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0452
Cambridge Secondary 2
0452
Cambridge International Examinations retains the copyright on all its publications. Registered Centres are
permitted to copy material from this booklet for their own internal use. However, we cannot give permission
to Centres to photocopy any material that is acknowledged to a third party even for internal use within a
Centre.
University of Cambridge International Examinations 2011
Cambridge IGCSE
Accounting
Syllabus code 0452
Contents
Introduction .......................................................................................................................... 2
Assessment at a glance ....................................................................................................... 3
Paper 1 ................................................................................................................................. 4
Paper 2 ............................................................................................................................... 47
INTRODUCTION
The main aim of this booklet is to exemplify standards for those teaching Cambridge IGCSE Accounting
(0452), and to show how different levels of candidates performance relate to the subjects curriculum and
assessment objectives.
In this booklet a range of candidate responses has been chosen as far as possible to exemplify grades
A, C and E. Each response/script is accompanied by a brief commentary explaining the strengths and
weaknesses of the answers.
For ease of reference the following format for each paper of the subject has been adopted:
Mark scheme
Example candidate
response
Examiner comment
The mark scheme used by examiners is followed by a grade A, grade C and grade E example candidate
response, each with an examiner comment on performance. Comments are given to indicate where and
why marks were awarded, and how additional marks could have been obtained. In this way, it is possible to
understand what candidates have done to gain their marks and what they still have to do to improve their
grades.
Past papers, Principal Examiner Reports for Teachers and other teacher support materials are available on our
Teacher Support website at http://teachers.cie.org.uk.
Assessment at a glance
ASSESSMENT AT A GLANCE
There are two compulsory papers, Paper 1 and Paper 2. Both papers contain questions based on the whole
syllabus. Candidates receive grades from A* to G.
Candidates take:
Paper 1
1 hours
This is a structured question paper with 812 multiple choice items and short-answer questions. There
are usually between 4 and 5 questions based on topics from the whole of the syllabus. All questions are
compulsory, and candidates answer on the question paper. There are 120 marks for this paper.
50% of total marks
and
Paper 2
1 hours
This is a structured question paper. There are usually 4 to 6 questions based on topics from the whole of
the syllabus. All questions are compulsory, and candidates answer on the question paper. There are 120
marks for this paper.
50% of total marks
Teachers are reminded that a full syllabus is available on www.cie.org.uk.
PAPER 1
Question 2
Mark scheme
2
(a)
[Sales] invoice
[Purchase] invoice
Credit note
Debit note
Cheque, receipt
Petty cash voucher
(b)
Income
Bad debt recovered
9 (1)
9 (1)
Discount allowed
Expense
9 (1)
[3]
(c)
Debit
Credit
9 (1)
[1]
(d) Reliability / reliable
[1]
(e)
Commission
[1]
(f)
A shareholders liability for a companys debts is limited to the amount they have paid for their
shares.
[2]
(h) (i)
[3]
Paper 1
(i)
[4]
Or:
=
=
=
=
=
=
[4]
[4]
Note: calculation mark may be awarded if times or days not stated but not if any other
description shown e.g. %
[Total: 21]
Paper 1
Examiner comment
Total mark, 18/21:
Paper 1
Examiner comment
Total mark, 13/21:
10
Paper 1
Examiner comment
Total mark, 9/21:
The answer given was not a business document and was incorrect.
The correct boxes were ticked.
The credit box was incorrectly ticked.
No attempt was made at this part.
The answer was correct.
The answer described a shareholder but did not explain the meaning of limited
liability and earned no marks.
The answer gave an incorrect net realisable value of a dress and did not calculate
the total value of the remaining dresses.
Both parts were answered correctly.
The answer used an incomplete formula but earned a mark for entering one correct
component in the formula.
11
Question 3
Mark scheme
3
(a)
[4]
Date
Detail
Dr
$
Date
Sept 30
30
13
Balance b/d
Rent
[Cash] sales
(not to correct
error)
850.00 (1)
800.00 (2)
300.00 (2)
1950.00 .
Sept 30
30
Detail
Cr
$
Bank charges
Balance c/d
(no aliens,
may award if
account
reversed)
60.00 (1)
1890.00 (2)
1950.00 ..
(Marks are for detail and amount, not date) Balance mark only for reversed cash book.
