MOCK TEST 1 JANUARY 2009

1. A patient brings you a prescription for 16 mEq KC1. Your pharmacy has 600 mg
KC1 (MW 74.5) controlled release tablets does the patient need?
A. 0.5 tablets
B. 1 tablets
C. 2 tablets
D. 4 tablets
E. 5 tablets
ANS: C

2. HLB value for O/W emulsifying agent:

A. 4 - 8
B. 1 - 4
C 8 - 18
D. 1-12
E. 4 - 12
ANS: C

3. Calcium gluconate injection contains 0.1 g Ca(C6H11O7)2mL of solution. If the

NaC1 equivalent of calcium gluconate is 0.16, the injection is:
A. hypotonic
B. iso-osmotic
C. isotonic
D. hypertonic
E. opisthonic
ANS: D

4. Which of the following monitoring parameter is essential for patient who currently
taking Low molecular weight herapin (LMWH):
A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
B. Prothrombin time
C. Herapin assay
D. Sensitive TSH
E. None of the above monitoring needed
ANS: E
5. The elimination rate constant for a certain drug is 2.7 days -1. What is the half-
life?
A. 800 min
B. 369 min
C. 900 min
D. 1200 min
E. 1600 min
ANS: B

6. Which of the following most closely describes as the clearance rate of drug that is
infused at rate of 4 mg/min and produces a steady state concentration of 6 mg/L in
plasma.
A. 1,200 ml/min
B. 667 ml/min
C. 300 ml/min
D. 132 ml/min
E. 67 ml/min
ANS: B

7. How many tablets are needed for following prescription?

Rx
Provera 5 mg tab QD
16 - 25 days for 3 months
One tablet containing 5 mg
A. 50 tablets
B. 60 tablets
C. 80 tablets
D. 75 tablets
E. 30 tablets
ANS: E

8. Which of the following parameters is used measure extent bioavailability:

A. Cmax
B. tmax
C. AUC
D. Vd
 E. Clearance
ANS: C
TIPS: Extent of bioavailability is obtained by AUC where as rate is measured by
Cmax and tmax. Volume of distribution
is not associated with bioavailability.

9. If 60 gram of 1% Hydrocortisone is mixed with 80 gram of 2.5% Hydrocortisone,

what is the % w/w of hydrocortisone in final mixture?
A. 2.25%
B. 3.15%
C. 1.85%
D. 4.35%
E. 2.60%
ANS: C

10. Correct statement about partition coefficient?

A. Pc = drugs in lipid soluble / drugs in water soluble
B. Pc = drugs in water soluble / drugs in lipid soluble
C. Pc = drugs in lipid soluble x drugs in water soluble
D. Pc = drugs in lipid soluble - drugs in water soluble
E. None of the above
ANC: A
TIPS: Pc = Octanol/Water

11. pH-Pka = 1.5 for acidic drug what percent of drug is ionized?
A. 3.06%
B. 1%
C. 100%
D. 99%
E. 97.5%
ANS: E

12. In insurance plan drug price is $29.00 and $6.00 prescription fee. Every time this
patient pays $100.00 for each prescription what is it called?
A. Coinsurance
B. Co-payment
C.Prescription fee
 D. Gross margin
E. Donation
ANS: B

13. DIN is:

A. Drug Information Number
B. Drug Identification Number
C. Drug Index number
D. Drug Information Centre
E. Each college of pharmacy identified by DIN
ANS: B

14. How many millimeters of a 1 to 1600 solution can be made by dissolving 5.5
gram of sodium bicarbonate solution in water.
A. 8800
B. 8000
C. 7200
D. 9800
ANS: A

15. If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and
the renal clearance is 10mL/min then one may assume that:
I. Higher percent of plasma protein bond drug
II. Drug has tubular reabsoprtion
III. The extensively metabolized
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
ANS: B

16. A researcher develops a new drug to prevent the common cold in children over
the of two.1000 children received placebo and 1000 received the drug. During the one-
year follow up the research diagnosed colds in 2.5% of the kids on placebo and in 2%
of the active treatment. What is the absolute risk reduction?
A. 0.5%
 B. 20%
C. 10%
D. 40%
E. 5%
ANS: A

17. What does SPF 15 mean?

A. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn, in SPF 15, it would take 15 x 10 min
B. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 15 x 100 min
C. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 150 x 100 min
D. if it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 150 x 1000 min
E. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 1500 x 100 min
ANS: A

18. Adduction is?

A. Movement toward the midline of the body
B. Movement away from the midline of the body
C. Lengthening or straightening of a flexed limb
D. Bending a part of the body
E. Backward (upward) bending of the foot
ANS: A

