. HEM Lom, Set No. 2 13P/209/25 Question Booklet No. {fo be filled up by the canckdate by blue/ black ballpoint pen) Rall No. Roll No. [Wate the digits in words} Seria! No. of OMR Answer Sheet bay and Date (Signature of Invigil INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES [Use only blue/black ball-point pen in Ihe space above and an both sites of the Answer Sheet) 1 9. 10. 32. 14, (arr Be Ret ost stem —y wy ad om 8] Within 10 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure thal it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring il to the notice of the Superintendent fInvigilators immediately te obtain a fresh Question Buoklet Do not bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card etthout its envelope A separate Answer Sheet is giver It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shail not be provided. Only the Answer Sheet uall be evaluated. Write your Rolf Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pertin the space provided above. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Rell Number in the space provided at the top, and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the ‘Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No. {if any) on OMR sheet and also Roll No. and OMR Sheet No. on the Question Booklet Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified bv the invigilator. otherwise it will be taken as, unfair means Each question in this Yooklet is followed by four alternative answers, For euch question, you are to recard the correct option on the Answwer Sheet by darkening the appropriate cirele in the corresponding, row of Ue Answer Sheet, by ball-poml per as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet, For each question, darken only one civele on the Answer Sheet, If you darken more than one circle or darken 4 circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect Note that the ansier onee filled in vik cannot be changed. If you do not unsit to aftempt a quesiion, leave all the circles in the carresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero mark) For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the ond of this! Bookiet Deposit only the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test, You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test Ifa candidate attempts to use any form of unfair moans, he/she shall be liable to such punishment as the University may determine and impose on him/her. Io. of Printed Pages : S64213P/209/25 Set No. 2 No. of Questions/seit #1 em ; 160 Time : 2 Hours Fall Marks : 450 Note : (1) Attempt as many questions as you can, Each question carries 3 marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. oftarfies sail ah xa a ar wae Sti wee we S oe aT Ri ee waa see fa we ate HEL SET wes aaa oa a rei I ee (2) lf more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct angwer, choose the closest one. ‘aft wantin Aafetas gee aml ao & fee sfta et, at fmeoy wet sete) 1. A Hindu male is not jiable to maintain (1) his aged and infirm parents (2) his legitimate minor children (3} his step sons and daughters (4) his illegitimate sons and daughters (202) l (PTO)13P/209/25 Set No, 2 \ (302) fies, ges Prafattes a fats wench a arch wet Ay (1) 38% gel cd ou afar 2) 38% Aq ser we (3) FR we a2 wd ateat (4) 38% arta a2 od aad Up to what age child should be kept in custody of the mother of the child? () Below 2 years (2) Below 5 years (3) Below 6 years (4) Below 4 years fea ang we at A ae of & fice af car arn mate? Q) 2 ad a te 2) sa ta (3) 6 3 re (4) 4a a ta Who is the natural guardian of a minor married Hindu girl? () Her father (2) Her mother (3) Her husband (3) Her father-in-law ee arees fae fog ote ar emai aftr ae den 87 (1) 3m fier (2) sad af (3) sean ofa (4) 3a sage In case of adoption of a female child by a Hindu male, the