Set No. 1 16U/102/10 Question Booklet No. (To be filled up by the candidate by blue/ black ball:point pen] Roll No. w- (135) Fe i cet Code qa 37 Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet (Qolc) . ‘ . (Signature of Invigilator) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet) Day and Date 1. Within 10 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet, 2. Do not bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without its envelope. 3. A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall not be provided. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated. 4. Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above 5. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top, and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. 6. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No. {if any) on OMR sheet and also Roll No. and OMR Sheet No. on the Question Booklet. 7. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfair means. 8, Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circlein the corresponding row of the Answer Sheet, by ball-point pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet 9. Por eacts question, darken onl ly one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect. 10. Note that the answer once filed in ink cannot be changed, If you do not wish to attempt a question leave all the circles in th corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero mark) 12, For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of t For rou Page at the end of this 12. Deposit only the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test 13. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test. 14, Ifa candidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, as the University may determine and impose on him /h (3 Fier Fee aa ore —y e RRATe he/she shall be liable to such punishment jer. INo. of Printed Pages - sox16U/102/10 Set No. 1 ‘Time /AWa : 2 Hours/We Full Marks /quits : 300 Note/atz: (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marks. (152) 2) (3) One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero marl will be awarded for each unattempted question. afte wei at ea wa a yam ati wde sera ois wT 8) we ea see Ae a ie are STE as aA NH A IT 1 If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one. JR wate Aas om ad om & fee ote a, at fae ae ot 1 This paper comprises of Five Sections. Sections I and Il are compulsory Whereas only one Section out of Ill, IV and V is to be attempted we sens uta avet a ey 1S on oftand Via fiw momen ay wu 8 sa QE Ul Va PTO)(152) Section—I wet MENTAL AGILITY (Compulsory for all) Five friends A, B, C, D and E are sitting together. In how many ways can they sit so that B and C do not sit together? uta fa A,B,C,D ak Bw ma a3 8 ae fart attat a ge me as ome tf Bait cm maa a? (1) 64 (2) 76 (3) 68 (4) 72 ‘There are deer and peacocks in a zoo. By counting heads they are 80. The number of their legs are 200. How many peacocks are there? wep fafsarne Hoag fer ote Ae El fet HAL HA deM 80 8 SH A A eM 200 81 sel fe AN 8? (1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 50 (4) 60 Find the number which when added to itself 13 times, gives 112 feel den Th MeN a 13 aM MST T, GEN 112 @ wes, G dem a a (1) 7 (2) 8 ) 9 (4) 11 lf GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, then GATE is coded as af cive A atfen 5137 & ait BAT A aifs1 924 ’, at Gate # afer et (1) 5427 (2) 2547 (3) 5247 (4) 5724 Which is the next number in the following series? prafafar fact #8 cach tren Ba-ah 2? 7, 28, 49, 70, 91, 112, -- (1) 135 (2) 134 (a) £33 (4) 130(152) Find out the missing number in the following figure : Prafefer fra t ata—zh dom a uh 8? Mm y QW & (1) 52 (2) 36 (3) 117 (4) 81 If the numbers from 5 to 85 which are exactly divisible by 5 are arranged in. descending order, which would come at the eleventh place from the bottom? Q) 45, (2) 50 (3) 60 (4) None of the above 5 2 85 Aw toms A ats 5 8 pia: aoa a, A aed ae} gan frat m, fer # 8 ah te a aed emu am? Q) 45 (2) 50 (3) 60 (4) waite 4a aE Fa In a row of boys, if Amit who is 10th from the left and Bis right interchanges their positions, Amit becomes 15th fro1 are there in the row? Sec ws of, UR oft tf ard @ oat ate ASA AR wd @ oat & ee a Eo oe ae a ist Wr tao ah ini who is 9th from the 1m left. How many boys (P.T.0)s. 10. 