CDS Exami[tl):2016 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : SDC-S-SND Test Booklet Series Serial No. TEST BOOKLET GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 100 INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 8. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). Yon will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item, 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. () There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (i) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) Ifa question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO wa & : sepa ar fei Soren wa gfe > fos Je K oT tl1. Which one of the following gases is released mostly from landfills in urban. areas? (a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen (c) Methane (4) Oxygen 2. Which one of the following is most sensitive to environmental change? (a) Amphibian (b) Reptile (c) Mammal (d) Insect Which one of the following is the largest source of electricity in India? (a) Hydropower plants (b) Nuclear power plants () Thermal power plants (a) Wind energy The HIV virus weakens the immunity of a person because it destroys (a) mast cells (b) platelets (c) erythrocytes (a) lymphocytes 5. Which one of the following air pollutants combines with the haemoglobin of human blood and reduces its oxygen- carrying capacity, leading to suffocation and may cause even death? (a) Chloroflucrocarbon () Fly ash () Carbon monoxide (@) Sulphur dioxide SDC-S-SND/1A An irregular mode of reproduction resulting in the development of an embryo without fertilization is called 1, Parthenogenesis 2. Apogamy 3. Sporophytic budding Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only () 2 and 3 only (@ 1,2and3 7. Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon? (a) Coal (b) Diamond (c) Graphite (@) Graphene 8. In paper manufacturing, degumming of the raw material is done using (a) sulphuric acid (b) bleaching powder (c) caustic soda (@) nitric acid 9. Dolomite powder is applied in some agricultural lands. The purpose of applying it is to (a) increase the pH of the soil (b) lower the pH of the soil (c) increase the phosphorus content of the soil (@) increase the nitrogen content of the soil“1, Prater 48 at we fa ued eat a aau-aca a (celia) a afte Fae (a) TRA (b) eer () 3a (a) sia 2. Prafefad 4 8 ea-a we watact hada fe waiter daeratiet 8? a wR (b) BRS (o) -Brraeh (@ He 3, faffaa 4a aa we ma a a waa agi Gia et? (a) wi-fesich aa (b) waste ferret aaa (oy wa-fgg aia (a) vr wat 4. HIV fray feet safe A deer fra wa aan axa 87 (a) Feie aire Hy Ae (o) igsrmeysit (ceecte) we EH fo) THTyS Bae aE (a) Hara a ae HE 8. frafafad 4 8 aa-a Hag waae Aa Th & Caves % wa dels dae sataitors a am Al gah aaa al aa ear 2%, Rea avery tran & sit arg + A ee 8? (a) aeiregsittenrds (&) Ferg Br (co) rds stiaergs (@) Wer SRHTRTES SDC-S-SND/1A. 6. srr A wm ofiafia fat, fred yfemeaey fret & far & yo an fama tat @, ear peeirdh 8? 1, afitasra (mena) 2. arrestee) 3. atmpsefidia EEE (wees afer) A fee ae a a a aR Wai oR BPTI (a) Fa 1 (b) Fa 2 () FIG 2 3K 3 i 1,233 7. Prafataa 4 8 ea-m we ada ar sed we 8? (a) re (e) ta (o) feaftas (rere) (a 6a 8. ara Prin 4, ee are ar ferites fae eT @ fen sr 2? (a) Fora ara (6) Fes eh (co) Tew tier (wifeew ater) (a) FRR aA 9. dime ai ar wit ge sii yet 7 fea ‘ren 8 | aa weir ar ae Sea eat B? (a) Fa% pH wart (b) ¥1% pH aw HH HoT () yal A wieaRA ATA a AST (@) Fa A ase Ara Bt age [P.7.0.10. Deficiency of fluoride leads to which one 14, With reference to earthquakes, which of of the following health problems? the following statements are correct? 1. Earthquakes largely occur along (a) Tooth caries : the converging plate boundaries. (6) Mottling of tooth 2. Point of origin of earthquake in alata ca lithosphere is known as focus/ hypocentre. (a) Stiffening of joints 3. Intensity of earthquake decreases with distance from the epicentre. 11, Excessive use of which of the following 4. Epicentre of earthquake always fertilizers may be responsible for the Zematus ‘aves ‘continents only, presence of a toxic substance in Select the correct answer using the code groundwater? given below. (a) Nitrogen (a) 1 and 2 only (b) Phosphate only (2) Ty 2 end! 3: 2 and 3 onl () Potassium only () 2iane) paly (@) land 4 (@) Phosphate and potassium 15. Which of the following pairs of Indian 12, Which one of the following elements ‘State and tribal population are correct? does not form solid hydrogen 1, Madhya Pradesh : Largest tribal carbonate? population 2. Mizoram : Highest percentage of tribal population out of the total (6) Potassium population of the State 3. Chhattisgarh : Second largest tribal population after Madhya (@) Lithium Pradesh 4. Arunachal Pradesh : Second highest percentage of tribal population out of the total population of the State after Mizoram (a) Sodium () Caesium 13. According to Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct sequence of States in decreasing order of their total size of population? Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab (@) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only () Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam () 1, 2and3 (6) Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab (a) Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam (@ 2,3 and4 SDC-S-SND/1A__ 410. 11. 2) 13. frafafaa #8 ae ww eRe] aAET wastage Fh aah 3 aren ete 8? (a) ta am (o) aaa ger (co) weit ar ae (a) Te A ore frefafaa sdat 38 fra we a amas sem tase fous onfeerg vert At safeate % fae feden A aaa 87 (a) TERA (b) 7a Bee (c) aa weer (a) Fidke otk Herr fafataa ae #8 at-a wm, de weg ‘arate wa aaa 2? (a) aifam (o) Fehr (co) Sify (@) ifm 2011 A aa & ager, Pefefaa 7a aaah we doh oth & HA Ba rare wel gu Hel? (a) a, wavs, aM, sa fo) akane, Fea, AA, Ha (o) FRE, Wave, TTI, TH (@) wrens, a, Ha, aH SDC-S-SND/1A 14, ae dal 4, Peifefad #8 ae wer wa 1. ay aftrmive: «= afer fa itera % warren era €1 2, weer Hor A soft a fg Sa FR/saaR HEAT Bl 3 wg A dam oitem a gt & are wedi @ 4. qe a afte wa me «a Bar 8 Aa ea my ez a wan a a Se AL (a) ¥aa 1 3k 2 () 1,28R3 () Fa 2 KS @ ia 15. unig oa sik sronda sree & Pefefira Ha ara ss adi 8? 