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JEE Main-2014 - Test-1 (Paper-I) - Code-A PDF
JEE Main-2014 - Test-1 (Paper-I) - Code-A PDF
PART - A (PHYSICS)
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 1 (Paper-I)
6. A cannon fires successively two shells with speed 9. x hits a ball along the ground with a speed u in a
250 m/s, the first at an angle 60 and second at an direction which makes an angle 30 with the line
angle 45 to the horizontal in same plane. Find time joining him and fielder y. Fielder y runs to intercept
interval between firings leading to the collision of shells.
2u
(g = 10 m/s2) the ball with a speed . At what angle should he
3
(1) 11 s (2) 5 s run to intercept the ball in the shortest time?
(3) 7 s (4) 6 s 2u
u
3
7. A ball is thrown from a point A with a speed v0 at an
angle with horizontal from a point A. A smooth wall
30
is approaching the ball with speed v as shown in x y
figure, after colliding with the wall it bounces back on
the point of projection A. Then its time of flight is 1 3
(1) sin
2
v0 v 3
(2) sin1
4
A 4
(3) sin1
2v 0 sin 5
(1)
g 2
(4) sin1
2v 0 sin 3
(2) 10. An athlete jumps to throw a javelin from a height of
g
3 m with a speed of 15 m/s. Then find the maximum
2v 0 sin possible range on the ground (g = 10 m/s2)
(3)
g (1) 22.5 m
(4) Information is not sufficient to decide time of (2) 25.3 m
flight
(3) 21 m
8. If there is no air drag in the ascent of a projectile,
(4) 28.1 m
(1) The magnitude of tangential acceleration
increases while magnitude of normal acceleration 11. A man can swim in still water with a speed of
decreases 3 3 m/s and flow velocity of water is 3 m/s. He
(2) The magnitude of tangential acceleration wants to move along a line at an angle 60 with the
decreases while magnitude of normal flow direction. At what angle from flow direction
acceleration increases should he start swimming?
(3) Both increases (1) 90 (2) 75
(4) Both decreases (3) 120 (4) 74
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
12. A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 second, 15. Initially the system shown in figure is in equilibrium.
Find the acceleration of block C immediately after
with a velocity of 10 j m/s and moves in the x-y
lower string is cut
plane with a constant acceleration of (8i 2 j ) m/s2 .
Q
Find the speed of the particle when x = 16 m
(1) 21.26 m/s
(2) 13 m/s
(3) 16.4 m/s
(4) 25.2 m/s m C
g
(3) Zero (4) downward
2
16. In the system shown the triangular wedge is fixed,
mass of block A is 50 kg and mass of block B is
75 kg. The tension in the string is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 37 (2) 30
(3) 53 (4) 60
14. The position vector of a particle is
r a [cos t i sin t j ] . The acceleration of the
B
particle is 75 kg 50 kg A
(1) Parallel to velocity vector 37
(2) Directed towards origin
(3) Directed away from origin (1) 500 N (2) 400 N
(4) Perpendicular to position vector (3) 300 N (4) 600 N
Space for Rough Work
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 1 (Paper-I)
17. At the instant shown in figure, the block moves 20. A ball is held at rest in position A and another
downwards with velocity u 1, the wedge moves identical ball is released from rest in position B. The
rightwards with velocity u2. The correct relation
T1
between u1 and u2 is ratio of tensions is given by
T2
(1) 1
u2 1
u1 (2)
2
30
30
T1 T2
4
(3)
(1) u2 = u1 (2) u2 = u1sin 3
(3) 2u2sin = u1 (4) u2(1 + sin) = u1 3 A B
(4)
18. In the figure shown A and B are free to move. All the 4
surfaces are smooth. Mass of A is m, then 21. In the arrangement shown in figure
1 = 0.1
m A
B 2 = 0.4
M
M = 20 kg
Find the maximum value of m so that arrangement
(1) The acceleration of A will be more than gsin is in equilibrium
(2) The acceleration of A will be less than gsin
(3) Normal reaction on A due to B will be more than
mgcos
(4) Normal reaction on A due to B will be equal to 1 m
mgcos M
g 5N 2 kg = 0.6
3 kg 20 N
Smooth
(1) 163 N (2) 221 N (1) 12 N (2) 11 N
(3) 140 N (4) 240 N (3) 6 N (4) 5 N
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
(1) mg Plank
(2) ma in forward direction Statement-1 : m1 will begin to slip before m2 does.
(3) ma in backward direction and
(4) Zero Statement-2 : The force causing m1 to slip is more
25. A horizontal force F pushes a block of mass m so than that for m2.
that it moves up the plane with a constant velocity. (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Assume = coefficient of kinetic friction. The value Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
of F is Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
F m Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Space for Rough Work
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 1 (Paper-I)
27. Statement-1 : For a particle moving in a curved path, 29. Statement-1 : If a body is moving on a curved path
and it is speeding then angle between velocity and
dv dv acceleration is always acute.
must be greater than .
dt dt and
Statement-2 : Rate of change of velocity is
and acceleration.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for 30. In the figure shown.