19. A hospital pharmacist has to recommend appropriate drug for hospital formulary.
Which of the following antibiotic would you recommend?
Drug Cost/day Dosing frequency Duration
Drug A $1.50 QID 7 days
Drug B $1.50 QD 7 days
Drug C $3.00 BID 3 days
Drug D $1.25 BID 3 days
Drug E $1.25 QID 3 days
ANS: Drug D

20. If a prescription order requires 25 g of concentrated HCl (Density 1.18g/ml)

what volume should the pharmacist measure?
A. 29.50 ml C. 23.0 ml
B. 0.0212 ml D. 21.2 ml
ANS: D
21. A patient brings you a Rx for 0.5% menthol q.s. to 100 ml of alcohol. How many
grams of menthol would you need to prepare the Rx?
A. 0.005 D. 5
B. 0.05 E. 50
C. 0.5
ANS: C

22. Bacturia and pyuria are normally characteristics of which of the following
conditions?
A. Gastrointestinal infections
B. Urinary tract infections
C. Respiratory tract infections
D. Cardiovascular infections
E. Ocular infections
ANS: B

23. A patient calls to ask if her digoxin has changed color and shape. What would be
the most appropriate response?
A. Tell the patient that an error has been made and refer her to the physician
B. Determine if the color and shape for the tablets dispensed have been
changed by the manufacturer and convey this information to the patient
C. Obtain the patient's name, prescription number and the color of the tablet
and verify the patient prescription.
D. Explain that this is a serious matter and the medication should be brought
back to the pharmacy to be checked by the pharmacist
ANS: C

24. A 75 y/o patient suffering from pneumonia. Her daughter is looking after her. She
has two children at home. Doctor hesitates to give flu shot to the patient. What will
doctor do?
A. Immunize other family member
B. Send him to nursing home
C. Do not give flu vaccine all family members
D. flu vaccine is irrelevant
ANS: A
25. A physician in a unit dose hospital writes for Prednisone 15 mg tid. Each package
contains 1 x 5 mg tablet. How many packages are needed per dose?
A. 9 C. 6
B. 3 D. 4.5
ANS: B

26. The lower part of gut contain the following microorganisms:

A. 10-50% anaerobic
B. 90-95% anaerobic
C. 10-50% aerobic
D. 90-95% aerobic
E. lower part of gut does not have microbes
ANS: B

27. In preparing ZnSO4 suppositories using 200 mg of its USP value. Refers that
dispense value of ZnSO4 is 4 means that:
A. ZnSO4 will displace 800 mg of cocoa butter
B. Cocoa butter displace 800 mg of ZnSO4
C. Only 4 mg of cocoa butter will be displaced
D. 200 mg of ZnSO4 will displace 50 mg of cocoa butter
ANS: D

28. A pharmacist adds 400 ml of alcohol (95% v/v) to a liter of mouthwash formula.
What is the new percentage of alcohol present if the ordinary mouthwash was labelled
as 12% v/v of ethanol?
A. 36% C. 45%
B. 40% D. 50%
ANS: A

29. Find the absolute bioavailability of comp B tab

COMPANY DOSE FORM DOSE

CUMULATIVE URINARY
ADMINISTRATION
AMOUNT

A Parenteral 10 mg IV 9.4
 A Tablet 20 mg PO 12.0

B Tablet 20 mg PO 8.2

B Capsule 15 mg 6.8

A. 0.94 C. 0.44
B. 9.4 D. 8.2
ANS: C

30. How many grams of pure HC powder must be mix with 60 grams of 0.5% HC
cream if one wishes to prepare at 2.0% w/w preparation.
A. 0.78 D. 0.60
B. 0.88 E. 0.90
C. 0.92
ANS: C

31. A patient weighs 70 kg with normal renal function is injected with an IV drug for
10 hours . The desired plasma concentration is 15 mg/dl. T half of drugs is 1 hr and an
apparent volume of distribution is 9 liters. What is the rate of infusion for this patient?
A. 936.0 mg/hr D. 93.6 mg/hr
B. 1350.0 mg/hr E. 135.0 mg/hr
C. 468.0 mg/hr
ANS: A

32. A new cephalosporins antibiotic was given at a dose of 5 mg/kg by a single IV

bolus injection to a 58 y/o man who weighs 75 kg. The antibiotic follows the
Pharmacokinetics of a one-compartment model and has an elimination t 1/2 of 2
hours. The apparent volume of distribution is 0.28L/kg and the drug is 35% bound to
plasma protein. What is the initial plasma drug concentration in this patient?
A. 5 mg/L D. 0.28 mg/L
B. 17.9 mg/L E. None of the above
C. 75 mg/L
ANS: B