1. 12. (152) How many triangles are contained in the figure given below? Prerfafar arpit 4 feat fam fet € 2 a) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14 A and B are brothers, C and D are sisters. 4’s son is D’s brother. How is B related ly ©? (1) Father (2) Brother (3) Grandfather (4) Uncle Ras BEM F we ac sh D w-M A we Fa AH asH Da wig 8, a B ate Car warU am 8? (1) far (2) ae (3) aa (4) aH ‘Two persons A and B started from two different places towards each other. If the ratio of their speeds is 4:7, then what is the ratio of distance covered by A and B respectively till the point of meeting? A wet ask Ba Pita emt a egg A ait waa # a se feel a aqme 4:73, Fe Gg} fe S aK HE wah a gel 7 sare # a? (1) 1:2 (2) 3:4 (3) 4:7 (4) 5:3 A train, which is 700 metres long, is running at the speed of 72 kilometres per hour. If it crosses @ tunnel in one minute, then the length of the tunnel is (1) 70 metres (2) 600 metres (3) 550 metres (4) 500 metres13. 14, 15. 16. (152) 8 se-sem fei 8 500 Fo 8 a aT aT ORT 9 we tame SH fH 700 Het wet 8, 72 Freer WA Har An a wa eal aH We WH AT (ea) FH ww fine A on wet &, a gia A cans an ehh? (1) 70 tre (2) 600 tex (3) 550 rex (4) 500 Hex abc atbtec Mon grp then ; will be a@_be atb+e Bo ee (1) 7 (2) 2 @ 4 as How many combinations of two-digit numbers having 8 can be made from the following numbers? Feafofan email H sen 8 cet ae, a wom ae feat TE aH? 8,5,2,1,7,6 qo (2) 10 (3) lL (4) 12 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence WF fet 18 oth & wei Boat % san sealer hitaiiiadiaae dy Tea } oan Ff ger aerTAR, (a) Fledge, (b) Fleecy, (c) Flesh, (d) Fleece, (e) Fleet 1) fa), (©), (©), (4), (e) (2) (a), (d), (b), fe), fc) (3) (@), (c), (@), (€), (b) 4) @), @, fl, (b), The difference between the it d from two diffe for 2 years is Rs 2:50. The c difference bolwene their items ale Rs Soo is 5 Ba ome for om? Oh aos (1) 1% (2) 050% (3) 250%i. 18. 19. 21. (152) The number 12345674 is divisible by Hen 12345674 fir # feed visa 87 () 3 (2) 15 3) 9 (4) 11 Which Indian Air-Base was attacked by Terrorists during the year, 2016 ? (1) Agra (2) Kalaikunda (3) Pathankot (4). Gurudaspur ae 2016 & dem, wa a ah @ ead-da H ommerfeal grr even fT eH aT? (1) err 2) sags (3) Tara (4) TRA Which of the following four crops listed below, is not a pulse crop? (1) Moong (2) Black gram (3) Paddy (4) Peas Prafeiga ae pac A A ahah aT gee A Heer ae 87 a) a Q) @) 1 (4) FX Which one of the following crops is not a Rabi crop? (1) Mustard (2) Wheat (3) Paddy (4) Peas prafefien 3 a aaa wae woh SH wat Ei 2? (1) wet 2) *E (3) oA (4) Fe Ifx=-3, then > ~ x? — x will be equal to aa 8-2 -x a OT @ -27 @) -33 (@) 54 a x wa -3 a) 1522. 23, 2 25. (152) There is a number greater than 1 which when divided by 4, 5 and 6 leaves remainder of 3 in each case. Find the largest number smaller than 1000 which satisfies the above condition. & ten 1 2 afte U1 ae aa 4, 5 ak 6 8 fonts A arf 2, dt wt a 3 te aaa 81 aaa ag 1000 a std ag aaah den 2, i fH qe Sar TH ae? (1) 987 (2) 993 (3) 960 (4) 963 Colorless, odourless and non-corrosive air-pollutant is fee feet or, fer fei cin % oft fee feet etter |, aha wa-ng A aR? (1) SO, (2) co (3) Co, (41 0 Ajay ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty-ninth from the bottom among those who passed an examination. Six boys did Hot participate in the competition and five failed in it. How many boys were there in the class? ore sh we wher afl she ax @ aterell ot 18 a Bete RT i: soak sar on lf otc ois op fea TH Rl aang ay ee (1) 40 (2) 44 (3) 50 (4) 55 If the seventh day of a month is three day i Frida be on the nineteenth day of the month a hy, what day wil it (1) Sunday (2) Monday (8) Wednesday (4) Friday aR Um AS ore Ri EAR a dh fy ea . a om? o A ne (1) fear @) aren (3) quan 4) ear 7 70)26. 27. 28. 29. Section—II well CHEMISTRY (Compulsory for all) The intermediate involved in Sy1 reaction is (1) carbanion (2) radical (3) carbene (4) carbocation Syl afiiar t afte aaa & (1) eae (2) eae (3) are (4) area Three classes of alcohols may be distinguished by (I) oxidation (2) reduction (3) pyrolysis (4) cleavage wetien & fe wand Fog fara on waar? (ay sitaedert GAT (2) Rewer cea) wepta ge (4) AHS TT ‘The carbolic acid is arate ora 2 (1) CsH,cOOW (2) HCOOH (3) CH;COOH ~— (4) CgHOH Hs The mechanism of dehydration of an alcohol to give an alkene involves e formation of (1) carbanions (2) carbenes (3) free radicals (4) carbonium ions ee wee HRA see Pde Gen A AA | Pea an caffra 8? () ae Q) aaa (3) 1 Mewre (4) arate ore31. 