot (2) wine cle eee ee rormé dire? 18) (3) tere aes (0) arses aie ar aT (2) wot id a al ort (3) gabe he mg Leer on (ye ec) G8 gee! wed 5. afrerng i, feral cl % Serre 8 fue ea er Fetera #8 a ow! beeen eT a 3s 70a Sra sin ae (2) eae . (3) 8, RAR SHS a me 33 (oy &, Rea are eva Bee eo UR2.0, * 46i+Which one of the following facts does not hold true about Grama-Bhojaka, the village headman.in the northern parts of India? (1) He was often the largest!landowner (2) His post was hereditary (3) The king never used him to collect taxes Generally, he had slaves and hired workers to"cultivaté the ‘land a 47. Which property of a soil is’ determined by the parent rock? "= (1) Rate of weathering’4rid- humus (2) Thickness .of. soil:, (8) Accumulation of soil, (4) Chemical_ properties, permeability and textiite fi #8. Minerals that lie near “thee ‘garth surface are simply 50. Activity that changes, raw material into ‘Droduicts of nore value’ is, sailed «+ (i) primary activity » 42) secondary activity 81. The Apache and the Crow are (1)“tribes of North Aniericat” (2) nomads of Kenya *» (3)! music bands of the Usa © {@) documentaries on énvironment 5 52. Which of the f following i is an example of Sunrise Industry? ’* () IT industty Lae, 2) Cooking ofl industry, - (3) Paper indistry (#) Jute industry +! 34 47. 48. 51. 52. rate A een gen we at esa ‘sean’& fra we gt 37 (1) me wre arg Gaeta (2) wea we Fare 8 ero (3) Waa sae wh tae ce aS fi, sear a Re mm ach om a8 ae eh oa & fete sagt A eer ae aT wl ahaa yo ay Alaken sas wera ae 87 a) ade Ah he gfe (2) ga Atte, (3) Few sere (4) aries, seman wa dicen unr fz me wa ad: aid a arene wea frame At aBet a a at a? * (1) 338% od fe 2) Pear boone (@) fqe-an or : (4) Ree . gPem At wrefiae wert ETH & set fear 87 (1) sfRrf sete (2) afm srfter (3) fer wre : (4) wat de A rt a anes ET eee A ea a ‘Bea ah ear arat aren 8? (1) sree: fear (2) facie frat (3) safes Bra (4) Geta feat - ath afte a Prato 8:8 war 8? (1) seat Seat & wate (2) Rear gay (wrrac) (3) sentir & vars (3) Safa oe gue ‘Reaftfaa 48 sen wet a at oH ‘Herm RP 7 (1) ar steitret sein (2) Ge ta se 43) arrasan |, (4) sewa san 53. Which region is known’as thevOrchard 55. 87. 58. 2-M . Which-one of the following helps the of the World’? ah (1) Orange Country of South Africa (2) Kashmir Valley of India, (3) Mediterranean region (4) Queensland in Australia ships to navigate? (1) Area of high tides (2) Area of low tides (3) Area where the warm’ ocean currents and cold-currents-meet, (4) Area of ocean currents The radio waves transmifted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by (1) exosphere (2) mesosphere (3) stratosphere (4) thermosphere, a The balance in the environment gets disturbed if (1) the relative number of “ores is not disturbed (2) human activities _ continue preserve natural habitats (3) indiscriminate killing of wildlifé is _ banned ” (4) deforestation _and ‘soil ‘erosion ‘continue ee to Which one. of the following is not a principle of sustainable development? (1) Maximum use of natural resources (2) Respect and care for all forms of life (3) Change in personal attitude and practices towards environment. Improvement .in the quality of human life - ‘two cities W and Mare located at 15° E and 15° W of Greenwich respectively. What will be ‘the differencé in time between these two cities?” \) 30-minutes : (2) 1 hour (3) 1 hour 30 minutes" - (4) 2 hours i) 35 83, frafifaa 4 @ fra.da ahve a cata’ wRAME ye. ye (1) 2 anfte erates dad (2) saree A areca (9) agents TTS 1) MRR a. 84, Rrtetre 38 eae sheer were wna?) ee eld Take (1) a sata a ; eo (2) BTM AAA pyar 0) 8 Baek an 4) ee a SS. ge art went (Ata) eae aA as gest we a wurafiia wT A? (1) esa (2) Ferwea (3) waar (4) arenes e o ' 86. wafer # igen fig arava? aft | 58. 8-me Noh Mata 8 (1 saa 8 as dono Bye arg (2) arte AP i le atin (5 et ce eh ee Yon we fia me - erm ae yanmar wee 7. Rafters A & aaa Reet dint eh) OF eee Fearne ae Yay septa eget ait set (2) sta wets warca_aeng ote seh wre ) eater ai ear aH SAR ee a wo | (4) ata ences a ‘Hate fe eG as? a aa 15* wien oe Ree BL A aed Bane | farm ran ari?” (1) 30 fire (2) 1 aver we (3) 1a 30 fe (4) 2908 | p.r6! +69. 