LLM
Set No. 1 Question Booklet No. 02053
14P/209/30(i)
(fo be fitted up by the candidate by blue/black ball-paint pen)
mel TEL TT
Roll No. (Write the digits in words) ...
rnvigentinenbvavbrihanveaientiais, ( Signature of Invigilator )
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(Use only Blwe/black balt-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet)
1, Within 10 minutes ofthe issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it
(1) Section 107 (2) Section 108
{3) Section 109 (4) Section 110
agar a freafafad a a der dh ara gshea’ at ofeaita wet
&? .
(4) arr 107 (2) arr 108
(3) are 109 (4) aT 110
95. ‘A’ instigates “BY to murder 'C’. 'B’ refuses to do so. ‘A' commits :
(1)' no offence
(2) offeace of abetment
(3) offence of criminal conspiracy
(4) attempt to murder
ery Ot Brat aA fare er AM ae’ Gene Bea’ Fen Her B sae
at ten 81 wm wea B=
0) at area vet @Q) geet at orere
(3) arvafies seca ar ore (4) BRT aT TIeT
4014P/209/30(i)
gate & fear rer ard after at Prefer Prat arr & starter
srrates ater & were & ?
(i) art 76 (2) ant 78
3} RT 80 (4) aT 82
‘A’ a surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient his opinion
that he can not live. The patient dies in consequnce of tle shock. ‘A’
has committed :
(1) an offence of culpable homicide
(2) an offence of murder
(3) no offence
(4) death by negligence
3 we sea fares, A waned: oe defer ae &
fe oer ao ae oR oat Te ee Te ore
ht St ay A ont Bi ow A eT
(1) sarrafires meer ar car oreerer
(2) Ser et are
(3) ae orremy wt
(4) Ser arr ay
The right of private defence of body extends, under the restrictions
mentioned in the code, to the voluntary causing of death under which
one of the following circumstances >
(2) an assault with the intention of wrongful restraint
(2) an assautt as may reasonably cause the apprehension of simple
hurt.
(3) . an assault with the intention of use of criminal force.
(4) an act of throwing acid which may reasonably cause the
apprehension grievous hurt.
39 P.T.O,14P/209/30(1)
89. Section 52 A was inserted under the code by which one of the following
Criminal Law Amendment Act ?
(1) Act VIII of 1930 (2) Act X of 2009
{3} Act VIII of 1942 (4) Act VIL of 1913
Prafetad % & fre ercafies fate dates afer arr err 52%
dite % ara: enfter at we?
() Fy 1930% sfafraa do 8 arr
(2) Fy 2009% after de 10 at
(3) By 19424 afafran te 8 ant
(4) Fy 1913 & afer Yo 8 art
90. Which one of the following punishments was substituted for
“Transportation’ >
(1) Death (2) Imprisonment for life
(3) Imprisonment (4) Fine
Preafareer % @ ata ar vs “Prefer” & ear re aftreenfre Pear
war ?
Q) Fy" 2) aries area
(3) Bree @) gata
91. ‘Act done by misfortune’ is a defence from criminal responsibility
under which one of the following sections of the code ?
(1) Section 76 (2) Section 78
(3) Section 80 (4) Section 8287.
‘88.
14P/209 /30(1)
Find out incorrect statement :
(1) A cheque upon a banker is decument
{2} A power-of-attorney is a document
(3) A map or plan which is intended to be used
(4) A writing containing directions or instruction is not document
at ae sf sift:
() Serer oe Ren ae as Tents &
Q) eran centr &
(3) ATR at tere, freet ama ae H sash F aA ar TTT
a a soar A ae oT ae, cena B
4) Pre ter F Prt or aaa crafter at, aearetor ae &
Which one of the following cases was decided for the first time relalting
to the application of section 34, LP.C, ?
(1) Mahboob Shah Ve. Emperor
(2) Kirpal Singh Vs. State of U.P.
(3) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. King Emperot
(4) Khacheru Singh Vs. State of U.P.
SRT 34, Morokeart a saan & eaters Preafeftad F @ Pra are
3 adres PePratcer fe ser ?
