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BASIC

PAPER NO –INDTT/BASIC/01
TIME-4 HOURS

1. SNT – TC – 1A is
a. A specification.
b. A recommended practice.
c. A mandatory requirement. d. ASNT's written practice.
2. Which one of the following is the use of SNT – TC – 1A.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

It ensures uniformity in personnel certification.
Persons are qualified to perform to the work.
Employer’s progressive improvement in NDT career.
All of the above.
Only a & b.

3. Which of the following is true about the SNT – TC – 1A interpretation panel.
a.

b.
c.
d.
e.

Will be helpful in solving the dispute between the customer and the
supplier.
Will be helpful in establishing the acceptance standard for a product.
To get the concurrence of any company's written practice.
Will clarify the questions relating to the document.
Only c & d.

4. Level III certification through examination was introduced by ASNT only after the
year.
a.

1975.

b.1968.

c. 1970.

d. 1984.

e. 1980.

5. The third revision (1984) of SNT – TC – 1A contains which of the following.
a.

b.
c.
d.
e.

The definition of outside agency is given in this only and not in the 2 nd
revision ( 1980 – out side agency provision is provided ).
Eddy current testing is renamed as Electromagnetic testing.
Re-certification duration is changed for level III from 3 years to 5 years.
a & c only.
All of the above.

6. ASNT conducts certification examinations for
Level – I only.
c. Level – III only.
e. None of the above.
a.

b. Level – II only.
d. For all the three levels.

7. As per SNT – TC – 1A, the outside agency means
a.
b.
c.
d.

A level III individual.
An engineering organization.
Either a or b.
Anybody other than ASNT.

8. Which of the following statements is true ?
a.

b.
c.

d.

e.

ASNT has been providing certification examination for level III personnel
since the late 1960's.
SNT - TC – 1A was first published in the late 1960's.
SNT – TC – 1A requires that level III personnel be qualified and certified
by ASNT.
SNT – TC – 1A was developed to satisfy requirements for NDT personnel
qualification and certification set forth in parts of the ASME boiler and
pressure vessel code.
All of the above statements are true.
1

9. In practical usage, the recommendation of SNT – TC – 1A :
a.

b.

c.
d.

e.

Conform precisely to the requirements of most manufacturers who have
NDT personnel.
Conform precisely to the requirements of most independent testing
laboratories.
Conform precisely to then requirements of most aircraft manufactures.
Conform precisely to the requirements of most boiler and pressure vessel
manufactures.
Usually require review and modification to satisfy the particulars needs of
any user.

10. With regard to the training of NDT personnel, the employer.
a.
b.

c.
d.

Must conduct all of the training in the premises.
May engage an outside service who must conduct the training on the
employer's premises.
Should not conduct the training, being too close to his own problems.
May engage an outside service but is nevertheless responsible for the
certification of his NDT personnel.

11. Who should be responsible to assess whether of not an individual should be
qualified and certified who dose perform NDT but monitors and evaluates NDT ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

ASNT.
The individual's employer.
The government regulatory agency.
The customer's auditor.
None of the above.

12. Which of the following statements is not true ?
a.
b.

c.

d.

Certification is written testimony of qualification.
Qualification is the skill, training, and experience required for personnel to
properly carry out the duties of a specific job.
The employer is the corporate or private entity which employs personnel
for wages or salary.
Training is a program developed to impart the knowledge and skills
necessary for qualification.

13. To which of the following NDT methods is SNT – TC – 1A currently applicable ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Visual testing.
Holographic testing.
Acoustic emission testing.
Only a & c above.
None of the above.

14. Certification is
a.

b.
c.

d.

The skill, training, and experience required for personnel to properly
perform the duties of a specific job.
Written testimony of qualification.
Intended to be conferred by an organization independent from the
employer.
Independent to be conferred on level III personnel by ASNT only.
2

