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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 360


TEST - 1 (Paper-I)

PART - A (PHYSICS)

4. A point object moves along straight line with


SECTION - I
retardation a v , where a is constant and v is the
Straight Objective Type Questions
speed of particle. Initially the speed of the particle
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions was v0. Then select correct statement
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(1) The body never stops
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Choose the correct answer : v 03/2


(2) The body stops after covering a distance
3a
1. At a distance L = 550 m from the traffic signal,
brakes are applied to a rail road train moving at a
2 v0
velocity v = 72 km/hr. Determine the distance of rail and time taken to cover this distance is
road train from the traffic signal, one minute after the a
application of brakes if its acceleration a = 0.4 m/s2
2 v0 2 v 03/2
(1) 70 m (2) 30 m (3) In time body covers a distance
a 3 a
(3) 40 m (4) 50 m
(4) Total distance travelled by body till it stops is
2. A boy runs away from a pole in a straight line so
that its velocity is inversely proportional to the v 03/2
distance from the pole. When boy is at a point A at 3a
a distance x1 = 100 m from the pole, its velocity is
v1 = 2 m/s. What time will boy take to run away 5. A particle moves along x axis. Its velocity time
from point A to point B which is at a distance graphs is given below. The distance travelled by the
x2 = 200 m from the pole? particle in 0 to 3 s is
(1) 50 s (2) 60 s v
(3) 75 s (4) 90 s
3. A lift whose floor to ceiling distance is equal to 2.7 m
starts ascending with constant acceleration
1.2 m/s2, 2.0 s after the start a bolt begins falling
1s 2s
from the ceiling of the car. Find the distance covered O t
3s
by bolt as seen by observer on ground. 3 m/s
Parabola
(g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) 1 m (2) 1.7 m (1) Zero (2) 4 m
(3) 2.7 m (4) 1.3 m (3) 8 m (4) 12 m
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 1 (Paper-I)

6. A cannon fires successively two shells with speed 9. x hits a ball along the ground with a speed u in a
250 m/s, the first at an angle 60 and second at an direction which makes an angle 30 with the line
angle 45 to the horizontal in same plane. Find time joining him and fielder y. Fielder y runs to intercept
interval between firings leading to the collision of shells.
2u
(g = 10 m/s2) the ball with a speed . At what angle should he
3
(1) 11 s (2) 5 s run to intercept the ball in the shortest time?
(3) 7 s (4) 6 s 2u
u
3
7. A ball is thrown from a point A with a speed v0 at an
angle with horizontal from a point A. A smooth wall
30
is approaching the ball with speed v as shown in x y
figure, after colliding with the wall it bounces back on
the point of projection A. Then its time of flight is 1 3
(1) sin
2

v0 v 3
(2) sin1
4

A 4
(3) sin1
2v 0 sin 5
(1)
g 2
(4) sin1
2v 0 sin 3
(2) 10. An athlete jumps to throw a javelin from a height of
g
3 m with a speed of 15 m/s. Then find the maximum
2v 0 sin possible range on the ground (g = 10 m/s2)
(3)
g (1) 22.5 m
(4) Information is not sufficient to decide time of (2) 25.3 m
flight
(3) 21 m
8. If there is no air drag in the ascent of a projectile,
(4) 28.1 m
(1) The magnitude of tangential acceleration
increases while magnitude of normal acceleration 11. A man can swim in still water with a speed of
decreases 3 3 m/s and flow velocity of water is 3 m/s. He
(2) The magnitude of tangential acceleration wants to move along a line at an angle 60 with the
decreases while magnitude of normal flow direction. At what angle from flow direction
acceleration increases should he start swimming?
(3) Both increases (1) 90 (2) 75
(4) Both decreases (3) 120 (4) 74
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

12. A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 second, 15. Initially the system shown in figure is in equilibrium.
Find the acceleration of block C immediately after
with a velocity of 10 j m/s and moves in the x-y
lower string is cut
plane with a constant acceleration of (8i 2 j ) m/s2 .
Q
Find the speed of the particle when x = 16 m
(1) 21.26 m/s
(2) 13 m/s
(3) 16.4 m/s
(4) 25.2 m/s m C

