vutter fire a . wt - mE Code : 094P-EH lee Series : HRS(P) Beckie AANA ATT Problem Solving Assessment uta tra: th web BRUT ~ 1X / Class ~ 1X “iors a 60 Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 60 geet gar 28 qe ye ater gfe whee a TAS oe rere) Be we Pega eT TE | ‘This Test Booklet contains 28 pages. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. ‘weetyd fia / Important Instructions : Bo ger sew pat ath eer sier | re amet afer gfeeer area Keay Ree ee arg, cee a oe ee ee, site yee fe a2 ‘ers ekeret fe cng Br rau Aa | = ‘Po Answot Sheets insde bls Test Booka. When you are eect to open the Test Books, ake out the AnsiverShoct and in the patiulareon Sido- and Sido-2cartly wih BuetSlack ball pent pen aly. 2, tien after & fread gm ws E98 | eed crue a ce a we Gf hn Rar ahs oh Tow yee a a tat Siro eo ais 2 fain Swe A, ee Gis DA, hha ee st ae or aT & feu Atle i ee 1 ‘The Test Bockiet Cote for this Test Booka i E3. The candids should chock caouly thatthe Test Boole Code printed on Sie ‘tha Answer Sheets the same as pine onthe Test Book’. n exso fcecrepancy, bs candidate should Inmet report he ‘mater tothe Invgltr for eplcement of bath te Test Gockel the Answer 8. wlan gfe 60 we 8 o,f ote al dia coma fama @ | read eh eat est A Te woe oad ee eA we, oe 19me oth wes aS 18 eT Ware Ys hs rare (ea 1 2d), 2 ea aT al feast eH wr 2A on BS TA, carat sae ag (94 25 8 42), ome: eTTER wh (oe 43 @ 60). Tho Test Bookot connie 60 questons dived ino ee Secfons A, 8 and C. A candidate i requtcd to attempt al the trea Seaton. There are 2 questions in Secon A, 16 questions in Secton B und 18 quontonsin Seton © Section A : Language Conventons (Questions 4 to 24) fo be atemoted ether rom Engich Language or from Hind Language, Section B : Gusitive Reasoning (Quosbans 25 0 42), Seeton G Quantatve Ressarng(Queetone 49 60) 4 eit dy wel 2 after OMCQn fe el HS ge saRee aTha af (MCQS) we # aFE ea cone efter ar ONCQs) € Lee a seks eer & a Reses &, Feri a Sac Uw facee whe | weed eh Uw a fereU aT oar went Sih Tet coer ae wae re Ber Sars weg Allthe thee Sections contain Mule Cholee Questions (CO). Some ofthese questions ere passage bases MCOs, whereas cers fae stand-lone WCQ. Each of hase questons has four epions gt of which ony ONE agin is caret candidate has to select the comec option andilthe conesponng rum inthe Answer Shoal agua te aueston number. 5, an wes wee eh a 8 west at ae fev, seat eae be fr | feat Ate fe sees rT fT fe som te see eal feng AE sie Pat Each question cates one mar. For each core response, te cancdat wil got ono mark. There is no negative marking for any ot the questions and unattmpted question aa m0 mark 6 SOT oo A, scahlal gm sae ors, ule avis Atl St cher orem 2 | seat tag te gran oA ae Gt we? sere ‘On completion ofthe est the cansidates MUST HAND OVER THE ANSWER SHEET TO THE INVIGILATOR in the roonal The candidates ae alowed otake away iis Test Bookie wih hem. 7, sreafl a soe aee oes ale Firs A fen oth Safa ce we ween Fhe fea alan a wie Bae area A HARA oe 3 aera Reg Fn soc wae Res a aie @, at 8 ere A angen ered & sean & sewin aAR ala A ore | The canidates should nt leave the Examination Hal without handing ove et Answer Shoo othe invasion duty and sign the ‘Atendance Susel Cases whee a candat as not signed the Atenance Sato the Answer Sheet Nas rol boon handed ove io te vigor shall be det ae an nist mere ease 8. wa ya ae eae fey afar ew Fd ani a sila we & fre Sacrhahane ate wands bar edn SE Use BlefBtack ball point pen only for wring parculars on hs Dago and wing or marin raeponses on the Answer Sneet. 