age difference between the two must be (Q) 10 years (2) 15 years (3) 20 years (4) 21 years feet fea gee gen we after alot, O32 ma a AAA ay A fa a ora aan Bard a 1) 10 a (2) 15 at (3) 20 af (4) 21 wf5. (302) 13P/209/25 Set No. 2 Which of the following provisions dea!s with the right of the husband to claim maintenance from wife? {1) Section 125 Cr PC (2) Section 18 of Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act (3) Section 27 of Hindu Marriage Act {4) Section 25 of Hindu Marriage Act ffafus 3 @ @e-m wawn of at oof & setter wd an zen eet at afer ea Fat a (1) am 125 arma we Sf (2) fey zee wd ares afte Hl aT 18. (3) fy fare safes A em 27 (4) fee, Fare saftey oA un 25 Desertion to become ground for divorce should be of duration of (4) one (2) two years (3) three years (4) sx months. Feat orafu ae ar often fare-firede & a a ara a Het 87 OG) wad (2) a at (3) ta ad (4) 3: Te Which of the following cases is not related to matrimonial remedy on ground of cruelty? () Saptami vs. Jagdish (2) Russel vs. Russel (3) Bhagwat vs. Bhagwat (4) Lachman vs. Meena fanfafaa ant a 8 ater ar setter & Aerie ap a meg afi A? (1) eee eam are (2) @a am aa (3) Mrraa 3 BPI (4) Few am te 3 PTO)13P/209/25 Set No. 2 10. 11, (302) Whicli Section lays down the various grounds of voidable marriage in Hindu Marriage Act? (1) Seetion 10 {2) Section 11 (3) Section 12 (4) Section 13 fe, fore sifeian & fea am A yerete free A Aan wel an ager fer wn 27 Q) “10 2) em 1 (3) MH 12 (4) am 13 Essential conditions of a valid Hindu Marriage have been emumerated in which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 > (1) Section 5 (2) Section 6 (3) Section 9 (4) Section 10 fea frame safafion, 1955 & fam amr A em aa fey fare A ora nt an age Gen sen * a ams (2) wa 6 @) om 9 (4) mm 10 Which of the following treatises is not followed in the Varanasi subschool of Mitakshara School? Q) Virmitrodaya (2) Nirnay Sindhu (3) Vyavahara Mayukha (4) Subodhini Fame, eRe are eager AA fen ger an aRquen aT Fan ara 87 C1 aria (2) Pefa fey, (3) Frere aS (8) getter According tu Shariat, the kinds of religious injunctions are (i) nine (2) seven (3) five (4) three vita sey mach Fare A eet Pat 8? ay a Q) aa 3) a (4) a12, (302) 13P/209/25 Set No, 2 ‘The Shariat Act, 1937 (i) makes Muslim Law applicable expressly to all Muslim (2) abrogated the customs and restored to Muslims their own personal law in almost all cases (3) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect (41 Both (1) and (2) are correct seilaa ary, 1937 (0) WR afer 3 fae afr FAR ay afrand aoe F (2) ea auch Fea ar rea Gi gfe A Aah Af ar gate arm F (3) (1) WH (2) ai ae (4) (1) (2) ahi we Which of the following are the traditions of the Prophet, the records of his action and sayings? () Sunnah (2) Ijmaa (3) Qiyas (4) Hadith fea 28 ats tren A wera, sh arbre wi wee a () ge (2) ss (3) Fisara (a) ofa Which of the following is no longer an important source of Muslim Law? (1) Sunnah (2) Iimaa (3) Customs and usages having the force of law (4) Judicial decisions (Fatawas) S PPO)13P/209/25 Set No. 2 15. 16. (302) frefataa 9 8 wy ora qian fall an ee ner ata ae a7 i ae (2) AI (3) fafa At owfe are wel wa rae (4) afi Bia (oa) According to the Shariat, the child will be Muslim (1) if both parents are Muslim (2) even if one of the parents is a Muslim (3] even if one of the parents is a Muslim and the child is not brought up as a Hindu (4) Both (1) and (3) dea % ager gen yer em (1) af afar dei gfeen at (2) af atm 8 A ahd ft ce yam at ‘a aie aa AE ow gi BR SC ot mentor fe mst om (4) 1) et (3) a Which is not public document? (0) Order of a competent authority fixing price of commodities (2) As order issuing search warrant (3) A crop cutting report by collector (4) Plaint or written statement in a suitay. 