13. A particle is moving in a vertical circle under the A m


action of a force that gives a tangential acceleration
of 4 m/s2 in addition to the radial acceleration. At the
m D
position P, its speed is 3 m/s and acceleration is
B 2m
horizontal. The value of is

P (1) g upward (2) g downward

g
(3) Zero (4) downward
2
16. In the system shown the triangular wedge is fixed,
mass of block A is 50 kg and mass of block B is
75 kg. The tension in the string is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 37 (2) 30
(3) 53 (4) 60
14. The position vector of a particle is

r a [cos t i sin t j ] . The acceleration of the
B
particle is 75 kg 50 kg A
(1) Parallel to velocity vector 37
(2) Directed towards origin
(3) Directed away from origin (1) 500 N (2) 400 N
(4) Perpendicular to position vector (3) 300 N (4) 600 N
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 1 (Paper-I)

17. At the instant shown in figure, the block moves 20. A ball is held at rest in position A and another
downwards with velocity u 1, the wedge moves identical ball is released from rest in position B. The
rightwards with velocity u2. The correct relation
T1
between u1 and u2 is ratio of tensions is given by
T2
(1) 1
u2 1
u1 (2)
2

30
30
T1 T2
4
(3)
(1) u2 = u1 (2) u2 = u1sin 3
(3) 2u2sin = u1 (4) u2(1 + sin) = u1 3 A B
(4)
18. In the figure shown A and B are free to move. All the 4
surfaces are smooth. Mass of A is m, then 21. In the arrangement shown in figure
1 = 0.1
m A
B 2 = 0.4
M
M = 20 kg

Find the maximum value of m so that arrangement
(1) The acceleration of A will be more than gsin is in equilibrium
(2) The acceleration of A will be less than gsin
(3) Normal reaction on A due to B will be more than
mgcos
(4) Normal reaction on A due to B will be equal to 1 m
mgcos M

19. A solid uniform 45 kg ball of diameter 32 cm is


supported against a vertical wall (smooth) using a 2
30 cm massless string. The normal reaction of the (1) 4 kg (2) 5 kg
wall on the ball is nearly (g = 9.8 m/s2) (3) 6 kg (4) 3 kg
22. In the figure shown, there is exist friction between
30 c the blocks but the ground is smooth. The friction
m
force acting between the blocks is (g = 10 m/s2)

g 5N 2 kg = 0.6

3 kg 20 N
Smooth
(1) 163 N (2) 221 N (1) 12 N (2) 11 N
(3) 140 N (4) 240 N (3) 6 N (4) 5 N
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

23. A cylinder of mass m rest in a supporting block as (1) mgsin + mgcos


shown. If = 60 and = 30, calculate the
maximum acceleration which the block may be given (sin cos )
(2) mg
up the incline so that the cylinder does not lose (cos sin )
contact at P (neglect friction everywhere)
(sin cos )
60 (3) mg
=
cos sin
(4) mgtan
P

Q SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion-
= 30 Reason type questions. Each of these questions
g contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
(1) g (2) Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
2
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
g answer. You have to select the correct choice.
(3) (4) 2g
4
24. A block of mass m is stationary relative to a trolley 26. Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are
car which moves with an acceleration a. The frictional kept over a rough horizontal plank whose inclination
force acting on the block is with horizontal is increased slowly. The coefficient of
friction for all surface in contact is same
m
a m1 m2

(1) mg Plank
(2) ma in forward direction Statement-1 : m1 will begin to slip before m2 does.
(3) ma in backward direction and
(4) Zero Statement-2 : The force causing m1 to slip is more
25. A horizontal force F pushes a block of mass m so than that for m2.
that it moves up the plane with a constant velocity. (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Assume = coefficient of kinetic friction. The value Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
of F is Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
F m Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 1 (Paper-I)

27. Statement-1 : For a particle moving in a curved path, 29. Statement-1 : If a body is moving on a curved path
 and it is speeding then angle between velocity and
dv dv acceleration is always acute.
must be greater than .
dt dt and
Statement-2 : Rate of change of velocity is
and acceleration.