(1) Fea ame aT ETE
(2) Reena fie aa oxo,
(3) See gar de warp ame
(4) aes Rie eam Gono we
37 P.T.O14P/209/30{i)
85.
A municipal commissioner is :
{1} A public servant
(2) Nota public servant
(3) Common man of municipality only
(4) None of the above
cpremnferest sgaer +
(1) ate aap &
(2) are ee et &
(3) See serene ar arr aafeer
(4) arte F ang wet
"Movable property’ means -
(1) Corporeal property of every description
(2) Land and things attached to the earth :
3) Permanently fastened to anything which is attached to the earth
'4) Stones and precious jewels imbeded in the earth
‘oie eeafes’ ay orfary & :
QQ) Be safer Bt act arate be
(2) aft sire 3 drat, ot quae at hi
(3) qa Pret dit & ear eo & ont at
(4) af & oradfert ge ger oie aed opr’
ie
3614P/209/30{i)
iter & Prafefee 4 8 Bre stars & dae Ff ara 6 ae ATE Bait
& Pe mas gare, sete areafies steer she 88 ates afta
aie orate sade ar ota pera ce oq & sede FH ais
wn ?
Q) steara- dH, aTozof%o (2) sea- Tt, Momo
@) HEMI w:, aoaokie (4) seara- A, aToxofeo
. Find out correct statement
(1) Acollector exercising jurisdiction in a suit under Act 10 of 1859,
is not a judge.
(2) A magistrate exercising jurisdiction in respect of a charge on
which he has power to sentence to fine or imprisonment with or
without appeal, is not a judge.
(3) A member of panchayat which has power, under Regulation Vil,
1816, of the Madras code, to try and determine suit, is not judge.
(4) A magistrate exercising Jurisdiction in respect of a charge on
which he has power only to commit for trial to another court, is
not a judge.
arr et eft aif -
(1) ay 1659 % afer 10% onde Pet ae A orfteanfter aT
seaht eet aren HAGET maTaer Tat B
2) Pek onde & dae 4, Bret fore oa qatar ar arcana a <7S
aa a aft ore 8, ae seat ante srt a aT a ait at
caftenfter ar rit at aren afreee sararitar wet Br
(3) Fare Weer H ay sie & faa 7H aia aetna
wer A A TaUTOT HEA a PT Te are Gert ar AaeT
vararedter wet B1
(4) Pret ona & vee 4, Pres fra sa Sac ot Aa a
Rrerent qyt eet a sat ore 8, siftenfter an saitt wey
aren afneze varariier adt Bi
3s P.T.O.14P/209/30{i)
are Bert SP aE
anda we dita & sede, ws Faria orcad a afer sr
faeme & sieria, oy et:
(1) ree @ arex oie ot Peet wert F are &} Pech arta err
Fea 7a oraerit oe
(2) are 4 areieee Pett det ot Rea oe ae ae at at A,
frat afar arr Roe ay eet aera oe
3) ana @ wer cite ot are & fet ot en F Rem ager
aaret St wen ae Pat afer art Pee a are oT
(4) aa & are ae wt are & Pet A ea A eer araee
wart a mee we Pet ame arr eq ar ont ox
82. Which one of the following sections excludes the operation of the
Indian Penal Code in those cases where separcte provisions have been
made by any Act or special or local laws ?
(1) Section 5 (2) Section 4
(3) Section 3 (4) Section 2
Prafefa % 8 ate dt ara ada ove dite & oda a TT
areet & afteger sect &, cet ae aferept steer Pace oT earthy
fafer aarit wt & ? 2
Q) as (2) ant 4
(3) oT 3 (4) art 2
83. For which one of the following chapters of the code, section 6, IPC
clarifies that every definition or penal provision and every illustration
of every such definition or penal provision shalt be under stood subject
to the provisions of that chapter ?
(1) Chapter 3, LP.C, {2) Chapter 4, 1.P.C.
(3) Chapter 6, LP.C. (4) Chapter 9, L.P.C.
3479.
80.
81.
14P/209/3011)
In law of Torts Maintenance and Champerty are related to :
{1} Maintenance of wife
(2) Maintenance of Child
{3} Maintenance of Parents
(4) Maintenance by money by a third person to either party to a
suit
aré & an a Prete od artes wert B
Q) act ar rate.