8. altel hg GPR er ae fe SoC ore AR BSN a eae «ee ees AN Aas Pr 1 “he canddates sould ensure thatthe Answer Shoo so! ded oF damagod. Co no make any say mas onthe Answer Shoot 10. speed wien a 8 are saree arape Hi ald get Gene ae Pret ste fata 3 wilkes GaP | seam arent a anata nh eM A fives Se foot tet faites TE The castes. are governad by al Rules and Regulations cf the Board wih regard o tir conduc in Examination Hal. Al aes ‘ufar means wil be deal ith a por Ruse ara Reguatone of tho Board, “Stra wom/Rogistration No, + ‘feu a1 >/Candidate’s Name ‘rant rene Candidate's Signatu ‘ters & xemer/Invigilator's Signature094P-EH-E3 (a) usu: arta ara (97 14-24) wihanfifal & fore Pd: ‘ L rine a Reh ict eons ti rr Ral Rae oie & 2 was D Her 24 aegfty wer F | ai wer aaa & silt odes eT Uae ates ar 8 1 3. BHP CK Dac OUR Fe AK BF aileod a 1 TR ACTA By 8a Gorm aT wT FRE B | Pade: Freaicrean wea (1 — 16) yedar % re aae|5+ TSA HM HH RR | Raila a THF ah aR at Ferwee BP GAR | a at 1 WM, sa aT oT ara as Q @ we @) saeet ° a We @ Fer ‘Qo. ok z aR 2H mae 3 iente 6. ar ae ae at dhe feeners wt SE a, G a) te wat ” @) THs sara aS ore @) aR wr ait oo @ Aa om @) aca art art 8. ‘RR aeH? Brafaeor ar He 8 ih aClegerenae @ eR @ wera @) BIRT 7, Set te ant ca a8 fas at at at et eet, @ Wares watt 4 saga eae | a) Pasar ag sie, seer sar (7, ons aaa Ee @ ReRITs (2) ae ae arate 2 @) aah ae a, 3 oer et @) Fa aes seen | @® ata! @ wean ata wah& 10. 12 ‘Ferrera wad Sarat? are H tifa we 13, @ )-artafing faster i @ fate (3) feefedeor 4) after ee eA 8 2 aren Say | @) ter @) wim 4 (3) aan ja @ fai ‘ ie teh eet urn #1 aif A wae j fe i @ ahr \ @) % i (4) Tee . CR aM sf dh wa age ven are 1 tifa % fare sega ere @) wg ar @) ye 7 wT @ Ras fee (ort sigh eer ora wee ym aeR eth eal A TR? GQ) eae @ wT (3) Grater (@) aaaTeT 16. 094P-EH-E3 ‘og tons, Gert aera? Fees eer & fore sages Berar Be O wy @ std from adt @) sd tad 4) aretha Sead tren og, Br ae ama Ta (@) asta @ waa @ wate SH saan a Seren ag & a) 9e (@) 3arr 3) err @) sr We att aren ae 2 a) andy (3) Pret (Sef— Oe, faa! 094P-EH-E3 (ay Fide : Preston argedz at vee wer vicar 17 & | 2 & Bre agen faeroa aer RI aaah ae A Ret are a aera 37_ aren 8 1 get te sr ahr 1g_feaen wat 21 ae vio Bt_i9_ 7G @ ren wifes fet a a2 vere sth agi Gar tg At_ 20 @, ahem gor) Ta waigal afer ater at a aren & atk site water F 2 8m | orth ae aga vag seo Bat ca well & at Fase 1 GAA wea #, wet dt ea 22 FEN otk S23 aa fe ah | 24 wr ter sep Screen ater ae fre eT | 21, fem Far 19 HAT TET 2 @ sre 2) PaeTE -* (3) yor @ Tar 18. fin ears 20H FT aTEM > @ after @) 7 @) Tit a) ae 24. 19, Rem ert 22 FT SET? a) are @) Tar @) faa (@) Prare ‘fim Par 24 Fe aT STEM? (a) aRar @ a @) om ® Fer ‘fom tant 23 Te FAT SET ? «fare @ Fe @) ae 4) are Reb ees 21K aT aT? a) et @ @ =m feet Reem Fens 18 Te aT rE? OD ert @ fr @ ah @ set Rep ars 17 TT TET? a am @) Fer (3) rer w va(5) 094P-EH-E3 Section A : Language Conventions (Questions 1 to 24) Note : This section of the question paper contains 24 questions in the English Language. The candidates who have opted for English Language are required to attempt all the 24 questions. Directions : (Questions 1 to 8). Read the following |1. Passage carefully and select the most suitable option from each list according to the corresponding number in the passage. 