32, 33, (152) Which of the following is an example of a condensation polymer? (1) Nylon-6-10 {2) High density polyethylene (3) Orlon (4) Teflon Peafefea #8 sta ww ae ages aT see #7 (1) WARB-6-10 (2) Fa era oiferefaer (3) seta (4) deat Primary alcohols are oxidized to aldehydes by (1) KMno, (2) K,Cr,0, (3) RyCuLi (4) pyridinium chlorochromate sie wearers fee arr siete a west # ufafia gar 2 (1) KMno, ar (2) K,Cr,0, am (3) R,CuLi grr (4) Sfishan aettetie ar A strong base can abstract an a-hydrogens from (1) alkene (2) ketone (3) alkane (4) amine WH TI OT FO AN ABTA Bt Pree 2 () he a (2) Fa a (3) waa a (4) wi a The reaction among a primary amine, chloroform and few drops of alcoholic KOH is known as (1) Carbylamine reaction (2) Mendius reaction (3) Perkin reaction (4) Reimer-Tiemann reaction Se mee os SOO Bo He ea KOH A im a acy nf (y) safes safiBraT (2) Fafa after (3) Ties atin (4) TERRIA Ra ero,34. Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with hypophosphorus acid to form (1) aniline (2) benzene (3) phenol (4) benzaldehyde wa wa @ 7a asta satan actags eeaeiesna arth ara afte aa 2 (a) het Q) a (@) Fa (4) aanfesers 35. The number of a- and f-particles emitted in the nuclear reaction ao Th”® > gBi?!? is (1) 4a and IB (2) 8a and 18 ~—(3) 3a and 78 ~—“(4) 4a and 7B cafés afiriran (afar fea) Th”? + ,Bi2? @ few o- a gam safta a? () 4a HP) Ga PG) Sa HMB (A) 4a A TP 36. For the reaction, 2NOp(g)+40,(g) »N20;(9), if the equilibrium constant is K,,, then the equilibrium constant for the reaction, 2N,05(g) @ NO, +02(g) would be wT] aff 2N0,(9)+102(g)ON,05(9) 4% ae area fens K, % 7 aaftfieT 2N05(g) N20, +02(g) a AI Rares aa eh? 2 1 (1) K2 2) « Og (4) 2K, 37. The pH of a 0-1 molar solution of the acid HQ is 3. The value of the ionization constant, K,, of the acid is we aA HQ * 01 Wer faa (molar solution) # pH 3 21 TH sre a aren frie (Jonisation constant) K, #1 97 Fa em? ay 107 (2) 1x10"? (3) 1x10°§ (4) 1x10°7 (152)38. ai. (152) ‘A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol has a vapor pressure of 290 mm at 300 K. The vapor pressure of propyl alcohol is 200 mm. If the mole fraction of ethyl alcohol is 0'6, its vapor pressure (in mm) at the same temperature will be TUR Gates GG stuges Waite & ww fier a aT ga 300 K TW 290 mm 2! Sa WHET FA TA 200 mm ki ae gaea water A ttt WHA (mole fraction) 06 @, 74 Je AM TA (in mm) FA aT TFT BT? (1) 350 (2) 300 (3) 700 (4) 360 The vapor pressure of water at 20 °C is 17-5 mm Hg. If 18 g glucose (Cel4,0,) is added to 178-2 g of water at the same temperature, the vapor pressure (mm Hg) of the resulting solution will be 20°C THA H UM) at aT Aaq_175 mm Hg Zl Ae WHF (CgH,.0,) F 18 g vier @) sa) AMAA T1782 g wh flan ara, a oftomnaed a Rem a ‘ama ga (mm Hg) FT en? Q) 17-675 (2) 17-325, (3) 16-500 (4) 15-750 The van’t Hoff factor of BaCl, at 0-01 M concentration is 1-98. The percentage of dissociation of BaCl, at this concentration is Col M Wem F Bach, HW are we Sat 198 1 eG MF Bacl, a sftra free em ° () 49 (2) 69 (3) 89 (4) 98 The highest electrical conductivity of the following Aqueous solutions is of (1) 0-1 M difluoroacetic acid 2) 0-1 M fluoroacetic acid (3) 0-1 M chloroacetic acid (4) 01 M acetic acid Frafaa seta Perr a feed fiqa aren sien #7 (1) 0-1 M SerqeeRs am (2) OM FeRtUR RS ary (3) 0-1 M weirs ant (4) 01 M WRI sty ll P10)42, What is the time (in sec) required for depositing all the silver present in 125 ml of 1 M AgNO, solution by passing a current of 241-25 A? (1 F = 96500 C) 1M AgNO, fae % 125 mi % aX tag ah sid a uaa ae & fed fet ama (Bas A) am 241-25 A fega varfea sen eM? (1 F = 96500 C) (a) 10 (2) 50 (3) 100 (4) 1000 43. Solubility of the BaSO,, SrSO,, CaSO, and MgSO, in water increases in the order given below : RaSO,, SrS80,, CaSO, tH MgSO, # wa H foam Ae fa wn A aad 2: (1) BaSO, < SrSO, < CaSO, < MgSO, (2) SrSO, < BaSO, < CaSO, < MgSO, (3) CaSO, < MgSO, < SrSO, < BaSO, (4) MgSO, < CaSO, < BaSO, < SrS0, 44. The dead burnt plaster is a ae TET e (i) CaSO, -4H,0 (2) CaSO, -2H,0 (3) CaSO, (4) CaSO, -H,0 48. Lassaigne’s test is for (1) nitrogen) cadmium (@) chromium (4) zine agra chon FHA Pa: fre 8? a) ere (2) efron (3) aie (4) fire 12 (152)47. 