Statement-2 : The magnitude of rectangular (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
component of a vector cannot be more than
Statement-1
magnitude of a vector.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for 30. In the figure shown.
Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

28. Statement-1 : A particle moves so that its coordinate A 2 kg


vary with time as x = acost and y = asint. The
3 kg B
trajectory of the particle is circular.
Statement-1 : Block B will exert greater force on
and string in comparison to block A.
Statement-2 : Two mutually perpendicular velocities and
when added, give rise to a circular motion. Statement-2 : Block A will exert a force on string
greater than 2g and block B will exert a force less
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
than 3g on the string.
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-1
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-1
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-1 Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
37. The mass of carbon that contains same number of
SECTION - I atoms as are present in 2.4 g of S is
Straight Objective Type Questions
(1) 0.90 g (2) 1.8 g
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) 1.35 g (4) 2.15 g
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 38. The radius of 4th orbit in He+ is X times the radius
31. Overlap of which of the following atomic orbitals of first orbit of H-atom. What is the value of X?
would be maximum to give the strongest covalent (1) 4.5 (2) 6
bond?
(3) 8 (4) 9.25
(1) 2p 2p() (2) 2p 2p()
39. The difference between nth and (n + 1)th Bohr's
(3) 1s 2s() (4) 1s 2p()
radius of H-atom is equal to its (n 1)th Bohr's
32. The vapour density of a mixture of NO2 and N2O4 is radius. The value of n is
33.35, at 25C. Calculate the number of moles of
NO2 in 10 mole of the mixture. (1) 5 (2) 4

(1) 3.0 (2) 4.5 (3) 2 (4) 1

(3) 5.5 (4) 7.0 40. Which of the following species has one lone pair of
electrons in the valence shell of the central atom?
33. The correct order of second ionisation energy of
carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is (1) XeF4 (2) SiF4
(1) O > F > N > C (2) F > O > N > C (3) BrF3 (4) SF4
(3) C > O > N > F (4) O > N > F > C 41. Which of the following is most covalent?
34. Which one of the following orders of bond angles is (1) Na2S
correct?
(2) MgCl2
(1) NH3 < NF3 (2) PH3 < PF3
(3) MgS
(3) BF3 < BCl3 (4) H2O < OF2
(4) NaCl
35. The maximum F Xe F bond angle in XeOF2 is
42. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is half
(1) 90 (2) 120
of uncertainty in position. What is the value of
(3) 150 (4) 180 uncertainty in velocity?
36. What mass of HNO3 is needed to convert 12.7 g of
I 2 to HIO 3 according to the following reaction? 1 h 1 h
[Atomic mass : N = 14, I = 127] (1) (2)
m 2m 2
I2 + HNO3 HIO3 + NO2 + H2O
(1) 24.8 g (2) 13.5 g 1 h h
(3) (4)
(3) 31.5 g (4) 48.2 g m 4 2m
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 1 (Paper-I)

43. The specific gravity of a solution is 1.4 g/ml. It has 50. An electron comes back from 4th excited state of
54% (mass/mass) of a salt. What is the mass of salt H-atom. How many lines will appear in the visible
in 750 ml of the solution? region of its emission spectrum?
(1) 537 g (2) 555 g (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 567 g (4) 586 g (3) 10 (4) 2

44. The first four ionisation energies of an element (M) 51. In 6th period of periodic table the electrons fill the
are 8.30 eV, 25.15 eV, 37.93 eV and 259.30 eV. orbitals in the order of
What would be the formula of its chloride? (1) 6s, 4f, 5d, 7s
(1) MCl (2) MCl2 (2) 4s, 3d, 4p
(3) MCl3 (4) MCl4 (3) 5s, 4d, 5p
45. Which one of the following elements/ions has (4) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p
positive electron gain enthalpy? 52. Which one of the following has highest dipole
(1) B (2) N moment?
(3) S (4) O (1) CH3 F (2) CH3 Cl
46. Which of the following oxides is/are amphoteric (3) CH3 Br (4) CH3 I
oxide(s)? 53. Which of the following is correct order of bond
(1) BeO (2) Al2O3 angle?