c. Yes. None of the above are true. which of the following is true for a level – III ? a. According to SNT – TC – 1A. According to written instructions. The material being tested is for a U. navy contract. Only a. level – III. No. The material being tested is for a U. 16. e. The material being tested is for a U. 19. May conduct on the job training and guidance of level – I personnel. As recommended in SNT – TC – 1A. c. Must be capable of and responsible for establishing techniques. the level – I may not sign for test results. provided that the level – I receives detailed verbal instructions from the level – II or III and demonstrates his capability to follow the instructions. a. b. Specific calibrations. level – III. d. apprentice. c. S. Yes. and sign for result of nondestructive tests with occasional supervision and guidance from a level – II or III. S.15. c. level – II. The level – III shall be capable of evaluating test results in terms of codes. Level – I. No. standards. NDT level – I may be qualified to perform a. 18. level – III. All of the above are true. d. evaluate. Use of SNT – TC – 1A is mandatory when a. the level – I may perform the above functions in accordance with written procedures. All of the above are true. Any of the above cases occurs. and specifications. Specific nondestructive tests. 3 . but must be under constant supervision and guidance of a level – I or level – III. c. 20. 17. It is desirable that a level – III be a registered professional engineer. e. the intent in SNT – TC – 1A is that the level – I may perform the above functions provided they are in accordance with written procedures and so documented in the employer written practice. May a level – I independently perform. level – I. d. All of the above. d. c. b. b. e. d. d. Is responsible for the training and examination of level – I personnel for certification. army contract which required certification if NDT personnel. S. level – I. air force contract. The level – III is responsible for establishing all acceptance criteria. a. with the level – I. Specific evaluations. b. It has been specified by the customer. and write reports of test results. and c above. b. A level – III must have successfully completed at least two years of science or engineering study at a college or university. e. level – II. training and guiding trainees. Trainee. level – II. b. The basic levels of qualification recommended by SNT – TC – 1A are. None of the above. b. Trainee. a level – II a.

d. The employer. 23. and II personnel in his organization. Candidates for level – II generally have more formal education than those for level – I. The time recommended for level – II. d. experience and professional credentials. c. What factors are to be considered to ensure that a candidate for certification in NDT has understanding of the principles and procedures involved. An appropriate regulatory authority. Training. The NDT level – III. b. c. Education. All of the above are true. b. The time recommended for level – I. In preparing for qualification at level – I. c. According to SNT – TC – 1A. e. 26. Shall be capable of assisting in establishment of acceptance criteria. experience. Overtime can only considered if the candidate is being qualified in more than one method simultaneously. In some cases. ASNT. Some methods require more initial training at level – I because of differences in complexity and manipulative skills. Shall be capable of establishing techniques and selection of test methods. e. 24. b. experience. d. Overtime can be credited based on total hours. and percentage of time on the job doing NDT. regardless of the NDT method. d. and certification. b. c. In accordance with SNT – TC – 1A. Must train and examine the level – I. a. b. As recommended in SNT – TC – 1A. 4 . The sum of the times recommended for level – I and level – II. SNT – TC – 1A does not currently provide a recommendation regarding overtime. 22. why? a. Overtime cannot be considered in meeting the minimum experience. experience and familiarity with the employer’s product and customer requirements. e.21. Training. For a person being qualified directly to level – II with no time at level – I. which of the following is not true for a level III ? a. c. the training times recommended for level – I are greater than for level – II. he candidate should always receive more training than for level – I. who is responsible for establishing a written practices for the control and administration of NDT personnel training. b. Some numbers in the table are in error. Training.II. Should be familiar with other commonly used NDT methods. and prior certifications held. d. which of the following is true? a. examination. The sum of the times recommended for a trainee level – I and level . 25. experience. d. the recommended experience consists of : a. Training. and education. a. Not less than 6 months for any method. c.

Listed as a function of the candidate’s experience.27. The employer is responsible for certification of : a. d. Listed as a function of the candidate’s education. 30. b. c. c. if they are offered on a regular basis. For periodic approval by ASNT. All of the above. b. 31. The general and practical. c. e. 32. 5 . Level – III personnel only. c. The general and specific. Which of the following parts of level – I. d. Both a & b above. clients and regulatory agencies. b. All of the above. Outside services. An NDT level – III. The general. Of the following personnel. examinations should be written? a. A selected representative of the NDT level – III. d. Level – I. The recommended number of training hours in particular method are a. A plant nurse. c. c. personnel? a. What purpose is best served by maintaining certification records and the written practice? a. A selected representative of the NDT level – III. b. NDT personnel. d. The same regardless of the candidate’s education. d. e. To provide documentation for review by customer. b. Both b & c above. 29. To satisfy requirements of the ASME boiler and pressure vessel codes. All levels of NDT personnel. Which of the following may conduct and grade examinations level – I and level – II. e. An NDT level – III. if so designated by the NDT level – III. which can administer the near distance visual acuity examination using the reading card with Jaeger letters ? a. and level – II. d. Only the general. To determine the effectiveness of outside services. specific and practical. 28. The ASNT. Increased if the candidate is not working full – time in NDT. Reduced if the candidate is being qualified in more than one method simultaneously. b. e. To protect against product liability claims. and level – II.