50. (152) Which of the following is soluble fier} a at gare F qaaetie 87 (1) Bect, (2) CaCl, Formula of Calgon is dona a awe Q) NaPeO., (2) Na,PO, Ore of iron is (1) magnetite (2) sphalerite STH aI e (1) rere (2) eae fer A & ate sta ought cen 87 (1) N20, (2) N,0, in ethanol? (3) Bacl, (4) Srl, (3) Na,PO, (4) Na,HPO, (3) malachite (4) kaolinite (3) Setar (4) sister - Which of the following has angular shape? 8) N,0, 4) No, Bronze is an alloy of the following (1) Copper and Zinc (3) Iron and Chromium afer (ats) fer an fia mgt (1) afar ea sen (3) he wie (2) Copper and Tin (4) Iron and Manganese (2) afar wa fa (4) the tire 13 ro)51. 53. 54. (152) Section—Ill welll BOTANY and ZOOLOGY (Botany) Stem and root tips die due to the deficiency of (1) calcium (2) nitrogen (3) sulphur aa ae ag at 3m firm Peas ah Boge aT aT 2? (1) fer (2) ARTS (3) Fem ‘The Second International Rice Congress was held in () Bangkok (2) Manila (3) New Delhi fete oenife aaa atta A aon gf (1) tare & (2) sen # (3) 7 fe 4 Edible part of onion is (1) bulb (2) corm (3) thizome am # @A-8 WT anata 2? a) (2) at @) aR ne internode long phylloclade is (1) culm (2) cladode (3) bladder ww yeas aA faetatts A wee E (Q) 2) Fete (3) 3 14 (4) phosphorus (4) Breer (4) Kualalumpur (4) wreIGR A (4) stem cutting (4) @ aM (4) pulvinus (4) ede55. 57. (152) The acid rain destroys vegetation because it contains (1) ozone (2) sulphuric acid (3) citric acid (4) carbon monoxide orate anh arent at ae ax 2 a, wife ged at & (1) att (2) ewes ort (3) fafa (4) ay cintoitaares The Central Tobacco Research Institute is located at (1) Kolkata (2) Vijayawada (3) Hyderabad (4) Rajmundary ah Teng ogo dears wef fia 27 (1) aera (2) fasearsr (3) tang (4) Tet Yellow Revolution is most suitable for (1) desert areas (2) less irrigated areas (3) highly irrigated areas (4) hilly areas het aa we sag 8 Q) 7 ae (2) 3m ferrg aret day (3) Sa farang ara aa (4) werd a3 ¥ Black soil is best ‘suited for (1) cotton (2) coffee (3) rice (Al tea aaieth Fer wae TTAB (1) #0 # (2) ae (3) aaa ae fro,59. 61. 62. Iodine is obtained from (1) Laminaria (2) Polysiphonia (3) Chara (4) Spirogyra amiréa om fara are & (1) Star a (2) iefangatar & (3) aT a (4) BaRtTeT & Which vegetable oil is suitable for heart patients? (1) Sunflower oil (2) Groundnut oil (3) Mustard oil (4) Soyabean oil aati & fey By aN Acre Q) eset aa Q) WIE aa) HAT Tat (4) Stara er Polyploidy can be produced artificially by (1) colchicine (2) interbreeding (3) line breeding (4) self-pollination pia ey a agin frets fear oT aaa e (1) Fert ae (2) washifén gra (3) tae aff ae (4) Sr grt An example for semi-dwarf variety of wheat is (1) 18 (2) Sonalika (3) Triticum (4) Saccharum na Sigh wens ar FTE? (1) IRB (2) attra (3) leer (4) der past unit of classification is asic ws (2) family (3) species (4) order (1) 16 (182)65, 66. 67. (152) waiter ar orate yard 2 (1) stra (2) fire (3) Sata (4) tg Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with (1) oat (2) barley (3) maize (4) rye AES re mer safe sore Eee sr fp ara 87 Q) aie Q) a (3) 3 (4) a Kranti, Pusa Agarni and Pusa Bold are improved varieties of (1) Urad bean (2) Sunflower (3) Chick pea (4) Mustard sift, gar omc sit gen sive Peak saa fie 87 (1) 3a 2a 2) qa (3) wet (4) wat Which one is not a source of carbohydrate? (1) Rice (2) Millet (3) Sorghum @) Gram fe 4 @ ata aratente a ata att * (1) Bree (2) fra (3) Fearn (4) a The method of correcting the defective genes is called (1) genetic engineering (2) gene therapy {8) somatic hybridisation (4) protoplast fusion aay a A ae ae a ot (1) te serra (2) ot eh , (3) afte seer (4) Seb sag Pro)68. 70. 7. 72. (152) Hybrid vigour can be maintained for long periods by (1) clonal selection (2) cross-pollination (3) mutation (4) self-fertilization dae wore wR aT Pu aRafia feat rene (1) a eR aT (2) TTT GAT (3) Ta aT (4) Ber aH Genetic variability cannot be created by (1) binary fission (2) mutation (3) clonal selection (4) hybridisation arrgaaes fram Pres Ger eh 8? (1) ae (2) seater (3) FR eA (4) oar Jaya and Ratna developed by Green Revolution in India are the varieties of (1) maize (2) paddy (3) wheat (4) bajra ama & ata ie & am fata ‘ga’ a ‘wer’ Prat vont 2? (1) oI (2) oF (3) (4) a0 Pieces of plant used in tissue culture is called (a) explant (2) somaclone (3) inoculant (4) clone ha a ae TT A Sw eas Foret fen rer? () WRT (2) abe (3) Figae (4) wae uae is the source of Sst induced mutation? () Gamma-ray (2) UV-irradiation @) xy (4) Cosmic rays 1873. 