(2) wet a7 Praie
(3) aren-fer an fate
(4) fet atet ares ara ait (air ca oad) weit ar 8a
amt Prate
‘Derry Vs. Peek’ case is related with :
(1) Tort of Nuisance (2} Tort of Deceit
(3) Tort of conversion (4) Rescue cases
“oe warm ee”? Aen wera 8:
() aé ote =r (2) ara ar are
(3) Ofer ar ae (4) qe & At
Find out incorrect response-
The provisions of the indian Penal Code shall apply, under extension
of code to extra territorial offences, to any offence committed by :
(1) any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India
(2) any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever
it may be
(3) any person in any place without and beyond India committing
offence targeting a computor resource located in India
(4) any citizen in any place without and beyond India committing
offece targeting a computor resource located in India
33 P,.T.O.14P/209/30(i)
76.
77.
78.
‘Res Ipsa Loquitur' rule =
(1) Shifts onus of proof. (2) Shifts onus of damages.
(3) Set of damages. (4) Increases damages.
te are ARR’ Pea:
(1) sarer an afer eararatts ac B 1
(2) gram ar afar enacts aon B1
Q) yar ar wis &1
(4) Sera art qern 2B)
‘Qui facit per alium facit per se’ is related with ;
(1) Rescue cases (2) Statutory authority
{3) Vicarious liability (4} Composite liability
“fa Bae a can Bike ot 8" aaa B :
(2) Seer APT Q) Seren & enter softere
(3) Sftreenfres Senet (4) Prefs Sere
Contemptuous damages are awarded when ?
(1) Plaintiff has technically a legal claim but thera is no moral
dustifiction for it.
{2) Plaintiff has sustained no loss but there is infringement of
absolute right.
(3) Plaintiff has suffered loss and accordingly he is compensated.
(4) Plaintiff has suffered loss but damages is awarded 'to punish and
deter the defendant.
saarrh (ereenrgan) ecard aa fear wet B ?
arrarit at gait ar & a fers
a 12 Seta ae Say oat Bt We SaeT aS
(2) aR at ats oer vei gow Boe seek oot aftree ar
aie gon B1
(3) afar at arar gon 8 att ga oagare scorn Rear var By
(4) oafapht at arer_ gor 8 aire ata at ave 35 ce ScreRe THT
By eer was FAT
3274,
78.
14P/209/30(i)
Statement made in Innuendo is :
(1) Prima facie defamatory, use of explanatory statement is not
needed.
(2) Prima facie innocent, use of explanatory statement is needed
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of the above
sieht 4 fear wer award eter & :
Q) Fem gear armeeeren, area war orawas AB
Q) eR Tea Prats, arenern sa staves By
(3) Sate 7 At
(4) artes Fare er
Jus tertil is defence available for :
(1) Tort of False imprisonment (2) Tort of defamation
{3} Tort of Conversion (4) Tort of Assault
vor 2a” wan Soret B :
(l) ge areerg H ed F (2) amet & a 7
(3) oer Foard F 4) ver & at F
Neighbourhood theory was given in the case of :
{1) Blyth Vs. Brimingham Waterworks co.
{2) Donoghue Vs. Stevenson.
(3) Palsgraf Ve. Long Island Railroad Co.
{4) Ashby Vs. White
wt S Ree ares F asta fever Rat var ar:
(1) Sige are aittes areceeed eerit
2) Shirg arm Sa
(3) TR TAM APT orgs tele Bet
(4) oe aa TET
31 P.T.O.14P/209/20(i)
70. In‘case of ‘novus actus intervenience' consequences are considered
proximate when :
(1) Intervention snaps chain of causation.
(2) Intervention acts like conduit pipe.
(3) Intervention causes substantial loss.
(4) Intervention causes negligible loss. '
tee ware rao’ ara 4 often wiger aA ot Ewa:
(1) Serato ariiaret at at ax ats Bar 21
(2) Bea age vet at ace art wear 81
(3) weaata oreaftrs oer Bear Bi
(4) Beada wg eer Fat 81
71, In which case it was decided that for false imprisonment total restraint
is essential ?