Once certified to a particular level. 37. c. 36. Surface cracks. c. performance. Can only be used on Aluminum test specimens. d. 6 . Using a hydrometer to measure specific gravity. The capillary force. Have a soapy base. b. 39. 35. b. Sub-Surface cracks. Surface laminations. d. The meniscus test. b. The chemical inertness of the penetrant. Re-examination of a certified individual can be accomplished only after d. Which of the following types of discontinuities will not be detected by the liquid penetrent test method ? a. d. the certified individual terminates employment with the certifying employer. evidence of continuing satisfactory b. 38. Rounded indications. Faint intermittent line. b. A deep crack in PT will frequently appear as a : a. 34. Inspecting corroded surfaces. d. The specific gravity of the penetrant. The viscosity of the penetrant. Water washable liquid penetrants differ from post emulsification penetrants in that water-washable penetrants a. c. Small tight dotted indication. Which of the following statements is true concerning re-certification? Re-certification can be accomplished only by re-examination at least once every three years. The surface is anodized. d. d. Fine linear indication. Do not need the application of emulsifier before development. The parts are painted. The tendency of a liquid penetrant to enter a discontinuity is primarily related to a. certification can only be terminated if c. three gears at a particular level.33. b. c. Re-certification can be based upon. The sensitivity of two penetrants for crack detection is best compared by : a. c. Internal forging bursts. Measuring contact angles in a wetting test. Magnetic particle inspection methods are recognized as superior to liquid penetrant techniques when : a. c. Using cracked aluminum blacks. b. Need not be removed from the test surface prior to development. a. a & c above.

b. d. Encircling coils. c. In Eddy Current testing tubing is generally inspected using : a. Phase discrimination. Integration. c. e. 45. The orientation and shape of the indication. Which of the following methods may be used to improve signal – to noise ratio of an eddy current test system? a. b. c. 7 . Perpendicular to the major plant of the discontinuity. Gap coils. d. b. d. Prod spacing required on average production part types. c. 42. Size of the current cables. In magnetic particle testing the factors which must be considered when interpreting an indication are : The direction of the magnetic field. c. The input current requirements for MT equipment in part depend upon the : a. Circular magnetization. Vector magnetization. Which of the following magnetization techniques is not recommended for magnetic particle testing? a. b.40. Only a & c. Duty cycle required. 44. b. Parallel magnetization. Filtering or differentiation. 90 degrees cut of phase with the current in the coil. b. All of the above. When testing by eddy current method discontinuities will be most easily detected when eddy currents are : a. Longitudinal magnetization. 41. c. Magneto motive force. Electromagnetic induction. d. d. U-shaped coil. Eddy Current testing relies on the principle of : a. None of the above. Shop electrical service. Piezoelectric energy conversion. a. d. d. 46. All of the above. 43. Magnetostriction. Coplanar with the major plane of the discontinuity. c. b. The strength of the leakage field at the indication. Parallel to the major plane of the discontinuity.

b. b. At a fixed frequency. 52. b. d. c. Test coil impedance. A leak that is so small as to be virtually impossible to detect. 51. b. Cold cathode discharge gauge. Conveyer drive. b. Thermal conductivity gauge. Bourdon pressure gauge. c. d. 48. d. c. c. in which of the following materials will the eddy current penetration be greatest? a. c.47. 53. Magnetic flux density. A quantitative test. The helium mass spectrometer detector probe pressure test technique is : a. Hydrogenous material. Bulk pressure gauge. c. A leak that is small enough to be within the acceptance standards and therefore does not have to be repaired. c. To convert neutron energy into ionizing radiation. The best high intensity source of thermal neutrons is : a. Lead. b. An accelerator. 54. Aluminum ( 35% IACS Conductivity ). The mass spectrometer vacuum gauge that used to monitor the pressure during the roughing cycle is called a : a. Neutron attenuation is greatest in which of the following materials? a. d. A semi automatic test. d. A leak from an isolated pocket within a vacuum system. d. Testing frequency. None of the above. Copper ( 95% IACS Conductivity ). Lead ( 7% IACS Conductivity ). A Cf252 source. 8 . b. A qualitative test. A virtual leak is : a. d. b. To increase the exposure time. Brass ( 15% IACS Conductivity ). Neither (a) nor (b). Boron carbide. Water. Both (a) & (b) are reason for using conversion. d. c. In Eddy Current testing. the theoretical maximum testing speed is determined by the : a. A Cf252 source plus a multiplier. 50. A nuclear reactor. 49. Conversion screen are used in neutron radiography : a. Out gassing vapors within a vacuum system.