34. How much drug remains in the patient's body 8 hours after the dose?
 A. 375 mg D. 187 mg
B. 23.4 mg E. 93.7 mg
C. 150 mg
ANS: B

35. Arrange the following benzodiazepines from longest to shortest acting:

Oxazepam, Diazepam,Triazolam, Temazepam
A. Diazepam, Oxazepam,Temazepam,Triazolam
B. Triazolam,Oxazepam,Temazepam,Diazepam
C. Temazepam,Oxazepam,Triazolam,Diazepam
D. Triazolam,Temazepam,Oxazepam, Diazepam
E. Diazepam,Temazepam,Oxazepam,Triazolam
ANS: A
TIPS: Diazepam/ Oxazepam (t1/2 = 1-4 hrs), Temazepam (2-3 hrs) & Diazepam
(1-2 hrs)

36. A patient with hyperglycemic in the evening and hypoglycemic in the morning and
currently on regular insulin and NPH insulin, he should receive:
I. Increase NPH insulin in the morning
II. Decrease NPH insulin in the evening
III. Increase regular insulin levels in the morning
A. I only D. II and III only
B. III only E. All of the above
C. I and II only
ANS: C

37. Friability is defined as:

A. Ability of the tablet to withstand abrasion in packing, handling and
shipping which is defined as loss of weight of tablet due to chipping or
fragmentation in the form of particles.
B. Measure the degree of force required to break a tablet and also indicates
tensile strength of tablet. Hardness of tablet greatly effects dissolution and
disintegration
C. Measuring weight of tablet
D. The process of reducing particle size
E. Dissolving in small proportions
ANS: A
38. Meniere's Disease is (Meniere's Syndrome)?
A. A disorder in which gross enlargement of the cells of the mucus
membrane lining the stomach is associated with anemia
B. A disease of inner ear characterized by episodes of deafness, buzzing to
the ears (tinnitus) and vertigo
C. Drugs associated ototoxicity such as aminoglycosides Gentamycin
D. Unknown disease of ears
E. None of the above
ANS: B
TIPS: Differentiate with Menetrier's Disease: a disorder in which gross
enlargement of the cells of the mucus membrane lining the
stomach is associated with anemia.

39. How many ml of 0.9% w/v NaCl solution should be prepared from 250 ml of
25% w/v solution?
A. 3750 ml C. 6944.4 ml
B. 2500 ml D. 9 ml
ANS: C

40. Planes and sections of the body: separates the body into unequal right and left
portions is referred as:
A. sagittal plane D. parasagittal plane
B. midsagittal plane E. oblique
C. coronal plane
ANS: D

41. At night dark, what is the active part in the retina?

A. Cones D. Optic Nerve
B. Rods E. Cornea
C. Cones and rods
ANS: B

42. Cystic fibrosis is?

A. Disorder of pancreatic function
B. Disorder of lung function
C. Disorder of bones
 D. Disorder of electrolyte imbalance
E. Disorder of bladder
ANS: A
TIPS: Cystic fibrosis is the most common genetic disorder affecting young
Canadians. It is a multi-organ disease
affecting primarily the lungs and the digestive system. In the lungs, CF
causes severe breathing problems.
A build up of thick mucus makes it difficult to clear bacteria and leads to
cycles of infection and inflammation
which damage the delicate lung tissues. They must follow a demanding
daily routine of physical therapy
to keep the lungs free of congestion and infection. In the digestive tract,
cystic fibrosis makes it difficult to
digest and absorb nutrients from food.

43. Enkephalins are:

A. Benzodiazepine receptors
B. Peptide type of opioid neurotransmitter
C. Opioids receptors
D. Peptides in cell cycle
E. Regulates pain function
F. Enzymes that metabolize opioids
ANS: B

44. Thyroid stimulating hormones (TSH) secretes from?

A. Anterior pituitary gland
B. Posterior pituitary gland
C. Thyroid gland
D. Parathyroid gland
E. None of the above
ANS: A
TIPS: Anterior pituitary gland secretes TSH, FSH, LH, Prolactin, ACTH and
Growth Hormones where as
posterior pituitary gland stimulates ADH and Oxytocin only.

45. Aromatized ring A is present in?

A. Progesterone D. Androgen
 B. Estrogen E. Aldosterone
C. Testosterone
ANS: B

46. Inadequate blood circulation (perfusion) to the kidneys, which leaves them unable
to clean the blood properly, is characterized as?
A. Intrinsic acute renal failure
B. Postrenal acute failure
C. Prerenal acute failure
D. Chronic renal failure
E. Chronic liver failure
ANS: C
TIPS: Prerenal ARF is characterized by inadequate blood circulation. Many
patients with prerenal ARF are critically ill and experience shock
(very low blood pressure) there often is poor perfusion within many
organs which may lead to multiple organ failure.