Requirement- i
(1) Ashby Ve. White (2) Leanse Vs. Egerton
(3) Brown Vs. Kendal (4) Bird Vs. Jones:
Pret 7 @ fea area @ ae Prete rer can f ge aroera A yeh da
aern arava & ?
Q) & aa aR Q) a AH ERT
(3) RISA TA arser @ a am oer
"74, Tort of Defamation is related to-
(1) Injury to reputation. (2) Injury to disposition.
(3} Injury to character. (4) Injury to motive.
arrefe an eré (gepfer) aera Bh
(1) Safe a eer war (2) ae ey Tea
@) aka a ef warn (4) are at ef seer
3014P/209/30(i}
Pees after & a at ar oa as Sa & are sits TT!
1) ayéa ame fafa wre sac TAB)
(2) epee ara venfaer ex aT BI
(3) WA aT aepitrn areere
4) sate 4 at
Absolute Liability Rule laid down in M.C. Mehat Vs. Union of India
AIR 1987 SC 965 is applicable for imposition of Hiablility on :
(1) Enterprises engaged in hazardous activities.
(2) Enterprises engaged in non-hazardous activities
(3) Enterprises engaged in contractual activities
(4} Enterprises engaged in any activities
am. at. Fee TAM AT AEA AIR 1987 Sc 965 F SHA TA wT
aie ara, cree often Pear a a set ory & 7
QQ) steer ot wera afefatr A dom 3B)
(2) Ser ot Gercars afafate f der wat i
(3) sfteort ot cers afefafe Y ery Br
(4) offer of Reet wt afefatis t erat B1
. ‘Egg-shell Skul' rule is related to :
{1} Apportionment of damages. (2} Contribution of damages.
(3) Set off of damages (4) Remotencas of damages,
wr da eet Prom were 81
0) afagit ar rarer (2) afeght a sigrert
(3) afeght aa aris (4) efergft ar gare
29 P.T.O.14P/209/30)i)
66. Following cases are matched
67.
(1) Geddis Vs. Propritors of Bann Reservoir
{2)Haynes Vs, Harwood :
(3)Fordon Vs. Harcourt Rivington -». Onditiondal Authority
(4) Greenock Corporation Vs. Caledonian Railway
Correct match is :
@ fa}, (b) and (c)
Gi) {a), (b) and (a)
(iii) (b), (c} and (d)
(i) (@), (c) and (4)
wet & ar waa gent 7
(1) fee sare at Referee & anferenpy - sere & entre sutra
(2) Be sar eregqs- sqrt ane
(3) Ses aay wend Req- aed onfteert
(4) Sere Fem are Basie tae -Bey get
wet aia & r
fi) (a), (0) FF
(Hi) (a), (b) Be (@)
(iil) (), {c) PF ()
Gv) fab, (c) BH (dy
In Rule of Strict Liability which element was added by Lord Cairns ?
(1) Thing collected must be dangerous thing,
(2) Thing collected has escaped.
(3) Non-natural user of land.
(4) All of the above.64,
65,
14P/209/30i)
Joint Tort-feasors and Several Tort feasors are differentiated on the
pasis of =
(2) Mental concurrence.
(2) Physical concurrence.
(3) Mental and physical concurrence,
(4). Neither by mental nor by physical concurrence.
wigan cré chad wt arte ore Ghee @ fe erent ge Ae oT
ore & :
Q) AMR aan
(2) thes went
3} ARs wd ee aenfer
4) 7 at wafers a & ties eerie arr
Rule laid down.in Merryweather Vs, Nixan (1799) 8 TR 186 is related
with :
(1) Contribution between Joint Tort-feasors.
(2) Contribution between Several Tort-feasors.
(3) Contribution between both joint and Several Tort-feasors.
(4) None of the above.
Roser sa PRA (1799) 8 TR 186% TATA eT Pre aT ®
Q) agae eé cred # ate arert
Q) ae ad dead % ate ares
(3) agar oe ote eré ated 3 ate aha
4) sated 3 ant a
a7 P.T.O.14P/209/30(i)
61, Word ‘Tort’ is derived from Jatin term :
(1) Wrong (2) Delict
(3) Tortum (4) Rectum
me “are” Poa afer oe (se) ar apo B 7?