Small leaks can be tested by which of the following methods. b. 58. d. Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of thermography testing : Surface emissivity of the component under test should be known. Periodic calibration is required. b. 60. a. To detect the de-bond. Liquid nitrogen. Quartz. 57. e. b. Using infrared detectors it is possible : a. c. The sensor used in thermography testing equipment for detecting infrared waves is : a. Helium leak testing and liquid penetrant testing. Placing the snifter probe or gun of a halogen diode leak detector in a stream of pure refrigerant. Is a rough method of checking instrument sensitivity in the absence of a standard leak. Helium leak testing and acoustic emission testing. 59. 56. Will temporarily or permanently contaminate and shorten or end the life of the instrument sensing element. The circular technique. Only (a) & (c). d. To monitor the welding process during welding. None of the above. To detect accurately the type of flaw. c. All of the above. Corrections to be applied for long distance use. All of the above. e. For in-service inspection. a. a. Only (a) & (b). b. Liquid penetrant testing & halogen leak testing. To detect a cluster of porosity which is allowed by the code but not propagating. b. c. The rectangular technique. Barium titan ate. b. In AET the location of the defect is done by : a. c. Acoustic emission testing can be used : a. c. 9 . d. d. Indium antimonite. To find out the hot spot. Triangulation technique. c. 61. Ultrasonic testing and acoustic emission testing. d. c. Enables the operator to simulate background contamination. d.55. Is a method of determining the percentage of halogen compound in the refrigerant. b. To measure the temperature. d.

Ruby laser. 16 – 32 microns. CO2.62. Planck’s law. e. H2O. c. Intensity. c. 2 – 5. d. 68. None of the above. which attenuates IR maximum. Only a & b. b. phase and echo. It is non contact and presents an instantaneous view of the entire field covered. Neodymium laser. a. It can be used for HV voltage lines. It is fast and safe. e. All of the above. d. O2. Wein’s law. c. a. d. c. c. c. Transmit time only. b. AR and O2. The wavelength of infrared radiation from a body can be determined. Planck’s law. Infrared measurements for NDT are normally carried out in the wavelength region. H2O. N2. d. 64. Wein’s law. a. Stefan boatzman relation. d. d. Varies from one site to another. 10 . transmit time. 63. H2O and UV. Less wear and tear. None of the above. b. All of the above. e. 66. All of the above. a. N2. d. 67. b. In optical holography the light source used in : a.6 microns. The main advantage theromgraphy over other contact temperature measurements methods is : a. c. The main absorbing molecules in the atmosphere. b. Intensity and phase. e. 8 – 14 microns. The total radiant power emitted by a black body can be obtained from : a. O2. N2. b. the measured variables are : Intensity only. In acoustic holography. O2. a & c above. H2 and CO2. Helium – neon laser. Stefan broltzman relation. 65. b.

Decreases if frequency is increased and crystal diameter is decreased. a. d. A lower frequency search unit and a less viscous couplant than is used on parts with a smooth surface. Free field. Both transmitter and receiver. b. b. Irregular Zone.25 mHz. Decreases if frequency or crystal diameter is decreases. c. 70. d. Coarse grain structure. When using a part with a rough surface. 11 . d. Irrelevant or false indications from contoured surfaces are likely to result in a : a. b. d. c. 10 mHz. Beam divergence is a function of the dimensions of the crystal and the wavelength of the beam transmitted through medium and : a. Peaked indication. Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest ultrasonic attenuation losses? a. d.0 mHz.69. b. 74. Receivers only. c. Near Zone. b. Higher frequency search unit and a more viscous couplant than is used on parts with a smooth surface. Far Zone. zone A is called the : a. 25 mHz. Increased if frequency or crystal diameter is decreases. c. A lower frequency search unit and a less viscous couplant than is used on parts with a smooth surface. Single transducers are: a. 75. In the adjacent figure. d. c. 72. 73. Ultrasonic testing of castings is often not possible because of : a. c. it is generally advisable to use : a. Narrow – based indication. b and c. 71. Transmitters only. 1. c. b. 2. “Hashy” signal. rough surfaces. d. Irregular shape. Increased if frequency is increased and crystal diameter is decreased. Small grain structure. Broad – based indication. b. A lower frequency search unit and more viscous couplant than is used on parts with a smooth surface.