47. Which of the following blood cells cannot be distinguished from basophils?
A. Neutrophils D. Red blood cells (RBC)
B. White blood cells E. Mast cells
C. Eosinophils
ANS: E

50. Which of the following condition have deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)?

A. Smoking D. Infants
B. Old age E. Pregnancy
C. Chronic alcoholism
ANS: C

51. Hemophilia A results from deficiency of factor?

A. V D. II
B. X E. XI
C. VIII
ANS: C

52. Translation occurs:

A. Before transcription C. Same time as transcription
 B. After transcription D. None of the above
ANS: B

53. What is definition of Pharmacogenetics?

A. The pharmacogenomics is integration of pharmacology and genetics.
B. The study of pharmacogenomics allows to design and develop drugs that
are customized to each person's genetic mark up.
C. The pharmacogenomics also utilized to study cytochrome enzymes that
are responsible for drug interactions.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
ANS: D

54. All of the following are NOT recommended for flu vaccine, EXCEPT?
A. Child under 6 months of age
B. A person allergy to eggs
C. A person with acute bronchitis symptoms
D. Pregnant women
E. None of the above
ANS: D

55. What is correct about erythropoeitins?

I. Epoeitin alpha are used for anemia associated chronic kidney diseases
II. Helps in to production of RBCs
III. Produced in bone marrow
A. I only D. II and III only
B. III only E. All of the above
C. I and II only
ANS: C

56. Muromonab (OKT3) is monoclonal antibody indicated?

A. Renal, cardiac and hepatic graft rejection
B. Neutropenia associated with cancer chemotherapy
C. Thrombocytopenia associated with cancer chemotherapy
D. Anemia associated with chronic renal diseases
E. None of the above
ANS: A
57. Ethanol metabolizes to acetic acid by the enzyme called?
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
B. Alcohol reductase
C. Glucuronidation
D. Alcohol decarboxylation
ANS: A

58. Assuming you have alcohol 95% and need to prepare 60 mls of alcohol 12%.
How much of alcohol 95% should be used to make this new concentration of alcohol?
A. 4.32 mls D. 6 mls
B. 7.57 mls E. 6.57 mls
C. 8.64 mls
ANS: B

59. You are giving ZnCl2 0.7%, Phenylephrine 0.1% and Boric acid 1.1% with E
values 0.16,0.32 and 0.5 respectively. This solution will be:
A. Isotonic D. Iso-osmotic
B. Hypertonic E. Isotonicity cannot be finding
C. Hypotonic
ANS: C

60. An inhaler contains 120 doses. How many days the patient will take to finish the
entire inhaler with this signature: " Use 2 inhalers in each nostril every morning and at
bedtime"
A. 7 days D. 15 days
B. 10 days E. 30 days
C. 20 days
ANS: D

61. What is the sensitivity of a balance that can weight 120 mg of a substance and
has a permissible error of 5%?
A. 6 mg D. 26 mg
B. 16 mg E. 1.6 mg
C. 66 mg
ANS: A
62. If the rate of infusion of the drug is 500 mg q8 hours and clearance is 7.3 l/hr.
Find steady state concentration
A. 85.6 mg/L D. 8.56 mg/L
B. 856 mg/L E. 5.86 mg/L
C. 8.56 g/L
ANS: D

63. A 40 y/o patient who weighs 70 kg needs intravenous infusion of Amoxicillin. The
desired Css of drug is 15 mg/dL. The physician ordered antibiotic infused for 10 hours.
Amoxicillin has t1/2 = 1 hour and Vd = 9L. What rate of IV is recommended for this
patient? (no loading dose was given)
A. 135 mg/hr D. 333 mg/hr
B. 936 mg/hr E. 400 mg/hr
C. 1000 mg/hr
ANS: B

64. In competitive antagonism

Ag + E + Ag* ----> AgE + Ag*E

If we use more concentration of Ag what happen?

A. Concentration of AgE increase and Ag*E decrease
B. Concentration of Ag*E increase and AgE decrease
C. Concentration of AgE and Ag*E decrease
D. Concentration of AgE and Ag*E increase
ANS: A
TIPS: In competitive antagonism, increase agonist concentration gives increased
agonist complex product.
Ag = Agonist Ag* = Antagonist E = Enzyme

65. Diastereoisomers that have the opposite configuration at only one of two or more
tetrahedral stereogenic centres present in the respective molecular entities are epimers.
Interconversion of epimers are epimerization. Which of the following class of
antibiotics known to have epimerization properties
A. B-lactams D. Tetracyclines
B. Quinolones E. Cephalosporins
C. Vancomycin
ANS: D
66. Geometrical Isomerism may be classified as CIS and TRANS depending the
spatial position of the molecule around a bond with restricted rotation, which of the
following is an example of geometrical isomerism?
A. Butene D. 3-Butyne
B. 1-Butene E. 1-Butane
C. 2-Butene
ANS: C
TIPS: Geometric isomerism may be classified as CIS and TRANS depending on
the spatial position of the molecule around a bond with restricted rotation.
2-Butene is an example of molecule having geometric isomerism.