18. (302) 13P/209/25 Set Nu. 2 frafafan 3 8 stam zeae ate cemda Te RP (1) sam ert ger aegat A Sa Pieter #1 ante (2) Be ariz on wa wr area (3) faerie gra wae aret A heard (4) fart ag a ega aa @ aah qar In which of the following secondary evidences relating to a document cannot be given? (1) When the original document shown to be in possession of the person against whom the document is sought to be proved (2). When the original document is in possession of the person who wants to prove it (3) When the original document is lost without any defauit or negligence on the part of the person who wants to prove it (4) When the original document is of such nature which cannot be easily moved frafafioa 4 2 fae uifeafs # feean & meee 8 fethrs mew adi fe mn ah? (1) wae ae cfifa fear ortn G aR ge aa aed He fre fee aa oa A ae fen am @ (2) wah ye se cafe B aoa A et at wa eka wen ae A (3) Was qe za caf A stan ar cafan a fier sh za afr sen aren 8, at ome (4) safe as we eft at fea omer 8 emda aa Ren at AAT In which of the following cases constitutionality of Section 73 of the Evidence Act was challenged for violation of Article 20(3) of the Constitution? (1) State of Mumbai vs. Kathikatu (2) Rattan Singh vs. Himachal Pradesh 13) Kashmira Singh vs. State of MP (4) None of the above 7 (P70)13P/209/25 Set No. 2 19. 21. (302) fofefea 2a fea a fo are often oom 73 alate A diag % ayede 20/3) & tem & onan eG A eh A? (1) pag ae aa adhe, (2) te fie wa Reerrast wear (3) sreater ig ana He Go Tse (4) ste Hoa aig ae Who can make an admission under Indian Evidence Act? {1) Witness to a proceeding (2) A party to proceeding (31 A third party (4) The Court srr man afaPerm & seria wtp a at want 87 (1) erie a arafire rare (2) era @ mafia sean (3) UH ara Tae (4) rare Which one of the following is not a case on Estoppel? (1) Palvinder Kaur vs. State of Punjab (2) Pickard vs. Seers (3) Srikrishna vs. Kurukshetra University (4) Sarat Chand Dey vs. Gopat Chand Laha fre a a whan ae feu a meaty ai 2? () Tae eh am gare 7 (2) Reed want stat (3) Sige am peda Brafrarce (4) ae aq 2 wm ima = ae Which of the following cases is not associated with the recognition of States and Governments? (1) The Arantzazu Mendi {2) Luther vs. Sagor (3) Civil Air Transport vs. Central Air Transport Corporation (4) Lotus Case22, 23. 24, (302) 13P/209/25 Set No. 2 frafafiaa % @ ata—m ar usa acer ff men a aera ae 87 () 3 array Ash (2) qr am Ae (3) Rafer won grad am azar er granite after (4) size oe UN Human Rights Council was created in the year (1) 2008 (2) 2006 13) 2004 (4) 2007 agm UE Arenften afte A comer A ne a (1) af 2005 # (2) a4 2006 4 (3) =f 2004 # (4) =f 2007 # Convention against torture and other cruel, inhuman and degrading treatment or Punishment was adopted in the year of (1) 1987 (2) 1984 13) 1991 (4) 1982 TL TS ST a, SAR We TAT Ree Ta awe fag safe sinter fem oA eH (1) af 1987 4 (2) af 1984 (3) a¥ 1991 # (4) #4 1982 # International Covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights came into force on () Jamary 31, 1976 (2) January 3, 1976 @) March 23, 1976 (4) March 21, 1976 safe, amnion ti viephes oftent aradyta wife wre # ont Q) st 31, 1976 a (2) sah 3, 1976 a (3) ad 23, 1976 (4) 3 21, 1976 a 9 (PTO)13P/209/25 Set No. 2 27. (302) Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the General Assembly on (1) December 1, 1942 (2) December 10, 1946 (3) December 10, 1948 (4) December 1, 1946 apratrer A arbhfies droon mere Ay sihigl A (1) fer 1, 1942 47 (2) feareR 10, 1946 ST (3) fear 10, 1948 (4) femar 1, 1946 a In order to maintain international peace and security which organ of the UN may take enforcement action? (1) General Assembly {2) International Court of Justice (3) Security Council (4) Secretariat arrigia mea sik qen we we & fe ages ag an Se on wads A ward oR ToT a? Q) Reet (2) aenhga caer 8) Ben shez, (4) afrarea Which of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations? (1) International