(3) ZnO (4) All of these (1) NF3 < PH3 < NH3

47. 2.74 g of a mixture of NaHCO3 and Na2CO3 lost (2) PH3 < NH3 < NF3
0.62 g of its weight on strong heating. The mole (3) PH3 < NF3 < NH3
fraction of NaHCO3 in the original mixture is (4) NF3 < NH3 < PH3
(1) 0.67 (2) 0.33 54. What is the hybridisation of S-atom in S8 molecule?
(3) 0.55 (4) 0.40 (1) sp3 (2) sp2
48. A sample containing H3PO4 and P4O10 is labelled in (3) sp (4) dsp2
the analogous manner as oleum. The mass of P4O10
55. Pick out the isostructural species having similar
in a sample labelled as 127%, would be (Atomic
shape from the following
mass : O = 16, P = 31)
(1) 24 g (2) 37 g I. NH2 II. OF2

(3) 53 g (4) 71 g III. XeF2 IV. CS2

49. Which one among the following species has longest (1) II and III
bond length? (2) III and IV
(1) N2 (2) N2+ (3) I and II
(3) N2 (4) N22 (4) II, III and IV
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

SECTION - II 58. Statement-1 : Atomic radius of aluminium is lower


than that of gallium.
Assertion Reason Type Questions
and
Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion- Statement-2 : Aluminium and gallium belong to the
Reason type questions. Each of these questions same group of periodic table.
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct Statement-1
answer. You have to select the correct choice. (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
56. Statement-1 : A metal is heated in an atmosphere of
Statement-1
oxygen to form its oxide having 53.33 % oxygen.
The equivalent weight of metal is 7. (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
and
59. Statement-1 : NO2 is paramagnetic and undergoes
Statement-2 : In the above reaction 7 parts of metal dimerisation to form N2O4 which is diamagnetic.
have combined with 8 parts of oxygen. and
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 : NO2 is mixed anhydride.
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-1 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-1 Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
57. Statement-1 : The shape of ICl2 is linear. 60. Statement-1 : Orbital 4d has one radial node and
two angular nodes.
and
and
Statement-2 : Hybridisation of I in ICl2 is sp. Statement-2 : Number of radial nodes is given by
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; n1 and number of angular nodes is given by .
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-1 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
65. If the quadratic equation (ln a) x2 + 2(ln a)2x 3 = 0,
SECTION - I a > 1, has exactly one root in (1, 2), then ln a lies
Straight Objective Type Questions in
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
1
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (1) 0, (2) (1, )
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 2
1 1
61. The radius of the circle (3) 1, (4) , 1
2 2
2 z z (3 2i )z (3 2i )z 6 0 is
66. Let A(z1), B(z2), C(z3) be three points in the argand
(1) 5 (2) 4 plane such that z1 + 7z2 8z3 = 0. Then
5 (1) ABC is right angled triangle
(3) (4) 1
2
21
62. Consider the quadratic equation ax 2 bx a 0 , (2) ABC is a triangle whose area is sq. unit
2
where a, b, C (set of complex number) such that
(3) A, B, C are collinear and B divides AC in the
Im(a) 0 and Im(b) = 0. Then
ratio 7 : 1 internally
(1) Both roots of the equation are always real
(4) A, B, C are collinear and B divides AC in ratio
(2) Both roots of the equation are complex numbers 8 : 1 externally
and conjugate of each other
(3) Both roots of the equation are always complex 4
67. The least value of |z| satisfying z 3 is
numbers, but not the conjugate of each other z
(4) Roots may be real as well as complex numbers (1) 0 (2) 1
63. Let z1, z2, z3, ....., z11 be the roots of the equation (3) 2 (4) 4
z11 1 = 0, where z1 = 1. If is the fifth complex
68. Let , be the roots of x2 + 2x + 3 = 0. Then the
root of unity (Im () 0) then
roots of x2 2x (1 x) + 3(1 x)2 = 0 are
( z2 2 ) ( z3 2 )..... ( z11 2 )
is equal to
( z2 ) ( z3 )...... ( z11 ) (1) , (2) ,
1 1 1 1
(1) 1 (2)
(3) 2 (4) 1 1 1
(3) , (4) ,
1 1
64. The term independent of x in the expansion of
7 8 69. If x 1 , x 2 are the roots of x 2 + x 2 = 0 and
1 1 y1, y2 are the roots of y2 + y + 2 = 0, then (x1 y1)
x x x x is
(x2 y2) (x1 y2) (x2 y1) is equal to
(1) 35 (2) 6 (1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 0 (4) 35 (3) 4 (4) 2
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