1, Rasta : walle sasidta sre 2. fsa: ea A ga sade 4 roa sreien a aftenae sited 3. odieng : Wa wea ae ae Sta Sra SATE STE TST 4, se ver: fs & ae usa Fy ga Sten 9 8 ais sadeT A aftr fran 3 Sega AT TT AS fee me ee a van ae aA SR EAT (@ Fat 1 she 2 (b) Fas 2 she 4 () 1,233 @ 2,394 [P.7.0.16. The spring constant of a spring depends on its (a) length only (6) material only () length and its diameter (d) thickness, its diameter and its material 17. In the gamma decay of a nucleus (a) the mass number of the nucleus changes whereas its atomic number does not change (6) the mass number of the nucleus does not change whereas its atomic number changes (c) both the mass number and the atomic number of the nucleus change (@ neither the mass number nor the atomic number of the nucleus changes 18. In a bipolar junction transistor (a) all the three regions (the emitter, the base and the collector) have equal concentrations of impurity () the emitter has the least concen- tration of impurity () the collector has the least concen- tration of impurity (@) the base has the least concen- tration of impurity 19. The pressure exerted by a 760mm column of mercury at 0 °C is known as (a) 1 pascal (6) 1 atmosphere (o) 1 bar (@) 1 poise ____SDC-S-SND/1A pac ieeat 20. Which one of the following physical quantities has the same dimensions as that of Planck's constant h? (a) Linear momentum (b) Angular momentum (c) Force (a) Potential energy 21. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The response of the ear to sound of increasing intensity is approximately logarithmic. (6) The sensitivity of the human ear does not vary with the frequency of the sound. (c) When two or more’ waves traverse the same medium, the displacement of any element of the medium is the algebraic sum of the displacements due to each wave, (@) Longitudinal waves can travel in all media—solids, liquids and gases. 22. Which one of the following hormones is essential for the uptake of glucose by cells in the human body? (a) GH (b) TSH (Insulin (a) Cortisol16. fe sari a sari fers fra 7% fk ae 8? (a) Fae TER aE HK (b) Fae see a (co) Sa arang ht Sa AAI (@) SrA Ae, soe ore sik sere gerd 17. Fah safe % ar ea H ae eit 8? (q) 7hes A gam-den saad 3 sate sea HY -seHTs AM aaeTAT B) (o) wire A xermm-ten wa acer & ‘rats ee TAY -eHTs FaeTAT BI (9 irs A game oh Te-am ari seat #1 (a) Var aie Ai zerna-tien acer ® ik 7G Tory-aais aac 8) 18. fra fagaa aie giftee A an eit 8? (a) Wri eat Grate, aa sik ares) F was A wear sizer ah 21 (b) aR A argls A sere wiz eet 1 (o) Mares 4 orate Al areas Bizet Ah 8) (a) ¥a 4 agle A acca aig aL 19. 0°C % URA % 760 mm Fam aM A ATT ‘aa am weet 8? (a) 1 TRA (b) 1 teehee () 14% @ 148 SDC-S-SND/1A 20, Prieta vfs ofr a a fea ce A fart vate Paani farsi & aura eel 8? (a) Pere eee (by vie ea, (co) 4a (@) Pafts ssf 21. frrafefad 4 @ aaa TH wer Tel ae 8? (a) ah A aah BE ae wit ar A wien wer agorhia (alte) eae () ara ar At eaererera vahi Hl sgh % ara wei seer 81 ) AAAs sees a oH A eM FH aerft %, at sa area & feel raza ar freama sa vers oer aR ge Rae 3 ‘adsia a & acer Sa 2! (a) aA we wh mera, za othe ta Aaa aad 22. frfefan 4 8 aaa gia, ama wk atrasi a at & sien h faq afar 8? (a) to we (b) Bo To To () Far (@ Fifeaia [P.7.0.23. Which of the following cells do not 26. Match List-I with List-II and select the contain nucleus? correct answer using the code given 1. Root hair cells below the Lists : 2. Red blood cells List-t Listt 3. Platelets (Element) (Property/Use) 4. Monocytes AL Mg 1. Gives red colour to flame Select the correct answer using the code Bee ih{Sulsaie compound.wsed ve Ww. " a given beloy in medicine to examine the (a) 1 only alimentary canal of a patient () 2 and 3 only c. Sr 3. Traps the energy of sunlight () 1,2ana4 in photosynthesis (@) 2,3 and 4 D. Ba 4. Control of muscle contraction 24. Biological catalysts are protein molecules which Code: 1. speed up a chemical reaction @aA B Cc D 2. remain unchanged after reaction a4 6/1 8 3. function optimally at 37°C OA BC BD 4. do not have an enzymatic activity Oe Select the correct answer using the code @ A B Cc D given below. 3:4 § (a) 1 only @a Bc oD sas) a () 1,2 ana3 ( 2 end 3 only 27. Which one of the following statements is (@ 1,3 and4 correct? (a) The oxidation number for hydrogen 25. ‘Altitude sickness’ is caused at high a) alway E-SerO, altitude due to (b) The oxidation number for hydrogen (a) high partial pressure of oxygen is lags f1' (b) ow partial pressure of oxygen (c). The oxidation number for hydrogen (e) low level of haemoglobin is always -1. (@ high partial pressure of carbon (@) Hydrogen can have more than one dioxide oxidation number. ____sDC-S-SND/1A____ ge ae23. frafefad 4 8 fea aires 4 afte we amt? 1. aa ta aire 2. ara Te aT 3. afeary (reece) 4, wpe (Are) AS fae me ae ar eT ae HT Se GATTI (a) Fra (b) FA 2 sR (9 1,2%R4 (@) 2,334 24, Sire sake, wR ay ea, 1, Taras aPiBeer ay tat ar 83S 2. after % are sraftafta cea € 3. 