(c)
[8]
Ottoman
Bank Reconciliation Statement at 30 September 2010
Either:
$
Balance on updated cash book [at 30 September 2010]
(accept updated balance, balance b/d if agrees with
(b))
1890.00 (2)OF
(must agree with (b)
250.00 (2)
above)
(480.00) (2)
1660.00 (1)
(must be correct figure)
[7]
12
Paper 1
Or:
$
Balance on bank statement [at 30 September 2010]
Less: cheques issued not yet paid (unpresented cheques)
Add: cheque paid in [not yet credited by bank]
(accept reasonable description)
1660.00 (1)
(must be correct figure)
(250.00) (2)
480.00 (2)
1890.00 (2)OF
(must agree with (b)
above)
[7]
[4]
[Total: 23]
13
14
Paper 1
Examiner comment
Total mark, 20/23:
15
16
Paper 1
Examiner comment
Total mark, 13/23:
An answer showing good knowledge of the cash book and bank reconciliation and
some good application skills.
17
The answers given were both of the same type and only one earned the marks.
An incorrect opening balance was entered and correct entries were made to adjust
for the rent received and the bank charges, but additional items were included in
error and so no marks were earned for the balance carried down.
One mark was lost as the answer included additional items in error and so did not
reconcile to the balance given in the question.
An incorrect balance sheet heading was shown but own figure marks were earned
in (ii) for using the calculated balance from (b).
18
Paper 1
Examiner comment
Total mark, 9/23:
A reasonable answer showing some knowledge of the cash book but not a strong
attempt at the bank reconciliation.
19
Correct entries were made for the opening balance and the adjustment for rent
received but an incorrect description was used for the bank charges, additional
items were included in error, and no marks were earned for the balance carried
down.
The reconciliation did not include the correct items and earned no marks.
An incorrect balance sheet heading was shown but own figure marks were earned
in (ii) for using the calculated balance from (b).
Question 4
Mark scheme
4
(a)
[2]
[1]
(c)
[3]
[3]
(ii) Net amount due $265.00 (1) $5.30 (1) = $259.70 (1)
[3]
(d)
September
1
Balance b/d
7
[Sales][invoice][301]
12
[Sales][invoice][330]
$
400.00 (1)
56.50 (1)
217.00 (1)
673.50
September
19
[Sales][returns in][Cr note 29]
28 Bank
30 Balance c/d
(OF if no aliens, may award) if
account reversed)
$
16.50 (1)
392.00 (1)
265.00 (1)
673.50
Sales account
September
September
7
Sam Sumo
not invoice or total sales
12
Sam Sumo
not invoice or total sales
$
56.50 (1)
217.00 (1)
September
19
Sam Sumo
not total sales
returns
20
$
16.50 (1)
September
Paper 1
September
28 Sam Sumo
(e)
$
392.00 (1)
September
[10]
[2]
[Total: 24]
21
22
Paper 1
23
Examiner comment
Total mark, 18/24:
A very good answer showing a high level of knowledge but an incorrect explanation
of why the payment was not for the correct amount and the answer to (e) was not
sufficiently specific.
24
Paper 1
25
Examiner comment
Total mark, 14/24:
26
A sound answer showing a good standard of knowledge and application but some
weakness in understanding discount.
Paper 1
27
28
Paper 1
29
Examiner comment
Total mark, 9/24:
An answer showing some knowledge of discount but needing more detail and more
practice at writing up ledger accounts.
Question 5
Mark scheme
5
(a)
[2]
(b) (i) $3200 (1) $700 (1) = $2500 / 5 (1) = $500 (1)OF
(Note: if answer then goes on to give NBV, do not award calculation mark, so max 3)
(ii) Same amount $500 (2) [OF only if agrees with (b) (i)]
(c)
[6]
Martina
Balance Sheet at 30 September 2010 (extract)
Cost
$
Provision for
Depreciation
$
Net book
value
$
1 000(1)
2 200 (1)OF
3 200(1)
[4]
If answer laid out as two years separately, award only 1 mark for asset narrative and 1
mark for correct or OF final NBV
(d)
October
15
Machinery/equipment
(accept cost, not price,
balance)
$
3 200 (1)
3 200
30
October
$
15
[Provision for] Depreciation
1 000 (1)OF
(OF from (c))
15
Bank/cash (not cash book)
400 (1)
(not scrap/disposal)
15
Income statement
1 800 (2)OF
(accept profit/loss acc, loss)
3 200
[5]
Paper 1
(e)
[3]
[3]
31
Examiner comment
Total mark, 15/20:
This answer showed very good application skills and gave good responses to
calculating depreciation, showing the balance sheet extract and the disposal
account but was not so strong at explaining depreciation theory.
The answer given is not an acceptable reason for charging depreciation on noncurrent assets.
The formula used for calculating depreciation was incorrect as the scrap value
should be deducted from the cost. Own figure marks were awarded for correct
calculations and for using the same figure for depreciation in the second year.
Marks were awarded for correct entries in the balance sheet extract, using own
figures from (b).
The entries in the disposal account were correct using own figures and the marks
awarded.
One mark was earned for suggesting the reducing balance method but no rate of
depreciation was suggested.