35 millimeters. b. An ultrasonic longitudinal wave travels in aluminum with a velocity of 635. Use through transmission testing. 12 . All of the above. 30. d. Being more accurate than the film badge. b. c. Which may or may not be heard by human ear. b. d. None of the above. b. Too high to be heard by human ear. 80. c. 78.000cm/sec and has a frequency of one megacycle. Exclude air in between the transducer and test specimen. b. b. In SI units the unit used to measure radiation absorption by humans is : a. Dampen the transducer vibrations to avoid possible damage to a test specimen. Which can be heard in the audible range only. c.76.000 angstrom units. d. Use the lowest frequency possible. 6. b. Radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of the time spent near the focal spot. The inverse square law as applied to radiation protection states that : a. Providing a permanent record of radiation exposure. 3.35 feet. Roentgen. Lubricate the transducer and facilitate scanning. 82. d. d. The wavelength of this ultrasonic wave is : a. c. Accelerate the passage of sound through a test specimen. c. Use a small transducer. Ultrasonic sound is usually described as sound : a. Gray. Radiation intensity varies proportionally with distance from the focal spot. d. Becquerel. 81. Use the highest frequency possible. d. Radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of distance from the focal spot. c. Rem. The pocket dosimeter has the advantage of : a. Providing an immediate indication of radiation exposure. A couplant is used in Ultrasonic testing to : a.10 inches. 79. 77. In order to find the smallest discontinuities during a test : a. 6. c. Too low to be heard by human ear.

What is the one requirement that every radiographic film base must have ? a. Both (a) & (b) above. 90. The national bureau of standards. The quantity of radiation. 89. The term “fog level” refers to : a. discontinuities can be c. 85.83. c. d. d. d. b. Quality of the radiographic technique. Fracture mechanics testing. Size of a discontinuity in the part. The tube current applied to an X – Ray unit controls : a. Radiographic contrast. d. Theoretical analysis. Which of the following statements best differentiates between a defect and a discontinuity? Discontinuities can propagate and become defects. The penetrating power of the radiation. A lead foil screen acts as an intensifying screen because of the : a. Short wave length radiation absorbed by the screen. d. The density in an unexposed area of film after development. Material properties as used in design are most frequently determined by : a. Elimination of back scatter generated by the floor. Assuring absence of faults or defects that could cause a part to fail. c. The focal spot size. An image quality indicator is used to determine the : a. The density of an area of radiographic film accidentally exposed to light. Decreased photographic action on the film. 88. b. All of the above. flaws originating from errors in processing. harmless. Flexibility. b. None of the above. c. Discontinuities are external natural boundaries only: defects are internal d. c. b. All defects will lead to failure if undetected. 84. a. Fine grains. d. Identification and sorting of material. All discontinuities are defects. b. Material testing. d. Which of the following describes a function of NDT? a. Toughness. b. Density of the film. Electrons emitted from film side of the screen. c. c. b. c. Identification of material properties. 13 . The level of smoke in the atmosphere. 87. b. 86. Transparency.

Which of the following is true relative to the comparison of the properties of aluminum-based alloys and iron based alloys ? Iron has lower melting point than aluminum. and its properties can be controlled by heat treatment. 95. Indirect tests. a. b. Accurately measuring the tensile strength of design materials providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist in a material. point B is called the: a. It may be required by codes and specification. Proof tests. All of the above. d. Predicting the time it will take a given size discontinuity to grow to a critical size. 14 . deformation type of manufacturing process. Destructive tests. b. Even at the early stages of product planning.91. b. c. 92. NDT can assist in fracture control by : a. Iron is preferred in load carrying designs. b. Tensile tests are conducted on specimens from a newly developed alloy in order to determine the ultimate tensile strength of the material. That all flaws are detected by NDT or proof testing before the component enters service. 96. Elastic limit. Iron can exist in several different crystalline structures. Providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist in a material. Physical properties. e. d. Is the use of large factor of safety? Is the use of a value of strength that the material used in the design is presumed to possess? The need to assure that unexpected flaws of some critical size are not present when the component enters service. 93. d. but it should not be used for any c. All of the above. nondestructive testing should be considered because : a. b. An important basis for the success of fracture control design procedures is : a. 94. All of the above are important. All of the above. On the diagram below. d. c. Elastic range. Modulus of elasticity. d. b. d. c. The material selected should be compatible with a NDT technique that can accurately evaluate the product. Such tests are referred to as: a. c. Yield point. The design of the part should permit easy access to critical areas for later inspection. If properly utilized. c.