37°C R TEM HH He S 4. tareh after agi ait & aR Ruy az a ee aE oR BAT! (q) a1 () 1,23R3 () FI 2 aS (@ 1,3aR4 28. ‘Gra dart’ afte Sard x eh 8) saa aE wae? (@) sieisa sa sift ware (b) stadisa a Pr sift are () Seine a1 sara (@) area sesttaags aa Tar aries aa SDC-S-SND/1A 26. aH A a 8 wea Ae sik Beat F oa faq me ez a eT a ae TT GPA: air a- i) (qu/seam) AL Mg 1. are tA sare Sa 8 B. Ca 2. fafirn 4 arte ate ar seit frei Hh A orer ara A Sita we a ae c. Sr 3. wara-tea 4 a & wa A oat a tea Tae & D. Ba 4. Ties dpa an Paar Fe: @aAa B D 2/4) a) 2 oA B C D ee ne W|/As)||| B))) >) 84 n| 2 @a Bc D ||| fa) 27, Prafafad 48 aaa um Hea we 8? (a) Tg Re steer sis wha A ta 81 (o) Warr % fare sia oie wea +1 amet (oc) TRS % fay slater sis wea -1 ame (d) CRSA % UH a atte aria si Saat a [P. 7.0.28. In case of a standard hydrogen electrode 31. If the latitude and longitudinal extent of an Indian State/UT is 15°48’00’N (a) absolute electrode potential is Bo asa ea eaioaaiel es need 74°40’33’"B, then which one of the (&) absolute electrode potential is zero following is that State/UT? () both absolute and standard (a) Puducherry electrode potential values are zero (@) electrode potential is zero only at (0) Chandigarn 25°C (c) Goa 29. The elemental composition of an adult (@) Delhi human body by mass is (a) C>O>H>N i tA 32, Match List-I with List-II and select the (6) O>C>H>N correct answer using the code given fa) Rie eas below the Lists : (@) N>C>0>H List-I List-It (Railway Zone) (Headquarters) 80. With regard to water transportation in A. North Easter Railway 1. Kolkata India, which of the following statements are correct? B. East Central Railway 2. Bilaspur 1, Headquarters of Central Inland C. South East Central 3. Hajipur Water Transport Corporation is Rallway located at Delhi. 2. Headquarters of Inland Waterways D. South Eastern 4. Gorakhpur Authority of India is located at Railway Noida. 3. National Inland —_ Navigation Code : Institute is located at Kolkata. @A Be D 4. First National Inland Waterway was ule ier between Haldia and Allahabad. Select the correct answer using the code (b) “> ow va a0 given below. (a) 1 and 2 only () “> vo 20 so (6) 2 and 3 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only Ma B® o (a) 1,2 and 4 a4 3 2 Ho _SDC-S-SND/1A 1028, GH Ae CES Wass & a (a) Praia eaadte fama apa ei eat 8 (b) Praia getagts faa Ea eter t 31. af fel afta waft mia wet a wai ok Garett fea 15°48°00 N @ 14ss'15N aR 74°20'13"E 74°40°33"" E &, ft Praferfaa 4 8 ae a4/ rm feed se Baa BF (9 Praia she ame ait wen & wets ra et fama & an ae aa t (a) were (dj fava Saal 25°C Ha eee (4) Wrage fara Se Bed 29. GH ame Aa TO a a eat FA () ten agen Pra weer Sten 8? (a) fea (a) C>O>H>N (b) O>C>H>N 32. aa wt ein a gfe Ae ak Gat () N>C>H>0 AS fq my az a a ae aE eR BAT (a) N>C>O>H air an 30, ure 4 aa dias % dau 4 fefefar Fa (wt HoEet) (gears) pripercjets: Mil AL CGH 1. aeera 1 5 aia aa what ar feet 3 fea kl B. erate 2. Pera 2, ania sicieta serfs a C. afer meta 3. rsh were eer F fra 2 D. afer-qai ta 4. Tia 3. Wer siddeiia ahiarem der Fleer A fem a) we 4. 3H uae sinéefa serrl fewer ait @aA Bc D ‘sererare & ats a @ 2 8 @ AP Ree az i wa aR at oR EPL oa B @€ D a 2 (a) %aa 1 sR 2 i i Ga BG D @) re 1 2 3 % () ¥ra 23k 4 @aA B Cc D (a 1,234 ee! SDC-S-SND/1A ia [P.T. 0.33. Which of the following statements 35. Which one of the following is not a concerning atmosphere of the Barth are tributary of the river Ganga?” correct? ; 1. In stratosphere, temperature (aeons increases with altitude. (b) Mahananda 2. In mesosphere, temperature decreases with altitude. Teese 3. The lowest temperature of the (@ Sharada atmosphere is recorded in the Upped part Of imesosphere. 36. Which one of the following pairs of lakes 4, Tropopause is an isothermal zone. is connected by Soo Canal? Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) Superior and Michigan @@). 1nd 2 only. (6) Superior and Huron (b) 1, 2 and 3 only () Huron and Ontario (c) 3 and 4 only (a) Huron and Erie (4) 1,2,3 and 4 37. In total internal reflection, the light 34, Match List-I with List-II and select the travels from i correct answer using the code given below the Lists : (a) rarer to denser medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity List-I List-IT (Place) (industry) (6) denser to rarer medium and it occurs with no loss of intensity A. Bongaigaon 1, Paper (c) rarer to denser medium and it B. Koraput 2. Machine tools Mt Eas occurs with loss of intensity C. Pinjore 3. Aircraft D. sipur perenne (a) denser to rarer medium and it occurs with loss of intensity Code : @ek BG D 38. The energy of a photon, whose 4 oe. B+ momentum is 10 MeV/c, where cis the speed of light, is’ given by @A B € D if i i ié 4 3. @ (a) 10 Mev @A B G6 D (b) 100 Mev 19 3 4 () 1 Mev @aA Bp © D 1, 3 @ 4% (@) 0-1 MeV SDC-S-SND/1A 1233. yal & agaued % du 7 frafafad 48 38. Fefafad 4 8 saa ce im Al err act wa Her we a? waa? 1. wrared Fo Sad we aT (a we asm a) 2, -wemmoge Seng ara aT gem 8 ian 3. FAVEE A ARAN TN Hes % (o) fee ‘sad am asf fear sar 21 (a) wet 4. ated (Qriata) we aAaA Ba 21 A Ree mg ae HT A SH TPT coe Onan (a) Fara 1 sie 2 iat om (b) Fa 1, 233 ul i () Fas sing @ enn (o a iia sik street (@) 1,2,33R4 @ Se (@ Base 34, qa at eS 8 Bera Aha ak Efe J ae Ra me ae a a a ae TR GAT 37. oh aiaies aoada A ware (a) fra 8 wer eA A ore @ aie tact Se ata 8 aft & fan ore att 8 a {oxi (bo) WR a fa Te FH sree ott laa A. dima 1. ar Al aft % fan wa ae ® B. aig 2. nef sitere (9 fea a aR Hem F ore & stk chat c. fis 3. aga A cafe ere sre een & D. 4. tararn (eters) (a) WR @ fara ea A ore & sik daa hi A fa & wa we tere ye: @asé B S D 38. Uh Bier, frast a1 10 MeV/c @, wel c 4 @. 3.2 wart a ae 8, Al Gal Pew ae wae ® A B cD Bh 8? e Sea 2 (a) 10 Mev ee e ie a (b) 100 MeV 1 2 3 % @a Bc D Gl | uey i 3 2 * (d) 0-1 Mev SDC-S-SND/1A, 13 [P.T.0.39. Liquids and gases never show 42. Match List-I with List-II and select the } ! correct answer using the code given diamagnetic proper! a) setae PTT below the Lists : (6) paramagnetic property List-I List-IT (c) ferromagnetic proj @ Sac (Ocean Current) (Country) (d) electromagnetic property ‘A, Agulhas Current 1. Peru 40. Light travels in a straight line (rectilinear Hs Gtaatnoiaet Guarani 44/0!