Cat 01

CAT DECEMBER 2001
Q.2 A ladder lies against a wall. The top of the ladder reaches 8 ft. above the ground.
When the ladder slips two metres away from the wall, the top of the ladder touches
the foot of the wall. The length of the ladder is
1) 15 2) 17 3) 8 4) 10
Q.3 A takes 4 days to do a work. B takes twice as long as A. C takes twice as long as
B and D takes twice as long as C. They are made in groups of two. One of the groups
takes two third of the time taken by second pair. What is the combination of the first
pair?
1) A,C 2) A,D 3) B,C 4) B,D
Q.4 A student got marks in the ratio 6:7:8:9:10 in five subjects having equal
maximum marks. In all, he scored 60% marks. In how many subjects, he got more
than 50% ?
1) 4 2) 5 3) 3 4) None of these
Q.5 What is the least value of x for which expression x3 7x2 + 11x 5 gives positive
quantity?
1) 4 2) 5 3) 8 4) None of these
Q.9 Ram is having 158 coins of one rupee. He puts it in different bags, so that he can
hand over the cash of any denomination required between Rs. 1 to Rs. 158. What is
the least no. of bags required ?
1) 11 2) 13 3) 15 4) None of these
Q.10 Train X starts from A towards B. At same time, train Y start from B towards A.
Train X travels at speed of 70 kmph and Y travels at 50 kmph. While X does not stop
anywhere on the way, the train Y stops at station C in between at 60km from B for
15 minutes. At what distance from A they would meet
1) 115km 2) 112km 3) 120km 4) None of these
Q.11 There are three classes X,Y and Z. Average of class X is 83. Average of Class Y
is 76. Average of class Z is 85. Average of class X and Y is 79, average of class Y and
Z is 81. Find average of three Classes.
1) 81 2) 81.5 3) 82 4) 84
Q.12 There are five nos. a,b,c,d,e having value of 2,5,6,10,4, not necessarily in this
order. We have following clues
1) c + a = e 2) e + a = d 3) b-d = d
Which of the following is true ?
1) 10-5 = b-d 2) 4 + 6 = a+e 3) 4-2 = b-d 4) None of these.
Q.13 How many 5 digit different nos. can be formed which is divisible by 4 from the
digits 1,2,3,4,5,6 without repetition.
1)144 2)168 3)192 4)None of these
Q.14 All the pages of a book starting from page 1 are summed. One of the pages has
been added twice, and the total thus obtained is 1000. Which is the page that has
been added twice ?
1) 10 2) 12 3) 14 4) None of these.
Q.15 In a certain system product of 44 X 11 is represented as 2124 find how 1453

can be represented in decimal system ?
1)248 2) 346 3) 393 4) 410
Q.16 All positive consecutive integers starting from 1 were written on the blackboard.
One of the students entered the class and erased one of the numbers. Now the
average of the remaining numbers is 35 7/17.The erased number is _______.
1)17 2)8 3)9 4)None of these
Q.18 In a four digit number, the sum of digits in the first and fourth place is twice the
sum of the digits in the third and fourth place. The difference in the first and third
digit is equal to the second digit. What is the digit in the third place?
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 1
Q.19 A person had to multiply two numbers. Instead of multiplying by 35, the person
multiplied by 53, and the product went up by 540.What was the raised product?
1) 780 2) 1040 3) 1590 4) None of these
Q.20 Euclid had a triangle in his mind .The longest side is 20 and the other side is
10.Area of the triangle is 80.The third side is__
1) root 260 2) root 240 3) root 250 4)root 210
Q.21 09/12/2001 is Sunday. What was the day on 09/12/9071?
1) Thursday 2) Wednesday 3) Saturday 4) Sunday
Q.22 In a fibonacci series, difference between squares of 6th and 7th terms was 517.
What is the 8th term.
1) 32 2) 65 3) 83 4) None of these
Q.23 There is a circular field having four doors in North, East, West and South. A
person walks 3 meters from the North door. Another person comes out of the South
door and walks 9 meter towards East so that he is just able to see the first man.
What is the diameter of the field.
1) 12 2) 15 3) 9 4) None of these.
Q.25 Ram has 128 boxes with him. He has to put atleast 120 oranges in one box and
144 at the most. Find the least number of boxes which will have the same number of
oranges.
1) 5 2) 6 3) 103 4) Cant determine.

Q.26 There are two persons A and B who joined an organization on 1 st Jan 1970. A
joined at Rs. 300 and annual increment of Rs.30. B gets salary of Rs. 200 and hike of
Rs. 50 per six month. Find the total amount distributed at the end of 31st December
1979.
1) 91200 2) 92800 3) 97200 4) None of these
Q.29 If X and Y are positive integers and X + Y = 1, what is the least value of
(X + 1/X)2 + (Y+1/Y)2 ?
1) 24 2) 12.5 3) 20 4) None of these
Q.30 2<X<3 and 7<Y<-8, which of the following is minimum ?
1) XY2 2) X2Y 3) 5XY 4) None of these
Q.31 Rs. 960 is formed with denominations of Rs. 5, Rs. 2, Re. 1 coins. If the no. of
coins Rs 2 and Re 1 are interchanged then the amount varies by Rs. 40. If the total
no. of coins are 300, find the no. of coins of Rs. 5.
1)100 2)140 3) 60 4)None of these
Q. 32 If a=b2 - b, b 4 ,then a2 -2a is always divisible by__
1) 15 2) 20 3) 24 4) None of these
Q.33 A shopkeeper increases the selling price of his articles by 10% and then
reduces it by 10%.Again he does the same thing. Finally the selling price of the
articles comes down to 1944.75.What was the original selling price.
1) 1984.75 2) 2000 3) 2500 4) 2148.75
Q.34 a,b,c,d are non Zero real numbers. If a is > b and c> d and abcd =1 ,then
which of the following is correct?
1) bd ac 2) a+c > b+d 3) a2 b<d c 4) None of these
Q.35 There are two lights. The first light blinks 3 times per minute while the other
blinks 5 times in two minutes. Find the no. of times they will blink together in an
hour.
1) 20 2) 30 3) 60 4) None of these
Q.36 In a shop, cost of 3 burgers, 7 milkshake and french fries is Rs. 120. In the
same shop, cost of 4 burgers, 10 milkshake and french fries is Rs. 164.5. Find the
cost of 1 Burger, 1 Milkshake and french fries in the shop.
1) 41 2) 21 3) 31 4) None of these
Q.37 Fresh grapes contain 90% water, dry grapes contain 20% water. From 20 Kg
fresh grapes, How many Kg of dry grape can be obtain ?
1) 2.4 2) 2.5 3) 2.2 4) None of these
Q.38 x > 5 and y < -1. Which of the following is true ?
1) x2y >1 2) 4x > 5y 3) 4x < 5y 4) None of these

Q.39 x,y and z are integers, x and y are positive odd and z is positive even integers
then which is even ?
1) (x-z)2y > 0 2) (x-z)y2 > 0 3) (x-y)2z > 0 4) None of these
Q.40 There is a rectangular field of length 60 m and width 20 m. A path of uniform

width and area 516 sq m surrounds the field. Find the width of path
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Q.41 If abcd = 1 then the minimum value of (1+a)(1+b) (1+c) (1+d) is __________
1) 8 2) 16 3) 4 4) None of these
Q no.42 -44 are based on the following data:
A player X played an inning such that
r1=Scores of completed innings.
r2=Scores of incomplete innings.
n1= number of completed innings.
n2=number of incomplete innings.
B=r1+r2 / n1 C=r1/n1 + max { 0,r2-r1/n2}
D= r1+r2/ n1+n2
Q.42 Which of the following holds?
1) C B D 2) D B C 3) B C D 4) None of these.
Q.43 If B=100 and in next innings he scored 45 not out, then which of the following
holds?
1) B>C 2) C>B 3) C>D 4) None of these
Q.44 If total number of matches played were 20 and the score was 620,which of the
following is true?
1) B=31 2) D=31 3) C>D 4) None of these.
Q.45 What is the minimum value of value of x for which the expression x3-5x2+11x-5
gives positive values?
1) 5 2) 8 3) 4 4) None of these.
Q.46 One boy while solving a Quadratic equation takes the constant term wrong and
gets the roots (4,3). Another boy takes the coefficient of x wrong and gets the roots
(2,3). What are the actual roots?
1) (6,1) 2) (-4,3) 3) (2,-3) 4) None of these.
Q.47 If A,B,C are running a race A beats B by 12m while B beats C by 8 m. What is
the length of the track ?
1) 48 2) 30 3) 50 4) None of these.
Q.48 The difference in the money between A and B is Rs.1450.C has money twice of
B and difference in the money between A and C is Rs.700.So the amount with A is?
1) 750 Rs. 2) 2200Rs. 3) 800Rs. 4) None of these.
Q.49 P, Q and S are moving on a circular stadium of circumference 2100 m. When P

completes one round, Q is still 700 m behind. When S completes one round, Q is 300
m ahead of him. How far from the starting point three of them will meet for the first
time ?
1) 168 2) 2568 3) 2100 4) None of these
Q.50 x, y, z are distinct integers such as x is positive, y is lesser than x and z is more
than x and y. Then which of the following is true ?
1) x y 0 2) x-y > 0 3) x y z >0 4) None of these
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10.