1 Once upon a time there was an old man who had seven sons. He lived with them in their good farm and they were considerably woll settled as to| money and the other necessities of life. He had worked hard all his life end had been, aman of means always, A good fortune was yot at his hands and as he was now growing old he wished to make some ind of a sottlement before going into the great beyond and he gave it much thought. ‘As he thought about the matter he had to come to no other conclusion but that his sons wore always quertelling and never could seem to agree on anything amongst themselves. |g, ‘This worried the old maa a lot and at last he thought be could try and find some method of showing them how they would not gain anything by arguing among themselves as it would only encourage others to gain what little they might have. So at last be called them all before him as they came in from the field after work. He bad the youngest of them all to go gather him coven eticks of small size and he placed ‘them all together and tied them. ‘He then asked his sons to break the bundle of sticks, In sentence 6, the word encourage could best be replaced with —— (1) forget OF persuade ©) discourage (4) target Which of the following words shows the correct spelling of the underlined misspelt word in sentence 5? (D quarrellig @F quareelling (3) quarreleng (4) qeurrelling In sentence 7, the contextual meaning of the word field is G8" farm land @) tut @ lawn @ playground In sentence 3, the phrase a_man of means could best be seplaced with @) wealthy @) pauper @ labourer 4) farmer094P-EH-E3 7 (6) ‘Which of the following should be the sentence | Directions : (Questions 9 to 12). Complete this 10 in the above story ? (1) ‘The sons still did not remain united. [passage by selecting the most suitable word /phrase | from each list to fill the corresponding gap. <@) ‘The sons realized the importance of being| True Lies _9__American (Hollywood) film showing united. (@) The sons opened the bundle and brok the sticks one by one. In sentence 2, which of the following words cannot replace the word considerably ? (2) greatly 2) monumentally (8) significantly (4) noticeably In sentence 4, which of the following words cannot replace the word yet? (2) up till now fa perfect blend of comedy and action, and ]comes under the categories of action picture, domestic comedy, and political thriller ‘True Lies _10__ directed by James Cameron, and ‘produced by him along with Stephanie Austin. The sereenplay of the film has been ‘Cameron, and the dialogues have been written by (4) The sons could not understand the ‘message given to them by their father. 1_ James James Cameron and Randall Frakes. The plot of Truc Lies has been 12 _ borrowed from a French film - La Totale (1991). Which of these fits gap 11 ? (1) seen by (2) read by (3) done by scripted by 10. Which of these fits gap 97 (1) _,used to be an (2) so far ef isan (3) falle as (9) beyond (4) criticize hitherto un. pcre gap 12? § generously In sontence 1, the expression once upon atime| (2) smilingly ca} (3) urgently @ (1) proverb Br seated @) phrase 12. Which of these fits gap 10? ‘a (ay, can be ~(3) clause (of hasbeen ® ve (8) have been (4) would be«ny 094P-EH-R3 Directions : (Questions 13 to 16). Read the passage and select the