Professional Documents
Culture Documents
PAPER NO INDTT/BASIC/01
TIME-4 HOURS
1. SNT TC 1A is
a. A specification.
b. A recommended practice.
c. A mandatory requirement. d. ASNT's written practice.
2. Which one of the following is the use of SNT TC 1A.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Will be helpful in solving the dispute between the customer and the
supplier.
Will be helpful in establishing the acceptance standard for a product.
To get the concurrence of any company's written practice.
Will clarify the questions relating to the document.
Only c & d.
4. Level III certification through examination was introduced by ASNT only after the
year.
a.
1975.
b.1968.
c. 1970.
d. 1984.
e. 1980.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The definition of outside agency is given in this only and not in the 2 nd
revision ( 1980 out side agency provision is provided ).
Eddy current testing is renamed as Electromagnetic testing.
Re-certification duration is changed for level III from 3 years to 5 years.
a & c only.
All of the above.
b. Level II only.
d. For all the three levels.
b.
c.
d.
e.
ASNT has been providing certification examination for level III personnel
since the late 1960's.
SNT - TC 1A was first published in the late 1960's.
SNT TC 1A requires that level III personnel be qualified and certified
by ASNT.
SNT TC 1A was developed to satisfy requirements for NDT personnel
qualification and certification set forth in parts of the ASME boiler and
pressure vessel code.
All of the above statements are true.
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b.
c.
d.
e.
c.
d.
ASNT.
The individual's employer.
The government regulatory agency.
The customer's auditor.
None of the above.
c.
d.
Visual testing.
Holographic testing.
Acoustic emission testing.
Only a & c above.
None of the above.
14. Certification is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Specific calibrations.
Specific nondestructive tests.
Specific evaluations.
All of the above, and write reports of test results.
Only a, b, and c above.
18. May a level I independently perform, evaluate, and sign for result of
nondestructive tests with occasional supervision and guidance from a level II
or III.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Yes, the intent in SNT TC 1A is that the level I may perform the
above functions provided they are in accordance with written procedures
and so documented in the employer written practice.
No, the level I may perform the above functions in accordance with
written procedures, but must be under constant supervision and guidance
of a level I or level III.
No, the level I may not sign for test results.
Yes, provided that the level I receives detailed verbal instructions from
the level II or III and demonstrates his capability to follow the
instructions.
b.
c.
d.
e.
May conduct on the job training and guidance of level I personnel, with
the level I, training and guiding trainees.
Is responsible for the training and examination of level I personnel for
certification.
Must be capable of and responsible for establishing techniques.
All of the above are true.
None of the above are true.
20. According to SNT TC 1A, which of the following is true for a level III ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
21. According to SNT TC 1A, which of the following is not true for a level III ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
22. In accordance with SNT TC 1A, who is responsible for establishing a written
practices for the control and administration of NDT personnel training,
examination, and certification.
a.
b.
c.
d.
23. What factors are to be considered to ensure that a candidate for certification in
NDT has understanding of the principles and procedures involved.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
c.
d.
25. For a person being qualified directly to level II with no time at level I, the
recommended experience consists of :
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
26. In some cases, the training times recommended for level I are greater than for
level II, why?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
28. Which of the following may conduct and grade examinations level I and level
II, personnel?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
29. Of the following personnel, which can administer the near distance visual acuity
examination using the reading card with Jaeger letters ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
30. Which of the following parts of level I, and level II, examinations should be
written?
a.
b.
c.
d.
32. What purpose is best served by maintaining certification records and the written
practice?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Surface laminations.
Internal forging bursts.
Surface cracks.
Sub-Surface cracks.
35. Water washable liquid penetrants differ from post emulsification penetrants in
that water-washable penetrants
a.
b.
c.
d.
38. The sensitivity of two penetrants for crack detection is best compared by :
a.
b.
c.
d.
40. In magnetic particle testing the factors which must be considered when
interpreting an indication are :
The direction of the magnetic field.
The strength of the leakage field at the indication.
The orientation and shape of the indication.
c.
All of the above.
d.
Only a & c.
e.
41. Which of the following magnetization techniques is not recommended for
magnetic particle testing?
a.
b.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Longitudinal magnetization.
Circular magnetization.
Vector magnetization.
Parallel magnetization.
42. The input current requirements for MT equipment in part depend upon the :
a.
b.
c.
d.
43. When testing by eddy current method discontinuities will be most easily detected
when eddy currents are :
a.
b.
c.
d.