(2) (2)
11. 12. 13. 14.(1) 15.(3) 16.(4) 17.(2) 18.(2) 19.(3) 20.
(2) (3) (3) (1)
21.(1) 22.(4) 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.(3)
(3) (3) (4) (4) (2) (1) (2)
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.(3)
(2) (4) (1) (2) (2) (4) (2) (3) (3)
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.(2)
(2) (3) (1) (2) (4) (1) (1) (2) (1)
2) 15
3) 20
4) 10
Directions for Qns. 27 to 30. The first pie-chart gives in percentage the quantity of oil carried through d
quantity of oil transported is 12 million tonnes. The second pie-chart gives in percentage the cost involv
The total cost involved is Rs. 30 million.
Q.27 What is the cost of transportation per tonne through roads (in
Rs.)?
(1)1 (2)1.5 (3)0.5 (4)2
Q.28 The minimum cost of transportation is through which means ?
(1)Rail (2)Road (3)Ship (4)Pipeline.
Q.29 The maximum cost of transportation is through which means ?
(1)Air (2)Ship (3)Rail (4)Pipeline.
Q.30. If P, Q, R denotes the cost per tonne for transportation through pipeline, ship and road respective
order is correct ?
(1) P>R>Q (2) Q>P>R (3) R>Q>P (4) P>Q>R
Directions for Qns. 31 to 34. The following two bar graphs gives the breakup of man-work hours for a so
offshore and onsite man-work hours for three different work-activities of the organization. The second b
the same 3 activities.
Q.31 Of the total work hours involved , what percent was devoted to
Coding ?
(1)55% (2)45% (3)65% (4)60%
Q.32 If 50% of the offshore coding hours is equally distributed among the onsite activities, then which o
following is true.
(1)Onsite design hours becomes almost equal to offshore coding

hours.
(2)Onsite design hours becomes less than offshore coding

hours.
(3)Onsite testing hours become less than offshore coding

hours.
(4)Onsite coding hours become less than offshore coding
hours.
Q.33 The actual hours devoted to offshore design falls short of the estimated offshore design hours by h
much percent.
(1)15% (2)10% (c)20% (d)30%
Q.34. The total onsite hours devoted to testing and design corresponds to which of the
following?
(1)It is more than the offshore coding

hours.
(2)It is more than the onshore coding

hours.
(3)It is less than the estimated offshore testing and design

hours.
(4)It is more than the estimated offshore testing and design

hours.
Directions:
Amit wants to see some plays. There are six plays going on. Amit wants to see all of them, as well as ta
tp 1:30p.m. The names of the plays, their durations and timings are all mentioned in the following table
Number Play Duration Timings
1 Sati Savitri 1 hour 9:00a.m, 2:00

p.m
2 Tipu Sultan 1 hour 10:00a.m, 11:00

a.m
3 Sundar Kand 30 10:30 a.m , 2:30

minutes p.m
4 Hayavardhana 1 hour 10:00 a.m, 11:00

a.m
5 Nagamandala 1 hour 11:00 a.m 2:00
p.m
6 Jhansi ki Rani 30 10:30 a.m, 1:30

minutes p.m
Q.35 Which is the best possible plan for Amit.
(1). Sundar Kand first, Jhansi Ki Rani third, Tipu Sultan fifth.
(2) Sati Savitri first, Nagamandala third, Sundar Kand fifth.
(3) Jhansi ki Rani first, Nagamandala third, Sundar Kand fifth.
(4) None of the above
Directions:
Elle is three times Yogesh.
Zahir is half Wahida
Zahir is younger than Yogesh.
Q.36. Which of the following are necessary to find the age of

each.
(1). Wahida is same age as that of Yogesh.
(2). Age of Zahir is ten.
(3). Both are required.
(4). None of these
Q. 37. Which of the following is true?
(1). Elle is the eldest.
(2) Wahida can be elder to Elle

(3) Wahida is eldert to Yogesh
Directions:
Peter owned a butchers shop. In Peters absence, a dog ran away with a piece of meat. When Peter retu
jealous of him, gave two statements each, one of which was a lie.
Ist Shopkeeper: The dog was black. It had no collar.
2nd shopkeeper: The dog was black. It had a short

tail.
3rd shopkeeper: The dog was white. It had a collar.
Q. 38 Therefore, the dog
(1). Was white with a short tail and no collar.
(2) was black with a long tail and a collar.
(3) was black with a short tail and a collar.
(4) was white with a long tail and no collar.
Directions: Certain sets are defined as follows.
If A is a set of all mothers and B is a set of all women, then, C =A.B represents all women who are moth
either in A or in B or in both. If there are no women who are mothers, then, A.B = f , where f is a null s
V is set of Vertebrates, F is the set of Fish, D is the set of Dogs, P is Pluto, M is the set of Mammals, A is
Alsatians.
Q 39. If X = M.D and X = D, then, which of the following is

true?
(1) All dogs are mammals
(2) Some dogs are mammals

(3) All mammals are dogs
Q 40. If P.D = f and P D = M, then, which of the following is true?
(1) Pluto or any of the dogs are mammals.
(2) Pluto and dogs are mammals
(3) Pluto is a dog and is a mammal.
(4) None of the above.
Q 41. If P D = A
(1) All dogs are Alsatians
(2) Pluto is an Alsatian
(3) No dog is an Alsatian
(4) Either (1) or (2).
There are 3 families.Bannerjees, Guptas and Sharmas.Each family has a feast every Sunday at differ
family eats different dishes and uses different coloured dinner sets.
The Bannerjees eat sambhar but not in the red dinner set.
The last family does not eat karela or

brinjal.
The other dinner sets are yellow and blue in colour.
The Guptas use the yellow dinner set.
Q 42. Which of the following is true ?

1) The Bannerjees eat at 12.
2) The last family eats sambhar in the blue dinner

set.
3) The Guptas eat karela in the yellow dinner set.
4) None of these.
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ANSWERS KEY:
1. 3 2. 4 3.3 4. 4 5. 3 6. 1 7. 4 8. 3 9. 4 10.3
11. 1 12. 1 13. 4 14. 1 15. 2 16. 3 17. 4 18. 1 19.2 20. 4
21. 2 22. 4 23. 2 24. 2 25. 1 26. 2 27. 2 28. 2 29. 1 30. 2
33. 2
31. 1 32. 1 34. 3 35. 2 36. 3 37. 4 38. 1 39. 1 40. 1
41. 4 42.2 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Doing a number of tests paid off. I know doing these tests caused much discomfort
as scores were not able to cross 70 or so. But then the actual CAT turned out just
like some of our papers, maybe a little easier.
The paper was easier than expected, but then the questions were not
straightforward. They required some thought and needed some calculations. The
verbal section threw a surprise, but an easy one at that. The passages in reading
comprehension were also attemptible.
Once again, CAT looked for mental toughness, or, the ability to perform under
pressure. What is one to do when each question is a challenge of sorts? When one is
aware of the clock ticking away, the pressure mounts and one is tempted to make
blind guesses. Hopefully, CAT aspirants did not make that mistake.
First, let me look at the pattern of the paper. The pattern was very much expected: 3
sections, 150 questions. So children used to a pattern of 3 sections were
comfortable. The number of questions is decreasing with the years: I remember the
times when CAT had 240 questions. One can be rest assured that in future it will
have 150 questions, or even lesser number of questions.
The Verbal Section had a mix of comprehension and English; and the surprise was
that there was some direct vocabulary this time. Fortunately the words were all from
our wordlists: parsimonious, mellow, disuse, facetious, and the like. The difference
was that this time dictionary usage was given and one had to pick out the choice
which was not part of the usage. Children who had done our word exercises were
definitely at an advantage, since not a single word was asked that we had not done
in class. Some of the questions were expected: parajumbles though this time there
were ABCDE and even ABCDEF, that is sentence arrangement of 5 or 6 sentences.
The passages too were more or less expected: There were 6 of them, on the
following topics:
1) Racial Discrimination,
2) History of Universe,
3) Childrens phonetic skills,
4) Billy Holiday,
5) Kurusawas characters, and
6) Democracy.
The number of questions per passage were slightly less, and there were a total of 30
questions on comprehension. There was no technical passage this time.
The Maths section had some surprises too. No questions on functions, or higher
maths. This time there was some arithmetic, with some direct questions. The
question on dry grapes was asked (answer 2.5!) as also one on roots. Fortunately we
had done many such questions. Surprise, there was also a question on calendars this
time (find the day on 9 Dec 1971) and something on averages. On the whole, the
section was attemptible though, as I said before, there was need for calculation and
one should not have hurried. There were some questions on umber systems as well.
The idea was to keep cool and keep attempting the questions you knew. The
tendency in these type or papers is to lose patience and mark blindly, in the hope
that some will be right at least. This is terrible. So, even if you were able to do just
10-20 questions out of 55, that was all right. At least they would be right. I have
always been saying that no matter how difficult the paper, there will always be 10-15
questions which you can do. The same applied this year too.
The DI section was comparatively easier. Some sets were quite difficult but others
were easy. The question on Data Sufficiency were relatively simple, though some
graphs required some calculations. This section was comparatively easy. The
questions on Reasoning were scary, since they were stand-alone questions, but some
of these should also have been attempted.
What could have been done in such a paper? Depending on your area of strength,
you should have started with Maths or Verbal, done the easy questions and sailed
through, avoiding the speed breakers. The first round should have seen you spot at
least 15 questions in Maths, another 15 in Verbal and 12-15 in Data. One to two
passages in Comprehension should have been attempted in the first round. Having
done 50 questions or so, your confidence would have been gained and then you
should have attempted the rest of the questions, taking each one separately and
figured out the logic.
The paper was certainly not for people who had not done difficult type of tests, nor
for the guess-makers. Thought was needed on each and every question; the paper
could not have been done in a hurry. Some questions required quick wits -- again
this would be difficult if one was tense. But I wonder if students were able to spot
the completely easy ones.
Children who gave the CAT this year have brought in a large number of questions.
We should be able to offer the complete paper in a few days.
It is being said that the score for IIMs this year would be 70+. I am sure that
students who did the paper intelligently, will be able to reach that score. However, in
such a paper, the number of attempts is no criteria for judging ones performance.
What matters is whether it was a balanced score and whether one was able to
control the number of mistakes.
:
1. CAT is finally out of the Bag. 9 Dec 2001 (the D Day) finally arrived. Before the
exam, outside exam Hall, various guess work by students on No. of sections,
questions, Difficulty level etc. was the order of the Day. Finally at 12.30 p.m., the
CAT was over. Mixed reaction could be observed on the faces of the students. The
PAPER was on similar pattern of last year viz. 3 sections, but this year only 150
questions, 2 hour paper without any sectional time limits. There were not many
SURPRISES.
2. By and large, students felt that Quantitative Ability (QA) section was
comparatively simpler. The English Reading Comprehension (RCs) were
comparatively tougher but apart from of a few questions remaining English and Data
Interpretation (DI) questions were average.
3. Detailed Analysis of the respective sections is discussed below.
Outline of the Paper At a Glance
Section No. Subject No. of Questions.
1. QA /Problem Solving 50
2. English (RC & EU) 50
DI & Data Sufficiency