32
Paper 1
33
Examiner comment
Total mark, 10/20
The answer given was not an acceptable reason for charging depreciation on noncurrent assets.
Some marks were earned as depreciation was correctly calculated but was then
deducted from cost so the answer given was the net book value, which was not
correct.
The balance sheet extract was correct.
No entry in the disposal account was shown for cost or depreciation, and the entry
for bank was on the wrong side, but some marks were earned for an own figure
calculation of the loss on disposal.
One mark was earned for suggesting the reducing balance method but the
suggested rate of depreciation was incorrect.
34
Paper 1
35
Examiner comment
Total mark, 7/20:
The answer was confused and did not give an acceptable reason for charging
depreciation.
Some marks were earned as depreciation was calculated but no adjustment was
made for the scrap value of the asset and an incorrect answer was given for (ii).
The balance sheet extract gave the correct narrative and cost, and an own figure net
book value, but used an incorrect provision for depreciation.
No correct entries were made in the disposal account.
One mark was earned for proposing the straight line method but no rate of
depreciation was suggested.
36
Paper 1
Question 6
Mark scheme
6
(a)
[6]
(mark for caption and amount, marks for capital amount if no aliens)
(award marks for acceptable layouts)
(b) Ricardo Statement of affairs at 31 October 2010
$
$
Non-current (fixed) assets
14 000 (1)
Current assets (95 500 (1) 1 500 (1))
94 000
24 000 (1)
70 000
84 000 (1)OF
Capital (1)
[6]
(mark for caption and amount, marks for capital amount if no aliens)
(award marks for acceptable layouts)
(c)
2010
Oct 31 Drawings
31 Balance c/d
$
2009
90 000 (1)
Nov 1 Balance b/fwd
84 000 (1)OF
(OF mark only if amount
from (a))
2010
Jan 1 Bank[new][capital][cash]
(not Ricardo)
Oct 31 Net profit [or OF loss]
(no aliens for OF mark)
174 000
+(1) for all correct dates
$
96 000 (1)OF
50 000 (1)
28 000 (1)OF
174 000
Mark is for detail and amount. If account reversed, award P/L OF mark only.
[6]
37
(d)
Increase
Current assets
9 (1)
9 (1)
Revenue (sales)
Working capital
Decrease
No change
9 (1)
9 (1)
[4]
[Total: 22]
38
Paper 1
39
Examiner comment
Total mark, 17/22:
An excellent answer to a new topic, showing very good levels of knowledge and
good application skills, giving mostly correct opening and closing capital calculations
but omitting some items from the capital account.
40
Paper 1
41
42
Paper 1
Examiner comment
Total mark, 12/22:
This answer showed the correct items to calculate the capital but also included an
additional incorrect item and did not balance.
The answer to this part also showed the correct items to calculate capital but
incorrectly added the provision for doubtful debts.
This answer had the entries for opening and closing capital on the wrong sides of
the account, correctly showed the drawings but omitted the additional capital and
gave an incorrect profit.
The table was completed to show correct responses for long term liabilities and
revenue but incorrect answers were shown for current assets and working capital.
43
44
Paper 1
45
Examiner comment
Total mark, 9/22:
Some correct items were shown but this was an incomplete answer.
Some marks were earned with correct narrative and items but drawings were
incorrectly included and the provision for doubtful debts incorrectly excluded.
The answer to the capital account included only one correct entry for the additional
capital.
The table was completed to show one correct response for current assets but
incorrect answers were shown for the other headings.
46
Paper 2
PAPER 2
Question 1
Mark scheme
1
Robbie McDonald
Income Statement (Trading and Profit and Loss Account) for the year ended
30 September 2010
Revenue (sales)
Less Cost of sales
Opening inventory (stock)
Purchases
Less Goods for own use
Less Closing inventory (stock)
$
19 500 (1)
174 100
193 600
20 800 (2)C/F
(1)O/F
Gross profit
$
216 000 (1)
28 200 (1)
20 (2)
43 380
8 300
4 410 (1)
1 550 (1)
960 (1)
660 (1)
44 080
700 (1)O/F
[20]
[Total: 20]
47
48
Paper 2
Examiner comment
The candidate failed to calculate the gross profit correctly: this should have been 20% of the revenue (sales).
However, the candidate earned own figure marks for the cost of sales and the closing inventory (stock). The
only error in the profit and loss section was the omission of the expense of wages. The profit for the year
(net profit) was arithmetically correct and was awarded an own figure mark.