74, 7s. (152) we fer seated ar att am 87 (a) 7m fe (2) UVR (3) x-faa (4) wifes firm Monosomy and trisomy can be represented as attra er greets a} aufero & (1) 2n+1,2n+3 (2) 2n-1,2n-2 (3) 2n, 2n+1 (4) 2n-1,2n+2 Which one of the following has maximum diversity in India? (Q) Mango (2) Wheat (3) Tea (4) Teak fie 8 8 feet oma & often fem ot oh 8? (1) a (2) *& (3) 3a (4) aoa Somaclonal variation appears in plants (2) growing in polluted soil or water (2) exposed to Gamma-rays (3) raised in tissue culture (4) asexual reproduction aoracitrs fafa het fires arr ate 22 (1) Sef a ae RR a (2) Werf ay (3) sam dae F fy (4) sre 4 Pro,(Zoology) 76. “Omnis cellula ¢ cellula” (All cell from cell). The statement was given by 78. (1) Robert Brown (2) Rudolf Virchow (3) M. J. Schleiden (4) Theodor Schwann “afta agen 3 agen” (@t ater wea @ afer A aA are aif & fe @ aad 2)) sa wer feet fem 7 (1) tad a (2) Saies fata (3) GH Fo eda (4) Perit a Inner membrane of mitochondria is usually highly convoluted forming series of folding known as (1) Cristae (2) Grana (3) Lamelle (4) Thylokoids mre yan A strates igh sree era eae a ea A he, TA Fe ATA g 1) Bet (2) ta (3) eft (4) aIgeTEES Which of the following represents the correct order in Prophase 1 Mcosis division? (1) Zygotene, Diplotene, Pachytene, Leptotene, Diakinesis (2) Diakinesis, Diplotene, Leptotene, Pachytene, Zygotene (3) Leptotene (4) Pachytene, xg en oer we ff @ treat we Ss eg? «y area. fecha, tents, defes, sree 2) Se gaits, tant, Reis, see a arate, wei, fates, area a See Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis Leptotene, Zygotene, Diplotene, Diakinesis 2081. 83. (152) A, G, C and T are nitrogenous bases of DNA. The pairing is DNA % agit a A, GC GT #1 Fa gee (1) A-G, C-T (2) A-T, Gc (3) A-C, G-T (4) AT, G-T . Non-protein part of an enzyme is known as (1) coenzyme (2) apoenzyme (3) holoenzyme (4) amino acid Ware & atest amt on arent (1) Beare (2) wiheargH (3) Sete (4) Ut one ‘The common phase in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is (1) glycolysis (2) TCA cycte (3) oxidative phosphorylation (4) Krebs’ cycle saga a agda ce § ara ogee & (1) ergata (2) TCA am (3) atefita siete (4) am a Which State has the largest acreage and highest c . county? reage ighest production of Sugarcane in (1) Tamil Nadu (2) Karnataka (3) UP (4) iar a Ff oy OTR oH ah Hot 8 sem cer ratte fy (1) airy, (2) gaze (3) Beye (8) fe The term ‘Evergreen Revolution’ has bee? given by (1) Dr. A. S. Faroda (2) Dr. M. S. Swamy (2) AMinathan (3) Dr. V. L. Chopra (4) Dr. RS. Paroda 21 PTO)85, 86. (152) ‘afta site’ eq farms gm fen ma 8? (1) Slo Uo Who FST (2) fo Wo Wo TaiRTE (3) Bio Ao We SUSI (4) Zo aie THe HET . Which one of the following is not a steroid hormone? (1) Aldosterone (2) Androgen {3) Estrogen (4) Thyroxine fra fd aaa wiles eine tt? (1) Were (2) GRA 8) (RR (4) erecta Which of the following food-chain is correct? (1) Grasses + Chameleon > Insect > Birds (2) Fallen leaves > Bacteria -> Insect > Birds (3) Grasses > Fox + Rabbit (4) Phytoplankton > Zooplankton > Fish peataan A a ate ore-rjeen a we amt” (a) ra —> finite > he —> ve (a) fat aitat > Stary > He > veh (a) wa > Sh > Te (ag) wees > TREO Fa der Meming, extracted Penicillin from sir Alexan\ (a) Bacitus brevis Q) Penietium notion @) Penicillium chrysogenum (4) Penicillium griseofulvin 2287. 89, (152) 7 oretetret Fein 3 BAAR fer Ha fea Refi fear? (1) tere tte (2) Aer aeeH (3) Afra areata (4) SAM meRrie First manmade cereal plant is (1) Triticale (2) Hordeum vulgare (3) Secale cereale (4) Oryza sativa wra-fiffa wet arr an dhe te-at 27 (2) fferer (2) Wigan aera (3) eee oy (4) Stop Beret . Indian Agricultural Research Institute is at (1) Lucknow (2) New Delhi (3) Mumbai (4) Hyderabad (1) aetstafee (2) Tsay (3) araisfataa (a) aq, 4 Minisatellites are also known: as fifeaeme ot ent (2) RFLPS 8) STRs 6 (i) VNTRs (2) ) Rapp, 2391. Which gene is used for development of salt tolerant crops? (1) Cry-I gene (2) Genes involved in protein (LEA gene) biosynthesis (3) heat shock protein (4) Both (2) and (3) catia wait Rrra 3 Ra Pee Si ar set far aan 8? (1) Cry 4 (2) std arden Hi st Pia a (LEA SA) (3) tz ate ster (a) (2) ait (3) Bt 92, Com mercial propagation (vegetative propagation) of papaya is done through (a) budding (2) layering (3) seeds (4) cutting aft 4 pati THA (aot vans) erat % afin a 3) aa a (4) afer a w a a (2) 8) aes ite of pea is caused by yw 93. FP al (2) fungus (3) bacteria (4) Protozoa 4) vil ® 6H OT RH HT a, (2) Fae (3) Stary, (4) wtatstan cas sys ‘ () Bladder tyre (2) Narrow tyre (3) Regular tyre (4) High dotted tyre won 2 was ty G0 F fhe ver ar are sry ¥ omer arm tp (1) Saree ae) ape ze (3) Pa en (8) Ue aay Which type of tynes is used in zero til]? (1) Inverted T opener (2) L type (3) Traditional tynes (4) None of the above 35 Pro)136. 