3. 50
( incl. 10 questions on analytical reasoning)
Total Questions 150
Detailed Analysis - Section - I ( QA )

Detailed Analysis - Quantitative Ability (QA) Section
Sr. Subject / No. of

Difficulty Level / Remarks
No Topic Questions
Easy/Average/Difficult/Very
1. Arithmetic
Diff.
Number
1a. 14 3 5 4 2
system
1b. Averages 03 1 1 1
1c. Percentages 03 1 2
1d. SI & CI
Profit, Loss &

1e.
Discount
Ratio and
1f. 02 1 1
Proportion
Time, Speed
1g. 06 1 2 2 1
and Distance
1h. Work, Wages 02 1 1

(Time & Work)
1i. Calendars 01 1
General
1j. 01 1
Arithmatics
2 Algebra
Permutation
2a. and 1 1
Combination
linear and
2b. Quadratic 7 1 3 1 2
Equation
2c. Set Theory
Functions-
2d. Maxima 1 1
/Minima
Geometry &
3. 7 2 2 1 2
Mensuration
4. Trigonometry1 1
5. Others 1 1
6. Total 50
Comments and Analysis :
Overall the level of difficulty was average. Students found this to be surprising as it
was speculated as a very difficult section. Format/contents of the questions were as
follows :-
Six Questions:- Based on time and distance which also included a problem based on
streams and another based on races and games. 2 of them were also based on a
small graph representing amount of fuel consumed varying with the speed of the
vehicle.
Two Questions:- Based on time and work were direct application on formulae
Seven Questions:- Based on Geometry and Mensuration were by and large simple
and could be solved comparing the giving options.
Fourteen Questions:- Mainly number system, 1 on permutation & combination.
Eleven Questions:- Based on basic arithmetic and algebraic fundamentals,

formulation of linear and Quadratic Equation.
Total Questions 50
Suggested Time Allotment for QA Section - 40 to 45 min
Suggested Questions Attempts - 40 Plus
Likely cut off score - 35 Plus
Detailed Analysis Section - II ( RC & EU ) RC
1. Passage I
a) Subject - Narration of Film
b) Approx Words - 1000
c) Number of Questions - 6
d) Type of Questions - Specific questions mainly from the illustrative matter used in
the passage.
e) Difficulty level - Average
f) Other related aspects & comments - The passage did not contain difficult
vocabulary or language. However, the entire structure was soaked in the subject
matter alone.
2. Passage II
a) Subject - An obituary of a single named Billie Holiday.
d) Type of Questions - General questions by and large.
e) Difficulty level Average
f) Other related aspects & comments - The passage was simple and interesting which
helped to remember the contexts of the passage.
3. Passage III
a) Subject - U.N.Conference on racial and cast decimation.
d) Type of Questions - Not straight abstractive from the passage.
e) Difficulty level - Difficult
f) Other related aspects & comments - Was a general topic but the questions were
not direct abstraction from the passage.
4. Passage IV
a) Subject - Astronomy based passage-having concepts of Dark Age, big bank theory
and quasars, etc.
d) Type of Questions - By and large questions.
f) Other related aspects & comments - Technical language.
5. Passage V
a) Subject - Phonological skills in young children
d) Type of Questions - Could not be deducted from the passage directly.
f) Comments - Language was average but the passage contained a lot of obscurity.
6. Passage VI
a) Subject-Leadership and democracy.
b) Approx Words-750
c) Number of Questions-5
d) Type of Questions-Based on facts derived from the passage.
e) Difficulty Level-Difficult
f) Comments-Concept was general but the answers could not be derived easily from
the passage.
7. General Comments: RC Passages
a) The passages were all reasonably lengthy (above 800 words).
b) Language was easy & simple. However, each passage had its own technical paths
to tread.
c) Subjects range from very general to a very technical one.
d) Questions were not sequenced on any difficulty level.
e) Almost all questions had their answers drawn from the passages
8. English Usage :
Exercise Set I
a) Subject - Parajumbles ( 5 sentences type )
b) No. of. questions - 5
c) Difficulty Level - 3 problems Average, 2 problems-Difficult.
Exercise Set II
a) Contextual usages-Words to be phrased in properly to fit in the correct context.
b) No. of. Questions - 5
b) Difficulty Level - Average
Exercise Set III
a) Subject: Fill in the blanks
b) No. of Questions : 5
c) Type of Questions : There were 2 blanks in each sentence. The best alternative of
a set of 2 words had to be chosen from among the four options given. e. g.
In these black and depressing times of ______________ prices, non performing

governments and ___________________ crime rates, Sourav Ganguly has given us,
Indians, a lot to cheer about.
1. escalating, increasing (Suggested Ans.)
2. spiraling, booming
3. spiraling, roaring
4. ascending , debilitating
c) Difficulty Level - Easy
Comments - It was relatively easy to arrive at the correct option by the process of
elimination.
Exercise Set IV
a) Subject - Matching the Dictionary and usage based statements.
b) No of Questions - 5
c) Type of Questions - 2 Groups in vertical base were given, each having 5 sub-
groups the first vertical group containing dictionary group meaning and the second
corresponding group containing usage based statements were given to match with
each other.
d) Difficulty Level - Average
RC & EU Section Over all comments :

10. Difficulty Level :
RC - difficult
EU Easy / Average
11. Suggested Time Allotment RC & EU Section - 35 to 40 min.
12. Suggested Questions Attempts - 40 Plus
13.Likely cut off Score - 30 Plus.
Section - III
Detailed Analysis -- Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency Section
Ex. Subject / Topic No. of Difficulty Level/

No. Questions Remarks
1 ONE TABULAR Data various airports with there 5 Easy/Average

codes, locations, passengers etc.
2 ONE TABULAR Data of various types of 4 Easy / Average

garments in three different colors, each
available in four different sizes.
3 ONE SEGREGATED BAR DIAGRAM four bars each 4 Difficult

divided into five different segments representing
the five different operations undertaken by four
companies.
4 ONE BAR DIAGRAM giving data on coding 6 Difficult

decoding and testing (Three stages in a
software products life cycle).
5 ONE PIE DIAGRAM containing 2 pies one giving 3 Average

transportation amount and another total
transportation cost.
6 ONE DIAGRAMATIC REPRESENTAION five cities 4 Easy

connected through pipe lines. Problems based
on demand and supply and also the capacity of
the connecting pipe line.
7 Four Set theory based problems using concepts 5 Average/Difficult

of intersection and union of the sets.
8 ANALYTICAL REASONING data given as a form 10 Average

of small passage which included relationship
caselets, selection of groups age related
problem etc.
9 TABULAR DATA giving onsite and offsite options. 6 Difficult

9 DATA SUFFICIENCY 3 Easy /Average
TOTAL QUESTIONS : 50
10 Difficulty Level / Comments : Average/Difficult
11 Suggested Time Allotment for Section : 40 minutes
12. Suggested questions Attempt : 40 Plus
13. Likely Cutoff Score : 30 Plus
Analysis Summary And Overall Expert Comments - CAT 2001
1. Comments - Paper Pattern similar to CAT-2000. QA section Difficulty Level lower

than the other two sections i.e. English & DI.
2. CAT 2001 Paper Likely Cut Off Score

English RC & EU Section - 30Plus
QA/Problem Solving Section - 35Plus
DI & DS Section - 30 Plus
OVER ALL FOR IIM (For Interview Call) - 95 Plus
OVER ALL for MDI & SP JAIN - 85 - 90 plus
OVER ALL for MICA, CHANDIGARH
UBS, GOA - 75 to 80
3. Strategies Suggested for CAT 2002 :
- Shifting trends towards analytical Reasoning. Focus Accordingly.