49
50
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This candidate used an incorrect gross profit. An own figure mark was awarded for the cost of sales. The
closing inventory (stock) was also awarded an own figure as it was arithmetically correct (even though it
appeared that this may have been calculated using a percentage of the opening inventory (stock) rather
than inserted as a missing figure). Goods taken for own use, bad debts recovered, bank interest and
depreciation of equipment were omitted. The amount required for the provision for doubtful debts was not
adjusted for the opening provision. The figure for property tax and insurance was incorrectly calculated. The
depreciation of motor vehicles appears to be calculated on the provision for depreciation rather than on the
net book value. However, the candidate did earn an own figure mark for the profit for the year (net profit).
51
52
Paper 2
Examiner comment
It was disappointing to see the candidate inserting a gross profit which was larger than the revenue (sales).
No mark was awarded for the cost of sales as this was arithmetically incorrect. A careless error was made
when the figure of purchases was entered as $17 600 rather than $176 000. The closing inventory (stock)
was not arithmetically correct so the own figure mark was lost. In the profit and loss section, the two items
of income were omitted. Several assets were included in the expenses, resulting in the own figure mark for
profit for the year (net profit) being lost. Depreciation and bank interest were omitted. The adjustment for
insurance prepaid was incorrectly calculated, and the adjustment should have been made on the figure of
$8900 rather than being shown as a separate item.
53
Question 2 (a)
Mark scheme
(a)
Examiner comment
Full marks were gained for an excellent answer.
Examiner comment
The first mark was unfortunately lost as the candidate stated that control accounts helped check the
accuracy of the sales and purchases journals. A mark was awarded for the second advantage stated.
54
[2]
Paper 2
Examiner comment
No mark could be awarded for the first statement as it was totally inaccurate. Simply preparing control
accounts does not prevent fraud and mistakes: control accounts may make fraud more difficult and assists
in the discovery of fraud and errors.
Question 2 (b)
Mark scheme
(b)
2010
Sept 1 Balance
30 Sales
Bank (Dis. Chq)
2010
Oct 1 Balance b/d
Suzie Chow
Sales ledger control account
$
2010
21 976 (1)
Sept 1 Balance
22 800 (1)
30 Bank
610 (1)
Discount allowed
Sales returns
Bad debts
Contra entry
______
Balance c/d
45 386
22 415 (1)O/F
$
54
21 860
488
391
100
78
22 415
45 386
(1)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(1)
[11]
Alternative presentation
Sales ledger control account
Debit
Credit
2010
$
$
Sept 1 Balances
21 976 (1)
54 (1)
30 Sales
22 800 (1)
Bank (Dis. Chq.)
610 (1)
Bank
21 860 (1)
Discount allowed
488 (1)
Sales returns
391 (1)
Bad debts
100 (1)
Contra entry
78 (1)
Balance
$
21 922 Dr
44 722 Dr
45 332 Dr
23 472 Dr
22 984 Dr
22 593 Dr
22 493 Dr
22 415 Dr
(2) C/F
(1) O/F
[11]
55
56
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a good answer. The only error made was to include the contra entry on both sides of the account.
This resulted in the loss of the mark for this item and also the mark for the balance carried down.
57
58
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a reasonable answer. The cheques received from customers and the contra entry were completely
omitted. A careless error meant that the amount of the provision for doubtful debts was used for the actual
bad debts. The dishonoured cheque shown on the wrong side of the account. The candidate failed to follow
the instruction to bring down the closing balance, so the mark was lost.
59
60
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a disappointing answer. The candidate showed a lack of understanding of sales ledger control
accounts. All the figures given in the question were included and no attempt was made to select the ones
relating to the sales ledger. The own figure mark for the closing balance brought down was not awarded
because the account included extraneous items and the balance on a sales ledger control account is
normally a debit balance.
Question 2 (c)
Mark scheme
(c)
A contra entry is when an account in the sales ledger is set against an account in the purchases
ledger. (1) Such an entry is made when a supplier is also a customer of the business and has an
account in both ledgers. (1)
[2]
Examiner comment
This was an excellent answer earning full marks.
61
Examiner comment
This was a moderate answer. The candidate correctly explained that a contra entry appears in both the sales
ledger control account and the purchases ledger control account, but failed to explain why such an entry
may be made.
Examiner comment
This was a very disappointing answer. Initially the candidate appeared to be describing a contra entry in a
cash book. The rest of the answer was quite confused. The candidate showed a lack of understanding of a
contra entry in control accounts.
Question 2 (d)
Mark scheme
(d) The sales ledger control account acts as a check on the sales ledger. If there is an error in the
sales ledger it will not be revealed by a control account prepared from the individual accounts in
that ledger.
[2]
Examiner comment
Full marks were awarded for an excellent answer.
62
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a disappointing answer. The explanation was completely inaccurate. The candidate clearly did not
understand why the information used in a control account is obtained from the books of prime (original)
entry.