(1) eet (2) srrwe (3ferez)
(3) Rew 4) tea
62. Writ Trespass and Writ of Trespass on case were available in England
at shop known :
(1) Oficina Coffinium (2) Officina Brevium
(3) Officina Succecium 4) Officine Rectenium
amet t Re Saova wed Fao a Re Pes F 8 sees & Pee gear
H goer ar ?
Q) stterdtar areata (2) atterdtar Afar
3) atten washer (4) siete ter
63, Tort of Nuisance is-
(1) Tort-actionable per se.
{2) Tort actionabie on proof of no loss.
(3) Tort actionable on proof of violation of statutory rights.
(4) Tort actionable on proof of damage.
wait (wes) ar ere (gap) &
Q) eé wer afar at aha
(2) fer Reet ae Bower oe aé ART at ay
(3) Seen & enter after & seis B car oe ae ati
ae apa
4) af Bo oat oe are afta ae ay
a614P/209/30(i)
Ultzen Vs. Nicolls is a leading case on :
(1) Quasi contract (2) Pledge
(3) Bailment (4) Indemnity
area aan Paes TH IAS are F ?
(yer afer (2) freer
(3) Safar (4) afergfef
. Which of the following is not correct in respect of standard form of
contract ;
(1) It is called contract of adheson
(2) It is called compulsory contract
(3) Itis called private iegislation
(4) Itis calted contract implied in law
are wit ater & weer A Prey ater at AB 2
(1) 8 dees (Reve) at afer ser oe FI
QQ) 38 afrard afer wet one Bt
(3) 8 FoR Peart ser omer Bi
(4) $& PRY A facta are eer eT Br
The doctrine of frustration of contract applies :
{1) only in case of executed contract
(2) only in case of executory contract
(3) in both executed and executory contract
(4) none of the abave is correct,
‘diter & ager ar Rear ary ere:
Q) Gee Frente der & sac Ft
(2) Sae Frome afer 4 sac A
(3) Prenfeer et Prec: eit
(4) Sater Ht ang a wet Br
as P.T.O.14P/209/30(1)
116. Who among, the following is associated with the theory of coordination?
(1) Sir Geraid Fitemaurice (2) Kelsen
(3) Triepel (4) Anzilotti
Peafafad 3 @ ae areas & fara & wafer B ?
Q) at dee Renita Q) aar .
(3) ee (4) Sete
117. Which of the following cases relates to "protective principle" ?
(1) Attorney General of the Government of Israel vs. Eichmann
(2) Western Sahava Case
(3) The Lotus Case
(4) The Nicaragua Case
Prefrfter 1 ater ar are ‘steer Bret” J afar & 7
(1) Gert sree ote & adaire atts serage sat gay
(2) Fed aera ae
(3) f& tea ae
(4) f& Perea are
118, The Monroe Doctrine is about :
(1) recognition of new states
(2) non-intervention in the American Continent
{3) equality of states
{4) maintaining friendly relations among nations
Wt Rarer wearers 8:
Q) 3a wet at eT a
(2) waft verde 4% sreeado &
Q) wet at aaa &
4) cSt & vey Pel wera aa a
49 P.T.O.14P/209/304i)
119. UN security Council consists of :
(1) 15 members states {2} 25 members states
(3) 18 members states {4} 12 members states
agar we gen ose F : .
Q) 15 ae a ae E 2) 2 aa U7 ae
(3) 18 Fae wa aa F (4) 122 we oF
120, Permanent Court of International Justice was estabtished in :
{1} 1920 (2} 1933 (3) 2919 (4) 1929
sears] arr % wart area Ft vara ef et:
GQ 19204 (2) 19337 (3) 19194 (4) 19294
121."International law is part of our law, and must be ascertained and
administered by the courts of Justice of appropriate Jurisdiction’.