- Trend towards QA/Problem Solving section becoming more logic based more focus
on Number System and algebraic equations. Prepare/Practice QA more effectively.
- More emphasis required on speed reading for RC Passages.
- Time Planning importance on the increase.
- No of Sections (Typically 4) not being adhered to. Sections could be 3 ( as for CAT
'2000 & CAT 2001) or could even go to 5 next year. Adopt flexibility in approach with
no RIGIDITY in mind about number of Sections /Questions / Type of Questions etc.
- Analytical Reasoning / Logical reasoning questions may appear in any / all sections.
Prepare accordingly.
COMPARATIVE ANALYSIS - CAT 99, CAT 2000 & CAT 2001
READING COMPREHENSION
CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT 2001
No. of Passage 5 5 6
Approx. Words in Passage 1475 (6) 1200 (8) 1000 (6)
& (No. of Questions) 850 (6) 1100 (8) 800 (4)
825 (5) 1100 (8) 800 (5)
875 (5) 1100 (8) 750 (4)
850 (5) 1000 (8) 1200 (5)

750 (5)
Total Words & (No.of 5100 (27) 5500 (40) 5300 (30)
(Questions)
ENGLISH USAGE
Topic CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT2001
Parajumbles Questions 10 10 5
(4/5/6 Type)
Sentence Correction 8
Inferential /
Deductive Reasoning 10
Fill in the Blanks 5 5
Sentence Arrangement
(4 /6 Statements)
Short Paragraphs
Substitute Underlines Portion
in sentence
Contextual usage 5
Match the two columns 5
Total Questions ------------ ------------ --------------

28 15 20
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY/ PROBLEM SOLVING
Topic CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT 2001
Arithmetic Questions
- Number System 10 15 14
- Averages, percentage/Mixtures 3 2 6
- Time, Speed & Distance 3 1 6
- General Arithmetic 3 8 6
Algebra Questions 9 9 7
Geometry & Mensuration 6 2 7

Permutations & Combination 3 1 1
Maxima & Minima Related 2 2 1
Set Theory(Functions & Graphs) 4 4
Graphical Situations 7 3 2
Verbal Logic/Logical Situations 5 8
TOTAL : 55 55 50
DATA INTERPRETATION (DI) & DATA SUFFICIENCY
Topic CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT 2001
Line Graph Questions 4 6 -
Line Chart 5 - -
Tabular Data 5 14 15
Pie Chart 6 - 3
Case - 5 -
Bar Diagram - 10 14
Data Suffiency 10 10 3
Critical Reasoning - 10 -
Analytical Reasoning - - 10
Set Theory - - 5
TOTAL : 30 55 50
Comparative Analysis - Trends & Expert Comments

1.Change in Format :- There is a clear increasing trend towards change in format
and flexibility in number of sections and questions. CAT paper NO MORE
STEREOTYPED.
2. Analytical and Logical Reasoning :- Focus shifting towards this.
3.Conventional Formula Based Questions :- A paradigm shift away from such

questions.
4. Level of Difficulty :- Trend towards SURPRISES. Quant Ability/Problem solving
section emerging as a less difficult section this year and reading comprehension
getting difficult over the years. Increasing competition for CAT is possibly one of the
major reason for this and QA/Problem solving section can eliminate large Number of
students from the race.
5. Time Planning & Accuracy :- Increasing Importance towards these aspects.
6. No of Sections (Typically 4) not being adhered to. Section could be 3

(as for CAT 2000 & CAT 2001) or could go to 5 next year. Adopt flexibility in
approach with no RIGIDITY in mind about number of Sections /Questions / Type of
Questions etc.
7. Analytical Reasoning / Logical reasoning questions may appear in any / all

sections. Prepare accordingly.
CAT DECEMBER 2000
Section I - English Questions 55
English Usage Questions

PARAJUMBLES
10
Parajumbles ( 4-sentence type)
Parajumbles ( 5-sentence type) 1
4
Parajumbles ( 6-sentence type) 5
SENTENCE COMPLETION 5
Total 15
Reading Comprehension Words Questions

North Indian Classical Music)
1300 8
Electronic & Magnetic Storage 1450 8
Technology 1450 8
1400 8
1300 8
Settlement of Tribes
Abstractionism
Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs)

Total 6900 40
Every test taker must have let off a sigh of relief after seeing the RC passages. One
should have spent about 40 minutes in this section attempting 3 passages that were
relatively easy, and mostly contained fact-based questions, amounting to 24
questions. The language was simple, and comprehension wasn't difficult at all. The
sentence completion questions were also easy as were the parajumbles and all 15
questions should have been attempted. Thus, totally one could have attempted
around 35 - 40 questions in 40 minutes, achieving a score of 30.
Section II - Quantitative Questions 55
Topic No. of Questions

ARITHMETIC 15
11
Number Systems
4
Rest of Arithmetic
ALGEBRA 12
8
Functionss
1
Progressions
3
Equations/Inequalities
GEOMETRY 9
6
Co-ordinate + Graphs
3
Plane Geometry
PERMUTATION / COMBINATION 3
REASONING 8
MISCELLANEOUS 8
TOTAL 55
The pattern of this section was not very different from last year - most of the
questions were reasoning driven. For example, the set of questions on cricket was
very simple, but most people dropped it because of lack of comfort with cases. A
large number of questions could have been attempted by working with choices.
The paper would look difficult to someone who was not very comfortable with
functions and Algebra - though the number of questions from these topics was not
high, they presented a prominent front in the paper. But out of the 12 problems in
functions 7 of them had nothing but a intimidating facade.
A second look at the paper would have enabled one to identify about 15-17 one-
liners that were a straight go! An allocation of about 40 minutes would have made an
attempt of about 25 fairly achievable.
Section III - DI, DS and Inferential Reasoning Questions 55
Questions
Data Sufficiency 10
Data Interpretation 30
Table- IT Industry
6
Table - Factories & Employment 4
5
4
Table - Export-Import Intensity
5
6
Bar Chart - Foreign Equity Inflow to
GDP Ratio
Multiple Bar Chart - 4 bar charts (for

1990 - 98)
Line Chart - Variable Cost / Marginal

Cost
REASONING 5
INFERENTIAL REASONING (short passages) 10
TOTAL 55
This section, comprising reasoning and data interpretation, could have come as a
relief after the quant section. The key to this section was to attempt the DS and
Inferential Reasoning questions and then pick up the easier sets of data. The five
Logical Reasoning questions were lengthy to read, took time to solve, and hence,
should have been the last resort as far as this section was concerned.
The tables on export-import intensity, factories and employment were a bit confusing
and could have been left. The table on IT sector, was easy to understand and the
questions were also direct. Similarly, the line chart on variable cost of Widget
Manufacturing by ABC Ltd. and bar chart on Foreign Equity Inflow were
straightforward. The set of data with four bar charts looked intimidating, but was
very simple and should have been attempted.
Out of the 10 questions in Inferential Reasoning, 8 were easy. The options did not
seem too confusing, but for someone who was daunted by the size of the
paragraphs, these should not have been attempted at all! An attempt of about 6-7
questions was achievable.
An attempt of 7 to 8 in DS, 15 in DI and 7 to 8 in Inferential Reasoning was possible

in 40 min. A net score of 25 was definitely on.
Comprehensive Analysis of the Common Admission Test
(for admission to the IIMs and other allied institutions in India)
Total Time allotted = 120 minutes (2 hours)

Total number of Sections = 3
Total Questions = 165
Section 1 English Usage + Reading Comprehension No. of questions = 55

Section 2 Mathematical Aptitude + Logical Reasoning No. of questions = 55
Section 3 Data Interpretation + Data Sufficiency + EU/RC + LR No. of
questions = 55
CAT 2000 -- OVERALL BASIC SUMMARY
1. CAT had 3 sections overall just like the previous year

(as compared to the conventional 4 sections that have been coming for the
past 10 years before that). A basic reason for this could have been the
examiners attempt to put stress on the students however, since the
students' already knew the pattern of the CAT and many had anticipated
almost what it would be like this year, it was a sigh of relief for many ! (not
that it would matter much as far as scores are concerned) It must be
mentioned here that this pattern along with many others were taken up in the
MM courseware and we are sure that our students would have benefited
immensely from that rigorous practice.
(2) English Usage was based primarily on "understanding of language and not
cramming of words."
Almost 10 questions were based on "Paragraph Formation" and

"Rearrangement of sentences". This trend has been seen for the past 10
years. (MM students have a major advantage over others this practice has
been done in the class hundreds of times.)
Typical "Fill in the Blanks" type questions came again (they were not a part of
CAT 1999). These have been done repeatedly in the MM classroom sessions.
No direct questions on Vocabulary came this time. No synonyms-antonyms

types, no verbal analogies types, no odd-man-out types.
(3) Reading Comprehension was not very easy but was manageable for
the sincere student. A mix of very direct and some indirect questions
given.
Direct RC (passages followed by set of questions) had 5 passages and 40

questions. This came as part of the Language (EU + RC) section.
Indirect RC (small passages followed by ONE question) had 10 questions. This
came in the third section (DI +DS + LR + RC)
MM students have a great edge over others as these types of passages have
been discussed several times in the classes and the Library has several books
of these types for students reference.
(4) English questions had several RC based "summary-type" questions.
(5) Not a single question based on Verbal Analogies, Synonyms, Antonyms, Odd Man
Out was asked. The message is clear No direct vocabulary questions please !
(6) Data Sufficiency has been standardised for the past 3 years. "Any one statement
alone is sufficient" type directions came again. A total of 10 questions appeared.
(7) Data Interpretation was very easy this time compared to last few years. This is
so because there were several very direct questions in the DI sets.
(8) A lot of Logical Reasoning based questions came this year spread across two
sections.
(9) Maths section was not a cakewalk. Though about 20 questions were direct, the
rest needed a lot of prior exposure and practice to manage. An interesting thing that
has emerged is that the easiest of questions get couched in the most abstruse
language and look difficult !
(10) The overall structure of CAT was clear -

Language - Usage + Comprehension 55 questions
Mathematics -- Aptitude + Reasoning 55 questions
Data Analysis -- Aptitude + Reasoning 55 questions
(11) An ideal time division could have been
Scheme No. 1 (for those more comfortable with Language)
Priority 1
English questions from Section 1 and 3 Time = 10-15 minutes
Priority 2
Reading Comprehension questions from Section 1 Time = 30-35 min
Priority 3
Maths questions Time = 35 min
Priority 4
LR + DS + DI questions Time = 30-35 min
OR
Scheme no. 2 (for those more comfortable with

Quantitative)
Priority 1
Maths questions Time = 35 min
Priority 2
LR + DS + DI questions Time = 25-30 min
Priority 3
Reading Comprehension questions from Section 1 Time = 35 min
Priority 4
English questions from Section 1 and 3 Time = 20 minutes
A Birds Eye-View of CAT 2000
(This is just a sketch exact sectionwise details given later.)