70. The greatest term in the expansion of (3 + 5x)15 76. The sum of the series 10C0 + (10C0 + 10C1) + (10C0
+ 10C1 + 10C2) + ..... + (10C0 + 10C1 + ..... + 10C10)
9
when x , is is equal to
25
(1) 1536 (2) 5120
(1) T6 only (2) T7 only
(3) 5632 (4) 6144
(3) T6 and T7 only (4) T5 and T6 only
77. The first negative term in the expansion of (1 + x)35/3,
5
71. [(2 3) ] , where [.] represents the greatest integer 0 < x < 1, is
function, is equal to (1) 14 (2) 13
(1) 722 (2) 723 (3) 12 (4) 11
(3) 724 (4) 725 78. The co-efficient of x 4 in the expansion of
72. Let be the 7th root of unity. Then 5
2 1
8 3 x x is
log3 1 2 3 4 5 is equal to

(1) 254 (2) 260
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 270 (4) 280
(3) 2 (4) 3
79. Let z and be two complex numbers such that
73. The least argument of the complex number z

satisfying | z 2 3 6i | 2 3 , is arg( z ) arg() , | z | 2 | | . Then z equals
4


(1) (2) (1) (1 i ) (2) 2(1 i )
6 4
(3) 2 (1 i ) (4) 2 (1 i )
2
(3) (4)
3 3 80. The number of real roots of the equation 4x3 x2 +
74. If and ( > ) are the roots of the equation 2x = 0, R, > 1, is
x2 px q = 0, where p > 0, q > 0. Then (1) 1
(1) || > > 0 > (2) > > 0 (2) 3
(3) || > > 0 > (4) > || > 0 > (3) Dependent on
75. If , , are the roots of x 3 + 3x 2 1 = 0, then (4) Dependent of both and
1 1 1 81. 35 C 35 35 C . 35 C 35 C 35 C
is equal to 0 . C 15 1 16 + 2. 17 ..... +
( ) ( ) ( ) 35C .35C is equal to
20 35

(1) 0 (2) 3 (1) 0 (2) 35C25


(3) 35C (4) 1
(3) 3 (4) 1 25

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 1 (Paper-I)
12
2k 2k (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
82. sin 13 i cos
13
is equal to Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
k 1
Statement-1
(1) 0 (2) 1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(3) i (4) i Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
83. Let origin, z1 and z2 are the vertices of an equilateral Statement-1
triangle. If z1 and z2 are the roots of the quadratic (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
x2 + 2x b = 0. Then b is
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
2
(1) 1 (2) n
3 n
87. Statement-1 : P(n) : (n 1)! holds for all
4 2
(3) (4) 2 natural numbers n.
3
84. The sum of the real values of x satisfying the and
equation |x 1|2 + 4|x 1| 5 = 0 is Statement-2 : P(1) is true.
(1) 4 (2) 0 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(3) 2 (4) 4 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
85. If n > 1, then (1 2x)n 1 + 2nx is always divisible
by (for all n) (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(1) x2 (2) 2x2 Statement-1
(3) x 1 (4) x + 1 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

SECTION - II (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True


Assertion Reason Type Questions 4 6
88. Statement-1 : Origin, 2 + 3i, i are collinear.
Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion- 5 5
Reason type questions. Each of these questions and
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 : If origin, z1 and z2 are collinear then
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has |z1 + z2| = |z1| + |z2| for all complex numbers z1 and
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct z 2.
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
86. Statement-1 : The 4 th term from the end in the Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
11 Statement-1
1
expansion of 3 5 is 275 5 . (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
3
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
and
Statement-1
Statement-2 : The r th term from the end in the
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
expansion of (1 + x)n is (n r + 1)th term from the
beginning. (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

89. Statement-1 : For all nN, P(n) : 64n/2 7n 1 is 90. Statement-1 : The number of points of intersection of
divisible by 7.
|z 2| = 2 and arg ( z 3 i ) is 1.
and 4
Statement-2 : If P(k + 1) is true wherever P(k) is and
true and P(1) is true then P(n) is true for all kN. Statement-2 : Point 3 + i lies on the circle
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; | z 2 | 2 .
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-1 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

  

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