correct form of the missing word/ phrase to complete it (in Questions 13 to 15) ‘and select the correct option for Question 16. We got there 18 and saw all the stalls and the grounds. I was surprised at how large the grounds M4. They scemed much smaller from the outside. We ate sandwiches which we had brought ourselves. ‘Then of course it started to rain. We 15 not brought any umbrellas so we bought some from a little stall near the building. We were not the only. ones! 18. Which of these fits gap 15 ? (1) had been (2) have @) do Tad 14, Which of those fits gap 142 a is \2y were ©) ae 4) was 15, Which of these fits gap 132 2) soon (2) time OF carly 16. “We were not the only ones " means (1) Allof them did not have any umbrella. (2) They (the narrator and his friends) had umbrellas, (8) They did not have any umbrellas. 48° Many others also had not brought any umbrella. Directions : (Questions 17 to 20). Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word /phrase from each list to fill the corresponding gap. Khanty culture 17 three distinct -Khanty ‘groups, known as the Northera, Southern and Eastern Khanty, ‘These groups can easily be recognized by 18 in the way they speak. /Kaanty live their lf to tho ful, and as a part af _19 culture they have many occasions for celebration. On the successful hunting of _20_bear, they perform The Bear Celebration, which may prolong up to fivessix days exceeding more than three hundred songs and performances in many forms. 17. Which of these fits gap 18 ? (0) devastating @) ignoring the differences SF" locating the differences 4) forgetting (4) later L KUSD Nae094P-EH-ES (a) 18, Which ofthese fits gap 17? AS comprise 2) denotes @) plays 4) gives 19. Which of these fits gap 20? @), one b the ®) an Wa 20, Which of these fits gap 19? 1) our OF their (8) their's (there Directions : (Questions 21 to 24). Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word [phrase from each list to fill the corresponding gap in Questions 21 & 22 and select the correct option for Questions 23 & 24. Scientists have’ 21 that our natural resources will disappear in 30 years’ time, Intensive research, and development on 22 energies for future have| already begun. These energios are important] because of the minimal impact they have on the environment, The automobile industry has shows progress where alternative energies are concerne ‘The government will introduce rebates on road taxes favouring green vehicles. This is a very positive move and its shows the government's far-sightediness, a. 23, ‘Which of these fits gap 21? GF predicted (2) called (3) calls (4) means Which of these fits gap 22? @) various (2f alternative (@) alternated (4) alternate ‘There is one error in the paseage. Find from the given option. (1) had shows 25 Thas shows (8) had shown (4) has shown Based on the reading of the passage, say which of the following statements is not true ? (2). A. goverament is said to have far-sightedness when it discourages the use of cars by all. (2) A government is said to have Jar-sightedness when it encourages green vehicles. (3) A government is said to have far-sightedness when it bans al! palluting vehicles. WEA government is said 1 have far-sightedness when it encourages use of more and more cars,25, Frafaf came a ofee sit sak ota fq) (@ 094P-EH-E3 aus A : qurers wh (9H 25 8 42) / Section B : Qualitative