Recrystallization. 99. C – D. Age hardening. Lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid metallic structure. Determine percent elongation of a material before it is placed in service. c. b. The modulus of elasticity. a. d. E – F. The terms “precipitation hardening” and “solution heat treatment” are often used interchangeably with the term a. c. d. Measure the endurance limit of a part undergoing cyclic stresses. 103. Work hardening. Age hardening. or young’s modulus. B – C. 101. D – E. Approximate equilibrium heat-treatment processes. is measure of the material’s relative : Tensile strength. Verify the cyclic loading on a component part. b. b. b. normalizing and spheroidizing are a. d. The terms “body-centered cubic”. This effect is called. Resistance to stress. Detect surface discontinuities that could be stress risers. Change in a metallic structure as it undergoes plastic deformation. 102. d. d. d. b. Stiffness. e. a. c. Work hardening. c. which of the following ranges indicate the effect of workhardening (to its maximum) caused by plastic flow of the material during a tensile load? a. d. “face-centered cubic”. Yield strength. Annealing. e. Twinning. c. Processes called austenitizing. c. In the preceding figure. Sequence of crystalline growth in typical mild steel. A fatigue failure can often be prevented by utilizing NDT to : a. b. Plasticizing. Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. 98. and “hexagonal close-packed” all refer to the : a. c. Performed only on non-ferrous metals. Different size grains that can exist at the same time in a metallic structure. Recrystallization. Cold-working processes. A – B. Plastic deformation. Age-hardening processes.97. e. 15 . b. e. Compressive strength. annealing. 100.

Decrease hardness. 0. d. Increase ductility. All of the above. c. An undesirable by-product of steel-making processes is : Coke. 109. Low carbon steel contains approximately : 111.6 % to 2.2 %. 105. All of the above. Relieve stress. The reduction of iron are by mixing with coke. d. this is called: a. a. b. b. An electric furnace. Between 2 and 3 %. Magnetic particle testing. b. the highest quality of steel is produced in : a. d. 0. A blast furnace. 108. d. Typically. e. Low alloy steel. c. 5 % to 16 % carbon. d. b. Tempering. When a steel has been quench-hardened and is reheated to some point below the lower transformation temperature for the purpose of reducing brittleness.25 % carbon. a. Immersion ultrasonic testing. d. Slag. d. 106. c. Austenitization. c. An NDT method that has the ability to measure changes in electrical conductivity caused by the effects of heat treatment is : a. Low carbon steel. e. 0. 110. a. Both (a) and (b) above. c. An open-hearth furnace. A bessemer converter. Annealing is usually performed to: a. Eddy current testing. 107. b. b. Thermal slip deformation.06 to 0. A basic oxygen furnace. c. c. Acoustic emission testing. limestone. What percentage of carbon is found in steel? Between 3 and 4 %.5 % carbon. Allotropic change. A bessermer furnace. Less than 0.06 % carbon. An open-hearth furnace. c. b.104.5 % to 1. Less than 2 %. and oxygen for combustion of the coke is accomplished in : a. A basic oxygen furnace. 16 . b. d.

d. Steel alloys. low density. d. d. 116. Magnesium alloys. c. Nickel. Nickel alloys. None of the above are true. 117. Wright Iron. as a group. Brass and bronze are alloys of zink tin. Based on the ratio of strength – to weight : a. b. Copper alloys. and a large percentage of : a. 118. The metal cools at a constant rate. c. Molten metal boiling because of superheat. e. Turbulent flow of the molten metal during pouring. c. Plastics. b. 17 . Magnesium. thus providing fine equiaxed grains throughout. Which of the following is true regarding solidification of molten metal in a casting mold ? a. c. b. Low alloy steels. Tungsten. Cooling takes place in phases having different rates that produce different types of grain structure in different sections of the casting. Nonferrous steels. A high strength. beginning at the interior of the casting and progressing outward. corrosion resistant metal alloy of significance in the aircraft. 114. c. b. are superior in strength to most ferrous metals. Alloy element segregation. Stainless steels. Aluminum alloys.112. Monel and Inconel are: a. Zinc. b. Some plastic. Solidification occurs at a constant rate. Beryllium. Copper. c. and chemical processing industries is : a. including nylon. 115. Lead. b. c. may have strengths greater than some steels. Titanium. d. 113. Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively high percentages of nickel and chromium are called: a. d. marine. b. Large voids or porosity in a casting results from : a. d. Thick sections tend to cool more rapidly than thin sections consist mostly of fine equiaxed grains. To plastic materials can compare with metals.