Court of Justice (2) Security Council (3) Human Rights Council (4) A Secretariat frafitas HQ ats age ue a wer on aE A? (Q) seatigra sarmea (2) Ren ae (3) arairen aftic (4) afar 1028. (302) 13P/209/25 Set No. 2 Which of the following is not a criterion of statehood (as per the Montvideo Convention on Rights and Duties of States)? (QA permanent population (2) A defined territory (3) Government (4) Membership to an international organization freafafa 28 ata oom wn flutes ae (coed A adam ea aor ve peated orem 3 sa)? (1) tari see (2) Tonia a3 (3) eer (4) senha arer A aeert Which of the following organizations is the precursor to the United Nations? {1} International Labour Organization (2) League of Nations (3) North Adantic Treaty Organization (4) World Health Organization fefatea 3 3 ate-ar wer dye ug am Pact dot 87 (0) srartga am ames (2) TRH (3) Saf azeifes af ae (4) free eared ret Advisory opinion of the 1CJ may be requested by (1) the General Assembly only (2) the Security Council only (3) the specialized agencies if authorized by the General Assembly on legal questions arising within the scope of their activities (4) the Economic and Social Council only nN PTO)13P/209/25 Set No. 2 ai. 32, (302) seatge, ane ceneterh aorta ar mein fan a aan 2 Q) Fea een ga (2) ae quan oie gi (3) were gmt sifiepa fae aoe fare oferta ge fafh & sa gel wool aaa feareemd A offs A ond a (4) 3a snes we annie fee & gr “Vessels on the high seas are subject to no authority except that of State whose flag they fly.” tn which of the following cases, the above observation was made? (1) North Sea Continental Shelf Cases (2) Lotus Case (3) Corfu Channel Case (4) Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case “aa aay fata feet oA sofiend & ony wh AYE fare ga we & Pree cas I eC we oats wer frafaten % 2 fem ay A fem wer ar? (0) nd af ai New Fae (2) wen ae (3) rk aye ta (4) ted-anaiiar Rrarta a Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982 came into force in ay 1984 (2) 1994 (3) 1996 (4) 1989 are faf after, 1982 wa A art {1} 1984 # (2) 1994 (3) 1996 4 (4) 1989 4 In which of the following cases, the principle of estoppel as part of the gencral principles of law was relied on by the Court? (Q) Barcetona Traction Case (2) Baste Greenland Case (3) Corfu Chunnel Case (4) The Lotus Case 12(302) 13P/209/25 Set No. 2 frefefts 9 a faq a 2 arevea gm fat & aera feed} aM ew A free & fear aa wer Fea ma? Q) aitata gant ae (2) geet tative a7 (3) ar dyer a (4) chee ar “International Law is part of our law, and must be ascertained and administered by the Courts of Justice of appropriate jurisdiction...” In which of the following cases the above observations were made? (1) Chung Chi Cheung vs. The King (2| Mortensen vs. Peters (3) The Paquette Habana (4) Corfu Channel Case “onartgia fat emt faftr an fee 2, ott sean fear ot wee amg Gantt art Farrera get aaea fever rar arf." sede an Frafeftr 2 a fer are H feer ne? (1 a9 ef ayy sam 7 fan (2) onde ae Seat (3) 2 efi sara (4) ang Ser 7 Which of the following does not find mention in Article 38(1) of the Statute of the [CJ ? (1) International custom {2} International convention (3) The general principles of law (4) Conclusions of the international conferences Fofatiaa #8 ferat age recite ana A ffir aeyede 38(1) A we Peer va 87 (1) seta afi (2) seanhfie afi 3) Ra & were fier (4) origin aeientt 3 face! 13 (PTO)13P/209/25 Set No. 2 37. 