Reasoning (Questions 25 to 42) Aq A I SK if: awl age a 1 ait area it sit er FD | @ tae oF & Ree a ent B wore Fm || ae ww Fai fire 1 “seat aiat ee & 1 wet aga are wt B 1 BH wah at we aed &” wa Faw ter) “AGE” GR A Her oH EP aA 8 HT FR) me ge 1H at aH aH sit ret Te ot TER? werd) ag fafa ae or ware aad 2 (Ba ga en oe at B (2) BFS ie avr or at 1 (3) San fat aren & secnfee aar Hawi (4) eter Reet aren & ddaafers aera aA wate © 26. fret eet A,B, 0, DS ofey otk He ee my] Fewedl 48 ww mera Rewer A eaIiR : A Wau argent toe ae eae | Ben um abt 2 c, Uften om feet Hiifiar 2 1 pv. te tag & wet 6 oh ow ‘frnte a aT | cy ott der wae-Rato Faria é 1 @) W, Aen ak tet wafer F erie @ @) ren afk we frat areal a ani aa #1 @ tet okt oa arg a ara 25, Read the following brief story and answer the ‘question that follows = It was a very hot summer, All the ponds and lakes had dried up. Two frogs went looking for a new place to live. They found @ well. “Let's jump in. There is lots of water here. We ‘can live happily,” said one frog. “No,” said the other. “There is water here now. But if it dries up, we cannot ever come out.” ‘This story attempts to portray that (Q) living happily is not always possible. (2) wells are not always a safe place to live, (@) look always for a short term solution to a problem. (47 Took always for a Jong term solution to a problem, Read the given statements A, B, C, D and identify the one incorrect option from those that follow : ‘A. Ravi works as an architect, B. Rahim is a lawyer. G. Romila is a civil engineer. D. . Rohan studied law and is engaged as a builder. (1) Ravi and Rohan are invelved in building works. (2) Ravi, Romila and Rohan are involved in building works. La Romila and Ravi are not involved in construction works. (@) Rohan and Rahim are connected to law.094P-EH-ES a7, serafera dn 2 feo me freafetied =n sat a (19) fey : A. Gar & fia 3 char fe ae art vee i orem sexta Et HOT B. Oey A weft aie fear fe see flan Ter a1 ©, 90% si Gan Tat wae ated TerfererT Fwd fea D. sed) af er fears er fm yee fart er! fea Raect 3 8 ean sede ert a afr wen 8 weft wc & 2 @ 4,D,B,c @ A,B,¢,D @) BCDA @ ABDC Ww um Fan free @ 1 fren aH, ort og, % 50 sft ager wits ta & sik ay ‘feenfdet ara Paffen faq ad & | free B, ‘orate Bare srrara aaa & frail eT 6 — 12 am % wh frend mag ae @ 1 fare C Fre swifia or & afr Sam wee reer & caftrent ata € | fae D west & wets & aren & Rrenfai et ora % fee) wie wa 21 sea /aa fare create fig a afted we aH] armas? Q) Faw A @ Bato 3) a7 B @ asp 27. Read the following four statements given in jumbled order : ‘A. Ramesh's father thought he would not do ‘well in his studies. B, Ramesh proved that his father was ‘wrong. C. He went to the best college by scoring 90%, 1D. His mother believed the opposite. Which of the following options presents the above statements in proper sequence ? A, D, B,C @ AB,0,D @) BODA @ ABDC ‘There are four schools in a town. In School A, 50% of stndents’ body members aro nominated and the rest are elected by all the students. School B conducts students? body elections in which all students of classes 6-12 vote, School C conducts elections but only boys are dligible to vote, School D nominates students to the students’ body based on performance in examinations, Which school(s) _follow(s) democratic principles to the maximum extent ? wy Only A (2) BandC (@) Only ) AandD(uy 20. Prafefiaa a seri wi ofeq