Examiner comment
No marks could be awarded for this answer. The candidate simply paraphrased the actual question: no
attempt was made to answer the question.
Question 2 (e)
Mark scheme
(e)
22 415 O/F}
365
u
} (1)
275 000
1
[2]
63
Examiner comment
An excellent answer which was awarded full marks.
Examiner comment
Only half marks could be awarded to this answer. The candidate correctly used the own figure closing
balance on the sales ledger control account and the figure given for credit sales, thus earning the first mark.
Instead of multiplying by 365 days, the candidate multiplied by 21. No marks could be awarded for the
resulting answer as it did not represent 2 days.
Examiner comment
This was a very disappointing answer. The candidate gave the correct formula, but then used cheques
received from debtors ($21 860) as the numerator and the own figure closing balance on the sales ledger
control account ($68 860) as the denominator. No mark could be awarded for an own figure answer as it was
not rounded up to the next whole day.
64
Paper 2
Question 2 (f)
Mark scheme
(f)
[3]
Examiner comment
This was an excellent answer.
Examiner comment
The candidate did not specifically use the words cash discount, but clearly described a discount for quick
payment, so a mark was awarded. The second comment was not regarded as a way in which the debtors
collection period could be improved. The final comment relating to bulk buying is not related to reducing the
collection period.
65
Examiner comment
This was a very disappointing answer. Selling more goods on credit and allowing customers more days will
not reduce the debtors collection period. No mark was awarded for the comment relating to discount as this
implied that offering either type of discount would improve the collection period.
Question 3 (a)
Mark scheme
(a)
(i)
(ii)
Examiner comment
This was an excellent answer.
66
[3]
Paper 2
Examiner comment
The candidate gained only one of the available marks. Purchases returns do appear in the trading account
section of the income statement, but that is not the answer to the question being asked. The answer to Part
(iii) was incorrect.
Examiner comment
This was a very disappointing answer. The candidate appears to have completely misunderstood the
question. Purchases returns are debited in the purchases ledger and sales are debited in the sales ledger,
but these are not the answers to the question asked. The answer to Part (ii) was incorrect.
67
Question 3 (b)
Mark scheme
(b)
Karnail Singh
Rent account
$
2010
July 31 Total paid
Balance c/d
1430 (1)
420 (1)
2009
Aug 1 Balance b/d
2010
July 31 Income Statement (1)
(Profit & Loss)
1850
2010
Aug 1 Balance b/d
260 (1)
1590 (1)
1850
420 (1)O/F
[6]
Alternative presentation
2009
Aug 1 Balance
2010
July 31 Total paid
July 31 Income statement (1)
(Profit & Loss)
68
Karnail Singh
Rent account
Debit
Credit
Balance
$
$
$
260 (1)
260 Cr
1430 (1)
1170 Dr
1590 (1)
420 Cr
(2)C/F
(1)O/F
[6]
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was an excellent answer.
69
Examiner comment
This was a moderate answer. The candidate lost marks for using incorrect descriptions for the balance
brought down and the balance carried down: the word owing is not acceptable. The candidate failed to
follow the instruction to bring down the closing balance, so the mark was lost.
70
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a very poor answer. The candidate correctly described the rent paid during the year, but also used
the word bank for the opening balance. A figure of $420 with the description of bank was incorrectly
shown on the credit side. The expense for the year was not transferred to the income statement (profit and
loss account). The balance on the account, $420, should have been debited and brought down on the credit
side.
71
Question 3 (c)
Mark scheme
(c)
The accruals (matching) principle states that revenue of the accounting period must be matched
against the costs of the same period. (1)
The rent relating to the financial year ended 31 July 2010 is transferred to the income statement
(profit and loss account). (1) The rent paid during the year relating to the previous year is not
included but the rent owing at the end of the year is included. (1)
[3]
Examiner comment
This was a very good answer.
Examiner comment
This was a good answer. The candidate correctly explained the accruals (matching) principle and described
how the rent for the year is transferred to the income statement (profit and loss account). The final mark was
lost because of the last sentence which was not accurate.
72
Paper 2
Examiner comment
The candidate provided a satisfactory explanation of the accruals (matching) principle, but did not attempt to
illustrate the answer with reference to the rent account prepared in the previous section.
Question 3 (d)
Mark scheme
(d) Bank manager
Assessment of prospects of any requested loan/overdraft being repaid when due
Assessment of prospects of any interest on loan/overdraft being paid when due
Assessment of the security available to cover any loan/overdraft
Lenders
Assessment of prospects of any requested loan being repaid when due
Assessment of prospects of any interest on loan being paid when due
Assessment of the security available to cover any loan
Creditor for goods
Assessment of the liquidity position
Identifying how long the business takes to pay creditors
Identifying future prospects of the business
Identifying what credit limit is reasonable
Manager (if any)
Assessment of past performance
Basis of future planning
Control the activities of the business
Identifying areas where corrective action is required
Or other suitable interested persons e.g. employees, government bodies, competitors, take-over
bidders etc
TWO business people to be identified
(1) each
(1) each
[4]
73
Examiner comment
The candidate correctly identified two business people and provided suitable reasons for their interest in the
financial statements.