The term used to describe a discontinuity in a casting that occurs when molten metal interfaces with already solidified metal with failure to fuse at the interface is : a. 124. c. Cold shut. d. Hot tear. Gas metal arc welding. Which heat treatment method is often used following welding ? a. b. c. Spheroidizing. Accelerated corrosion at high temperature. b. Improper selection in the weld. c. d. d. Blow casting. Core casting. Gas evolution before and during solidification. Which of the following welding processes uses a non-consumables elecrodes with the arc maintained in an atmosphere of inert gas : a. c. d. Excessive residual stresses. Lack of fusion. b. Argon. Extrusions. Normalizing. 121. helium and carbon dioxide. d. Segregation. A casting process used to produce hollow products like large pipes and hollow shafts is : a. 122. 18 . After welding. Forgings. 125. Metallurgical effects in a weld. many steel weldments are heat treated to obtain more uniform properties between the weld and base metal and to relieve stress. Which of the following gases are most frequently used as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere in the vicinity of the weld ? a. Submerged arc welding. Martensitic. Gas tungsten arc welding. Central fungal casting. Scattered porosity in the weld. such as grain size variation and shrinkage. 119. Welds and weldments have been known to develop cracks long after cooling but prior to being used in service what is the principal cause for such cracks ? a. Investment casting. Tempering. are similar to those that occur in : a. Castings. c. b. Electroslag welding. c. 123. d. 120. b.d. b. Central casting.

Hot-rolled aluminum plate. d. Hot working materials must be cold worked before they can be used. Hot-rolled steel plate. Cold-rolled steel plate. The mill working process performed principally on flat products and bars that improves hardness. Hot rolling. e. b. d. c. and hydrogen. Forging. b. b. Cold rolling. and helium. nitrogen. c. e. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three types ? a. Ultrasonic inspection. The three different shapes produced during typical cold rolling operations. d. Hot working usually follows a cold working. Lower strength than their cast counterparts. deep. d. Longitudinal. strength. c. Gray cast iron. 132. Longitudinal. Which of the following would have least ductility ? a. and intermittent. and oxygen. High susceptibility to corrosion. Hot working must be followed by heat treatment. b. The shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a variety of secondary operations. d. transverse and oxygen. Visual inspection. Shallow. 126. surface finish and dimensional accuracy is : a.Which of the following statements is true concerning deformation processes ? a. Poor weldability. Poor surface finishes unless machined. 131. Wrought products invariably exhibit. c. d. Cold working usually follows hot working. c. b. A nondestructive testing technique best suited to locating discontinuities caused by inclusions rolled into steel plate is : a. Directional properties. a. The three consecutive stages that the metal goes through during the production of products such as angle iron and channel iron. through and oblique. c. laminar and intermittent. b. Cold working renders brittle materials more ductile. 128. Sulphur dioxide. Magnetic particle inspection. c. tritium. 129. b. Radiographic inspection. 19 . argon. Laminar. Types of defects that occurs during the hot rolling of steel. d. Slabs blooms and billets are: a. Argon. 127. Neon.b. 130. c.

the other is to: a. None of the above. Plasma arc welding. Casting. A welding process that is most frequently carried out in a vacuum chamber is: a. d. 135. Pressing. b. d. b. 134. Sintering. e. c. Friction welding. Produce metals that can be easily machined by electro chemical processes. Produce metal shapes with controlled porosity. Extrusion. 133. Extrusion. Produce metals that are corrosion resistant.d. d. Powder metallurgy provides two unique advantages in metals processing. Most steel pipe is produced by forming and : a. One is the capability to product shapes and objects of refractory metals that are extremely difficult or impractical to melt. Economical produce metals with extremely low melting temperatures. Electron-beam welding. Drawing. c. c. e. e. Welding. Electroslag welding. b. 20 .