\ ica ace, propagation of light). This statement does hold if the medium of travel for ©, Labrador Current 3. Argentina light is D. Falkland C1 = 4. Cat (a) of variable refractive index TAIRA pa (b) made up of slabs of different refractive indices Code : (c) homogeneous and transparent mA BOD (a) inhomogeneous and transparent as ££ a @ 41. Match List-I with List-I and select the ) A B Cc oD correct answer using the code given 2 i 4 3 below the Lists : List List- (A B c D (Strait) (Water Body) 8 i PAR A. Strait of Hormuz 1, Java Sea wh wp eB B. Strait of 2. Andaman Sea ea) ee Bab-el-Mandeb C. Strait of Malacca 3. Red Sea D. Strait of Sunda 4. Gulf of Persia 43. Which one of the following fishing . banks is located off the coast of the Code : : United Kingdom? @géa BB 6 D * 2 3 1 (a) Great Fisher Bank ea 2B GC DB 1 & @ @ (b) Grand Banks oA B @ D 1 268 4 (c) Dogger Bank aga B © D ||| ees)|||| 4) |/ 67 (a) Reed Bank —SD€-S-SND/1A——— 1439. aa ott fat A ah of 42. ah A Ei a gira fie otk andl (a) wfergrartta go ei eae AUR ey HTN SAS (b) sega IM ae eae at aa (o) Sie-qrasta yr el ta B (Rererréta ert) (a) (a) Prqa-garhia yo ae eae AL sryere oT 1 40. wer eh tar A aera & (FHT aT AeA Tee a ee dae)| ae wer Gee 8, ae va & fee C. aren ar 3. sda are a D. wie art 4. FART (a) wedi eration a a He: (>) fafa aradaist A ofa a an (o) Bar six aaa a (a) saath atk ores a 41. Ba A Gi a afer ify ok Gat qa aa Re me ee I a az a TR BPI @& B © DB wa bhai! FS 1A ga Pa | (aersranea) (aera) AL Sas ser 1, Saar @aA B Cc D B. aM-(e-area Geena 2, SSH ATR AMER C. Fare Sere 3. aa aK D. ga aeeren 4. ora Aart 43. frafafaa 4 8 tem we en de EIS firren & ae fa 2? me: @a sp € D an 3 & (a) 32 Pen te A 6 6 D ia a 2 4 (b) He aa GB © SD . t ae 4 (sin a @a-+B @ D 4 8 2 i (a) te te SDC-S-SND/1A 15 [P.7.0.44, Match List-I with List-II and select the 46. Which one of the following statements is correct answer using the code given not correct? below the Lists i (a) Position of the Sun, Earth and ‘Histel listr Moon in a straight line of 180° (Power Bland) (State) angle is known as syzygy. A. Satpura 1, Maharashtra B, Dhuvaran 2. Uttarakhand @ ae ‘eapimetion! Causes solar C. Tanakpur 3. Gujarat D. Dabhol 4. Madhya Pradesh (¢) “Syzygy opposition causes lunar eclipse. Code : (a) Syzygy conjunction occurs at the @ A B c D time of perihelion only. # 3 2 i @sA 8 € Db 1 6 2: 4 47. Which one of the following is not related to wind erosion? @A BaD 1 2 3 @ (a) Wind gap @aA B ce BD 2 8 2 (b) Zeugen 45. Which of the following statements (0) Dreikanter regarding soil is/are correct? 1. Alluvial soils are rich in nitrogen (d) Demoiselle content. 2. Black soils are rich in iron and lime but deficient in nitrogen. 48. Which one of the following is correct? |. Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but deficient in nitrogen (a) Guindy National Park is known for and potassium. tiger reserve. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) Namdapha National Park is meant for lion conservation, (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (o) Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve. anaes only (d) Rann of Kutch is a Wild Ass (@ 1,2 and3 Sanctuary. _SDC-S-SND/1A 16 ll44. ai a qa a wafer Fhe ak gfe s 46. frafefaad 4 & aaa oH Fer el TET a? AS faq mg ae ar ein ae A TA GPE: (a) 34, yeh atk am A 180° Fr A oH ait aan ai tar A feat git-fagit fg (Raa tia) (a) (fess) aeeerra 81 A. FAH Ls ERR () W-Rae fee dia qin a B. gee 2. sare Rm 8 C. aa 3. Ta () ae I ce D. wits 4. We Tea : eon : (a ae-Raf fry tier Baa on @a B ¢ D wa aa él 4 3 2 1 i A- Boe DB, |||) ||||$22 || ae 47. fefatad 4 a aa-a we ana aa & Ga Bb ¢@ BD ‘daiftra wet 2? 1 2 3 a @a B Cc D (a) ve Fae 4 2 3 < ) oF 48. yal day 9 fefetad 48 ae-a/a He “wat B/R? (ce) Sere 1, she gerd ado 3 aH ath FI (@) fearta (Zrietet 2, arch gare cite ait wa a aaa the s ; Ua aa @ OH ehh ZI 3. eage gant che sik Reghhhe 8 ae, 48, frafafan 4 a-a aa 27 Od @ og aah ain Heft 3 Br 8 fq Wa Awe wh, cen fod & faq a aR Rem ge a Re TR GAT rer (a) ¥aa 1 2 (b) Fram Aare I, VT eee & Ferg 21 (b) Fras i sans (o) Sear we saves ford 81 (@ 1,233 (a) Hes Bl TH UH Sere Te TEPAER BI SDC-S-SND/1A 17 [P. 7.0.—SDC-S-SND/1A. 49. Which one of the following statements concerning the natural vegetation of India is not correct? (a) Sal is found in moist deciduous forests. (b) Casuarina is largely found along the coastal region of Tamil Nadu. () Deodar is a coniferous species of tree. (@) Shola forests are found mainly on the upper reaches of Himalaya. 50. Which one of the following statements concerning research centres in India is not correct? (a) Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is located at Kolkata. Central Arid Zone Research Institute is located at Jodhpur. (b) Centre for Social Eco-Rehabilitation Allahabad. © Forestry and is located at (d) Institute of Forest Productivity is located at Ranchi. Directions : The following three (3) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. Code : (a) Both the _ statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (6) Both the statements —_ are individually true but Statement IL is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 51. Statement I : The Pahi-kashta peasants were non-resident cultivators cultivating lands on a contractual basis, Statement II : The Pahi-kashta peasants worked under the temptation of favourable terms of revenue or the compulsion of economic distress. 52. Statement I : The Zamindars were an exploitative class in Mughal India. Statement II : The Zamindars often received the support of the peasantry in a large number of agrarian uprisings in North India in the seventeenth century.49. fafetar wrt 4 a ae Ww a A swrgtten area 3 aia Het eh 8 (a) Area sg TRS eH A Te STAT Bd (o) raion saftrriga: afrerng % ada aa waar TT ST BI (co) 2aar, vigurd safe srw Ay 81 (@) wien ar yore: ferrea & sad a F ay wae) so. Frfefaa ai #8 see TH ARG ge Seat & ists Hel TEE 8? (a) wha wid) Sa sete (arteaitaish) tex Hreraran H fears B (0) Fata gs aa ogden dear she F fea el (o) afr aPEA ait valaw-graa ax, wererae 4 fea 21 (@) WA saree Sea teh H fee 81 SDC-S-SND/1A 19 Pam: frafaftan ata (3) weit FA ae %, eer 1 ate er L & Set wee a eraarigdes wham Ae ste fF Ra me ge we ae BE SH GPE: ee: () @i ae waits: aa %, sit eA T, we 1 ar et ea ) ai ae afta: wer 8, fg eH I, ere 1 a eh eae Te (o) Fert 1 ae 2, Peg wer OT rae (a) ert 1 Fa 8, Peg Fe ae 51. FHI: ‘ard-ared’ fram oftaret fear a, sh 3% (afar) & aren se saa Ay eer I: ‘ord-ared’ Pearl 3 og TRS wal 3 area 4 a ontie dee A far 4 am ‘fen! 52. HHT: greene ana 4 sefian ww sites af ar) wer I: wares sraredt 4 oat una H sefient = wa: aa den i pit dat fateh fear ar ae fire [P.T.0.53. Statement 56. Which King Ashoka abolished _ capital punishment and disbanded his army. Statement II : After Kalinga War, Ashoka was remorseful and became a Buddhist. 