Examiner comment
The candidate correctly identified competitors as having an interest in the financial statements and provided
an acceptable reason. No marks were awarded for the other answer as this referred to shareholders. This is
not an appropriate response to a question relating to the financial statements of a sole trader.
74
Paper 2
Examiner comment
The first explanation would have been quite acceptable if competitors had been identified, but no marks
could be awarded as the candidate failed to identify the business person. Examiners cannot make
assumptions on what the candidate intended. No marks were awarded for the second part of the answer.
Question 3 (e)
Mark scheme
(e)
75
Examiner comment
This was an excellent answer.
76
Paper 2
Examiner comment
The candidate provided a very good description of non-financial aspects, but failed to note the important
point that these do not appear in the financial statements. It was correctly stated that all transactions are
recorded at the actual cost, but the candidate failed to provide a satisfactory explanation on why this is a
limitation.
77
Examiner comment
One mark was awarded for the statement that accounts only show transactions which can be recorded in
monetary terms. The rest of the explanation was not regarded as adequate. The answer to the second part
of the question indicated that the candidate had no understanding of the meaning and importance of the
principle of historical cost.
78
Paper 2
Question 4 (a)
Mark scheme
(a)
Authorised share capital is the maximum amount of share capital a company is allowed to issue.
(2)
Paid-up share capital is the total amount of capital a company has received from its shareholders.
(2)
[4]
Examiner comment
This was a very good answer which gained full marks.
79
Examiner comment
The candidate provided an acceptable description of authorised capital which gained full marks. A correct
description of issued share capital was provided, but this did not answer the question which related to paidup share capital and so no marks could be awarded.
80
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a very disappointing answer for which no marks could be awarded. The candidate appears to have
no understanding of the capital of a limited liability company.
81
Question 4 (b)
Mark scheme
(b) (i) 4% 25 000 shares of $1 each (1) = $1000 (1)
(ii) 3% $15 000 (1) = $450 (1)
(iii) 5% 60 000 shares of $0.50 (1) = $1500 (1)
[6]
Examiner comment
This was a good answer. The candidate successfully calculated the preference share dividend and the
ordinary share dividend and gained full marks for these. The correct formula was applied for the calculation
of the debenture interest, but a careless error resulted in an incorrect answer being shown.
82
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a moderate answer. The candidate earned full marks for the calculation of the preference share
dividend. A mark was awarded for the calculation of the debenture interest, but the final mark was lost as
the candidate introduced an extraneous item by deducting the interest from the actual debenture. No marks
were awarded for the calculation of the ordinary share dividend as only the total value of the ordinary share
capital was given.
83
Examiner comment
Full marks were earned for the calculation of the debenture interest. No marks could be awarded for the
calculation of either the preference share dividend or the ordinary share dividend. In each case an alternate
answer was provided (calculating the dividend on both the authorised and the issued capital). The examiner
is not prepared to select the correct answer when alternatives are given.
Question 4 (c)
Mark scheme
(c)
Income Statement
Profit & Loss Account
Appropriation
Account
Balance
Sheet
No entry
No entry
(2)
(2)
[4]
84
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a good answer. The only error was stating that debenture interest payable would not appear in the
balance sheet.
Examiner comment
This answer gained half of the available marks. In each case, the candidate incorrectly stated that no entry
would be made in the balance sheet.
85
Examiner comment
A mark was gained for indicating that the dividend payable would appear in the balance sheet. The candidate
should have known that the debenture interest and the share dividend do not appear in both the income
statement (profit and loss account) and the appropriation account.
Question 4 (d)
Mark scheme
(d)
Ordinary share capital
Preference share capital
Debentures
$
30 000
25 000
15 000
70 000 (1)
86
[1]
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a wholly correct answer.
Examiner comment
The candidate correctly listed the ordinary share capital and the preference share capital but did not
appreciate that the capital employed also includes debentures.
Examiner comment
This was a completely incorrect answer. If this question had been worth more than one mark, the candidate
may have been able to earn something for calculations if they had been provided.
Question 4 (e)
Mark scheme
(e)
11 840 u
100 (1)
16.91% (1)O/F
70 000 (O/F) 1
[2]
87
Examiner comment
The candidate earned full marks for this question by correctly calculating the return on capital employed
(ROCE) using the capital employed calculated in the previous part of the question.