137. 138. (152) see Get 4 Pre ware cree seit A on wa? (Q) Fas A atte oan 8 a (4) suite Ha aie ae For accurate seed rate, which type of metering device is suitable? (1) Cup type {2} Inclined plate type (3) Fluted rover (4) None of the above adie as Oty SHAH sein fare sug e? (1) #9 aay (2) regs ce aTeT (3) wees ter (4) sate 4 a aid ae Who discovered the nucleus? uy R Brown (2) T Boveri. (9) Fontana (a) Palade cation A Gta Fae Ht a? (1) ame WH) do aad (3) SFT (4) vers Which one is the right order of mitotic phases? (1) Prophase > Metaphase > Anaphase 7 Telophase {2} Telophase > Metaphase > Anaphase > Prophase (a) Anaphase > Metaphase > Prophase > Telophase (4) Prophase > ‘Anaphase > Metaphase > Telophase 36139. 140, 141, (152) miata sa aT we sem eT 2? (Q) as > Fata > ura > Acie (2) Geter > Ferbs > warts > ste (3) wba > Fass > sea > date (4) sibs > Taba > tabs > dette Nullisomic refers to sisi: wea wen 8 (1) 2n-1 (2) Qn-1-1 (3) 2n-2 (4) 2n42 Duplicate gene action refers to Bette ott tees welts an & (1) 9:3:3:1 (2).15:1 (3) 9:7 (4) 3:3 Krantz type leaf anatomy is found in (1) C, (2) Cy (3) CAM (4) None of the above fe 8 fmt de agg ate crete af ant t () Cy (2) Cy 3) (4) sates HS at ay a7 To)142, 143. 144. 145. ‘The plant in which water use efficiency is higher is (1) CAM (2) Cy (3) C3 (4) All of the above 8 dea A we ae gam ore ei 2? (1) (2) Ca (3) C5 (a) iw Day neutral plant is UH) mase (2) buckwheat (3) rice os wo) at 2 aga te FT Ta (1) 981 (2) waeae (9) aaa care ey a ‘The term vitamin was proposed by (1) Funk (2) Fisher (3) Watson (4) Shelford rats weg fae Seti fe? (1) (2) fae (9) 7 Pn Dark reaction takes plare in (1) Stroma (2) Grana (3) Chloroplast (4) Golgi body ak fee Fe 7 iat Q) 2 Q) wae (4) iat aa () 38 (152)146. Evergreen Revolution term was coined by ()) M. 8. Swaminathan (2) B. P. Pal (3) Norman Borlaug (4) Joginder Singh ‘Bal-efta sift meq feat fer? (1) Ge We ana (2) Ho fo wa (3) aia atin (4) SAR fie 147. BISA stands for (1) Borlaug Institute of South Asia (2) Borlaug Institute of Semi Arid (3) Barley Institute of South Asia (4) None of the above Hoanfouroys & araftia & (1) etn Fete ats asa fe (2) iin Fete a oh yes (9) ore Fea oats ase Offa (4) suds Fa ate aa 148. Mass contact is communication for wranrd fa Bq WH are 8? (1) 2-5 (2) 10-12 oT 39 I) > 39 (182) Pro,149. MANAGE is situated in (1) Hyderabad (2) Muradabad (3) Patna (4) Delhi ta wel fa 8? (1) terere (2) Brera (3) vet (4) ft 150. Training and Visit System was first introduced in the State of (1) Rajasthan (2) Maharashtra (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Puducherry 3m we fate sore sem an fa aoa A ys far ma? (1) 73a (2) FERy (3) 3H wea (4) yeaa 40 482)151. 152, 153. 154, (152) Section—V wey PHYSICS and MATHEMATICS (Physics) Parsec is unit of (1) time (2) temperature (3) distance (4) speed aS gare () wa ft (2) araeH Ay (3) a ft (4) ae A A vector in two dimensions has maximum number of components falcata afer—aftt % west aftr wen 2 Qi (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 A particle of mass 4 gm moving with a velocity 10 m/sec strike; mass 16 gm and sticks to it. The speed of the system ig aon RON FG SH 10 m/sec % IT a AT BN TH ory 16 3 fe am 8 cao gaa favs ater 81 fara ay an on EER & (1) 25 m/sec (2) 40 m/sec (3) 0-5 m/sec 'S @ particle of 4) 2 m/sec A body in circular motion with constant speed has (1) constant velocity (2) no force acting on it (3) no acceleration (4) no work done on it 0 one cycle 41 Pra)155, 156. 