67. This reaction is known as NH4+ + OH- ----> H2O + NH3

A. First order reaction D. Equilibrium reaction
B. Ionization reaction E. Protonated reaction
C. Neutralization reaction
ANS: C

68. DNA gyrase and supercoiling DNA is essential for?

A. Replication D. Ciprofloxacin
B. Chemical degradation E. Quinolones
C. Topoisomerase II
ANS: A

69. What phase I metabolic reaction occurs at position R3?

R3 = OH
Lorazepam
Oxazepam
Temazepam

A. Oxidation D. Demethylation
B. Hydroxylation E. Carboxylation
C. Reduction
ANS: B
70. A man was Acetaminophen overdosed before 5 hour ago. At what
time N-Acetylcysteine should be administered?
A. It is too late for acetyl cysteine treatment
B. Can be administered anytime after overdose
C. Can be administered now
D. Treat by sodium bicarbonate first
E. There is no antidote for acetaminophen
ANS: C

71. Thrombolytics (fibrinolytic) agents are contraindicated in

I. Myocardial infarction
II. Hypertensive patients
III. Bleeding from the GIT
A. I only D. II and III only
B. III only E. All are correct
C. I and II only
ANS: B

72. Patient with renal failure and normal liver function is showing sensibility to the
drug,
this means that
A. High accumulation of metabolite
B. High concentration of drug protein binding
C. High volume of distribution
D. High concentration of drug in the systemic circulation
E. High accumulation of drugs into tissues
ANS: A

73. A man with blood group AB can receive blood from:

A. A D. O
B. B E. All of the above
C. AB
ANS: E

74. A diabetic patient suffering from Hypertension is having Enalapril, however he

is complaining from severe dry cough that we can associate as a side effect of
the
Enalapril. Which would be the best choice of changing this medication?
A. Ramipril D. Indapamide
B. Losartan E. Captopril
C. Amlodipine
ANS: B

75. Selegiline is?

A. MAO type A and B C. MAO type B
B. MAO type A D. None of the above
ANS: C

76. Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex may cause:

A. Cushing's disease D. Reye's disease
B. Gray's disease E. All are wrong
C. Addison's disease
ANS: C

77. If a patient taking Atorvastatin 80 mg daily and brings a prescription of

Erythromycin for 3
days. What type problem is expected?
A. Drug and Disease interaction
B. Drug and Food interaction
C. Drug and Drug interaction
D. Drug and Lab interaction
ANS: C
TIPS: Atorvastatin is substrate of CYP3A4 enzyme which means it is essential for
its metabolism
where as Erythromycin is an inhibitor of CYP 3A4 that means it lowers the
enzyme levels.

78. Which of the following is not a drug metabolizing enzyme?

A. CYP 3A4
B. CYP 450
C. UDP-GT
D. N-acetyl transferase
E. Alcohol dehydrogenase
 ANS: E

79. Critical solution temperature represents:

A. The temperature which concentration of phenol is homogenous solution
B. The temperature at phenol vaporizes
C. The temperature above which homogenous solution is formed for all
concentration of phenol
D. Temperature which phenol vapor pressure equals the vapor pressure of
water
ANS: C

80. Parenteral solutions are used for internal use. What is the most common
used vehicle for parenteral drug manufacturing?
A. Purified water USP
B. Water for injection
C. Distillate water
D. Sterile water for injection USP
E. Fractional distillate water
ANS: B

81. Correct statements regarding Trituration include:

A. Is the process of mixing powders in a large container rotated by a
motorized process
B. Is the process when potent substance must be mixed with a large amount
of diluents
C. Is the process of reducing the substance to small particles by rubbing it
in a mortar with a pestle
D. Is the process of reducing the substance by addition of a solvent that is
easily removed after pulverization
E. Is the process of mixing powders by passing through sifters
ANS: C

82. The HLB Hydrophilic-Lipophilic Balance is applied to:

A. Emulsying agents D. Surfactant agent
B. Humectant agents E. Solubilizing agent
C. Thermolabile agents
ANS: A and D
83. An agent with HLB value range of 0-3 is known as:
A. Antifoaming agent D. Wetting agent
B. W/O emulsifying agent E. Detergents
C. O/W emulsiying agent
ANS: A