54. Which one of the following does not signify a battle tank? (a) 7-55 (b) T-155 () 7-72 (a) 7-90 55. Which of the following Gods are also known as Lokapalas or the Guardians of the Universe? (a) Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera () Indra, Varuna, Skanda and Kubera () Indra, Varuna, Yama and Brahma (d) Yama, Shiva, Kubera and Indra among the following Acts were repealed by Article 395 of the Constitution of India? 1, The Government of India Act, 1935 2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 4. The Government of India Act, 1919 Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (e) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (@ 1,2,3 and4 SDC-S-SND/1A___ 20. 58. Which of the 57. On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect? 1, Citizenship 2. Elections 3. Provisional Parliament 4, Fundamental Rights Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 2,3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 () 1 and 3 only (@) 1 and 2 only following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is/are correct? 1, The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. 2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise. 3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Delegation. 4, The distribution of seats was done on the basis of the Mountbatten Plan, Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (6) 1,2 and 3 () 2and 4 (@) 1 and 3 only53. 54. 55. 56. wT: ae oie A geqere at aa ae fear otk art aa BY vi ae aT) we IT: cation ge % ware oats vera dew hz TT fafetar Fa aaa we ye tH a At aatfan 8? (a) 7-55 (b) T-155 () 72 (a) 7-90 ewer 4 8 fea cham 7 wave (fa) & tere} wr FA set set 8? (a), &, ae athe BR (o) %, Fe, Be otk AK (co) %, Fe, 3H SK TET (a) 3, fra, ER sh H fefefaa 4 a fe afetatt a urd afer % aged 3905 % ao fea fen eH a? 1. ane wear aff, 1935 2. ainda eaam afer, 1947 3. ff anita dortrer eta fein, 1949 4, SR Aer afefaay, 1919 AA Remy ge a a aa SR BPTI (a) Far 1 2 (b) Fara 1 3. () Fa 1, 233 (@) 1,2, 33R4 SDC-S-SND/1A 21 87. 26 7a, 1949 A ua aaa & ‘Prafeftaa 48 ota-8 wae ar Ee? 1, afer 2. Prater 3. Fare dae 4, Tifa after A Ra me ae ar WIT aR BE TH BPTI @ 2,33R4 ) 1,28R3 () Fat 1 SKS. (a) ara 1 sik 2 58. ura A dun an & an a frafefad Fe ai a/ wert TE t/8? 1. vidta fae ant % weet eo ae ea 8 am a aaa Pe aT 2, arbhis aren wire % sna a Wa fre ag ay 3. wa A he a Raion Sate Sherr ge Pea 1a a 4, dai ar aia adeder ater sree Pea aT TT ae faq 7e az wr an a a Se ATL (a) ae 1 () 1,233 () 234 (@ Fass [P.T.0._SDC-S-SND/1A 59. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (@) Centre for Science and Environment in a recent study found that a number of commonly available brands of prepackaged breads tested positive for potassium bromate and potassium iodate. (b) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India recommended to the Health Ministry to remove potassium bromate from the list of permissible food additives. (c) The Union Government banned the use of potassium bromate as a food additive on the basis of the above recommendation. (@) Potassium bromate is a neurotoxin, 60. Which of the following voted for Brexit in June 2016? (a) England and Scotland (b) England and Wales () Scotland and Northern Ireland (d) Wales and Northern Ireland 22 61. Which one of the following statements about reusable space vehicle of ISRO is not correct? (a) In June 2016, ISRO successfully launched India’s first reusable space vehicle. (b) The space vehicle was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh. () The reusable launch vehicle climbed to a height of 65 km before automatically steering back for landing. (d) The vehicle was initially boosted by a rocket that contained liquid fuel. 62. Which one of the following statements is, not correct? (@) BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile made by India and Russian Federation. (2) The name BrahMos came from two rivers, Brahmaputra of India and Moskva of Russia. () Indian military scientists were capable of integrating BrahMos cruise missile with Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter. (@) Defence Research and Development Organization is the manufacturer of Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.89, Prafefian seri 3a aaa wm ad ae 2? 61. Fd (SRO) & Faves sista are H aR frrafeifiaa 48 staan um sem el AE a? (a) Bam sik vata ae a we GF fea, mee RM A ae a we 8 Ph BA (a) Bi 2016 4, HRA % vem grew yd as (24) & ork & sar FS aaa ae #1 ISRO 4 wecaryds Ba a sta 3 WR athe othe Hee ‘ara fe aiid % ee cifaea Tea eT (b) 7e safer ares sist weer Atefewer (o) sida are en GE ARR waa A ada var aide ax a cia far ear ara asa A ah Fa VaR sara aie A en A deals ees tara B a (co) Baa eq Sraferd Ba S arse sae a wed Gea ais ae 65 km FI Sard ve uga aT () saw Fg H omen H Se Wa F aa tie % ea 4 defer dhe & arin a afte Peat (@) wet aifre wT S a SH ara Te aR a agra PT ATL (a) Shira se wa aBenfes (=ReifaeA) a 62. frfafaa 4a aaa us Her wel wet 8? (a) wala, wN ik we da (ete) aT 60. FF 2016 # frefetad 4 & fra-Pra 9 fataee fifiia —_— (Brexit) fag ate Pra? ae ocre ra awh (b) wei am, @ fet, ara AY mega sie (a) Fae sik wales wa Al aera aM HEN TAT AL (b) Fas aR Aa () anda Sa aante wate ast free a Gae30 We Ho aee Tew H aT arrester a 3 we () Brads ait 308 ores (@) FAR30 Te Fo sige Yaw wr Pata (a) 2a ae ad ares tal ager sik fara area 21 SDC-S-SND/1A 23 [P.T.063. Which one of the following sources tells 65. Match List-I with List-II and select the us about women protesting against correct answer using the code given the infidelity of their husbands or the below the Lists : neglect of the wife and children by the male head of the household? List-I List (Historian) (Book) A. Sumit Sarkar 1. The Rise and Growth (a) The Kitab-ul-Hind of Economie Nationalism in India (6) Documents