157. (152) fear are & fat aeha ve we mftetier Pet five (1) @ fax aa @ (2) % ate ae Ae TAT ze (3) a1 ag rer ae eet a (4) aw 4 att aed ae a2 In a satellite weight of a 60 kg man is (1) 60 kg 2) zero (3) infinite (4) between 0 and 60 kg 60 kg sm: Fat afte an fh sore Hou eh (1) 60 kg Qa (3) 44 (4) TG 60 kg & ota A capillary with one end dipped in a liquid has same leve! of liquid inside and outside it for the value of contact angle (1) © (2) 90° (3) obtuse angle (4) acute angle vm Si eh, Fer ew fer ga A gat, ofc GA I FH TF aut #3 & fre wes ao a a eh (1) 0% (2) 90° (3) afte str (4) A IT Ak spring stretched by 5 cm has potential energy V- If 1s stretched by 15 cm, then potential energy 18 fof sort % 5 cm FOE CHEE fates ot vA a RE 1S om eat a, a eh Bafa at Oh ¥ Vv ay av Q) Vv Og (4) ai 42158. 159. 160. 161. (182) For a falling body of spherical shape in a liquid with terminal velocity v (r being radius of body), which of the following is true? (1) v7 is constant (2) v/r is constant (3) vr? is constant (4) v/r? is constant feet za 4 feet cicta fos 3, feet fet, vam an a fa mA da aT Aer a? (1) vr Femara 2 (2) v/r Prac 8 (3) ur? raat R (4) v/r? Prawns & ‘The mean translational kinetic energy of a perfect gas molecule at T°K is (k being Boltzmann constant) fet ore ta ae oy A otaa ita wal ToK aM Wah 8 (eee frase 2) (1) KT (2) 2eT (3) ser @) a A drop of liquid of radius R splits up into 10° droplets of radii , tension of liquid is T, the energy needed in the proces: If surface Sis fon @ wer eared ed ag TR Re rt, (1) 4nR2r (2) 40nR°r ) S8enR*r (4) oonR*y The average velocity of ideal gas molecule is given by aed ta & ory at ated an tart (aRT Ser BRT Q) 2) 3) -— a) [BRT SET m m Vn pe 43 Pr)162. A Carnot engine operating between a reservoir at temperature T and sink at 27 °C has efficiency 25%. The value of T is (1) 127°C (2) 127 °K (3) 400 °c (4) None of (1), (2) and (3) Tam} w ae @ 27°C % w fe % te ad ec ae & ari se A gam 25% 81 a THe (1) 127 °C (2) 127 °K (3) 400 °c (4) (1), 2) (3) 48 we 163. In wave equation x = 2-0 cos (0 -50t+ 5 xis in metre unit and tin second unit. ‘The maximum acceleration of the medium particle is an autre x=2-0¢0s(0-sots 2) 8 x Mec Gt tae gard HA rem a7 a afer TTB (1) 0-05m/s? 2) 0-50m/s* (3) 2 Om/s? (4) 2-25m/s* sound with frequency v is moving away from a stationary observer . Asource of " 164 ‘ual to velocity of sound, the frequency heard by the observer is with a velocity ea ogi re A eho R flae ster aa A # eT ee, Sim am ai at A ara t as Q)v (3) 2 Ma 44 (152)165. 166. 168. (18a) The work done on an electron revolving around nucleus in H-atom in one complete cycle is (1) 136 ev 2) -13-6eV 3) 102 ev (4) zero Howey 4 cafes & arf oft gad eaaghs oe ow ae @ fer anf ao (1) 13-6 ev (2) -13-6 eV (3) 10-2 eV (4) J Which one of the following is not a semiconductor? fr i a ate agers a 2? (1) GaAs 2 si (3) Ge ac A piece of Cu wire of length L is drawn into a wire of length 41. The resistance of the wire becomes (1) one-fourth (2) four times (3) sixteen times (4) two times reat & os. of or a heer 4 eran an oem fe nm! an gy wl Pern AT RT? Ta () wtf) aT (3) Wee I 4) Ba Molecules of a substance are like small tiny magnets. The Substance is (1) diamagnetic (2) paramagnetic (3) ferromagnetic (4) nonmagnetic Preh verd & ay HE Gee A ae fy aad ) fig) ERG) chee (4) SIE 45 PTO)169, 170. ami. 172. (152) A radioactive substance decays to one-eighth of its initial mass in 9 seconds. ‘The half-life of the substance is we ifeitfea wat o tars Hoye ee Hoa Ww oT Rad A ag-ag & (1) 3 seconds (2) 72 seconds (3) 3 seconds (4) 27 seconds Tu Lunvert @ galvanometer into a voltmeter one needs (1) low resistance in parallel (2) high resistance in parallel (8) low resistance in series (4) high resistance in series Pre Acai, at ateettex A eee & faq safe, (1) waren Har after (2) waren A sa site (3) ete 4H AE fee (4) Sota A ser fate Dimension of L/R is (1) that of time-period {2) that of frequency (3) that of current (4) that of voltage LR # fam FAR, al (1) BRAT a 2 aga a (3) Pga-eet (4) fama At Which one of the following is true? (1) Heat waves, light waves, microwaves and radio waves are of same nature (2) Heat waves, light waves, microwaves and sound waves are of same nature (a) ight waves, microwaves, sound waves and radio waves are of same nature (4) Heat waves, light waves, sound waves and radio waves are of same nature 46173. 