The Basic Structure of each section was :
Section 1: English Usage + Reading Comprehension
Q.1 to Q.5 Paragraph formation of 5 statements

(*ample practice material of hundreds of questions given in
MMs courseware for CAT).
Q.6 to Q.10 Fill in the blanks type questions. There were 2 blanks to be
filled in each question. Very direct questions. (*ample practice
material of hundreds of questions given in MMs courseware for
CAT that included even 4 blanks per question!).
Q.11 to Q.15 Paragraph formation of 6 statements (4 between 2 types)
(*ample practice material of hundreds of questions given in
MMs courseware for CAT).
Q.16 to Q.23 Reading Comprehension passage no. 1 on 'Crisis faced by the

School of Abstractionist Art'.
Q.24 to Q.31 Reading Comprehension passage no. 2 on 'Differences in

approach between North Indian classical music and Western
classical music'.
Q.32 to Q. 39 Reading Comprehension passage no. 3 on 'MNCs in

Agribusiness and TRIPS'.
Q.40 to Q.47 Reading Comprehension passage no. 4 on 'Different Types of

Storage devices used in computers'.
Q.48 to Q.55 Reading Comprehension passage no. 5 on 'The Conquest of

the West by the European Settlers' (*ample practice material
of hundreds of passages given in MMs courseware for CAT.
These passages were almost identical to the ones in
MMs study material).
Section 2: Mathematical Aptitude
Q. Conversion of Decimal into Fractions type questions Number theory

based question A must do type would take 15 seconds at the most.
Q. Linear equations with tabulated data given for X and Y Linear equation
theory based question Can be done type would take 60 seconds at
the most.
Q. Generation of Numbers series (A1, A2 types) Number theory based

question A must do type would take 30 seconds at the most.
Q. Value of a given fraction Number theory based question A can do

type would take 80 seconds at the most.
Q. Truck travelling at a rate and fuel consumption types Percentages and

Time-Speed theory based question A can do type would take 60
seconds at the most.
Q. Sequence of 7 consecutive integers given and average is asked Number

theory based question A can do type would take 45 seconds at the
most.
Q. Given conditions on X and Y, find the true statement Logic and Number
theory based question A must do type would take 30 seconds at the
most.
Q. One red, three white, and two blue flags to be arranged, finding the
number of arrangements Permutations and combinations based
question A can do type would take 60 seconds at the most.
Q. Given a set of integers X and some conditions Number theory and Set
most
Q. Three distinct integers X, Y, Z positive and odd, finding the false statement
Logic and Number theory based question A must do type would
take 30 seconds at the
most.
Q. A set of prime numbers > 2 and < 100 given, find the number of
consecutive zeroes in the product Logic and Number theory based
Q. N = 1421 x 1423.. divided by 12 to get the remainder Modulus theory

based question A must do type would take 15 seconds at the most.
Q. Number of distinct triangles with some given perimeter Geometry

most.
Q. Given 34041 and 32506 being divided by a three digit number to give a
common remainder. What could that number be ? Number theory based
Q. Given the numbers x1, x2 etc. upto xn each having a range of values.
Finding the value of n. Logic + Number theory based question A may
do type would take 120 seconds at the most.
Q. Table of age of people (of a country called Indonesia) Finding the number
of females Calculation based question A can do type would take
60 seconds at the most.
Q. Sam forgets his friend's phone number (and other conditions given) .
Number of attempts required to get through Permutation and
Combinations based question A not do type.
Q. Binary operations based two questions with symbols like @, /, X etc.

Binary operations based question A must do type would take 60
seconds at the most. {it seems this question had a printing error --many
students reported so}
Q. X, Y, Z are real numbers. Functions f(X, Y, Z) defined as .etc. Number

most.
Q. Robot delivering goods to machines A, B, C, D, E etc. Logic based

question A can do type would take 120 seconds at the most for both
the questions.
Q. Function based question with three graphs given (exactly similar as last
year's CAT) Graph based question A must do type would take 60
Q. Three bottles A, B, C having certain capacities .. controlled by a

computer. Logic based question A must do type would take 60
Q. Sixteen teams playing ABC goldcup matches to be played in 2 stages

. Logic based question A can do type would take 250 seconds at
the most.
Q. N = 55cubed + 17 cubed - 72 cubed divided by Logic + Number
most.
Q. X2 + Y2 = 1 and other conditions given Number theory based question

A not do type.
Q. Rhombus ABCD diagonals intersecting at the origin and other

conditions . Geometry based question A must do type would take
Q. Circle of unit radius having sectors S1, S2 .. Areas of sectors.

Geometry based question A must do type would take 45 seconds at
the most.
Q. Books 1, 2 and 3 placed in an order on a table.. to be shifted to the

next table Logic based question A can do type would take 60
Q. Area bounded by 3 curves | X + Y |= 1 and other conditions given

Geometry + Logic based question A not do type.
Q. Given equation X cubed - a X squared etc. having real roots, then find a,b
Linear equations + Logic based question A can do type would take
Q. Sides of a triangle are given (a, b, c). Find the triangle . Trigonometry
based question A not do type.
Q. Figure given ab = bc = cd finding dae etc. Geometry based

question A not do type.
Q. A shipping clerk having 5 boxes weighing them in pairs find the

heaviest box Logic based question A not do type.
Q. Three cities A, B, C connected by road .. Find the number of ways of

going from one city to another etc. Pure Logic based question (several
such questions appear in the MM material especially the Final Test series)
A not do type basically because of the time involved.
Q. Convert 1982 from base 10 to base 12 Number theory based that can
be done from the options directly A must do type would take 10
Q. Two tanks, cylindrical and conical.. difference of capacities of the two

given. Finding capacity of cylindrical Working backwards from options
based question A must do type Would take at the most 15 seconds.
Q. Farmer fencing his field gets less number of fences find length of
field and number of fences. Linear equation based question A must
do type at the most 30 seconds.
Section 3: Data Interpretation/Data Sufficiency/Verbal Reasoning/Logical

Reasoning
Q. 111-115 LR based 5 questions

Q. 116-126 5 questions on Import Export data and Deficit SOME MORE ALSO
unable to recall
Q. 127-131 Bar graph based questions on "Various sectors of Economy"
Q. 132-136 IT in India - Tabular type questions
Q. 137-141 Tabular question on "Companies and Sectors of Corporate India"
Q. 142-145 FEI graph and questions based on that bar graph
Q. 146-155 DS questions
Q. 156-165 RC Theme based questions
General Caveat: This question numbering is based on a particular set of test paper.
Your test paper may have had a different numbering order but the questions are
identical across all sets.
Overall we can summarise that the level of difficulty of this paper was marginally
tougher than that of CAT 2000. Hence, cut-offs are likely to drop a little. An attempt
of 90 can be considered a good one. With inputs from Mumbai, Bangalore, Chennai,
Delhi, Cochin, Tiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, Chandigarh, Lucknow, Jaipur,
Calcutta, Guwahati, and Pune the following performance parameters can be taken as
a benchmark for all the CAT 2000 takers.
Possible Possible Cut-off for a

Section Questions
Attempts Score definite call
Section
55 40 30 - 35 26
I
Section
55 25 20 16
II
Section
55 30 25 22
III
Total 165 95 75 - 80 70 - 75
For IIMs the cutoff could be 70 and 75+ is a sure shot call from the top ones. For
institutes like MDI, SPJain the cutoff could be 65+ net and for MICA, GIM, UBS the
cutoffs could be 60+. It is quite likely that these institutes may look at only total
cutoffs and not sectional ones.
Though the most important of all the MBA entrances is behind, others are round the
corner. With IITs, FMS, XLRI etc. to follow, it is time to look ahead and be determined
to do well in those. Be positive in realizing your dreams. We are sure you all will.
However good or bad you may feel about the CAT, the results are bound to surprise
many of you. This has been happening year after year leaving many with hardly any
time to prepare for the second round - face to face. Hence start thinking about the
preparation for the next phase - Group discussions and Interviews. Do not be left
behind. Evaluate and join programs on personality development that are being
offered by some organizations in your city. The programs will expose you to the
challenges ahead and prepare you to face it confidently. Enroll yourselves now and
make a difference to yourself.
CAT-2000
(C) MBA m a t t e r s
NUMBER OF SECTIONS- 3
The main subjects were distributed over the three sections as illustrated in the table
below.
Subject Marks Difficulty

Level
I Verbal Skills 15 Average

Reading 40 Average
Comprehension
II Quantitative 55 Tough
Ability
III Data 45 Average+

Interpretation 10 Average+
Critical Reasoning
TOTAL 165
Given this format there were several possible strategies you could have adopted.
These are two of the most likely approaches to have been taken.
TIME ALLOTMENT STRATEGIES
Strategy 1 Strategy 2
Section 1- 40 Section 1- 40
minutes minutes
minutes minutes
minutes minutes
It is probable that some of you may have got a little nervous and failed to optimise
your resources. But given that you have been preparing for all kinds of possibilities,
we hope that all of you have allocated more time to the tough Quantitative section.
However remember that strategies depend upon your individual methods of
functioning and your strengths and that whatever you chose may work out for you in
the end.
Our next task is to look at the five main subject sections [Verbal Ability, Reading
Comprehension, Reasoning (including Critical, Mathematical, Analytical),
Mathematics and Data Interpretation] and examine the areas that CAT focussed on
in each. Here is a break up of each subject in terms of the marks allotted to different
kinds of questions and the level of difficulty.
Verbal Ability
Types of Questions Allotted Marks Difficulty Level
Jumbled Sentences (4-5) 5 Average
Jumbled Sentences (6) 5 Average
Fill in the Blanks (5) 5 Average
Total 15
Reading Comprehension
Serial No. Subject No. of qns. Diff. Level
1. IT 8 Average
2. Abstract Art 8 Average
3. TRIPS 8 Average
4. Classical Music 8 Average
5. Negative Fallouts of Innovations 8 Average+
Total 40
Reasoning
Areas Tested Number of Questions Difficulty Level
Critical Reasoning 10 Average+