belonging to the Village B, Shahid Amin 2, A Rule of Property Panchayats of Rajasthan, Gujarat for Bengal and Maharashtra if C. Ranajit Guha 3. The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, (c) Sculptures from Mandor 1903-1908 D. Bipan Chandra 4. Event, Metaphor, ‘Memory—Chauri (a) The Ain+-Akbari of Abul Fazl Chaura, 1922-1992 Code : 64, The All India Census was real ISHII) Ine 3 £ 2 1 1, first attempted in 1872 gas © x 3 2 4 1 2. regularly undertaken since 1881 oa B c Do 3. always undertaken as a five-year 468 4 8 exercise @A 8 € pb Select the correct answer using the code 1* @ & given below. @ sloay 66. What form of Shiva is most prominent in the Brihadeshvara Temple built by the Chola dynasty? (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Harihara (b) Bhai () 1 and 2 only + hen () Rudra (@ 1,2and3 (@ Tripurantake SDC-S-SND/1A. 24 peu63. frafafad 4 8 aa-a ia, amt ofall At 65. ai a ai 2 gates sie sik Gast aera % fee a yer Teearh % ara Fett AP Re ae ae a aT aR FE TT BPA : a eh A a % Paes Aieensit 3% fade ant 4 aaren 8? ar ain a) (ger) (a) Prava-s- fee A. @fta ae 1. tua te abe oe setifis teraferon = sear o aan ote mera ta area B. weg ana 2. yee ote siete wit afer warat adda Cc. wees 963. a eee aaa ga ani, 1903-1908 . D. fara 4. 94x, Freie, WIR (fo) HeR afeReT ait, 1922-1992 (a) aq a AY oTg7-T-stHAE mes (@ A B c D 3 * 2 1 64, siftra sna SRT Cys (Be) Dp 3 2 4 1 1, 1872 Huet aR Ag 2, 1881 8 Rata era A ot fleece lis 3, daatia arara & wa A ate At a @ @aA B ¢€ BD 1 ai 2 3 fe Rg me ag a ein ae aa SR ATI —_ 66. ate wae aU fia gate Fe 7 fire ar (@ Aa-al u waits afte 8? (oe) *aa 233 (a) ee (0) a () FIG 1 RD () (4 1,23R3 (a) Pages SDC-S-SND/1A 25 [P. 7.0.67. The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to 1. the power of judicial review 2. the judgment in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) 3. the constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution of India 4. the judgment in Golaknath case (1967) Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) 1, 2 and 3 only () 1,2, 3 and 4 Yo 1 and 3 only (@) 2 and 4 only 68. Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens? 1, Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech) 2. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) 3. Article 15 (Prohibition of discri- mination) 4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity) Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1,2and3 (b) 2,3 and 4 () 1,3 and4 (@) 1 and 4 only —SDC-S-SND/1A. 26 A cit en of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she 1. renounces Indian citizenship 2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country 3. marries a citizen of another country 4. criticizes the Government Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) 1,2 and3 (6) 2,3 and 4 () 1 and 2 only (a) Landa 70. Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences? (@) A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused. (b) The accused must have violated an existing law. () An accused cannot be tried and punished for the same offence again. (@) The quantum of punishment must be provided in law as it existed on the date of commission of an offence.67. ara % afer % day # aE ca Ae Pe 69. HG a arcs art amfaat <2, ag 2? af ae 1, aah graces A af 1. ane aritcren ar afta see e 2, Sarre are APA (1973) # Foe, 2. Sead feet ra ea A area oH 3. una % dit % ogee 368 4% wart area 3. Reet ora 2a arrite @ faare wear & 4. tieaa ara (1967) # fie 4. WER A saeiten ae & 8 faq ne az a sein a aA TR GATTI 4 Rae az Aen aR a SR BIC (q) FG 1, 233 idl arias ) 1,2,3 34 (b) 2,334 () Fa 1 KS Fae 1 afk (a) Baa 2 4 a i (q 134 68, urd % ter 4 aftafia frefetra 7 a aaa fas often faa amie a ‘daftra #2 70. sand % faa fran fe at we satel i : wen} dda 9 freafafad 4a t-a ww a sade 19 (arg ea sree I wan wal ae RP Ham) 2. ages 21 (saa otk eft cada aT @ aRe-Rim A afar % fea ae Ram) ea Ff aah ft vam ae fen on ea 3. aged 15 (fate a aia) 4, ads 16 (sree A AAAI) () sige 3 feet tee are a sae ser fea a aR Rom a wi eR ae oe BAT fo) BA sea} Re Re a aifaw @ 1,233 fram él Pear sn aaa ik war ae a (o) 2,394 cet () 1,334 (a) war A aT arg 4H saves a mG AB she me ame Oh fia K arg F (a) Fara 1 fear a) SDC-S-SND/1A 27 [Ro71. Neil O’Brien, who died recently, was a famous (@)_ journalist (b) billiards player () dramatist (@) quiz master 72. Consider the following statement : “If you feel you are trapped in a black hole, don't give up. There is a way out.” Who among the following made the above statement? (a) Albert Binstein (b) Stephen Hawking (9 C. V. Raman (@) Abdus Salam 73. Recently the Government of India cleared the proposal for the production of 18 indigenous ‘Dhanush’ artillery guns to be produced in India by (@) Indian Army (6) US Army (c) Indian Ordnance Factory Board (@) Indian and US Army jointly _SDC-S-SND/1A. 74. Who among the following won the Men’s Singles Title in the Australian Open Tennis Tournament, 2016? (a) Jamie Murray (6) Bruno Soares (6) Novak Djokovic (a) Andy Murray Which of the following statements about the philosopher Shankara is/are true? 1, Shankara espoused a form of Vedanta called Advaita. 2. He elaborated on the philosophy of Gaudapada. 3. Shankara tried to demonstrate that the Upanishads and Brahmasutras contain a unified, — systematic philosophy. 4, Shankara founded the Amanaya Mathas. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1,2 and3 () 3and4 (@) 4 only71. Aa stare, wa 4 fe oy Ee, fs, (a) Trey (b) fafead % front & (co) Wear Y (a) weaved wre & 72. Rrfafad aaa % Fran afi : “aie saat af sara feet sets eta Fe ma, dt er a Art| eae AAT 21” ade aor Gai 8 eed Reo? (a) ead arg (bo) eater eifeen, (co) Wc Ao oH (@) 3a Ae 73. Wa A A aR we A 1s seat ‘egy ae deat & sare & fae wera FH segala 4 21 eral Scares nea F fee are Fen TET? (a) aida at (b) Ao Wo FI (co) sire sarqu tyaett as (a) arta sit qo Uo Sat ARI HATH BT A SDC-S-SND/1A 29 74, aigieen sie 2fra qaltz, 2016 4 yea we wl feara ga 8 foe fier 87 (a FR (b) Rae (o) an stats (@y Sime 75. Prafefad 4 8 ar-a/8 ser cei wae ‘fava 4 wea 8/87 1, Way acta UH wy, FA sida wee F, aa eae fan 2. gare asf A se aren I 3. vee 9 ae warfora aa ar save fear safeg sik wera 3 ue aiafea, are ala orate @1 4, ve a are wai Al ca Fi fre feu are Re we eT a HAI Se GPA (a) %aa 1 a2 (ob) 1,233 () 334 (a) Fa 4 [P. 7.0.76. Which of the following statements about the Deccan Riots of 1875 is/are true? 1, The Deccan Riots resulted in protection for peasants through the Deccan Agriculturalists Relief Act of 1879. 