61. 2-M . Which Article of the Constitution ‘The Minimum‘ Wages Act (1) specifies that minimum wages should ‘be given to labourers (2) specifies that the wages'should not be below a specific. minimum (3) allows employers = to decide minimum wages of their employees (4) covers only: government employees under the organized sector © prescribes that the énforcement of any disability arising out of ‘untouchability’ shall be an’ offence .punishable in accordance with law?,. 5 (1) Article 15 (Q) Article17 Gene wee (4) Article 28 : What is the key reason of inequality in India? (1) Poverty (2) Religion : (3) Caste. ee (4) Sex Right to the constitutional remedies (1) protects the Fundamental Rights of citizen (2) is about the Constitution remedying itself by amendments excludes,-the Right to Education ‘Act, 2009, gives judiciary the power to strike down’ a law eriacted'by the Parliament? + (3) (4) According to. the Hindu. Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 (0) only sons or.male.members of the family can have “right ini’ family property (2) only . wife has right. .to inherit property of her deceased husband (3) sons, daughters and their mothers can get an equal share of family Property (4) followers of tlie Arya Samiaj will not ‘be governed by this ‘Act 36 61, 62. 63. aga sf . 0 a8 = (2) eff rm ar arf” tani oe ‘Aira wa A ae ae = (4) tite Qa F-Saa at what & fame itera & Pea ogee Be sreria ‘sepa cae fh eta Sy sea TE AT we wushia a eT?! Z (1) aye.15 (2) ay8e 17 (3) ages 21 oe (4) Bae 28 sac aarti ae HB? ()) atte. 2) (3) safe (a) fir ates seat sifier (1) Reet 3 she sa A cer ec (2) iter deer ad yo & Fe 8) fe ae ove ear aiff, 2009 4) eee ag gr or ras A Piet aa A Bf wer ae fq sauttign (Geis) “sfefien, 2005 % sega Freferan H 8 er ea 8? (1) shen Bag ren go Re afters aaa # ation-ae & (2) Saat aot ASH Rasa fe oA aaa sara & ©) wi ghd oft se meal a oats cafe aren freer ete B @ Set care quel we fee wal tet 64, 65. 67. 68, Which of the following comes under the function of the State Government? (1) To maintain peaceful relationship with PakistatiandBangladesh Decision to discontinue the Board Examination for,Class X (3) Introduction of new train between New Delhi and Vasco da Gama (4) Introduction .of a new design of 1000 rupee note (2) “ Dropout rates of Dalit and Adivasi girls are highest because as (1) their parents do ‘not. value ** “education (2) of poverty and social discrimination (3) of non-availability of all-girl schools (4) benefit of their, education will be available to their iri-law’S family . Which one “of the following is- not a social advertisement? <2): {1) Atithi Devo Bhava Ht (2) Life Insurance—Zindagi Ke Saath Bhi, Zindagi Ke Baad Bhi (3) Lane driving is life driving (4) Save every drop of water Identify’ the issue which is hardly focused upon by the media despite its significance. (1) Murders and killings (2) Demolition of buildings (3) Gender sensitivity (0) Drinking water With reference to judiciary, identify the odd one out of the following provisions. (1) Separation of powers (2) Once appointed to office, it is very difficult to remove a judge (3) The judges are appointed without any” interference. from the government ; (4) The tenure of service for judges is fixed 2-M 37 64. Rraferftaa 4 @ ata ert asa wea a 8? (Cy ara, sit aie a am wfaqet Wee a, (2) werd en RE eh A ae OT 9) ER oe rem aE 4) 1000 th & te arin Pre ar aT 5s. fa ane eh rE ed mega afte es aces (0) RS sar Fen ft ee 28 “(2) nee afte anne Sema F sre (3) afi & fry orem. eA ae Pree arm (4) fren aa ore ae & aera are a fre ear 6. Ffean f& tae Fare ar eh 8? (1) af tat aa" 2) ster str fareh are f, Feeth are ah a (3) Sadowh aomrgtomeht Snore (0) oh ie 67. 8 gt A wea se fe nee BA sara steer 9 ara Wt 3a wt ear Pear 81 (1) wea (2) waa at fe (3) fre daeretern 4) Pao 68, aerate wel A Peas meet a firm at eres (i), het a gern hee (2) ow ae Pgfas re career wh eer agate. 