Maths Reasoning 13 Average
Analytical Reasoning 10 Average
TOTAL 33
Mathematics
Subject Allotted Marks Difficulty Level
Functions 13 Average+
Permutations 3 Tough
Geometry 3 Easy
Algebra 7 Tough
Coordinate Geometry 3 Average+
Understanding Numbers 7 Average
Mensuration 1 Average
Arithmetic 2 Average
Inequality 3 Average
Total 42
Data Interpretation
Areas Tested Allotted Difficulty

Marks Level
Bar Graph 10 Average

Line Graph 4 Average+
Tables 11 Tough
Data 10 Average
Sufficiency
TOTAL 35
Since the level of difficulty coupled with the novelty of the paper pattern has
probably thrown most people off guard, cut-offs this year are likely to be slightly
lower than they usually are. Our tea leaves tell us that given this break up
Section Optimal Time Optimal Attempts Optimum Score Cut-Offs- IIMs
I 40 minutes 40-45 32+ 25
II 50 minutes 25-30 20+ 17
III 30 minutes 30-35 25+ 23
Total 2 hours 95-110 85 75
It has been a tough roadespecially the last leg of the journey. No Deductive
Reasoning, no Percentages, no Alligation, no Trigonometry, no GrammarIt only
proves what we all know and dread. You can make very few predictions about CAT.
This year has driven it home more truly than ever before.
Section II
2. What is the area of the region bounded by |x + y| = 1, | x | = 1 & |y | = 1

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 3
3. ABCD is a rhombus with diagonals AC & BD intersecting in at the origin in the xy

plane. If equations of AD is x + y = 1 then the equation of line BC is
(a) x + y = 1 (b) x + y = - 1 (c) x y = 1 (d) none of these
Directions : For question (4-5), certain relation is defined among variable A & B.
Using the relation answer the question given below.
@ (A, B) = average of A & B
\ (A, B) = product of A & B
x (A, B) = the result when A is divided by B
4. The sum of A & B is given by
(a) \ (@ (A, B), 2)
(b) @ (\(A, B),2)
(c) @ (X (A, B) 2)
(d) none of these
5. The average of A, B & C is given by

(a) @(x ( \ (@ ( A, B ), 2 ), c), 3)
(b) \ (x ( \ (@ (A, B ) ) c, 2)
(c) X (@ ( \ (@ (A, B), 2) c, 3)
(d) @ ( \ (@ (A,B), 2), C)
Directions for question 6-8:

x & y are non zero real numbers
F (x, y) = +(x + y)0. 5 , If (x +y) 0. 5is real, otherwise = (x + y )2
g (x, y) = (x + y )2 if (x + y ) 0 . 5 is real , otherwise = - (x + y )
6. For which of the following is F(x, y) necessarily greater than g(x, y)

(a) x & y are positive
(b) x & y are negative
(c) x & y are grater than - 1
(d) none of these
7. Which of the following is necessarily false ?

(a) f (x, y) <= g (x, y) for 0 <= x, y < 0.5
(b) f (x, y) > g (x, y) when x, y < - 1
(c) f(x,y) > g(x,y) for x,y>1
(d) None of these
8. If f(x,y) = g(x,y) then

(a) x = y (b) x + y = 1 (c) x = - y = 5/4 (d) Both b & c
9. Convert 1982 in base 10 to base 12.

(a) 1129 (b) 1292 (c) 1192 (d) 1832
10. Sameer has to make a telephone call to his friend Harish. Unfortunately he does
not remember the 7 digit phone number. But he remembers the first 3 digits are
635 or 674, the number is odd and there is exactly one 9 in the number. The
minimum number of trials that Sameer has to make to be successful is
(a) 10,000 (b) 2430 (c) 3200 (d) 5000
11. D is a real number with non terminating digits after the decimal point.
D = 0.a1 a2 a1 a2 a1 a2..with a1 & a 2 not both zero. Which of the following
when multiplied by D will necessarily give an integer?
(a) 18 (b) 198 (c) 100 (d) 288
12. P is the product of all the prime numbers between 1 to 100. Then the number of
Zeroes at the end of P are:
(a) 1 (b) 24 (c) 0 (d) none of these
13. There are two disjoint sets S1 and S2 where

S1 = { f (1), f (2), f (3) , }
S2 = {g (1), g (2), g (3) , .} such that S1 U S2 forms the set of natural
numbers. Also f (1)< f (2) < f (3) & g (1) < g (2) < g (3)f(n) = g(g(n)) + 1
Then what is g (1)?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) cant be determined
14. There is a regular octagon A B C D E F G, a Frog is at the vertex A. it can jump

on to any of the vertices except
the exactly opposite vertex the frog visits all the vertices exactly once and then
reaches vertex E then how many
times did it jump before reaching E ?
(a) 7 (b) 2n + 1 (c) 6 (d) cant be determined
15. Find the following sum:

1/(22 - 1 ) + 1/(42 1)+ 1/(62 1) + +1/(202 1)
(a) 9/10 (b) 10/11 (c) 19/21 (d) 10/21
16.
x 1 2 3 4 5 6
y 4 8 14 22 32 44
Which of the following equation will be best fit for above data?
(a) y = ax + b
(b) y = a + bx+cx2
(c) y = ea x +b
(d) None of these
17. There are five boxes, each of a different weight & none weighing more than 100.
Arun weighs two boxes at a time and obtains the following readings in grams : 110,
111, 112, 114, 115, 116, 117, 119, 120, 121, what is the weight of the heaviest
box?
(a) 60 (b) 61 (c) 64 (d) cant be determined.
18. N = 1421 x 1423 x 1425 what is the remainder when N is divided by 12?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 9
19. x > 2, y > -1 then which of the following holds good?

(a) xy > -2
(b) xy < -2
(c) x > -2/y
(d) None of these
20. xn are either 1 or 1 & n 4

x1 x2 x3 x4 + x2 x3 x4 x5 + x3 x4 x5 x6 + +xn x1 x2 x3 = 0 then n can be
(a) odd (b) even (c) prime (d)cant be determined
21. What number should be subtracted from both 32534 & 33069 so that the
resultant give the same remainder on division by a 3 digit number?
(a) 298 (b) 307 (c) 461 (d)cant be determined
22. If x, y and z are odd integers which of the following is necessarily false?
(a) xyz is odd
(b) ( x y) z is even
(c) (x y ) (z + y ) x is even
(d) (x y z ) (x + z ) is odd
23. A, B and C are 3 cities that form a triangle & where every city is connected to
every other one by at least one direct root. There are 33 routes direct & indirect from
A to C & there are 23 routes from B to A. How many direct routes are there from A
to C?
(a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 25
24. If f ( 0, y ) = y + 1, f (x + 1, y) = f ( x , f (x, y )) Then, what is the value of

f(1,2)?
(a) 1 (b)2 (c) 3 (d) 4
25. A and B are two cities 10 Km apart. A load of 80 Kg has to be transported from A
to B. the courier service is charges @ 10 Rs per hour. The optimal speed that one can
go without load is 10 Km/ hr, the speed reduces to 5 Km/hr with a weight of10 Kg.
Further with 20 Kg (which is the maximum weight that can be carried), the speed is
2 km/hr. What is the minimum cost?
(a) 200 (b) 180 (c) 160 (d) 140
26. If the perimeter of a triangle is 14 and the sides are integers, then how many
different Triangles are possible?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
27. There are two tanks, one cylindrical and the other conical. The cylindrical tank
contains 500 litre limca more than the conical tank. 200 litres is removed both from
the cylindrical and conical tank. Now the cylindrical tank contains double the volume
of liquid in the conical tank. What is the capacity of the cylindrical tank in litre?.
(a) 1000 (b) 700 (c) 800 (d) 1200
28. a,b & c are sides of a triangle. If a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ac then the triangle

will be
(a) equilateral (b) isosceles (c)right angled (d) obtuse angle
29. There are seven consecutive natural numbers such that the average of the first
five is n. then average of all seven numbers will be?
(a) n
(b) n + 1
(c) kn + 1/k where k is a positive constraint.
(d) n+2/7
Direction: For questions (30- 31).
There are three vessels A,B, and C with capacities 5, 3 and 2 respectively. There is a
computer program that can perform certain functions as described below:
Drain (Y) : drains the liquid in a vessel Y.Fill (X,Y) : fill amount from Y into X such
that the amount of liquid withdrawn from Yis equal to the liquid in X.
Empty (X,Y) : empty amount from Y into X such that the amount left in Y is equal to
the amount of liquid in X.
30. The following operations are performed in succession