The above observations were made in :
(1) The Lotus case (2) The Jamora
(3) Paquete Habana (4) Corfu Channel case
comers fate gard fair ar art &, afte antes
seat arr yfaivae cd cena at sit aR
Sager wa art Reg am & :
(ye Sten ae (2) & sire F
(3) ee wet 4) ory ose are 4
122.Members of the International Caurt of Justice are elected by :
(1) ‘The General Assembly
(2) The Security Couneil
(3) The General Assembly and Security Council
(4) The Economic and Social Council14P/209/30\1)
oartsita =a & aaedt a Prateas dtr & :
QQ) erat B are
Q) gen sae & arr
(3) Ferman she qrer oa arr
(4) safer ct annie oftwr & arr
123,The members of the International Court of Justice are elected :
(1) for six years (2) for three years
(3) for five years (4) for nine years
orenisita snare Baer Prafeer srt &
(1) & at & fer (2) ar aat & far
(3) Gta adt % fer (4) at att & fac
124.Which one. of the following statement is true ?
(1) Each member of the United Nations shall have not more than
three representatives in the General Assembly.
(2) Each member of the United Nations shall have not more than
five representatives in the General Assembly.
(3} Each member of the United Nations shall have not more than
nine representatives in the General Assembly.
‘
(4) Bach member of the United Nations shall have not more than
six representatives in the General Assembly.
$1 P,T.0.14P/209/30(i)
Prafaiter 4 & ata ar ae ace 8 7? Z
(1) ae We ar rae wee Here A cis So sften wet ae
42) sages ara oie ce nana te ie ee
(3) ee he eer eT A ee
(4) ger ee ame #5 fe
i
125, International Covenanant on Ccivil and Political Rights (ICCPR) was
adopted in :
(1) 1986 (2) 1966 (3) 1983 (4) 1976
fatter cet Teas saftere ve orerctefta sree atfteger at mf At:
(l) 19867 (2) 19664 - (3) 19837 (4) 19767
126. Second optiona} Protocol to the International Covenant on Civil and
Political Rights is related to :
(1) individual} petition
(2) inter-state complaint procedure
(3) abolition of death penalty
(4) none of the above
Foe cet Unafees safer oe arerehefte seferer an faite Ofeses
ware arate & :
(1) safer are often & Q) sere ude gRar gfe &
8) Ras st wh (4) wae 7 & ang at14P/209/304i)
127, Human Rights Council was estallished in :
(Ql) 1996 (2) 1999 {3) 2006 (4) 2008
arenfernrt oftex at earcar @¢ eft :
{1) 19967 (2) 1999% (3) 2006% . (4) 20087
128, Permanent Court of Arbitration was established in :
(1) 1900 (2) 1909 3) 1914 (4) 1919
Peres a ead ara enita gsi a:
(1) 1900 42) 1909% (3) 19147 (4) 19197
129,Kyoto Protocol to the United Nations Framework Convention on
climate Change (the UNFCCC) was adopted in :
(1) 1993 (2) 1994 (3} 1997 (4) 1992
weer ofa oe digas aR ar Re) carene oti
fern ra:
(1) 1993 (2 19944 = (3) 1997 # (4) 19924
130.The Rome statute establishing International criminal court entered
into force in:
(1) 1998 (2) 1945 (3) 2002 (4) 1946
serie arraties saree A ena ae arett ter wea gH
A ang
Ql) 19984 (2) 19498% (3) 20027 (4) 19467
53 P.T.O.14P/209/30{i)
131. The provisions relating to the burden of proof have been: made in the
Indian Evidence Act under -
{i} Sections 91-100 {2) Sections 61-90
{3}, Sections 101-1144 (4) Sections 115-117
aa $9 @ aah core ada ara afer A ea 7a
B:
(1) aT 91-100 & adrt (2) arr 61-90% order
(3) arr 101-114 wae (4) are 115-117 & arise
132. Section 6 of the indian Evildence Act deals with :
(1) Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction
{2) Admission
(3) Opinion of Experts
(4) Conclusive proof
anda are afar a art 6 arafar B-
(1) em Bt eiarerere Bor A ara met At Gainer &
2) sree & :
(3) Rata at cr &
(4) Prrares eee &
133.Cases in which statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or
can not be found is relevant :-
(1) When it does not relate to cause of death
{2) When it relats to cause of death
(3) When it is not made in the course of buriness
(4) When it is not against the interest of maker
8414P/209/30(i)
a aart, Pra gee aes ar mer a sae are Ren rer en, sit
Ae ma & or fer set see, Gere B :
() 5 Seer are ay
(2) 3 See SRP TRY
(3) Wa Grant $ aren F adi Per war 2)
4) we at art & fea & free at B1
184,In which section of the Indian Evidence Act “presumption as to dowry
death’ is proved ?