3) saantait 4 Pagha wart ada & Ren ane (4) arent ar Raa Pa hat [ P76. 69. 70. 1 72. 2-M D. K. Basu Guidelines laid down‘by:the Supreme Court of India are about (2) prevention of sexual harassment of ‘women at workplaces (2) protection: of children, from sexual offences in schools (3) procedures té be used -by various agencies for the arrest, detention and interrogation of any person (4) procedures to’ be folléwed’ for the reelection in a constituency In Subhash Kumar vs-State of Bihar (1991), the Supreme Court held that the (1) Right — to Freedom, includes expressing criticism" f the government * + (2) Right to Life includes: the right to the enjoyment of _ pollution-free wate? arid'air = * (3) Right to Freedom of Religion does not include criticizing the other religions... Ga (4) Right to Equality. should force private companies’ té provide + reservationsin jobs Which characteristic of the traditional external-examination is-excluded in the present school-based assessment? (1) Emphagis ‘on: systematic learning (2) Emphasis only on the scholastic aspects’of learning? (3) Consideration of the needs of the learner (4) Rapport among learriers, teachers and parents close to each other Before assigning -a’ new type of assignment, a teacher must tell her students (1) that the forthcoming assessment will be/will'riot' be based on this assignment = =P) (2) about the weighting. of this assignment in 'théir firial result (3) about her » expettation | from students in terns of learning from doing the assignment (4) about © thé" ” reqliisite” previous experience students must possess for doing thissassignment 38 9, wate rare aM Fratita gto Fe aTy feen- 7 (Guidelines) fiefeféra #2 ae at ® > (yp ‘eee eatin ee ete @) eee ane @), Pah mafia aA Fran wa, gH ee we ad aware wa He Rill CARR TT sata Pre oe aa a (4) Pret grata Ge Bae & fhe oro 38 are Pitt 70. Bay BAR TAM Fae TI (1991) % a # wate carota 3 Prarie 3, 2a ok fe a? (1) dae & sitter deere A sete wor aif 8 (2) era & sar gama eA ote ea a otc me & (3) aes eee & sitter Fra ot A sare a TRA 8 (4) warren % siren swede a Sie 3 are 8. BK 71. drt a-smte sree A oes TE vee fora Petra a} ater al fear sre? (1) yerafBea aarag sift. ae (2) stor & Sat Ars ver ae (3) feral 8 srraeacrarait x Pare eT (4) weet 3 fee “Reef, erst ste asftorrait 3 ta here 72. we aa van % ad wl A a wea fife a i faenfiat at saga aarn safee _ (1) Forint are ga we oe one et / a er ’ (2) site oftons # ga ard a fee ny afte saa (3) & x2 ad a aa a wm of a ‘sad (Rirfirer) faenkal a stand een & @) wad a a0 does ue ‘Sh frenfiat Homer a 78. Four children of Class VIII were asked toucreate some creative articles from the. waste material. On completion of the assignment, the teacher gave the following observations. On the basis of this--information; adjudge the most creative.child. es (1) Most of the time uses imagination, is conscious not' to use expensive material : (2) Discusses with teacher constantly and asks for approval at'each step (3) With little gllidance, “cant make reasonably good items (4) Skillful and possesseé'a' vision to convert waste material into productive items ‘7A. Projects.in Social Science are useful a. in theme-based tasks b. if they do not involve collection and analysis ee ¢. if based on contexis' from! within the text 4. for the group work in class or at home Which two alternatives from amongst the forms given above dre correct? (1) b and'a 7 (2) a and’ @),a and d (4) cand 4 % 75. Capacity Building Programmes are essential for the teachers,’ of Social Science because (1) they are related to _ their professional growth : (2) their ‘increment in salary is contingent upon Capacity’ Building Programme (3) schools have been asked to do so by the CBSE to keep the teachers busy they require conceptual and pedagogical clarity in different components of Social Science (4) 2-M 39 73, medi wen a aaa ent wah BET ears ee aS eT A ad GT & thew 3 Rofafen Boel i eee are or eS we yf (1) siftesigr aaa acct a war scant, et ‘ara wait a acl & wf aa (2) foes & ae Berard we & ah wee aA hg ath (3) 988 8 antes 8A