U-shaped coil.
Gap coils.
Encircling coils.
None of the above.
Magnetostriction.
Electromagnetic induction.
Piezoelectric energy conversion.
Magneto motive force.
46. Which of the following methods may be used to improve signal to noise ratio of
an eddy current test system?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Filtering or differentiation.
Phase discrimination.
Integration.
All of the above.
47. At a fixed frequency, in which of the following materials will the eddy current
penetration be greatest?
a.
b.
c.
d.
48. In Eddy Current testing, the theoretical maximum testing speed is determined by
the :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hydrogenous material.
Water.
Lead.
Boron carbide.
A Cf252 source.
An accelerator.
A nuclear reactor.
A Cf252 source plus a multiplier.
52. The helium mass spectrometer detector probe pressure test technique is :
a.
b.
c.
d.
A quantitative test.
A qualitative test.
A semi automatic test.
None of the above.
53. The mass spectrometer vacuum gauge that used to monitor the pressure during
the roughing cycle is called a :
a.
b.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
Triangulation technique.
The rectangular technique.
The circular technique.
None of the above.
56. Placing the snifter probe or gun of a halogen diode leak detector in a stream of
pure refrigerant.
a.
b.
c.
d.
c.
d.
e.
60. Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of thermography testing :
Surface emissivity of the component under test should be known.
Corrections to be applied for long distance use.
b.
Periodic calibration is required.
c.
All of the above.
d.
61. The sensor used in thermography testing equipment for detecting infrared
waves is :
a.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Quartz.
Liquid nitrogen.
Indium antimonite.
Barium titan ate.
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62. The total radiant power emitted by a black body can be obtained from :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Plancks law.
Stefan boatzman relation.
Weins law.
None of the above.
Plancks law.
Stefan broltzman relation.
Weins law.
All of the above.
None of the above.
64. Infrared measurements for NDT are normally carried out in the wavelength
region.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
2 5.6 microns.
8 14 microns.
16 32 microns.
a & c above.
All of the above.
c.
d.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Transmitters only.
Receivers only.
Both transmitter and receiver.
a, b and c.
Near Zone.
Far Zone.
Irregular Zone.
Free field.
rough surfaces.
Small grain structure.
Coarse grain structure.
Irregular shape.
72. Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest
ultrasonic attenuation losses?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1.0 mHz.
2.25 mHz.
10 mHz.
25 mHz.
73. Beam divergence is a function of the dimensions of the crystal and the
wavelength of the beam transmitted through medium and :
a.
b.
c.
d.
74. When using a part with a rough surface, it is generally advisable to use :
a.
b.
c.
d.
A lower frequency search unit and more viscous couplant than is used on
parts with a smooth surface.
Higher frequency search unit and a more viscous couplant than is used
on parts with a smooth surface.
A lower frequency search unit and a less viscous couplant than is used
on parts with a smooth surface.
A lower frequency search unit and a less viscous couplant than is used
on parts with a smooth surface.
75. Irrelevant or false indications from contoured surfaces are likely to result in a :
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.35 feet.
3.10 inches.
6.35 millimeters.
30,000 angstrom units.
Gray.
Rem.
Roentgen.
Becquerel.
82. The inverse square law as applied to radiation protection states that :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of the time spent near
the focal spot.
Radiation intensity varies proportionally with distance from the focal spot.
Radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of distance from the
focal spot.
None of the above.
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83. What is the one requirement that every radiographic film base must have ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Flexibility.
Transparency.
Toughness.
Fine grains.
88. Which of the following statements best differentiates between a defect and a
discontinuity?
Discontinuities can propagate and become defects.
All discontinuities are defects.
b.
All defects will lead to failure if undetected; discontinuities can be
c.
harmless.
Discontinuities are external natural boundaries only: defects are internal
d.
flaws originating from errors in processing.
89. Which of the following describes a function of NDT?
a.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Theoretical analysis.
Material testing.
The national bureau of standards.
Fracture mechanics testing.
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91. An important basis for the success of fracture control design procedures is :
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
That all flaws are detected by NDT or proof testing before the component
enters service.
Is the use of large factor of safety?
Is the use of a value of strength that the material used in the design is
presumed to possess?
The need to assure that unexpected flaws of some critical size are not
present when the component enters service.
All of the above.
b.
c.
d.
93. Even at the early stages of product planning, nondestructive testing should be
considered because :
a.
b.
c.
d.