(1} Section 111-A (2) Section 113-A
(3) Section 113-B {4) Section 122
TE Fe ora aA Pe ore etn Tg A aTUreN”
Q) oT be (2) ST 113-5
(3) arr 113-er (4) are 112
188.Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act is related to -
{1) Accomplice (2) Number of witners
(3) Oral evidence (4) Relevancy of Facts
ureitr area afetrerr a at 133 waraa & -
Q) Fe som & 2) art at der a
(3) Ares area & 4) wer at gan
136.X says in the presence of ¥ and Z: "I have married myself to W", who
is absent. On the information reaching W, she says," I have accepted’.
(1) This constitutes a valid marriage
(2) This does not constitute a valid marriage, as there has been no
proposal made by or on the behalf of one party to marriage.
(3) This does not constitute a valid marriage, even through y and z
are present when w accepts.
(4) None of the above.
55 P.T.O,14P/209/30(1)
x, ¥ wd Zt coed a ae FH sat w a flere fer & ot
Seagfeet Bors w oR eee orrere at B at ST ore eR
(1) ae =a gaa Rrare &1
(2) qe =e gas fee wat S aes aaa Pet ger ant aT saa
awe @ gat ca at emt a até vena at Rar wT aT |
(3) ae =e gan free we &, waft y ate z at cote A wr
aed aeate ang 81
(4) sete Fag ae
197.The plaintiff, a Muslim woman, was duly married to the defendant.
She was pregnant, a fact of which her husband was not aware. Five
months later, she delivered a fully developed child. The marriage was
consummated. The plaintiff sued her husband for recovery of her
dower.
(1) The husband was liable sicne the concealment of pregnancy by
the plaintiff did not render the marriage invalid.
(2) The husband was not liable
(3) The wife is guilty of fraud
(4) None of the above
ce often aor wiser aor fare eiterdt & ger ar Gash ver
Sr Hr Gar Sas Gir er wl ar dhe are FB sara Ahearn A cr
Faeefer eed eat ory ar | Rave get er a ew) aft +
Unt oe pag cat ax Peer fe Peer aa (eit a) Peer ora
(1) oR at ae 8a 8 aati ore arr aoa tat a FH fort
@ Bere sores wet et oer |
(2) of at ae ta et By
(3) ost ae ar at Br
(4) sotert A ate aat14P/209/30[i}
138, Unlike Hindu law, there is no prohibition in Muslim law for the
marriage :
(1) Of two cousins
(2) With a brother's widow
(3) With a pre-deceased wife's mother
(4) Both (1) and (2)
fey fare arg & Pre after Rene erg A and Pte vat 2:
Q) % wat ¢ wat y PRR, GR a aT asa Ft fra
2) wg % fen & Rare
(3) feet ost # st @ Rare
(4) Sate (1) oF (2) at
139. Where it is not settled at the time of martiage whether the dower is to
be prompt or deferred, then according to Shia law :
{1) Half is prompt and half is deferred
(2} The whole is prompt
(3) The whole is deferred
(4) It has to be regulated by custom or status of the parties
fen ar & sere orre sme B TAG Fe Bashir asl gar 2 PH
faeerera(et et) cera or oreafirr & at:
(siren cea wa omer seater ara oer &
(2) Je a Ge ae APT aT
(3) Tat WT sreaitrer arn oer &
(4) Faorew ca St cet a Raf a am 7 caer Beef
Coys) fear ore & 1
37 P.T.O.14P/209/30(i)
140.X, a Muslim has given triple talak to his wife. He wants to marry her
141.
again, He can do $0:
{1) | With any restriction
(2) Only on request of such wile
(3) Only if such woman marries another man, the marriage is
consummated, and he has divorced her.