Examiner comment
The candidate correctly calculated the return on capital employed (ROCE) using the capital employed
calculated in the previous part of the question. The candidate failed to follow the instruction to show the
answer correct to two decimal places, so the final mark was lost.
88
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a disappointing answer. The candidate appeared not to know the formula for the return on capital
employed (ROCE) and so was not able to attempt a calculation. An attempt was made to calculate the capital
employed in the previous section of the question, but the candidate clearly failed to see the link between
the two sections.
Question 4 (f)
Mark scheme
(f)
If the return on capital employed increases it indicates that the company is employing its
resources more efficiently. (2)
[2]
Examiner comment
This was a very good answer.
Examiner comment
This was a disappointing answer. The candidate mistakenly believed that the increase in return on capital
employed (ROCE) was solely due to an increase in profit resulting from increased control over expenses.
89
Examiner comment
This candidate did not appear to understand the concept of return on capital employed (ROCE) and believed
that it was linked to liquidity.
Question 5 (a)
Mark scheme
(a)
To compensate for the fact that she does more work than Samuel.
Or
To recognise the work that she does in the partnership.
Examiner comment
This was a good answer which earned full marks.
90
[2]
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This candidate made a correct statement about the contents and advantages of a partnership agreement,
but this was not the answer to the question asked. No marks could be awarded.
Examiner comment
Candidates were informed that the partner wanted to change the partnership agreement so that she could
receive an annual partnership salary. This candidate simply repeated the information which was provided.
Question 5 (b)
Mark scheme
(b)
$
105 950
9 350
96 600 (1)
23 562
18 400
5 162 (1)
101 762
Financed by
Capital accounts
Current accounts
Opening balance
Interest on capital
Share of profit
Less Drawings
Interest on drawings
Samuel
Mavuso
60 000
(1 091)
2 400
4 122
5 431
3 100
93
3 193
2 238
Martha
Mavuso
40 000 (1)
223
1 600
2 748
4 571
4 900
147
5 047
(476)
Total
100 000
(1)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(1)O/Fs
1 762
101 762 (1)O/F
91
92
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a good answer. The candidate elected to show the details of the current accounts within the
balance sheet, which was perfectly acceptable. Only two errors were made. The first error was to share the
profit equally instead of in proportion to the capital invested, but the final balances on the current accounts
were correct on the candidates own figures. The second error was to omit the current liabilities, which also
meant that the net current assets (working capital) was omitted.
93
94
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a moderate answer. The candidate elected to calculate the current account balances using ledger
accounts outside the balance sheet, which was perfectly acceptable. The opening balances and interest
on capital were correctly entered. The interest on drawings was on the wrong side of the accounts. No
entry was made for profit shares. Drawings were correctly entered, but the mark was lost as this item also
appeared in the balance sheet. The first section of the balance sheet was wholly correct. No attempt was
made to show the financed by section (apart from the incorrectly showing drawings).
95
96
Paper 2
Examiner comment
A mark was lost for the careless error of adding rather than deducting the depreciation. The net current
assets (working capital) were not labelled. The capital accounts of the partners were correctly shown
(although not totalled correctly). The candidate did not realise that in the balance sheet of a partnership
it is necessary to show the current accounts. It is not acceptable to show the total profit. The figures
for drawings represented the drawings and the interest on drawings. These should have been deducted
from each partners current account. No marks could be awarded for the workings as these were merely
calculations and did not represent current accounts.
97
Question 5 (c)
Mark scheme
(c)
[2]
Examiner comment
This was a very good answer which gained full marks.
Examiner comment
The candidate used the correct figures for the calculation of the current ratio, but then failed to express the
answer correctly. The ratio should have been expressed as 1.28:1 (not 1:1.28).
98
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a disappointing answer. The candidate attempted to divide the current liabilities by the current
assets. The mark scheme indicated that only a correct figure was acceptable for the answer, so the
candidate lost all the available marks.
Question 5 (d)
Mark scheme
(d) Injection of capital
Long term loan
Sale of surplus non-current (fixed) assets
Reduction in drawings
Or other suitable points
Any 2 points (1) each
[2]
Examiner comment
This was a good answer.
Examiner comment
This was a moderate answer. The candidate correctly stated that reducing drawings could improve the
working capital. Reducing expenses will not automatically increase working capital: it is only an increase in
the amount of profit actually retained which can increase the working capital.
99
Examiner comment
This was a poor answer. It was not sufficient to state that the working capital would increase if the current
assets increase and the current liabilities decrease. Candidates were expected to state how these changes
could be achieved.
