Professional Documents
Culture Documents
INTERNAL MEDICINE
2005
Name________________________________________
Score__________
A. Write the best answer in the space provided before each number.
_____1. Among the viruses associated with causing bronchiectasis, choose the main
ones:
A. Coxsackie virus
B. Arena virus
C. Influenza Virus
D. Parvo virus
_____2. In patients with hospital acquired pneumonia, the following organisms are
commonly found in the ICU except:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Acinetobacter spp.
D. Hemophilus influenzae
_____3. In patients with asbestosis, smoking greatly increases the incidence of
A. Lung Cancer
B. Mesothelioma
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. A and C
_____4. In the treatment of asthma, the following are classified as leukotriene
modifiers except:
A. Montelukast
B. Nedocromil
C. Zileuton
D. Zafirlukast
_____5. In evaluating a possible lesion on chest xray, which of the following
radiologic procedure will give the best information.
A. Magnetic resonance imaging
B. CT scan with contrast
C. Ultrasound of the thoracic area
D. Radionuclide scanning
_____24. Patient was complaining of reducing urine output after he started taking
rifampicin and isoniazid for pulmonary tuberculosis. The lab test shows normal sgpt
but creatinine is 3.5mg/dl (baseline of 1.0mg/dl at start of treatment). Urinalysis shows
eosinophilia with WBC cast. What is the expected etiology of the renal failure?
A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Acute Glomerulonephritis
C. Acute Interstitial nephritis
D. Acute Vascular thromobosis
APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 5
_____25. Which of the following post transplant malignancy is/are common?
A. Lung cancer
B. Breast Cancer
C. Colon cancer
D. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
_____26. Which of the following physical findings suggest left ventricular heart
failure?
A. Pulsus paradoxus
B. Pulsus alternans
C. Bisferiens pulse
D. Pulsus tardus
_____27. Which of the following statement is true of right bundle bunch block?
A. Only occur in pathologic conditions, that is in coronary artery disease.
B. May occur in subjects without structural heart conditions
C. May occur in patients with atrial septal defect
D. B and C
_____28. Which of the following imaging procedures is best to detect hibernating
myocardium
A. Thallium 201 stress testing
B. Adenosine stress echo
C. Positron emission tomography with flurodeoxyglucose
D. Technetium 99m nuclear imaging
_____29. In patients with severe knee osteoarthritis and chronic obstructive lung
disease, the best way to test for myocardial ischemia is to do:
A. Adenosine stress echo
B. Dipyridamole stress echo
C. Dobutamine stress echo
A.
B.
C.
D.
_____ 36. In a patient presenting with upper respiratory tract infection, the sudden
onset of chest pain with pericardial friction rub and heart failure is usually due to:
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Herpesviruses
C. Coxsackievirus
D. Measles virus
A. Tinea Versicolor
B. Vitiligo
C. Nevus Depigmentosus
D. All of the above
_____48. Nikolskys sign which is separation of the epidermis is seen in:
A. Pemphigus Vulgaris
B. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
C. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
D. All of the above
_____49. Tissue and blood eosinophilia are prominent features of:
A. Wegeners Granulomatosis
B. Allergic Granulomatosis
C. Polyarteritis Nodosa
D. Lymphomatoid Granulomatosis
C. 30 y.o male with anemia, leucopenia, casts in the urine, decreased C3, headache,
pleural effusion
D. 42 y.o female with skin rash, photosensitivity, anemia, fatigue
_____60. HLA B-27 is associated with what condition?
A. Ankylosing Spondylitis
B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
C. Sjogrens syndrome
D. Scleroderma
_____61. The most life threatening side effect of cytotoxic chemotherapy is
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Leucopenia
C. Alopecia
D. Mucositis
_____62. The following are goals of cancer treatment except:
A. To cure or control the disease whenever possible
B. To palliate symptoms in advanced disease
C. To increase over-all survival in terminally ill patients
D. To ensure that minimal functional impairment results from treatment
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. None of the above
_____71. In a patient with hepatic cirrhosis, hepatic encephalopathy can be
precipitated by all of the following except:
A. Gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Infection
D. Vomiting
_____72. Which of the following drug used for treating peptic ulcer disease should be
avoided in patients with renal failure
A. Sucralfate
B. Famotidine
C. Aluminum Hydroxide-Magnesium Hydroxide antacid
D. A and C
_____73. What can be said of type A gastric ulcer?
A. Also called autoimmune gastritis
B. Associated with Helicobacter Pylori infection
C. Associated with pernicious anemia
D. A and C
_____74. The most common organism isolated from the ascitic fluid of patients with
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia Coli
D. Bacteroides Fragilis
_____88. The most reliable thyroid function test for diagnosing primary hypothyroidism:
A. Thyrotropin
B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
C. Free T4
D. Thyroid Scan
_____89. Clinical Feature of Conns disease:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Metabolic Alkalosis
C. Hyponatremia
D. Alternating Hypotension-Hypertension
_____90. If a young female patient is amerorrheic with galactorrhea, complaining of
slight visual problems, the blood test to check is:
A. LH, FSH
B. Prolactin
C. Dopamine
D. Estradiol
_____91. You suspect a patient to have acromegaly. To screen for this problem you
check:
A. IGF 1 level
B. Random Growth Hormone
C. TSH and T4 levels
D. serum ACTH level
_____92. A patient presents with polyuria and polydipsia. Serum sodium is 145 meq/l
with a dilute urine with specific gravity of 1.005. Patient has normal response to water
deprivation without any response to exogenous AVP (vasopressin). The condition is
consistent with:
A. Dipsogenic diabetes insipidus
B. Central diabetes insipidus
C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
D. SIADH
_____93. A 45 y.o. male presents with infertility. On examination he was noted to have
small firm testes and gynecomastia. The following statements is true of the above
condition:
A. Most likely due to a secondary cause like pituitary gland trauma
B. Rule out possibility of exogenous estrogen intake
C. basic defect is a chromosomal abnormality= 47 XXY
D. Biochemical tests will reveal: low testosterone and low LH/FSH levels
Answer Key:
1. C
2. D
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. D
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. D
18. C
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. C
23. C
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. D
28. C
29. C
30. D
31. D
32. D
33. D
34. C
35. D
36. C
37. A
38. D
39. A
40. C
41. D
42. D
43. A
44. D
45. A
46. A
47. D
48. D
49. B
50. D
51. B
52. D
53. C
54. D
55. D
56. C
57. A
58. A
59. A
60. A
61. B
62. B
63. A
64. D
65. B
66. C
67. B
68. D
69. C
70. A
71. B
72. D
73. D
74. C
75. B
76. D
77. D
78. B
79. A
80. C
81. D
82. C
83. D
84. A
85. D
86. D
87. D
88. B
89. B
90. B
91. A
92. A
93. C
94. B
95. D
96. B
97. D
98. A
99. D
100. D
MPL:
1. 65%
2. 70%
3. 80%
4. 90%
5. 75%
6. 90%
7. 70%
8. 75%
9. 70%
10. 80%
11. 80%
12. 90%
13. 85%
14. 80%
15. 60%
16. 85%
17. 75%
18. 95%
19. 60%
20. 70%
21. 65%
22. 75%
23. 75%
24. 65%
25. 60%
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
80%
60%
65%
60%
60%
50%
50%
50%
55%
75%
70%
95%
85%
90%
65%
60%
100%
80%
65%
85%
70%
70%
65%
70%
70%
51.
52,
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
85%
65%
75%
75%
90%
65%
60%
60%
85%
85%
80%
70%
60%
40%
40%
50%
65%
90%
60%
65%
75%
45%
70%
85%
60%
76. 60%
77. 40%
78. 65%
79. 70%
80. 75%
81. 40%
82. 50%
83. 60%
84. 50%
85. 40%
86. 55%
87. 60%
88. 75%
89. 70%
90. 65%
91. 65%
92. 50%
93. 75%
94. 65%
95. 80%
96. 65%
97. 80%
98. 60%
99. 65%
100. 65%
Blueprint:
A. Percentage by subject:
1. Pulmonary - 10%
2. Neurology - 5%
3. Nephrology - 10%
4. Cardiology - 10%
5. Infectious Diseases 10%
6. Dermatology - 5%
7. Rheumatology 10%
8. Oncology 5%
9. Hematology 5%
10. Gastroenterology 10%
11. Allergy/Immunology 5%
12. Endocrinology 10%
13. Psychiatry 5%
B. Types of Questions:
1. Recall
- 52 %
2. Analysis
- 42 %
3. Case/Problem Solving - 6 %