38. (302) Which of the following is not among the powers of Pollution Controt Board? (1) Power to inspection [2) Power to prosecution (3) Power to closure (4) Power to penalise frvefaa 4 8 att afte stem agra std & cataracts adi 2? (1) at Ai af (2) ofriaa 4 aes 3) ia wR A aes (4) 2a Ra A ah ‘The Supreme Court of India has observed that the Public Trust Doctrine is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution in 0) MC. Mehta vs. Kamal Mehia (2) M1 Builders vs, Radhey Shyam (3) Union Carbide Corporation vs. UO! (4) Vellore Cilizens Welfare Forum vs. UOT sna vata aerra 4 fief a @ fee arg & oyan ste-ara firgra A der A or 21 & seria defies sam 87 (Q) Gre tho Agar aa am Bear (2) Wo ange fies am gt vam (3) Thar wales either mam Josiosnge (4) agh: Rte dakar oka wa qostoanfo Which of the following is referred to the Magna Carta of Environmental Law? (1) Stockholm Conference (2) Rio de Janciro Conference {3| Johannesburg Summit (4) Convention on Climate Change faafefaa 4 8 ata cafae fath & nerieen vy a aeag 27 (1) Riady aiekar (2) wat a Pe aa (3) Srerrent fire aral (4) Seeng—ofeda yo omiifae ae 1413P/209/25 Set No. 2 29, /Principle of Absolute Liability refers to (0) Liability of the polluters (2) Liability of the hazardous industries (3) Liability of the hazardous industries on account of accidents (4) All of the above wept grtan a fagre feet arabs 27 Q) eat A sarezat (2) Sifts aa sabi sree (3) Gems & am aif wa sith At a (4) sah ah 40. The film titled as Beyond Genocide was based on (Q) Bhopal Gas Tragedy (2) Kanpur Tanneries Pollution (@) Oleum Gas Tragedy (4) Chernobyl Nuclear Tragedy Ferg ators vite @ fifte fier fra fine oe ones oi? () Steet ta are (2) wre a0 wee (3) aitferm ta ard (4) Saffire caietra ae 41. The Fundamental Duties towards environment were imposed on the citizens in the year raja & amg yang arial a} areal we fea at ona fren a a? ql) 1978 (2) 1974 (3) 1976 {4) 1992 (302) 15 PTO}13P/209/25 Set No. 2 42. 44. (302), Which of the following is true? (1) The Central Water Laboratory is established by the Central Government (2) The Central Water Laboratory is established by the Central Poliution Control Board (3) The Central Water Laboratory is established or specified by the Central Government. (4) The Central Water Laboratory is specified by the Central Government frafafaa ta whan am wer 87 (Q) 438% se wibere A eae ag we DI AL ae a 2) ea sa wire Bearer aga dep age ats am At of a (3) She sa sateen at az meen go wafia saaar AMEE fee Ta a (4) Yetta ga water a ag wre gra PARE fer rar & In case of air pollution apprehended by reason of operation of an industrial plant, the following may approach to court for restraining such operation (1) The Pollution Control Board (2) The Central Government (3) The State Government (4) Any person feat steiiie aman & viata & weer shrfiy ay sew wat aaa HRB aunt wsdl oT & fire freafefea @ Rate arava a yen ex aT 2? Q) Shaye agia ard (2) ewan (3) OT wee (4) wie oh afi Emission from automobiles may be regulated under (1) the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (2) the Motor Vehicles Act (3) the Environment (Protection) Act (4) All of the above 1645. 47. (302) 13P/209/25 Set No. 2 wiattera 3 sak a feo fea often 3 aga fen sn wan 87 U) ary (gen an Ate wa fem) aftftan (2) ate afener offen (2) volar (iran) afafian (4) ave at The Environment (Protection) Act is also called as umbrella legislation because (1) it is a detailed legislation (2) it provides for the powers and functions of the Central and State Governments (3) it empowers the Central Government to protect the environment (4) it empowers the Central Government to constitute authority waa (wart) sfefrem at wat fro A ser wie 8, aif (1) 38 we Preqa four ® (2) wa ae, cat cer aR A feet ot aril mn ree e @) 7 ay wen FB wala } Fert a afte sea acme (4) we ey ene at ofterer & nar a1 oiftrar wer wet ‘The Environment (Protection) Act comprises a total of (1) 34 Sections (2) 28 Sections (3) 26 Sections _—_{4) 24 Sections water (ara) ofan A get Gel orod 87 ay 34 (2) 25 (3) 26 4) 24 ‘The Court shall take cognizance of offence under the Pollution Laws on a compiaint by (1) the Board (2) Officer authorised (3) any person having given sixty days notice to the Board (4) All of the above 17 IPT.O)13P/209/25 Set No. 2 48. 