Question 5 (e)
Mark scheme
(e) Does not include inventory (stock) in the calculation. (1)
Either
Inventory (stock) is not regarded as a liquid asset a buyer has to be found and then the money
collected. Some goods may prove to be unsaleable. (1)
Or
The quick ratio shows whether the business would have any surplus liquid funds if all the current
liabilities were paid immediately from the liquid assets. (1)
[2]
Examiner comment
This was a very good answer which gained full marks.
100
Paper 2
Examiner comment
The candidate correctly stated that the quick ratio excludes closing inventory (stock), but failed to provide
further explanation on why the quick ratio is more reliable.
Examiner comment
This candidate failed to distinguish between the current ratio and the quick ratio and did not attempt to
explain why the quick ratio is more reliable.
Question 6 (a)
Mark scheme
(a) Gross profit = 247 600 163 100 = 84 500 (1)
84 500
247 000
100
1
34.13% (1)
[2]
101
Examiner comment
This was an excellent answer which was awarded full marks.
Examiner comment
The candidate knew the formula and used the correct figures, which earned the first mark. The final mark
was lost because of a careless error when a dollar sign was inserted in front of the answer.
102
Paper 2
Examiner comment
The candidate demonstrated knowledge of the formula for the calculation of the percentage of gross profit
to sales, but was unable to insert the appropriate figures. As there was no attempt at a calculation, the final
mark was automatically lost.
Question 6 (b)
Mark scheme
(b) Increase in selling prices
Obtaining cheaper supplies
Reduction the rate of trade discount allowed to customers
Increase in the rate of trade discount received from suppliers
Passing on increased costs to customers
Different product mix
Or other suitable reasons
Any 2 points (2) each
[4]
Examiner comment
This was a very good answer.
103
Examiner comment
The first answer was correct. The second answer was incorrect. A reduction in the selling price will not
result in a higher gross profit to sales percentage.
Examiner comment
This was a completely incorrect answer. The candidate made the mistake of concentrating on quantities of
sales and purchases. The percentage of gross profit to sales is affected by the selling price and the purchase
price: it is not affected by the quantities.
Question 6 (c)
Mark scheme
(c)
2010
July 31 Bank
2010
Aug 1 Balance b/d
Waseem Shah
Suspense account
$
2010
1520 (1)
July 31 Difference on
trial balance
Rent
Balance c/d
1520
190 (1)O/F
1240 (1)
90 (1)
190 (1)
1520
[5]
Alternative presentation
Waseem Shah
Suspense account
Debit
Credit
Balance
2010 $
$
$
July 31 Difference on trial balance
1240 (1)
1240 Cr
Rent
90 (1)
1330 Cr
Bank
1520 (1)
190 Dr
(2)C/F
(1)O/F
104
[5]
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a very good answer. The figure for the balance brought down was omitted, but that was the only
error.
105
Examiner comment
The opening balance was correctly shown, but the entries for rent and bank were on the wrong sides of the
account. However, the candidate did balance the account and carry the balance down, which earned an own
figure mark.
106
Paper 2
Examiner comment
The opening balance and item number one were omitted. The description cash book was not regarded as
adequate (the word bank should have been used). Entries were made for Items two and three, but these
should not have been included in the suspense account. The candidate balanced the account and carried
down the balance and so earned an own figure mark.
107
Question 6 (d)
Mark scheme
(d) Either
Error
Explanation
Or
Error
Explanation
Number 2 (1)
This is an error of commission (1) and does not affect the balancing of the trial balance
(1)
Number 3 (1)
This is an error of principle (1) and does not affect the balancing of the trial balance
(1)
[3]
Examiner comment
This was an excellent answer.
Examiner comment
The candidate correctly identified the second error as being one which was not corrected by an entry in
the suspense account. No marks could be awarded for the explanation as it did not provide a satisfactory
explanation.
108
Paper 2
Examiner comment
This was a very disappointing answer. The candidate incorrectly stated that the omission of the bank
overdraft from the trial balance would not affect the suspense account. This error meant that the marks for
the explanation were also lost.
Question 6 (e)
Mark scheme
(e)
Waseem Shah
Statement of corrected profit for the year ended 31 July 2010
$
33 000
No effect (2)
1 150 (2)
3
4
Decrease
in profit
$
90
No effect (2)
1 240
1 240
31 760 (1)O/F
[7]
109
Examiner comment
This was a very good answer. There was only one error in the answer. The candidate omitted the figure of
$90 (shown in the decrease column) in the calculation. This resulted in the loss of mark for the corrected
profit for the year.
110
Paper 2
Examiner comment
The candidate made the correct entry for error two, but made incorrect entries for errors three and four. The
corrected profit for the year was arithmetically correct on the candidates figures and so was awarded an
own figure mark.
111
Examiner comment
The candidate made incorrect entries for all three errors. The only mark which was earned was an own figure
mark for the corrected profit for the year.
112
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