(4) None of the above
om gfe x 8 oret gett at die are cere Rat Bae ga: ret
ae & frame acar aree & 1 ae tar ee weer Br
Q) gs ata ae arent
(2) Wet & Pea we
(a) ae wht Pret gRt gee a ah ane Beret A freniter ee
% ot ae (gaa goa) Sa GH ay ces Aen B
eR a
Which court is empowered to appoint guardians :
{1} District court
(2) High court
(3) District court and High court
(4) District Magiatrate’s court
ait ar arama ween Prager ect 7 sfiege 81
(1) Bren parent
(2) Sa ARR
(3) fren aera afte seq Roe
(4) Rrenftrarét ar -arerery14P/209/30(i)
142.A 40 years old Hindu maie adopts a girl of 21 years. According to the
Hindu Adoption’s and Maintenance Act, 1956 such adoption is :
(1) Valid (2) Invalid
(3) Void (4) Voidable
we 40 adit 21 atta we eae aor Bi as
Ter en eer ore aoe weed ogee teens
(1) Pfr Q) a
3 w= 4) genet
143. Under which of the following section of the Adoption arid Maintenance
Act, 1956, a female Hindu can take a son or daughter in adoption :
(1) Section 8 (2) Section 7
(3) Section 4 (4) Section 3
Prafefert 4 @ ata aa a Fey oe wey Sey A aT SB
oir wa fq after cm tee or eet Te TET at wah
B:
Q) os (2) aR 7
@) wa74 (4) ant 3
144.in which of the following section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
the daughter in included under the coparcenary
(1) Section 2 (2) Section 4
(3) Section 6 (4) Section &
Prefer Ae Rrafrere afta, 1956 at Pee ar
seiner gh at oro aeatter 7 aaiee Pear var B :
Q) aaa (2) aT 4
(3) ara 6 (4) arr 8
89 . P.T.O.14P/209/30(1)
148. Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 appliés to :
(1) Movable property
(2) Immovable property
(3) Neither movable nor immovable property
{4) Mavable and immovable property both
fog swotrer sfafrm, 1956 4 ara 14 ary ae Bi
(1) Ber arafer
(2) steer waft ‘
(3) wa ate aaa wafer 4 & fet 7 at
4) aa ott ore araft at A
146.A Hindu widow inherited property from her mother. Widow dies
intestate. She left behind her one brother and parents of her husband.
His property will devove to :
{1} Her brather
(2) Her husband’s father
(3) Her husband's mother
(4) Equat distribution to all above
wer firg fear crept are & wake fered A ot & Peer at
Fete eg Borat Bi we ore ao cen ene oe STR 8 TT
Fier sts amet & see eater warren Brit:
(l) sae arg at (2) sae ofr & er at
(3) Sas Va Bt are aT (4) Serre eit ay aera Perce
147, Restitution of conjugal Rights can be demanded by :
(1) Husband
(2) Wife
(3) Husband and wife both
(4) Any relation of husband or wife14P/209/30,i)
arrd oftert at sftenvar a ait ax aaa 1
a) of (2) ot
(3) We wey oet (4) oi a ooh ar ag wah
148. Marriage with deceased wife's mother is ;
(1) Invalid (2) Valid
(3) Void (4) Voidable
rH Ue st oe a Rare :
0) arr @) Pfr
= (4) Geert
149.1n which of the following case it was held that a Hindu husband
converting to Islam and marrying again will be guilty of bigamy :
(1) Dastane ys, Dastane
(2) Sarla Mudgal vs. union of Indian
(3) T. Sareetha vs. venkat Subbeih
(4) Saroj Rani vs. Sudershan Kumar
Prefer 8 fis ara @ ae fhPreifter fara aren B Ps fy
RY A geemer wt meer ase Gr Rene ax Reena fefaare at eet ae:
Q) Set ar cra
(2) Ben aT aa aT ae
@) 4. wien am tee gear
4) ae wh a get GA
61 ; P.O.14P/209/30{1)
180. Under which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, maintenance,
Pendente lite has been
(1) Section 25 “a Section 24
(3) Section 23 (4) Section 22 -
fey Rene afafre, 1955 & fra ore & ores areas
rer a ee TET Pra Bi
QQ) er 25 (2) SRT 24
(3) oT 23 (4) ort 22
62 2,200ROUGH WORK
Trend
63
14P/209/30{i)
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