1. Fill (C,A) 2. --------- 3. Fill (C,A)
What should the second operation be if after the three operations A should contain
one litre of liquid?
(a)Empty (C,B) (b)Empty (B,C) (c)Fill (C,B) (d)Fill (B,C)
31. In addition to the three operations in above problem, the fourth operation
performed is Drain A. What operations should follow so that A contains four litres of
liquid?
(a) Empty (B,A) , Drain (c)
(b) Empty (B,A) , Empty (C,A)
(c) Fill (B,A) , Fill (C,A)
(d) Fill (A,B) , Fill(A,C)
32. If the equation of x3 ax2 + bx a has three real roots then the following is
true.
(a) a = 1 (b) a 1 (c) b = 1 (d) b 1
Directions: For questions (33-35) graphs of some functions are given mark the
options
(a) If f ( x ) = 3f (-x)
(b) If f (x) = f (-x)
(c) If f (x) = - f (- x)
(d) If 3f ( x ) = 6 f (- x)
36. There are three books on table A which has to be moved to table B. The order of
the book on Table A was 1, 2, 3, with book 1 at the bottom. The order of the book on
table 1 should be with book 2 on top and book 1 on bottom. Note (You can pick up
the books in the order they have arranged. You cant remove the books from the
middle of the stack)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Directions: For questions (37 38)
There are five machines A, B, C, D, E arranged in a straight line with 10 m distance

between adjacent machines a robot is waiting at the origin and is assigned the job to
transport raw material from the origin from the machines for processing. A is nearest
to the origin at a distance of 10 meters. Each of the machine sends a signal to the
robot when it requires some raw material. The robot then carries the raw material to
the respective machines. How ever if any machine sends the signal when the robot
has already left the origin then it will receive the signal only when it returns to the
origin. Speed of the robot is given as 10 m/s.
Machine A sends a signal in the 1st second
Machine B sends a signal in the 5th second
Machine D sends a signal in the 6th second
37. Now if machine E sends a signal in the 8th second then what is the distance that
the robot has travelled just before the machine E sends the signal ?
(a) 120 (b) 140 (c) 160 (d) 200
38. Now if the origin were at the other side 10 meter beyond E and the robot was at
the new origin in the beginning. The robot after delivering the raw material to any of
the machine goes to the origin which is nearest to him. Then what is the distance
travelled before it receives the signal sent by machine E.
(a) 160 (b) 140 (c)180 (d) none of these
Directions: For questions (39 - 41):
Functions m & M are defined as follows:

m(a, b, c) = min (a+b, c,a)
M (a,b,c) = max (a+b,c,a)
39. If a = -2, b = -3 & c = 2 what is the maximum between[m(a,b,c)+M(a,b,c)] / 2

& [m(a,b,c) M (a,b,c)] / 2
(a) 3/2 (b) 7/2 (c) 3/2 (d) 7/2
40. If a & b,c are negative, then what gives the minimum of a & b
(a) m(a,b,c) (b) -M (-a, a,-b) (c) m(a+b,b,c) (d) none of these
41. What is m (M(a-b, b,c), m(a+b,c,b), -M (a,b,c) for a = 2 b = 4, c = 3?

(a) 4 (b) 0 (c) 6 (d) 3
Directions: For questions (42- 43)

F (x) = 1 / 1 + x if x is positive
= 1 + x if x is negative or zero
f n (x) = f ( f n 1 (x) )
42. If x = 1, find f 1(x) f 2 (x) f 3 (x) f 4(x) .f 9(x)

(a) 1/15 (b) 1/16 (c) 1/18 (d) 1/17
43. If x = -1 what will f 5 (x) be
(a) 2/3 (b)1/2 (c) 3/5 (d) 4
44. There are eight sectors with areas S1, S2, S3, ----- S8 in a circle of radius 1 unit.
the total areas of the seven sectors is p /8 units. The area of the sector is given by Sj
= 2(j 1) for j>1.What is the angle subtended by sector S1 at the centre ?
(a) p /508 (b)p /1016 (c) p /2040 (d)p /127
45. 553 + 173 - 723 is divisible by

(a) both 3 and 13
(b) both 7 and 17
(c) both 3 and 17
(d) both 7 and 13
46. 100? x ? 200, such that x is divisible by 3 but not 7 and x is odd. The possible
number of values of x is,
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 14 (d) 13
47. One red, three white and two blue flags are to be arranged in such a way that no
two flags of the same colour are adjacent and the flags at the two ends are of
different colours. The number of ways in which this can be done is,
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 12
48. a1 = 1 and an+1 = 2an + 5, for n being a natural number. The value of a100 is
(a) 5x299 + 6 (b) 5x299 - 6 (c) 6x299 + 5 (d) 6x299 - 5<
49. |x2 +y2| = 0.1 and |x-y| = 0.2, then the value of |x| + |y| is,
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.4
Directions: For questions (50 53) The tournament for ABC Cup is arranged as per
the following rules:
In the beginning 16 teams are entered and divided in 2 groups of 8 teams each
where the team in a any group plays exactly once with all the teams in the same
group. At the end of this round top four teams from each group advance to the next
round in which two teams play each other and the losing team goes out of the
tournament. The rules of the tournament are such that every match can result only
in a win or a loss and not in a tie. The winner in the first round takes one point from
the win and the loser gets zero. In case of tie on a position the rules are very
complex and include a series of deciding measures.
50. What is the total number of matches played in the tournament?

(a) 63 (b) 56 (c) 64 (d) 55
51. The maximum number of matches that a team going out of the tournament in
the first round itself can win is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
52. The minimum number of matches that a team must win in order to qualify for
the second round is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
53. Which of the following statements about a team which has already qualified for
the second round is true?
(a) To win the cup it has to win exactly 14 matches
(b) To win the cup it has to win 3 more matches
(c) To win the cup it has to win 4 more matches
(d) To win the cup it has to win 5 more matches
54. The vehicle of Mr. Ghosh needs 30% more fuel at the speed of 75 kmph than it
needs at the
seed of 50kmph. At a speed of 50 kmph, Mr. Ghosh can go to a distance of 195 kms.
At the speed of 75 kmph, he will be able to travel a distance of,
(a) 120 kms (b) 150 kms (c) 160 kms (d) 140 kms
55. Let f be a function from set A to set B for a set X B, define f -1(X) = {x A:
f(x) X} Then which of the following is necessarily true for a subset U of X?
(a) f(f -1 (U)) = U (b) f(f -1 (U)) U (c) f(f -1 (U)) U (d) f(f -1 (U)) U
Answer Key : Back to top
1.b 2.d 3.b 4.a 5.d 6.d 7.a 8.b 9.c 10.b
11.b 12.a 13.b 14.c 15.d 16.b 17.d 18.c 19.a 20.b
21.b 22.d 23.b 24.d 25.c 26.a 27.d 28.a 29.b 30.d
31.d 32.b 33.b 34.d 35.c 36.d 37.b 38.a 39.c 40.b
41.c 42.d 43.c 44.b 45.c 46.d 47.a 48.a 49.d 50.a
51.d 52.c 53.b 54.b 55.c
SECTION III
Directions for questions 18 to 27 : Mark

(a) If one of the statement is sufficient to answer the question and another is not.
(b) If both the statements can answer the question independently.
(c) both statements are required to answer the question.
(d) Question cannot be answered.
18. In a triangle D PQR, in which PQR is 90 . What is PQ+RQ?

(I) The diameter of incircle is 10 cm.
(II) The diameter of circumcircle is 18 cm.
19. X,Y,Z are real number, is Z smallest?

(I) X is greater than at least one of the Y or Z.
(II) Y is greater than at least one of the X or Z.
20. Today a person purchase some share and the next day he sells them. In both the
transaction
he paid a brokerage of 1% per share. What is the profit per rupee investes?
(I) The selling price of a share is 1.05 times cost price.
(II) The no of share he sells is 100.
21. Is modulus of x always less than 3?
(I) x(x+3) < 0
(II) x(x-3) < 0
22. A line cuts 2 concentric circles in points a,e and b,d. Is ac/ce = 1? Point c is on
line ae.
(I) bc = cd
(II) If a third circle cuts in same points b and d, points c lies on line joining the
centres of circle.
23. If x and y are positive integer f (x,y) = . Find f(0,1)

(a) f(a,b) = f(b,a)
(b) f(a,b) = 0 if b = 0
24. In a group, 100 people drink coffee only, how many drink tea only?
(a) 100 drink both tea and coffee.
(b) Number of people having tea or coffee or both is 1500.
25. The equation of 2 lines are ax+by = c and dx+ey = f, are the lines intersecting?
(a) a,b,c,d,e,f are distict real no's.
(b) c and f are non zero's no's.
26. A person leaves for No man Island in North America from Mumbai at 5:00 pm.
Local
time and flies non stop . At what time he reaches no man Island(local time)?
(a) He flies with an average speed of 150 kmph.
(b) The distance between Mumbai and No man Island is 1500 km.
27.Ghosh Babu wanted to cordon off a triangular piece from a corner of his square
piece of land
of perimeter 400 meters. What was the length of the longest side of the cordoned off
area?
(a) The cordoned off area is an isosceles triangle.
(b) Each of the smaller sides of the triangle is 20 m.
Directions for questions 28 to 34 : The following table gives the break-up of the
revenues earned by the company Softsoft for five different years. Figures are in Rs.
Crores.
94-95 95-96 96-97 97-98 98-99
Haardware
(a) Domestic 68 54 52 66 35
(b) Exports 540 600 730 1770 1827
Software
(a) Domestic 142 127 150 320 422
(b) Exports 1100 1200 1339 2500 2215
Peripherals 25 10 25 20 37
Training 140 106 160 240 161
Maintenance 21 19 25 92 126
Others 12 10 19 40 24
Total 2048 2126 2500 5048 4947
28. In which year hardware exports has been between 35 - 40 % of total?

(a) 97 - 98 and 98 - 99 ; (b) 98 - 99 and 95 - 96
(c) 97 - 98 and 94 - 95 ; (d) 95 - 96 and 96 - 97
29. Which of the following is true?