aT ore St a wea e . (4) ae 8 teh war ead “amt A sence angel haat & gant 74. amis Raa 'H viet ard’ (projects) seit tet on a. fiea-smaie aril} war area a ot aif Fd aS Fife Fol Hata a awe He a) batted : acto ley Basta , oe Mcaka 78, avis Rea % aarti e- Pn "ian oid & ee (0) 2 3A ener sm 8a 269) sb Ret a aa er Rs end oe SRR ne (3) sound adem da & fey io Mo fro até 3 eat DD alam wa a ae (4) 38 wie far SR wet A saurenst sit fiem-rait a een A wea ad [Pre 76. lina Social Séience ‘class; which:one-of = the following is: suitable method for esunderlining -cthe: ‘phénomenon that “Tcommon areas, and open, spaces in “rural areas are disappearing fast? (1) Make presentation :with,thethelp of computers: «is (2) Discussion on the basis of text prescribed #6) > ~ (3) A survey*project” (4) Group discussion over the topic ‘The National Policy :0n* (NPE), 1986 suggested the development of integrated ‘programmes’ for the (1) education of boys'dnd ‘girls together (2) education of the mentally disabled (9) handicapped children to. study jn Vregalar schéols (4) handicapped childieh toSludy in special schools.ey, -, ~ 77. : Class .VIN is, extremely ‘upset ‘over Het ici t6'write on a prescribed .topi +more, familiar, to her.,,\ folléwing i& ‘the most” appropriate with this method? ia... & % (1) At the outset, write the topic that is familiar and 'then‘add: matérial on how the topic is related to the assignment dws 1 Prepare a_ directory. of, books, articles and Web-sités-abouxt the topic ot Find two sources of information on the topic and find their common noo. features ¢ -- % pp (4) Prepare azpaperjand: friend to determin « needstosbe-revised (2) (3) jeen used *cnaivas to-fainiliarize students with ideas in the textbook ‘Social and Political Life publishedyby the NCERT? cig gyy fe foam & It (1) Time line (2) 'Graph. = > @) Chart + @ 4 (4) Storyboard (a) fre wang Baal wane i 8 eet “sr, obese -fRs(NPE), 1986 auton Ae fagetige ania fine 6a gaa Ran? = ; (a) eho a ee & fe 7 ay erat wag Fit eg fre (3) feerrin weit & Praia east Hoek & fag ie ath ae AT AHS ad xt (2) fae & wafits grea, gral ae, A ow dita Aan a” (3) fea & waa sri 8 aaa ate aad ote wa ara eae Rd (4) Hw (en), Sangh he A Bah ea aA «Ble Laut wa aa 3 "Fo. fatten Ha fra gumm wh eae we fe ame Ae, ara sania Taya "afi oft 1c catia stag” 3 Rarer a Peehe a eal Ke a ey fe en 8 dee (0) SR (2) a6 * GB) ae 40 (4) er 80. ‘The content. of Social Science should ade FIRaT GF, (1) provide "compréhensive, “informa- Hon about the (sécial gsuie® and >. their ‘solutions? fe set (ty mee ae (2) “exclusively focus on ‘issties related to’ sdcial reality* afid"shotild not encourage scientific method of 5 pifesearch, + oe tt 13) “aiff at Taising students“awareness “nabout History, Geography, and litics,; cof India id the interconnection among these (4)_sim at raising students’ awareness ~"sthrolugh critically. exploring and questioning familiar-social realities + epee Vie De (ay 81. To make fextbdoks irepresenitative of all + -resions,and sopial eroups.s 7 (, = = (1) cntentsiretating totall regions and social grotips, shoilld:"te added in fembooks., tris, wat 3 (2) ‘relevant. lodal_contentshould be = -Rartyof teaching learning process on,local,ressurces (8) textbook should be written in all % a langtiages ‘of the country: specially »7e & gin languages~ mentioned .in the « “" seitt'Schedule VIII,of:the;Constitution of India ore Be, (4)'acommén-,issues jamong _:regions myst be;highlighted,exclusively to romate the spint of federal republic igsties "and “role of :Socializetion in gender discriminations ae should (JP éncotttage “team includ’ male as* teachers . ce I He aes (2) organize “seminars .,on _ gender sensitivity by, inviting fppinent speakers 7 PRs TED ie ask_teachers to use case ,studies and give, coficretéexample3" ~“técthing! ana “well ‘as female make rules, that boys. are not allowed to practice ‘discrimihation = against girser 82h, a (BAS 80. fara A rere a, So rl) animal ate ease Ay ae arrard 4 arfee os boven: 2 Ghote erties ard, gd ects oa e

You might also like