84. A pharmacist would like to make a compound prescription where he needs to mix
1% of camphor
into white petroleum. Which would be more appropriated technique to be used by
the pharmacist?
A. Trituration D. Geometric dilution
B. Levigation E. Attrition
C. Pulverization by intervention
ANS: B

85. The diagram represents which of the following flow system:

Rate
of
Shear

Shearing stress

A. Pseudoplastic flow D. Dilatant flow

B. Newtonian flow E. Antithixotropy
C. Thixotropy
ANS: A

86. What is incorrect about thixotropy?

A. Gel to solution D. Flow ability increased
B. Solution to gel E. None of the above
C. Viscocity decreased
ANS: B
87. Breaking is the problem in the manufacture of:
A.Cream
B.Lotions
C.Tablets
D.Capsules
E.Suspensions
ANS:A
TIPS: Breaking (irreversible) or Creaming (reversible) is the problem in
emulsions.

88. The following factor is the cause of most contaminations in sterile preparations
A.Solutions
B Surface area
C.Personal
D.Clothing
E.Equipment
ANS:C

89. What are correct instructions should be labelled in the following preparation?
Salicylic Acid 2%
Lactic acid 6 mL
Flexible collodion ad 30 mL
A. Flexible collodion is extremely flammable
B. Tight closed container to prevent ether and alcohol
C. Store away from fire
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
ANS: D

90. All of the following detector are used in High Performance Liquid
Chromatography (HPLC) EXCEPT:
A. Diode array detector D. Gamma rays
B. UV detector E. Radioactive detector
C. Refractive Index detector
ANS: D
91. Mass spectroscopy is used to:
A. Detect traces of unknown chemical structure
B. Structure elucidation of unknown chemical
C. Traces in environmental samples
D. Drug traces in blood samples
E. All of the above
ANS: E

92. Lyophilization (freeze dry method) technique is used in:

I. Sterilization of liquids and solids
II. Sterilization of solids only
III. To dry heat-sensitive wet powders
A. I only D. II and III only
B. III only E. All are correct
C. I and II only
ANS: B

93. The ethical standard Veracity in pharmacy counseling means:

A. Pharmacist act with justice
B. Pharmacist act with fairness
C. Pharmacist act with honesty and without deception
D. Pharmacist does well with patient
E. Pharmacist do prevent harm
ANS: C

94. A physician phones a pharmacist asking him not to tell the patient about the side
effects of the drugs because if he does, the patient will not take it.
The pharmacist complies. Both the physician and pharmacist have violated which
ethic principle for the patient?
A. Non maleficence D. Veracity
B. Beneficence E. Justice
C. Autonomy
ANS: D

95. All of the following are principles of Canadian Health Act (CHA), EXCEPT
A.Universality
B.Private administration
 C.Accessibility
D.Portability
E.Comprehensiveness
ANS:B
TIPS: Canadian Health Act (CHA) is single tier system that is based on public
administration and not private administration.

96. A national pharmacy regulatory body NAPRA stands for:

A. National Association of Pharmaceutical Regulatory Administration
B. National Administration of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority
C. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities
D. National Association of Pharmacy Manufacturer Regulatory Authority
E. National Association of Provincial Regulatory Authorities
ANS: C

97. Who determines the patented prescription drug price?

A. Canada Research Based Pharmaceutical Companies (Rx & D)
B. Generic Pharmaceutical Association (CGPA)
C. Patented Medicines Prices Review Board (PMPRB)
D. Health Canada (HC)
E. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority (NAPRA)
ANS: C

98. A diabetic patient came to you and complaining about his hyperglycemia, you
realized the increased dose,
sometime you realized that he is buying a rich chocolate, sugar candies and food
containing high carbohydrates.
A. Should you advice him and explain the risks and ask him to see his physician
B. Let him decide what he wants
C. But not (do not) obligate him and forbid him
D. Refer him to doctor
E. Refer him to emergency
ANS: A

99. You noticed the technician come down to help a patient choosing a cough
product contains Codeine. You may do all of
the following actions EXCEPT:
 A. Go down to interrupt the discussion and make the sale
B. Ask the technician if the patient has allergy to Codeine after the sale
C. Review with her the law of dispensing over the counter drugs
D. Don't humiliate the technician in front of the customer
E. Send her to additional training courses
ANS: B

100. A senior pharmacy technician has worked in a community pharmacy for 10 years.
He is well trained and welcomes new
learning opportunities. His manager now wanting to delegate a new technical
project to him, should:
I. Discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project
II. Negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project
III. Provide support and follow-up as required
A. I only D. II and III only
B. III only E. All are correct
C. I and II only
ANS: E