(a) The revenues from training consistently increases over a period of time
(b) Hardware exports consistently increase over a period of time
(c) Software exports consistently increase over a period of time
(d) None of the above
30. In how many years the total revenue on training and maintenance is less than
ten percent of the
total revenues?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) all
31. In which of the following years the total hardware revenue is more than 50 % of
that of the
software revenue in the same year ?
(a) 94 - 95 (b) 95 -96 and 96 - 97 (c) 97 - 98 and 94 - 95 (d) None of the above
32.If in 99-00 total revenue decrease by five percent over previous years but
software increases
to 2437 crores what is the approximate percentage decrease in rest of the heads
considering
uniform decrease.
(a) 1.0% (b)1.8% (c)2.0% (d)3.3%
For the next two questions follow these additional directions.

Taking a field (say A) , year X is said to dominate over year Y if the revenues from
field A in year X is greater than that in year Y.
Taking two years,1 and 2, into consideration, for two fields A and B ,
(a) A is said to dominate over B, if A B in one year and A>B in the other.
(b) Year1 is said to dominate over year2, if A1 A2, and B1 B2. There should be
strict inequality in atleast one year.
33. Which of the following is true?

(a) Hardware and training dominate software throughout the period
(b) Hardware dominates the peripherals throughout the period
(c) Peripherals and Others dominate training in the year 94 - 95 and 98 - 99
34. Taking Peripherals Exports and Training together which of the following is true?
(a) 96 - 97 dominates 97 -98
(b) 97 - 98 dominates 98 - 99
(c) 98 - 99 dominates 97 - 98
35. In a bag a person can carry 10 books. The books are mathematics physics,
management and
fiction. If a person carries a book of management, he has to carry two or more books
of fiction. If
he carries a book of mathematics he has to carry two or more books of physics. In
carrying books
he used to get certain points. To carry a book of management, mathematics, physics
and fiction
each the points he got were 4, 3, 2, 1 respectively. He has to carry a book of each
subject. So what
is the maximum no of points a person can get
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23
36. Five persons P, Q, T, S, M lives in a hut, palace, hotel, cottage, penthouse not
necessarily in
that order. Each of them like two colours out of red, green, yellow, blue and black. P
likes red
and blue. Q lives in a hut. T likes yellow and black and S likes the colour liked by P.
the person
who lives in a palace doesnt like blue or black colour where does M stay?
(a) palace (b) hut (c) cottage (d) pent house
37. There is a gathering to felicitate 7 cricketers T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z. They are all

seated on one side
of a rectangular table. V and W want to leave early and so will occupy the two
positions on the
extreme right of the table. T is the man of the match and hence will occupy the
centre position.
U and V are bitter enemies and should be seated as far as possible. Y, T and X are
great friends
and so must be seated always next to each other. What is the position of X?
(a) 3rd (b) 4th (c) 5th (d) 3rd or 5th
38.Rita, Sita, Gita and Mita went to a dance party with Tarun, Arun, Varun and
Karun.Rita did
not dance with Tarun or Varun, Gita knew only disco dance and Arun and Varun did
not know
disco. Mita and Varun are bitter enemies and won't dance with each other. Given a
choice, Arun
won't dance with Mita. Karun's partener is Gita. Who was Mita's dance partner?
(a) Tarun (b) Arun (c) Karun (d) Varun
39. Four persons A, B , C and D live in four houses which are Red, Green Blue and
Yellow in colour.
A doesn't live adjacent to the Yellow house. B lives in the Yellow house. The Yellow
house is
adjacent to the Green and the Red house. What is the colour of A's house?
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Blue (d) can't be determined
Directions for questions 40 to 45 :
Factories Employment Fixed Capital Variable Cost Value Added
Government 18 15 14 22 25
Central 8 6 5 7 10
State 4 6 4 8 3
Central/State 6 3 5 7 12
Public 12 8 6 19 8
Private 55 65 72 54 62
Joint 15 12 8 5 5
Total 100 100 100 100 100
40. If the total work force was 76 million whereas the total value added was 225
million, then which of
the following had the maximum value addition per worker?
(a) Central (b) State (c) Central/State (d) Public
41. Which of the following sectors has the maximum fixed capital invested per
factory?
(a) Central (b) State (c) Central/State (d) Public
42. If the variable cost is proportional to the number of employees and the
production per employee,
then for which of the following is the production the highest?
(a) Government (b) Private (c) Joint (d) Public
43. If the government has a fixed capital of $200 million in the Iron & Steel industry,
which corresponds
to 20.012% of its total investment as fixed capital, then how much, did the
government invest (in
Rs. Million) in Maruti Udyog Ltd. which forms 25% of the investment in the joint
sector?
(1 US $ = Rs. 45)
(a) 6500 (b) 2500 (c) 143 (d) 145
44. Maruti Udyog Ltd. is a joint project of the Indian Government and Suzuki Motors,
Japan, each
having equal stake. One fine day, the Indian government decides to disinvest from
the venture
due to losses occurring from labor problems. How much money will be disinvested?
( Refered to
question 43, if required)
(a) Rs.246 million (b)Rs 6500 million (c) $246 million (d) $6500 million
45. Which of the following statement is true

(a) the number of govt employees are more than that of the number of factories in
joint sector
(b)The number of employees in the public sector is same as fixed capital of joint
sector
(c) Both a and b
(d) Cannot say
A
n
s
w
e
r
K
e
y
B
a
c
k
t
o
t
o
p
1.a 2.c 3.b 4.d 5.d 6.b 7.d 8.b 9.a 10.c
11.b 12.d 13.a 14.a 15.b 16.b 17.d 18.c 19.c 20.a
21.a 22.b 23.c 24.c 25.d 26.d 27.a 28.a 29.b 30.d
31.d 32.b 33.b 34.b 35.c 36.a 37.d 38.a 39.c 40.c
41.b 42.b 43.a 44.b 45.d
Note : In actual test-paper 10 questions on Critical Reasoning were also there in this
section.

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CAT DECEMBER 2001

1) A,C 2) A,D 3) B,C 4) B,D

1) 115km 2) 112km 3) 120km 4) None of these

Which of the following is true ?

1) 10-5 = b-d 2) 4 + 6 = a+e 3) 4-2 = b-d 4) None of these.

Q.15 In a certain system product of 44 X 11 is represented as 2124 find how 1453

1)248 2) 346 3) 393 4) 410

1)17 2)8 3)9 4)None of these

1) 780 2) 1040 3) 1590 4) None of these

1) root 260 2) root 240 3) root 250 4)root 210

Q.21 09/12/2001 is Sunday. What was the day on 09/12/9071?

1) Thursday 2) Wednesday 3) Saturday 4) Sunday

1) 5 2) 6 3) 103 4) Cant determine.

1) 91200 2) 92800 3) 97200 4) None of these

1) 24 2) 12.5 3) 20 4) None of these

Q.30 2<X<3 and 7<Y<-8, which of the following is minimum ?

1) XY2 2) X2Y 3) 5XY 4) None of these

1)100 2)140 3) 60 4)None of these

Q. 32 If a=b2 - b, b 4 ,then a2 -2a is always divisible by__

1) 1984.75 2) 2000 3) 2500 4) 2148.75

1) bd ac 2) a+c > b+d 3) a2 b<d c 4) None of these

1) 2.4 2) 2.5 3) 2.2 4) None of these

Q.38 x > 5 and y < -1. Which of the following is true ?

1) x2y >1 2) 4x > 5y 3) 4x < 5y 4) None of these

1) (x-z)2y > 0 2) (x-z)y2 > 0 3) (x-y)2z > 0 4) None of these

Q.40 There is a rectangular field of length 60 m and width 20 m. A path of uniform

Q no.42 -44 are based on the following data:

A player X played an inning such that

r1=Scores of completed innings.

r2=Scores of incomplete innings.

n1= number of completed innings.

n2=number of incomplete innings.

B=r1+r2 / n1 C=r1/n1 + max { 0,r2-r1/n2}

Q.42 Which of the following holds?

1) B>C 2) C>B 3) C>D 4) None of these

1) B=31 2) D=31 3) C>D 4) None of these.

1) (6,1) 2) (-4,3) 3) (2,-3) 4) None of these.

1) 750 Rs. 2) 2200Rs. 3) 800Rs. 4) None of these.

Q.49 P, Q and S are moving on a circular stadium of circumference 2100 m. When P

1) 168 2) 2568 3) 2100 4) None of these

1) x y 0 2) x-y > 0 3) x y z >0 4) None of these

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (4) 9. (4) 10.

(1)1 (2)1.5 (3)0.5 (4)2

Q.28 The minimum cost of transportation is through which means ?

(1)Rail (2)Road (3)Ship (4)Pipeline.

Q.29 The maximum cost of transportation is through which means ?

(1)Air (2)Ship (3)Rail (4)Pipeline.

(1) P>R>Q (2) Q>P>R (3) R>Q>P (4) P>Q>R

(1)55% (2)45% (3)65% (4)60%

(1)Onsite design hours becomes almost equal to offshore coding

(2)Onsite design hours becomes less than offshore coding

(3)Onsite testing hours become less than offshore coding

(1)15% (2)10% (c)20% (d)30%

(1)It is more than the offshore coding

(2)It is more than the onshore coding

(3)It is less than the estimated offshore testing and design

(4)It is more than the estimated offshore testing and design

Number Play Duration Timings

1 Sati Savitri 1 hour 9:00a.m, 2:00

2 Tipu Sultan 1 hour 10:00a.m, 11:00

3 Sundar Kand 30 10:30 a.m , 2:30

4 Hayavardhana 1 hour 10:00 a.m, 11:00

6 Jhansi ki Rani 30 10:30 a.m, 1:30