sit sek 9 Rec] ag sea a oer Gifare » mare, a a AE 2a, caret a wet F 1 fefafer #8 ata we aan figea se 3] wae? GM, aga ate (2) ae stk ons A Fes aH 2 | () wns Bee wet EL (4) Grex waa wait # Re Ha Ree wee ye Fae aera 2 He? ‘fuer arr 0) Rerrrarers : fear wer acter : area, ‘fafeacee - oie wher : dea fide: (77 31 #36). Reifiten agede =) ae oth fee me wed a Ake: wore & ott Fw stem Fem ran ott sieret 3 fer a ow TRA ater? & eu A seqr fe “et 2007 H, miter Samm at were aE fee Fase & eter fact we a ata Hr, st wen & ora 81 taal aia @ fer ath sa oT fe wiser ort weit Mase” ‘Mass ae = ° D 0s D @D 2 ; @a @) B of 3 © @o w(9) 46. fe fq me ave site 4 fatter get sit seam ae Peet fog ear ae caer ae @ we ote A agen fa eK ‘feaa coN AR & fire ore fous 3 ferq aa] ‘fee rar aT eT eB? G) qeentt & yew gaat AT 8502N iT | (2) Sine 3 ye ae gee AH 40-4 N EAT I @) WS ww wR AK 1954N STI WH BW HT I 365-7 N BT | Weight (N) oars 48: Given below is a bar graph showing the weight of an object on different planets and Moon : Which of the following is correct in accordance with this bar graph for another object of weight 60 N on the surface of Moon ? “aT Tes weight on the surface of Jupiter will be 8502. (2) Its weight on the surface of Mars will be 40-4N, (8) Its weight on the surface of Mercury will be 185-4 N. (Its weight on the surface of Venus will be 365-7 N. somes094P-EH-E3 oe Tees oar Ree eat a se iP pears Ga ar ave walfirs catia Vall i a & @ | 12 9g 8 13 gene 2014 ae ate dted etn aie Seetmre ere Vato (ier) aed au speater galtke am srritor fear we 1 gail af Ae aa StS one wa sere | Gale Siew: 1. TTA: ay wT 2 BUTT | THe sis 16 3a. dems; aaréeagret 4. Hanser: dfsergre 5. Waal aor: weer weet ae Hh seis Zi 4 art eae A ST aE Oni & fee wwe fa Sen | wee aye Had A 2 asi A ras wis 16 & fe ada (Gre) we A qt ae % ot & wail } ae vars 2a (ais ae) are Get 4, oatg, Pret Ae oA fede da ome wor % fore oat ag wa A | ae eT sete Gn 3 ora Git 8S fare ea 3 fieg dae ea Ae Gen oft ane dal ¥ sera wer} fare sider we Sl | ye vibe 1 em vied eo aH ony aah fe fem cent cafe @ tat ote Sa er a ahaa 68 & fey ahora tei Fad aret 3 ahi & ta we afainn fe Sen wt | a aie a ore fe ht sit anit te Son wer | we Aa Hoon at 1-0 a ere wh A din fee Mfr ay ag | eer te % dhe faenisat 3 He a ge 501 an oe fem, fart & tac 1152 a ae | ge Tare A ga 417i tite fee ay | Freeh am ar safer ea on, a aed ae (ag we) FA gals a are a oe, wa ter wg ait 4 am a aT arate A aa a cle # uci ogmer atk Sear cit & fais & aa “Her eR a] ware” Sa | (20) Arde: (397 47 450). A? Re Te atpeatg a aize| Directions + (Questions 47 to 50). Read the fallowing passage and answer the questions that follow : Football is one of the most popular games played. The. 20" Federation of International Football Association (FIFA) World Cup football tournament was organized in Brazil from 12 June to 18 July 2014. The participating teams were divided in 8 groups of 4-teams each, There were five stages lof the tournament : 1, FirstSiage : Group Stage 2. Sevond Stage : Round of 16 3. Third Stage : Quarterfinals 4. Fourth Stage : Semi-finals 5. Fifth Stage: Final Each team in the first stage played one match ‘against each of the other teams of the group, Top ‘two teams from each group qualified for Round of 16. Second stage onwards the mmtches were knockout games i.e. only winning team of a match ‘will advance to the next stage. In the second stage, each team played only