101. Total sales of prescription drugs are $210,000 and cost of good sold is
180,000.What is the gross profit?
A.71% D. 20%
B.14% E. 25%
C.15%
ANS:B

102. In the pharmacoeconomics considerations, the following aspects is the most

important:
A.Pharmacist D. Doctor
B. Hospital E. Patient
C. Society
ANS: C

103. Cochrane collaboration is?

A. Evidence based medicine database
B. A Canadian pharmacy journal
C. Collaboration of medical professionals
 D. A natural product database
E. The group of people with same characteristics
ANS: A

104. Compendium of Pharmaceutical Specialties (CPS) is useful resource for locating

which
of the following information?
A. Approved indication for all prescription pharmaceuticals in Canada
B. Detailed monograohs for all prescription pharmaceuticals available in Canada
C. Clinical recommendations for dental prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis
D. Canadian consensus guidelines on drug therapies used to treat asthma and
COPD
E. Recommendation patient self-selection products in Canadian pharmacies
ANS: C

105. Choose the incorrect statement about the p (Probability) value/

A. The p (probability) value is the chance of a type I error.
B. If a p value is equal to/or lower than 0.05, it is unlikely that a type I error has
been made; that is,
a type I error will be made 5 times or less out of 100
C. A p value equal to/or less than 0.05 is generally considered to be statistically
significant;
lower p values (e.g. p<0.01) may be required for statistical significance in
studies with large
sample sizes
D. The p (probability) value is the chance of a type II error
ANS: D

The next four questions have as reference the following information:

In a chromatographic analysis of a drug we found the following results
2,4,8,5,7,4 and standard deviation 5.

106. What is the mean in this analysis?

A. 4 D. 15
B. 5 E. 6
C. 30
ANS: B
107. What is the median in this analysis?
A. 2 D. 7
B. 5 E. 8
C. 4.5
ANS: C

108. Type I error also called alpha-error give what kind of results
A.False-positive
B.False-negative
C.Positive false
D.False-False
E.Positive-Positive
ANS: A

109. How many 4 mg tab are needed? Weight of the child = 44 lb

Rx
Ondansetron HCl 0.15 mg/kg/tsp
Cherry Syrup qs 60 mL

A. 4 tabs D. 12 tabs
B. 6 tabs E. 10 tabs
C. 9 tabs
ANS: C

110. A patient presents to a pharmacy with a new Rx for 60 tablets Levothyroxine 0.15
mg
to be taken OD. On checking the patient's history the pharmacist notices that the
patient
filled a similar Rx for 180 tablets Levothyroxine 0.15 mg with the same directions
4 weeks
ago. What course of action should be the pharmacist follow?
A. Fill the prescription
B. Check with the doctor before dispensing
C. Talk to the patient about this
D. Give only one month supply
E. Refuse to fill the prescription
 ANS: C

111. A 33 y/o male receiving Acetaminophen 300 mg + Codeine 30 mg + Caffeine 15

mg
(Tylenol #3) for pain relief, which of the following laxative is appropriate choice for
constipation associated with Codeine:
A. Sennakot D. Psyllium
B. Bulk laxatives E. Glycerine
C. Lactulose
ANS: A
TIPS: Stimulant laxatives are drug of choice for the treatment of constipayion
associated with opioids use.

112. A patient brings the prescription of Amitriptyline 300 mg 6 months supply.

Patient medical history includes major depression and in the past has 2
unsuccessful
attempts to suicide. What is the appropriate, a pharmacist should do?
A. Dispense 6 months supply of Amitriptyline and caution about overdose
symptoms
B. Dispense in part fills and ask patient pick up in parts every 15 days
C. Refuse the prescription and ask patient to see other doctor
D. Refer patient to other physician for mental assessment
ANS: B

113. A pharmacist is required to give knowledge of drugs and supply the patient
with enough pieces of information to overcome the patient ignorance. This is
done by:
A. Written information only
B. Verbal information only
C. Verbal and written information
D. Magazine and folders information
E. Video information
ANS: C

114. Which antipsychotic drugs monitored for WBC

A. Olanzapine
B. Clozapine
 C. Risperidone
D. Haloperidol
E. Quetapine
ANS: B

115. Drugs that give bronchospasm

A. Albuterol
B. Acebutol
C. Salmeterol
D. Formeterol
E. Ipratropium
ANS: B

116. Busy pharmacies a long line up in 15 customers, a person came he is insisting

and fighting with pharmacist, do dispense him first?
A. Ignore that customer
B. Dispense him first
C. Don't dispense
D. Just talk to him and explain there are other before you
E. Call police
ANS: D