2. The riots did not spread to the whole of Maharashtra because of prompt suppression by the British. 3. The British were unable to contain the riots and they spread throughout Maharashtra. 4. The cotton boom in the Deccan that had been caused by the artificial demand generated by the American Civil War caused the impoverishment of the peasants. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) () () 2 and 4 only (@ 1,2 and 4 1 only 1 and 3 ‘77. Why are the Gypsies regarded as of Indian origin? 1. They — follow practices. 2. Their language, called Romani, is an Indo-Aryan language. 3. They believe that they came from India. 4. Epigraphic evidence locates their original home in Uttar Pradesh. Indian religious Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) (b) 2 only () 1,2 and 4 (a) 2and 3 1 and 4 only SDC-S-SND/1A. 30. ‘78. The term Upari refers to which one of the following? (@) A category of proprietary tenure under the Mughal rule () A category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule () A soldier in the Maratha army (@) A village headman in the Mughal period 79. The ‘water frame’ of Richard Arkwright was a device for (@) producing a new type of painting (b) irrigating fields for rice cultivation (¢) producing strong threads of yarn (a) the faster movement of steamships 80. The ‘four great needs’ of the people as identified by the Guomindang were (a) clothing, food, housing and transportation (b) education, food, housing and health care (c) food, housing, education and employment (4) employment, housing, education and health care76. Frafetian 4 a aa-a1/8 Fer 1875 % ea Sit awa Fae 8/8? 1. Te} oh S vores cae gs ed afafaa, 1879 % aa & fear at gan fifi 2. fiat & areatte aa & wer a renee, 3 te et 3. aie a A tal a read a ck R rere 4a et 1a) 4. wm i ame 4 wen gfe, ft othe F Tea a sera FA I ae BH, 3 ‘fear a aera a Rea fre feu 1 ez a WaT eK FA SR GAIT (a) FA @) 183 (c) Fae 2 se 4 (@ 1,234 77. Fai (Beh) A ada aM wr et aa aim 8? 1. A areca enties farsi a orem ara 1 2. aA am, st tart sear %, saredta-aard are &1 3. wa ae faa % fe 3 ma a ome Rt 4. eda wea srr Hee Te a wT 4 eats at 81 Aa feu ay ag ar wan ae a TR GAT (a) ¥aa 1 sik 4 (b) aa 2 @ 1,234 @ 233 SDC-S-SND/1A 31 78. ‘Sat’ we Prafatad 4 8 fea ws daa A ey (a) We TRA % aia eats after A we (b) WIS TRA & arte areca afta A we Ah () Ta ws Ft oH aa (a) re area 4 we ata ar frat 79. trad orhuge a ‘are Be’ fra ard & fore wa ‘afer of? (a) THA va A fered & fare, (b) ar A Ah Bg Beh A fare Fee () Aq AsqM aT aaa fore, (ay aeaaatera iat wt ca aa BA fare 80. Waite aa Aula saa A aR fe sree aH Ff? (a) FSI, GH, H ak wae (6) Poen, Grn, oe sit Tare ta (co) arm, %, Prat she tse (a) tame, %, Pret oh carer ea [P. 7.0.81. Which one of the following was the earlier 85. name of Tokyo? (a) Osaka (b) Kyoto () Samurai (a) Edo Which one of the following is the highest altitude zoo in the world? (a) Cheyenne Mountain Zoo (b) Pandit G. B. Pant High Altitude Zoo (c) Himalayan Zoological Park, Gangtok (d) Padmaja = Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park 82. The epic, Silappadikaram refers to the 86. Which one of the following statements (a) story of Rama (b) Jaina elements in the storyline () culture of Sri Lankan Buddhists (a) cult of Shakti worship 83. Rakshasa type of marriage is (a) marriage by purchase (b) marriage by capture () marriage by giving dowry (@) marriage by seduction about the Missile Technology Control Regime is not correct? (a) The Missile Technology Control Regime is an informal and voluntary partnership _ initially formed among G-7 countries. (b) Members of the Missile Technology Control Regime prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km. (c) China applied to join the Regime but members did not offer the membership. (d@) No other country outside the membership follows the Regime rules. 84, Who among the following was defeated by Chile to won the Copa America Football Championship, 2016? 87. The first Tejas squadron of Indian Air Force consists of (a) Colombia : (a) 20 aircrafts with 4 in reserve @) Argentine (b) 100 aircrafts with 10 in reserve (c) Ecuador (c) 20 aircrafts with no reserve (a) Peru (a) 25 aircrafts with 5 in reserve ‘SDC=S-SND/1A $2—81. fefefar 4a aha, det 7 EA 88. Frfafad 4 8 ata-a fee a Fey Gra are am a? fafgara 3? (a) street (a) area aa Pater (b) Fie (b) fea he Ao da sa Gren Pater (o) aR (o) Ferre sift sar, Tate (a a (a) er arg Ferrera sf Serr 82, Hered aierearieann ree waltra 8? 86. frafafad aed 7 8 aa-m ws, flare shhenreht Pia sore 3 fava wl ei 8? (a) Wa wert eee pepe a ey (b) saree 8 Sa we arate 3k airs agar 2, a are 4 G-7 ait & ta art ay (o) Praga steht Pera yore 3 weer (c) *rciom % chat oA seats Ce 300 km & aftes % fore 500 kg @ oft opig-an a or a gent frenge 83, uaa war a free enegenet a seme melt ae a saere A wl Dea B1 ‘vatican fren ra faare @ TT (THA we wort Hane a fee (o) 4a artes Fen en rare witeer fra, vig ace A se eae wa (co) ea eae foe rar faare (@) Fae aera Ae ary Aa work A (a) weir Fan fare oe Faare. ‘Frail ar orem ae eT 2 84. Fa sate gata Ae, 2016 va 87. Hada arggan a wee Ase arg (za) feed fer Faeft are Prafertiaa 4 8 fee eran eT? fiat a 8? (a) reer (a) 20 fear aim 4 4 fod fa (bo) war (bo) 100 far sik aa 4 10 fod far (c) Fee (co) 20 faa ai aa 4 aig fied far ae (Ce (@) 25 far sik aa 4s tod fa SDC-S-SND/1A 33 [P.T.0.88, The headquarters of ‘Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific’ is located at (a) Singapore (6) Manila () Bangkok (@) Hong Kong 89. Which of the following with regard to the term ‘bank run’ is correct? (a) The net balance of money a bank has in its chest at the end of the day's business (b) The ratio of bank’s total deposits and total liabilities (o) A panic situation when the deposit holders start withdrawing cash from the banks (a) The period in which a bank creates highest credit in the market 90. Which of the following will be the outcome if an economy is under the inflationary pressure? 