Statement-1
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
37. The mass of carbon that contains same number of
SECTION - I atoms as are present in 2.4 g of S is
Straight Objective Type Questions
(1) 0.90 g (2) 1.8 g
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) 1.35 g (4) 2.15 g
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 38. The radius of 4th orbit in He+ is X times the radius
31. Overlap of which of the following atomic orbitals of first orbit of H-atom. What is the value of X?
would be maximum to give the strongest covalent (1) 4.5 (2) 6
bond?
(3) 8 (4) 9.25
(1) 2p 2p() (2) 2p 2p()
39. The difference between nth and (n + 1)th Bohr's
(3) 1s 2s() (4) 1s 2p()
radius of H-atom is equal to its (n 1)th Bohr's
32. The vapour density of a mixture of NO2 and N2O4 is radius. The value of n is
33.35, at 25C. Calculate the number of moles of
NO2 in 10 mole of the mixture. (1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 5.5 (4) 7.0 40. Which of the following species has one lone pair of
electrons in the valence shell of the central atom?
33. The correct order of second ionisation energy of
carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is (1) XeF4 (2) SiF4
(1) O > F > N > C (2) F > O > N > C (3) BrF3 (4) SF4
(3) C > O > N > F (4) O > N > F > C 41. Which of the following is most covalent?
34. Which one of the following orders of bond angles is (1) Na2S
correct?
(2) MgCl2
(1) NH3 < NF3 (2) PH3 < PF3
(3) MgS
(3) BF3 < BCl3 (4) H2O < OF2
(4) NaCl
35. The maximum F Xe F bond angle in XeOF2 is
42. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is half
(1) 90 (2) 120
of uncertainty in position. What is the value of
(3) 150 (4) 180 uncertainty in velocity?
36. What mass of HNO3 is needed to convert 12.7 g of
I 2 to HIO 3 according to the following reaction? 1 h 1 h
[Atomic mass : N = 14, I = 127] (1) (2)
m 2m 2
I2 + HNO3 HIO3 + NO2 + H2O
(1) 24.8 g (2) 13.5 g 1 h h
(3) (4)
(3) 31.5 g (4) 48.2 g m 4 2m
Space for Rough Work
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 1 (Paper-I)
43. The specific gravity of a solution is 1.4 g/ml. It has 50. An electron comes back from 4th excited state of
54% (mass/mass) of a salt. What is the mass of salt H-atom. How many lines will appear in the visible
in 750 ml of the solution? region of its emission spectrum?
(1) 537 g (2) 555 g (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 567 g (4) 586 g (3) 10 (4) 2
44. The first four ionisation energies of an element (M) 51. In 6th period of periodic table the electrons fill the
are 8.30 eV, 25.15 eV, 37.93 eV and 259.30 eV. orbitals in the order of
What would be the formula of its chloride? (1) 6s, 4f, 5d, 7s
(1) MCl (2) MCl2 (2) 4s, 3d, 4p
(3) MCl3 (4) MCl4 (3) 5s, 4d, 5p
45. Which one of the following elements/ions has (4) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p
positive electron gain enthalpy? 52. Which one of the following has highest dipole
(1) B (2) N moment?
(3) S (4) O (1) CH3 F (2) CH3 Cl
46. Which of the following oxides is/are amphoteric (3) CH3 Br (4) CH3 I
oxide(s)? 53. Which of the following is correct order of bond
(1) BeO (2) Al2O3 angle?
(3) ZnO (4) All of these (1) NF3 < PH3 < NH3
47. 2.74 g of a mixture of NaHCO3 and Na2CO3 lost (2) PH3 < NH3 < NF3
0.62 g of its weight on strong heating. The mole (3) PH3 < NF3 < NH3
fraction of NaHCO3 in the original mixture is (4) NF3 < NH3 < PH3
(1) 0.67 (2) 0.33 54. What is the hybridisation of S-atom in S8 molecule?