117. A patient using Calcium supplements 500 mg bid. Now gets the prescription of
Ciprofloxacin 500 mg bif for 3 days. What is appropriate method of
administration?
A. Take Calcium supplements and Ciprofloxacin together morning and evening.
B. Take Calcium supplements before 2 hour and after 4 hours of Ciprofloxacin
C. Stop taking Calcium supplements for 3 days and continue Ciprofloxacin
D. Stop taking Ciprofloxacin and continue Calcium supplements daily
E. Call the doctor, change to Tetracycline
ANS: C

118. All of the following antibiotics suspensions are stored at room

temperature,EXCEPT:
A. Metronidazole
B. Clarithromycin
C. Azithromycin
 D. Clindamycin
E. Clotrimoxazole
ANS: A

119. Incorrect statement about sunburn?

A. Peak time of sunburn is 10:00 AM to 4:00 PM
B. High altitude has low sunburn
C. Cloud do not protect sunburn
D. Beach area might have more sunburn
E. Apply sunscreen before get into sun
ANS: B

120. What is correct statement about treatment in eruption cysts in infants

A. In general cysts rupture spontaneously
B. Use teethers to rupture cysts
C. Manually cysts can be ruptured
D. None of the above
ANS: A

121. Which of the following is the incorrect action of sympathomimetic?

I. Increase of IOP
II. Increase the drainage of H2O humor from the eye
III. Decrease the H2O humor in the eye

A. I only D. II and III only

B. III only E. All of the above
C. I and II only
ANS: D
TIPS: Sympathetic agonist (sympathomimetic) increase IOP. Open angle
glaucoma
(OAG) is due to increase IOP and increase in H2O humor of eye or could
be due
to decrease in drainage of H2O humor in the eye. For the treatment of
OAG,
sympathetic blockers such as Timolol are effectively used to decrease IOP
and H2O humor.
122. All of the allergens or factor that can trigger asthma ,EXCEPT?
A. Molds
B. Warm air
C. Emotional stress
D. Pets
E. Cockroaches
ANS: B

123. Which is not a drug used for smoke cessatation?

A.Nicotine polacriilex
B.Transdermal nicotine patches
C.Nicotine sublingual tablets
D.Bupropion
E.Buspirone
ANS: E

124. All are correct regarding the action of Corticosteroids in asthma status, EXCEPT:
A. Suppress the inflammatory response
B. Decrease the production of inflammatory mediators
C. Decrease airway responsiveness to inflammation
D. Relieve bronchoconstriction
E. Increase B agonist receptors response
ANS: D

125. Gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) is mainly characterized by:

A. Diaphragm wall inflammation
B. Diaphragm perforation
C. Reflux of the stomach content into the esophagus
D. Hyperacidity of stomach
E. All are correct
ANS: C

126. One of the most common conditions associated with acute hemorrhagic gastritis
may include:
A. Chronic alcoholism
B. H. pyloric bacterial infection
C. Carcinoma of stomach
 D. Carcinoma of colon
E. Traveler's diarrhea
ANS: A

127. What is /are not symptoms of hypoglycemia

A. Sweating
B. Hunger
C. Polyuria
D. Fainting
E. Fatigue
ANS: C
TIPS: Sweating, dizziness, fainting, fatigue are symptoms of Hypoglycemia.
Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, neuropathic pains and blurred visions
are symptoms of Hyperglycemia.

128. Conversion of T4 to T3 is catalyzed by:

A. Tetraiodinase enzyme
B. Deiodinase enzyme
C. Triiodinase enzyme
D. Hydrogenase enzyme
E. Iodinase enzyme
ANS: B

129. Absorption of Levothyroxine is reduced by?

A. Al and Ca antacids
B. Calcium supplements
C. Iron supplements
D. Soya fiber
E. All of the above
ANS: E

130. Contraceptive methods that protect STDs such as gonorrhea, syphilis, chlamydia
and AIDS?
A. Oral contraceptive
B. Condoms
C. Contraceptive sponges
D. Vaginal cream
 E. Plan B
ANS: B

131. Urinary incontinence is NOT aggravated by:

I. Furosemide
II. TCA
III. Doxylamine

A. I only D. II and III only

B. III only E. All of the above
C. I and II only
ANS: D
TIPS: Doxylamine succinate belongs to the Ethanolamine class of anti-
histamine that gives anticholinergic side effects such as urinary retention
and induce sedation. Furosemide is a diuretic which increases urinary
frequency.

132. Importance of Vitamin D in Osteoporosis:

I. Increase the absorption of Calcium from the small intestine
II. The best Vitamin D analog to treat Osteoporosis is Calcitriol
III. Antacids containing Aluminum and Magnesium may interfere with proper
activity of Vitamin D

A. I only D. II and III only

B. III only E. All are correct
C. I and II only
ANS: E

Note: No Q&A for nos. 33, 48 and 49.