1. Domestic currency heads for depreciation. 2. Exports become less competitive with imports getting costlier. 3. Cost of borrowing decreases. 4, Bondholders get benefitted. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) land 2 (b) 2and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (@ 1,3 and 4 SDC-S-SND/1A 91. According to the Classical Theory of Employment, deviations from the state of full employment are (a) purely temporary in nature (b) permanent in nature (c) imaginary situations (a) normal situations 92. Capital deepening refers to (a) going for more fixed capital per worker (o) emphasis on social overhead capital (o) constant capital-output ratio (d) increasing capital-output ratio 93, Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to Article 32 of the Constitution of India? (a) It provides remedies to citizens for the enforcement of fundamental rights. (b) It is a part of fundamental rights. () The Supreme Court cannot refuse a writ petition under Article 32 on the ground of delay. (d) Protection under Article 32 also applies to the enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to do with the fundamental rights.88. ‘watite ts daa aie a uirm te < ‘Sefton’ a qearera el fees 87 (a) fang (6) ie (co) tae (ay ein ain 89. ‘Sao! we % day 4 frafataad 4 8 sear wee? (a) Q Ra a aaera ware OA Pe a A fasta 4 ea Fh ge as of (o) rh tH % ga wH aR ga tamil a sae () meg Hy feaia aa oe one at a fa Pecan Ue ae (@) 7 sat fret ag aq a Fae ‘pis a a 90. af wm adore Bitar zara % seria &, ah raferfian 4 8 aa-3 ahora ath? 1, Beas ar Sra eT 2. area Fé SA are Rats aH wer em 3, ser 3 Al ra we STH 4. ars oe ania a1 a Re me ez a va a a SR BPTI (a 132 ) 23R3 () %aa 1 ik 3 (@ 1,334 SDC-S-SND/1A 35 91. tom % were fain & agar, wi tse A sraeen & fares few wan % ea (a) seh A pier a eer () safe A eer Ce) icuPer saat (@) wR aa 92, Sei wera an sights aa 8? (a) sft aren safes Raa dott a8 Gar (o) aun eft Yoh a ae Bar (o) FR Ysera saga (2) 3 we Ph-sere aT 93, Aafeta seri # a ae-a we a & ‘afar & syede 32 % day F wel et 8? (a) 7e aricat = shes otra & vada & ‘fore Sa aH aeAT &1 (b) Te fers afta a us fren &1 () wee 32% ae, MH KT vert arrea feet fe afer at areca TEE AR AAT (@) ages 32% ces Te, ST a RLSM we oh er ete &, freer sere caftranndl & aig dale Fei 21 [P.T.0.94, Which one of the following writs is issued 97. Which one of the following statements by the Supreme Court to secure the is not true of the Protection of Women freedom of a person upon unlawful from Domestic Violence Act, 2005? arrest? (a) This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman subjected to domestic violence. (6) Mandamus (6) Only women can make a complaint under this legislation. (a) Habeas Corpus te coroner (co) Relief may be sought only against (@) Quo Warranto the husband or a male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship. 95. According to the provisions of the @ Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? The Act includes not just wives but also women in marriage-like relationships. (@)! essepect the} National Else 98. Which one of the following statements (b) To defend the country is not correct? (@) Creation of National Investment () To provide education to one’s child and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) was announced in the Union (4) To promote village and cottage Budget, 2015-16. industries (o) NUF is a fund for enhancing infrastructure facility in the 96. Under Article 352 of the Constitution country. of India, an emergency can be declared (c) NIIF and NIF (National Investment if (pecturity? ‘of teny; Dart. of Tndin, is Fund) are the names of the same threatened by ratgeictea ions 1. war (a) NIIF can have more than one 2. external aggression alternative investment fund, 3. armed rebellion 99. Which one of the following is not correct 4. intemal disturbance in respect of Andaman and Nicobar “ Ce a? Select the correct answer using the code Sne given below. (a) It is the first integrated theatre (a) 1,2 and3 command in India. (b) Its headquarters is at Port Blair. (b) 2,3 and 4 (c) It is commanded by a three-star () 1,3 and 4 jemices! i : (d) It was set up by the British during (@ 1 and 2 only the Second World War. ‘SDC=S=SND/1A 36 re94, frafatar 4 a ata wH ara, fet aie A tear «7 a a am ong, sat adam ghana ae & fore Sere =a ETT ‘ard Fea aren 8? (a) 42 seein (sera aia) (b) ‘rome (FSH) (o) seam (afsstiehe) (ay afene-yeor (wr aTiet) 98. wna % afters & sraurdi & organ Prete HS ser we Ahlers ctor ae 8? (a) Res 1 SE CTT (6) We A aie eT (c) SA weit A fen yer eT (a) WAG FER sei SH sears ea 96. and % faa & syede 352 4 siaia, srarraret A ston at a wat @, ae TET & feet am ft gran at aaa a lL a 2, fateh sre a 3, Bae armada 4. aiafee saga F fre feu me az ar ve ae aA SR GAT @ 1,2aR3 (b) 2,3 34 (© 1,334 (@) Fra 1 sR 2 SDC-S-SND/1A, 37 97. frafetad set 48 aH-a uw, we fem a fee eam siftian, 2005 % fava # aa weit? (a) 7e afafes atq fee a fran ef fet after A Mean yer ae & fore denfs ‘Sarat ar wale seat 21 (b) HAE % sivis Fac atert Gf ae ‘fread asf ax wa &1 () Fara va se Hw VB ye af, frat are ater & ciate dais zi, % fag & ce ih sn wa 21 (@) 7 afifem jaa vet a A ae srafde aren 2, afew frare-38 dae 7 Wi arch after sh gas stents sit 81 98, frateifira meri # & aaa wm al are 8? (@ wi fea wake dea a (NOF) * a A don dita az, 2015-16 # fre wag aE et fear sre Wa we srt ae ute yfete Gtert at A wet WIE ca ae a Get Note ; English version of the instructions is printed on the front cover of this Booklet.