(3) 0.55 (4) 0.40 (1) sp3 (2) sp2
48. A sample containing H3PO4 and P4O10 is labelled in (3) sp (4) dsp2
the analogous manner as oleum. The mass of P4O10
55. Pick out the isostructural species having similar
in a sample labelled as 127%, would be (Atomic
shape from the following
mass : O = 16, P = 31)
(1) 24 g (2) 37 g I. NH2 II. OF2
49. Which one among the following species has longest (1) II and III
bond length? (2) III and IV
(1) N2 (2) N2+ (3) I and II
(3) N2 (4) N22 (4) II, III and IV
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 1 (Paper-I)
PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
65. If the quadratic equation (ln a) x2 + 2(ln a)2x 3 = 0,
SECTION - I a > 1, has exactly one root in (1, 2), then ln a lies
Straight Objective Type Questions in
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
1
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (1) 0, (2) (1, )
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 2
1 1
61. The radius of the circle (3) 1, (4) , 1
2 2
2 z z (3 2i )z (3 2i )z 6 0 is
66. Let A(z1), B(z2), C(z3) be three points in the argand
(1) 5 (2) 4 plane such that z1 + 7z2 8z3 = 0. Then
5 (1) ABC is right angled triangle
(3) (4) 1
2
21
62. Consider the quadratic equation ax 2 bx a 0 , (2) ABC is a triangle whose area is sq. unit
2
where a, b, C (set of complex number) such that
(3) A, B, C are collinear and B divides AC in the
Im(a) 0 and Im(b) = 0. Then
ratio 7 : 1 internally
(1) Both roots of the equation are always real
(4) A, B, C are collinear and B divides AC in ratio
(2) Both roots of the equation are complex numbers 8 : 1 externally
and conjugate of each other
(3) Both roots of the equation are always complex 4
67. The least value of |z| satisfying z 3 is
numbers, but not the conjugate of each other z
(4) Roots may be real as well as complex numbers (1) 0 (2) 1
63. Let z1, z2, z3, ....., z11 be the roots of the equation (3) 2 (4) 4
z11 1 = 0, where z1 = 1. If is the fifth complex
68. Let , be the roots of x2 + 2x + 3 = 0. Then the
root of unity (Im () 0) then
roots of x2 2x (1 x) + 3(1 x)2 = 0 are
( z2 2 ) ( z3 2 )..... ( z11 2 )
is equal to
( z2 ) ( z3 )...... ( z11 ) (1) , (2) ,
1 1 1 1
(1) 1 (2)
(3) 2 (4) 1 1 1
(3) , (4) ,
1 1
64. The term independent of x in the expansion of
7 8 69. If x 1 , x 2 are the roots of x 2 + x 2 = 0 and
1 1 y1, y2 are the roots of y2 + y + 2 = 0, then (x1 y1)
x x x x is
(x2 y2) (x1 y2) (x2 y1) is equal to
(1) 35 (2) 6 (1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 0 (4) 35 (3) 4 (4) 2
Space for Rough Work
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
70. The greatest term in the expansion of (3 + 5x)15 76. The sum of the series 10C0 + (10C0 + 10C1) + (10C0
+ 10C1 + 10C2) + ..... + (10C0 + 10C1 + ..... + 10C10)
9
when x , is is equal to
25
(1) 1536 (2) 5120
(1) T6 only (2) T7 only
(3) 5632 (4) 6144
(3) T6 and T7 only (4) T5 and T6 only
77. The first negative term in the expansion of (1 + x)35/3,
5
71. [(2 3) ] , where [.] represents the greatest integer 0 < x < 1, is
function, is equal to (1) 14 (2) 13
(1) 722 (2) 723 (3) 12 (4) 11
(3) 724 (4) 725 78. The co-efficient of x 4 in the expansion of
72. Let be the 7th root of unity. Then 5
2 1
8 3 x x is
log3 1 2 3 4 5 is equal to
(1) 254 (2) 260
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 270 (4) 280
(3) 2 (4) 3
79. Let z and be two complex numbers such that
73. The least argument of the complex number z
satisfying | z 2 3 6i | 2 3 , is arg( z ) arg() , | z | 2 | | . Then z equals
4
(1) (2) (1) (1 i ) (2) 2(1 i )
6 4
(3) 2 (1 i ) (4) 2 (1 i )
2
(3) (4)
3 3 80. The number of real roots of the equation 4x3 x2 +
74. If and ( > ) are the roots of the equation 2x = 0, R, > 1, is
x2 px q = 0, where p > 0, q > 0. Then (1) 1
(1) || > > 0 > (2) > > 0 (2) 3
(3) || > > 0 > (4) > || > 0 > (3) Dependent on
75. If , , are the roots of x 3 + 3x 2 1 = 0, then (4) Dependent of both and
1 1 1 81. 35 C 35 35 C . 35 C 35 C 35 C
is equal to 0 . C 15 1 16 + 2. 17 ..... +
( ) ( ) ( ) 35C .35C is equal to
20 35
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 1 (Paper-I)
12
2k 2k (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
82. sin 13 i cos
13
is equal to Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
k 1
Statement-1
(1) 0 (2) 1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(3) i (4) i Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
83. Let origin, z1 and z2 are the vertices of an equilateral Statement-1
triangle. If z1 and z2 are the roots of the quadratic (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
x2 + 2x b = 0. Then b is
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
2
(1) 1 (2) n
3 n
87. Statement-1 : P(n) : (n 1)! holds for all
4 2
(3) (4) 2 natural numbers n.
3
84. The sum of the real values of x satisfying the and
equation |x 1|2 + 4|x 1| 5 = 0 is Statement-2 : P(1) is true.
(1) 4 (2) 0 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(3) 2 (4) 4 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
85. If n > 1, then (1 2x)n 1 + 2nx is always divisible
by (for all n) (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(1) x2 (2) 2x2 Statement-1
(3) x 1 (4) x + 1 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
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Test - 1 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
89. Statement-1 : For all nN, P(n) : 64n/2 7n 1 is 90. Statement-1 : The number of points of intersection of
divisible by 7.
|z 2| = 2 and arg ( z 3 i ) is 1.
and 4
Statement-2 : If P(k + 1) is true wherever P(k) is and
true and P(1) is true then P(n) is true for all kN. Statement-2 : Point 3 + i lies on the circle
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; | z 2 | 2 .
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-1 Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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