94. Which of the following is true relative to the comparison of the properties of
aluminum-based alloys and iron based alloys ?
Iron has lower melting point than aluminum.
Iron can exist in several different crystalline structures, and its properties
can be controlled by heat treatment.
Iron is preferred in load carrying designs, but it should not be used for any
c.
deformation type of manufacturing process.
All of the above.
d.
95. Tensile tests are conducted on specimens from a newly developed alloy in order
to determine the ultimate tensile strength of the material. Such tests are referred
to as:
a.
b.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Indirect tests.
Physical properties.
Destructive tests.
Proof tests.
Elastic range.
Elastic limit.
Yield point.
Modulus of elasticity.
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97. In the preceding figure, which of the following ranges indicate the effect of workhardening (to its maximum) caused by plastic flow of the material during a
tensile load?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A B.
B C.
C D.
D E.
E F.
b.
a.
b.
c.
d.
100. Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond
the elastic limit. This effect is called.
Twinning.
c. Work hardening.
e. Age hardening.
a.
b. Plastic deformation.
d. Recrystallization.
b.
c.
d.
102.
Different size grains that can exist at the same time in a metallic
structure.
Sequence of crystalline growth in typical mild steel.
Lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid metallic structure.
Change in a metallic structure as it undergoes plastic deformation.
103. The terms precipitation hardening and solution heat treatment are often
used interchangeably with the term
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Age hardening.
Recrystallization.
Annealing.
Work hardening.
Plasticizing.
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104. An NDT method that has the ability to measure changes in electrical
conductivity caused by the effects of heat treatment is :
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
105. When a steel has been quench-hardened and is reheated to some point
below the lower transformation temperature for the purpose of reducing
brittleness, this is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
106.
Austenitization.
Thermal slip deformation.
Allotropic change.
Tempering.
Decrease hardness.
Increase ductility.
Relieve stress.
Both (a) and (b) above.
All of the above.
107. The reduction of iron are by mixing with coke, limestone, and oxygen for
combustion of the coke is accomplished in :
a.
b.
c.
d.
108.
A blast furnace.
An open-hearth furnace.
A bessemer converter.
A basic oxygen furnace.
An electric furnace.
An open-hearth furnace.
A bessermer furnace.
A basic oxygen furnace.
109.
110.
111.
a.
b.
c.
d.
113.
Brass and bronze are alloys of zink tin, and a large percentage of :
a.
b.
c.
d.
114.
Wright Iron.
Low alloy steels.
Stainless steels.
Nonferrous steels.
Beryllium.
Copper.
Lead.
Nickel.
Nickel alloys.
Steel alloys.
Magnesium alloys.
Aluminum alloys.
Copper alloys.
115. A high strength, low density, corrosion resistant metal alloy of significance in
the aircraft, marine, and chemical processing industries is :
a.
b.
c.
d.
116.
Tungsten.
Zinc.
Titanium.
Magnesium.
c.
d.
b.
c.
d.
118.
The metal cools at a constant rate, thus providing fine equiaxed grains
throughout.
Cooling takes place in phases having different rates that produce different
types of grain structure in different sections of the casting.
Solidification occurs at a constant rate, beginning at the interior of the
casting and progressing outward.
Thick sections tend to cool more rapidly than thin sections consist mostly
of fine equiaxed grains.
d.
119. The term used to describe a discontinuity in a casting that occurs when molten
metal interfaces with already solidified metal with failure to fuse at the interface
is :
a. Hot tear.
b. Cold shut.
c. Lack of fusion.
d. Segregation.
120. A casting process used to produce hollow products like large pipes
and hollow shafts is :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Investment casting.
Blow casting.
Core casting.
Central casting.
Forgings.
Castings.
Extrusions.
Central fungal casting.
122. After welding, many steel weldments are heat treated to obtain more
uniform properties between the weld and base metal and to relieve
stress. Which heat treatment method is often used following
welding ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tempering.
Martensitic.
Normalizing.
Spheroidizing.
123. Welds and weldments have been known to develop cracks long after
cooling but prior to being used in service what is the principal cause
for such cracks ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
125. Which of the following gases are most frequently used as shielding
to provide an inert atmosphere in the vicinity of the weld ?
a. Argon, helium and carbon dioxide.
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Radiographic inspection.
Ultrasonic inspection.
Visual inspection.
Magnetic particle inspection.
d. Extrusion.
e. Sintering.
Drawing.
Welding.
Extrusion.
Casting.
Pressing.
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