49. (302) seo sfsrat 3 nen Gah wma A qed A wigfa arama fe Pree WOR a eT e ay a Q) atige arnt @) aS @ 60 tS aa Oo zen af (4) sate ai Hunting of wild animals is prohibited under Section (ll 11 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act (2) 9 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act (3) 12 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act (4) None of the above ay att aa fara ana fee un & asa sftrifira 87 Q) a stat Gao) afte A a 11 2) Fe ste (ae) sf A ag. (3) 38 star (Ham) afefran A aa 12 ay et A a ae ‘The agency responsible for implementation of Pollution Prevention Laws in india is (1) Environmental Protection Authority (2) Central Empowered Authority (3) Pollution Controt Board (4) All of the above area segen Fatue ara 3 ammeter ar ates Gael arch ah & (1 sarnrtzer ear saith (2) gH wares sited (3) Steqer ezter aire (4) ari arf50. 51. 52, (302) 13P/209/25 Set No. 2 The Stockholm Conference focussed on (1) Environment and Human Rights {2] Environment and Development (3) Environment and Population (4) Environment and Poverty wise sicher fra Rea we dhe al? ) afewor ee wrrarfteane (2) vata wa faa (3) wala aa sade (4) sateen wa feta A incites a dog to spring upon Z, without Z's consent with intention to cause injury, fear vr annoyance to Z. A has committed (1) an offence of assault (2) criminal intimidation (3) use of criminal force (4) no offence A, 2 @ wafs % fier 3a oft, wa a gee ad & om aw RA a Zz a awd d fy wearer 2143 far (1) er amr 2) srenfies aftgra a1 se (3) orga ger ar wir (4) aa ore ae A obstructs a path along which Z has a right to pass. A, not believing in good faith that he has a right to stop the path Z, is hereby prevented from passing. A commits (1) wrongful confinement (2) wrongful restraint (3) false imprisonment (4) n0 offence Awe mt #, feet chee a am Zz ar after @, memecte ag feos a ced me % saat cart de8 wt often WH 2, aan gre @1 Z a A aegar tem far wet 21 A ame () Bebe fete (2) was ratte (3) fea spray (4) AAE ome ag 19 (PTO)13P/209/25 Set No. 2 53. 54, (302) Sedition is (1) exhortation to the people not to pay revenue to the Government (2) exhortation to join a particular party (3] exhortation not to vote ia general election (4) by speech in a public meeting excites disaffection towards the Government Q) Sti Fear wh oma ar aga 3 =n & fea She mT 2) fe fae 2a 9 afefera OA & fet ate wen (3) 3m qa 4 aa 7 at 4 fen, fe era (4) orbs en Aone gar aca & fig anit ade ae Which one of the following sentences correctly defines the term ‘murder’ ? 1] Act by which the death is caused must have been done with intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death (2) Death is caused with the knowledge thal, he is likely to cause death by such an act (3) Death is caused under grave and sudden provocation (4) Death is caused with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely 10 cause death to whorn the harm is caused Fraferfaa @ 8 atte aor ‘Fen’ re, A aA ofc 37 (2) sa ard ar Breet eg oater af 8, omer teh enties aft aka an B fad amy ate at oer ware a (2) 3s WA tad gy fe ae diver & fe ge arf a gq aia ehh, aan ar (3) TAI oft seme wae & yey arica eee (4) 74 BA erties ate ats aa & ona 8 afte eG 8 Pea seh oem a fe ga walk 2 gq afta sem Gare 8 fawed ae sw afta At aE 2 2056. 87, (302) 13P/209/25 Set No. 2 Culpable Homicide is not murder, if it is committed under (1) madness. (2) anger (2) grave and sudden provocation (4), moral convietion safes arta aa eer ae & a ae Fran aire (1) aera & cava (2) wa arta (2) Tei sit same vate & ona (4) Af seer ort Which one of the following will amount to criminal conspiracy? (1) Two or more persons agreed to commit a criminal act in furtherance of their common agreement (2) Unity of criminal behaviour actuated by common consent {3} Agreement to commit an offence even if no step is taken to carry out that agreement (4) Agreement to commit an act prohibited by law even if no step is taken to carry out that agreement Prafafia i 2 att onafive weia A ae Farad? Q) J 44 2 afi cafe on ame aa a om ad & Re amafte af ee aera ame (2) Brat wenfs & Bea dat arses are an we aT (3) smu ae & fee fem war an, ae sa aR wh feu aa} fem at on a gern ven a (4) fat amr sfafng af ae & fare fin mn aay, ae za a a frais ah & feu ae wm 4 arn rn et A with intention to steal some jewels, breaks open a box and finds, after so opening the box, that there is no jewels in it. A is guilty of {1) criminal misappropriation (2) attempt to theft 3) criminal trespass (4) mischief 21 Pro)13P/209/25 Set No. 2 58. 59. 60. (302) A ee anya qa } amma a we ae digs Gen tage wa yen Gt & wa are ater 2 fe sent ahd anu vei Bi A fear ah 8? (1) arnt eft 2) at a (3) sentra ofr (4) fe In which one of the following cases, the defence on the ground of necessity, was pleaded? (0) DPP vs. Beard 2) Rvs. Prince (3) Rvs. Dudley & Stephens (4) Qvs. Tolson Frafefaa 9 8 fara arg 8 raga % amen ot vite & wera a sifirarg fie orn? (1) Yediodts aam fart Q) a em fe (3) am wa set we ie (4) hr am ater Defence of insanity, under Section 84 of the IPC, is available against (1) moral insanity (2) medical insanity (3) unsoundness of mind (4) None of these camfa ave afen A aR 84% sadta amen wa wera Prk fey sveey 27 (D4 cere (2) fateatte ye (3) Frat (4) eal 8 ang wer Which one of the following preparations is not punishable under the [PC ? (1) Being prepare to wage war against the Government of India (2) Makes preparation to commit depredation on the territories of any power in alliance or at peace with the Government of India {3) Making, preparation to commit dacoity (4) Preparation to theft 2213P/209/25 Set No. 2 reaffirm Ha staat ard setts ave eon Hewes ae A? (1) wr war} fae gg a & ome | at (2) ara weer @ A ea amet aT aes wat art fae fie er os a a a A tart (3) ct a8 & faa tad ae fay ae A aed 61. 4,a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is likely to cause the death of Z, who suffers under @ painful complaint but not intending to cause Z's death, and intending, in good faith Z’s benefit, performs that operation on Z, with Z's consent. Z dies. Ahas committed (1) an offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder (2) an offence of murder (3) an offence of medical negligence (4) no offence Am wea fafereé, ae ora ee fh ue fete wae a Z A, al aergi ani a ma 8, fer eA sae 8 fy ZH yy aha WC a onea a wed EE oh aeMeRlE Z Sot} ome az A om az woza ad an 8) Zz A aq @ at a) Aa a ‘feu (1) spf aera ay st seq adi & (2) em (3) faterrfia sen (4) SE sere ae \62__The punishment ‘transportation for life’ was substituted by ‘imprisonment for life’ under the Indian Penal Code in the year (1) 1955 by the Act XXVI of 1955, (2] 1950 by the AO, 1950 (3] 1949 by the Act XVI of 1949 {4) 1957 by the Act XXXVI of 1957 (302) 23 (PTO)13P/209/25 Set No. 2 64, (302) carte awe Hf A ‘amie Rafe ws Bea a ‘oni soe’ st fr whe sfeeuria fen EN? Q) 1955 % 1955 % sivas xxv za (2) 1950 8 fate sage ‘urs, 1950 aT (3) 1940 4 1949 % srfufier XvO get (4) 1957 F 1987 & sifem XOX TAT ‘The minimum duration of punishment for imprisonment provided to an offence, under th Indian Penal Code, 1860 is imprisonment for « term of {I} twenty-four hours (2) one month (3) one year (4) ten years: adie oe Wfeet, 1860 % araeta area & fre fen rar apa staf ar aE e (Cy ae ae st (2) TET Q) we at a (4) we ah The formula ‘rarest of rare’ in cases of death sentence, is formulated by the Supreme Court in case of (I) Gian Kaur vs, State of Punjab (2) Bachan Singh vs, State of Punjab (3) K. M, Nanavati vs. State of Maharashtra (4) Mithu vs, State of Punjab Bry ws & me HP @ fare an Pram seam mares ga Pe arg A after Prat ray 87 QQ) ga ee wary carer er Q) aaa Re are Woe WaT (3) %o ono arradt wa HeTIE Ty (4) Aq eam vere 7 24