one match against one of the other teams and half the teams qualified for the next stage. Same process was followed for Jadvancement up to fifth stage. One extra match was played between losers of semifinals to decide the third and fourth place teams. Final match was played between Germany and Argentina, Germany became the warld champion by defeating Argentina with a score of 1-0 in the final match, During the final match, « total 1501 passes Jwere made of which only 1152 were completed. In all, ‘171 goals were scored in the tournament, The lost titlcholders, Spain, were eliminated at the /eroup stage while the host nation finished fourth in the tournament, The Colombian team won “FIFA Fair Play Award” with the tournament's best disciplinary and sportsmanship record.(a1) 47, $8 Re 1 fea site A ora Ae 7 fer Te] apt atte argh ore at aftr aa nf 22 @D @a @) B @ ¢ aft ate dm catte A cha err x aint at at ger Paw fg Ga A aan 2 a 7 8) | @ ® alte af ta ates sit deat ea ah 2 a | (2) @ | oa aati & ved aor ga fae Ba GS ae 2 | a) 64 @) 36 @) 48 @) 62 4 5 6 3-00 094P-EH-E8 47. Which one of the following diagrams correctly shows the percentage of completed and uncompleted passes during the final match ? Ucar scan noe psn -"CS asses ‘Completed me A B cron Completed ome mes CF me set c D @ D @ A @) B f wc somes 48, How many matches must a team have played if they finished fourth in the tournament ? M7 a4 irs w6 }49. What were the average goals scored per match in the tournament ? @ 3-00 @) 267 ere @ 386 How many total matches were played in the first stage of the tournament ? 64 @ 36 @) 48 @ 32094P-EH-E3 51. Fe ya ee Aw ois a A wee Rats we ads 8 aad 8 Ho ores yea % fed sie ar ater a So Ta ah @ fea oie % wo a (Get fe Ae wafer me 8) | (22) |e Neba has blocks with numbers printed on it. ‘She makes a pyramid so-that the sum of the ‘two adjacent blocks is equal to the number oa the block placed above them (as shown below). 22. a[ 6 If she applies the game principle to make a pyramid of 15 blocks as shown below, what: number must replace the question mack (2)? mea @, aah & fire ag ad faegia vari @, a ie werares fag (2) FI TH ST sim STOTT? + 16a 2 23 5 42 Le 1 Ce 7 . @ 2 of 58 @ 2 © @ 59 a @ 60 @ 60 52, In a “Throwball League Match”, a player can - » earn points as per the following rules : ba cain Ba? # a Fret fe ballremaine within | ge ies afer arc eT Yonetes Jo points earned a afer 20 ie 3 sige Tet @ ate Thball reaches beyond sine 10 metres but less than | 05 points a ar 10 wiec 8 oo weg wo |S 50 metres & orqorn wea 8 Whall reaches beyond | oy oints af ala G0 Mec Sand age at ® | 07 aie 50 metre a A player can throw the ball maximum up to ‘a Fe wee i} so’ times. Points earned in each throw are et ae aif RB Sitsan flere added to got the total score of the player. aged Ce feat aT Which of the following scores cannot be a Pratt 4 2 stam fer feserét a enfia possible total score of any player ? Fa ak ae Daw? @ @ @) o RReR @ 26 @ Oy 23 a) 64(93) 094P-EH-E3 5a, Ug ater A wd dent oT & fe ‘an wigal or avin finer | sat Fact garg att zed ear ofl a hn deers A 3 fae Rear atte ye sa Fe rom we! 4,13, 22, 81, 40 ale 1a Frefit wet & 4 Freie ara & 31 aft ag Saat card afk Gerster A afta ar samt erat 8 dt we Bigat a wT aa EE |TT ‘eer aoa wT TAT ee @ 10 @7 @ 6 w 5 5. Raa Ae add wget oo SK eA fara arma dra an wid Bt Sowa | aE oT =, odatd & fri ft wm ae we 8 FIT a ST erat & a are fart ae sid seh are wat a, at feat adsl @ ga go HK ‘eum ita eT 2 (SA) ws a) 3 @) 4 58, Rahul used 4 rings on the abacus rod to make numbers. He used only units and tens place ~ rods to make numbers, hence making the follwing numbers : 4, 18, 22, 81, 40 Represents 4 ‘Represents 81 How many numbers can he make using six rings ifhe uses only tens and hundreds place ? @ 0 @7 BT 6 ws 54, In a fair you throw three darts oa the __ following dartboard to score a total of 60. Any of the dazts can hit same part of dartboard ‘more than once. If you score on each dart that you throw, in how many ways is it possible to score a total of 607 @ 5 ot @ 3 w 4 RANE:094P-EH-E3 55. WH aan Hara Rene — P,@,R,S, 1,0 Vv & det St caer Fier were PQ ded tend) 8,143 aan 21 UR she Te dia F tam’ | v, oifim Sem H Gam #1 9, aaa art oe # sage 8a A wraear & agen, fee mm fas # ep ee OH te ae 7 Solan Ap ap Bp th 1 oa m@ wv Ww vw a P @ R @ 7 wu 56. St mate, UHM fg & eer wre eee fata feemott H 2 ater acid %, Fie art re get I aft Rec 5 sex oft wert @ | or sam ste Al gies? Ga) 2eaex raat oa vier @ @ @ aather (24) 55. In a dassroom the seating plan of seven students - P,Q, R, 8, T, Uand Vis as follows : P site in betwoon Q and R. S sits behind T. Ussits botween R and'T. ‘Vesits on the last desk. Q siti in the front. ‘Aceording to the above seating plan, who sits on the desk number III in the given picture ? Spat San Sp AAD 1 on m@ wey ow vw a P oR @ 7 @u |. Two men, starting at the same point, walk in opposite directions for 12 metres, turn to their left and walk another 5 metres. What is the distance between them now ? (2) 26 metres (2) 13 metres (8) 24 metres ) 34 metresome (35) 094P-BH-E3 si. a arat AS fee Te fem eal & fee wT ae afin SBaMa G, - x 4) FT Fea aq yan wer &, a srt eta caftreat aie rn ar af, Fare oft oaear HF aes TE ‘fra ar orien He adi 8? @ @ 9 @ 8 18 58, Prax mre aH 1094 8 2014 we apts Bat area gr Se AeaT A oT ce: By ‘ia ny reat HoT fea al i eal cea sie eal A Ge sien waits 87 (a) 2014 (2) 2002 (3) 2006 (4) 2010 87, Tf you bave to use all the four mathematical ‘operations (+, -, x, +) only once in the blanks ‘below, what is the meximum number you got ifat no stage you have a fraction or a negative number? @ 18 38, ‘The following graph shows the medals won by India in Commonwealth Games from 1994 to 2014. ‘Number of medals won —> In which year was the difference between the number of gold medals and bronze medals maximum ? 2014 (2) 2002 (@) 2006 (4) 2010 Se094?-EH-ES 0. we wre Rib apr am Seen al ET | a wea i ae fer Fafa a aie eT 8: 10 iat =2 Ba 1aa=23e 43a <1 oT oar dt rd faftora aii & amere wr, Pert Ia TH mS wa 8? m4 @s @) 10 @ 2 sane) art sie ae era Ht infest ee STS api nat ah 108 TH fiat @ 1 ale ae ays (aifra a) 112 frat gs at Ta sia (aif) % 5 aH art & atk ama sig oR] art % dl eA 108 fet ra sige am ahh? @ @ @ vows @ (28) |59. A fruit seller doos not use currency. Instead he uses the following exchange rates = 10 Strawberries 2 Apples 1 Apple = 2 Bananas 4 Bananas = 1 Mango On the basis of the above exchange rates, how many strawberries are equal to one mango ? @ 4 @ 8 gf 10 @) 2 Your grandmother counts upto 108 using the fingers and the thumb of her left hand. If she starts counting from the thumb (Marked A) as 1 to the little finger {marked E) as 5 and comes back to the thumb, on which finger will she end up after counting 108? Me 2) B wc @ D