174, (152) fr fa a ae 2? (1) Sen, vara, areet, aft Rat ao A EA He (2) Son, were, Argel Ua eaht ae A wpa ws e (3) Somer, Iga, af wed Meat aint A wep wR 4) 3a, wan, a Gd Yeh aot A sph ow 2 Which one of the following spectral series of H-atom lies in visible region? (1) Brackett (2) Balmer (@) Lyman (4) Pfund H-werg Ht Baga Aral Fata Gea um H 8? (1) #z (2) aR (3) SRT (4) Fs In Young's double-slit interference pattern, a fringe-width is (1) width of a dark band (2) width of a bright band (3) width of a bright band + width of a dark band (4) half of the sum of widths of a bright band and a dark band aS RT cata F ver A chee (1) eam oie A Ste & ara Beh 2B (2) a vig A tse & woe ah ze (8) eam we Feo sro A where & at aa aie 8 (4) er we Be awe Stee & air & om aOR eg 7 (P.7.0)175. Which one of the following is true? (1) In photoelectric effect, light behaves as a wave (2) In photoelectric emission, there is time lag between photon incidence and electron emission (3) Photoelectric emission is possible with any frequency light (4) photoelectric emission is possible with light of frequency above a certain minimum value for a given metal fr i a ah am 8? (1) saretge were Hower aivaq sae wea e Q) Tata sank 8 seh ae Gi agit GH & Ate werTIT eat 2 (3) Prat of onght % warm @ varetgq seats aera @ (4) Prt ong & fey varedeg, seal ww Afgaa onght & sr A snght & sa ad wat 48 (152)176. 177. 178, 179, (152) (Mathematics) In a group of 800 persons, 550 can speak Hindi and 450 can speak English. The number of people who can speak both Hindi and English is 800 vin & ws aR 550 cin feet ate waa ¥ sh 450 aia sided ate wad 41H at Hare SA AEA he attah aot ater wed & Ot (1) 250 (2) 200 (3) 150 (4) 100 The third term of a GP is 4. The product of its first five terms will be Foe ome Soh wr emt we 4 1 sa doh & em ate vel TER aT (1) 48 2) 4 (3) 4° (4) 28 The vertices of triangle are A (1,1), B(4,5), € (6,13) The value of cos A will be aie Fae Bayt & ving. A (1,1), B (4,5), c(6,13) 1B, oh cos 4 a um gi él Sa) a 59 as ae ax a2 IfA(-2,1), B(2,3), s C(-2,~4)are th ints i ) ree points, the angle between BA and BC B ACanh B (2,3), C(-2,-4) fr fire W, at aa ai BCR ate aan me) aa) gun?) wy sam(¥} 3 ° PTO)180. If the line passing through the points (a, 2a) and (- 2, 3) is perpendicular to the line 4x +3y+5=0, then the value of a is ak frat (a, 2a) af (—2,3) 3 gaa ach Par weet 4x4 3y 45-0 F TEA, a, da mam am 14 16 18 12 1) = a ae ay = 181. ‘The slopes of the lines which make an angle of 45° with the line 3x-y+5=0 are test A ya Bh Wa 3x-y+5=0 % aa 457 H sia aA FSH Q) -2.4 (2) 2-4 (3) -2,4 (4) -2,-4 182. ‘The equation of the tangents to the ellipse 4x7 + 3y? =5 which are parallel to y=dx+7 are shige 4x2 +05? <5 8 eat y=3x+7 BG, AH chee t (os wy ye3xe PS Q) y=3xt\ > 135 155 aye pe (a yooxe eSltex _ ghlttex aes, The value of { Sage — gamer & equals eSlotex— ete | Serger Fa gilt ® gine -e dx ARR x cae xe a See @ 5+e a) are (a) = +e (152) a184. If P(A)=0-7, P(B)=0-7 and P(B/A)=0-5, then P(A/B) equals fe P(A) =0-7, P(B)=0-7 3& P(B/A)=0-5, @ P(A/B) @ AR ® 3 5 6 “3 Oy (2) 4 (3) 7 Os 188. If ate 1 x xt] Flx)=| 2x x(x-1) (x+1)x Sx(x-1) x(x-1)(x-2) (x+1)x(x-1) then f (100) equals af (100) Ae (0 (2) 1 (3) 100. 4) -100 abe 186. IfmatrixA=/b ¢ a and A? = J, where a, b,c i pes where Ste Positive real numbers such that abe=1, then a? +b? +c equals abe aR sre ah c | ott A? 21, walt 40> 0.050 abe) aa cab a?+b?+09 a aT (yt (2) 2 (3) 3 ae (152) 51 PTO)187, 188. (152) If fl then for what value of a will f (x) be continuous at x =0? aa & fa on & fat f(x) fe x=0 Bea OT? (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2 If x? sinx cosx f(xj=|6 -1 0 7 a oe a@F(2) v0 i where P is @ constant, the value of at at x=Ois (Q) P (2) P+P? (3) P+P? (4) independent of P ae x sinx cosx f(xy=|6 -1 0 Pp Pp? PS at pow fs 8 xno TL at mm St (2) P+P? (3) P+P* Paw aye 52189. 190. 191, (152) If the normal to the curve y = f (x) at (3,4) makes an angle % with the 4ve x-axis, then the value of f'(3) will be ae Y= F(x) AG (3,4). cron ere anaes & wa SE a ate ae 2, a 713) HO aT (1) -1 @1 (3) -2 @ 4 If the diagonals of a parallelogram PQRS arc along the lines x+3y=4 and 6x-2y =7, then PORS will be a (0) rectangle (2) square (3) cyclic quadrilateral (4) thombus & waren wads pors % fiat x4ay-4 ait x-2y=7 % %, Ht PoRS am ‘ (1) area . (2) = (3) saa ages (4) eae aE Jog 7 Bo + Bix+ Bax? +, then B, —B, 1 ie equal to a ae © = Bo + B,x+ Bax? 4... H B, ~B,-1 3m em Oi (4) 4h (n-1)) ro)192. 193. 194, (152) AB is vertical pole. The end Ais on the level ground, C is the middle point of AB. P is a point on the level ground. The portion CB subtends an angle B at P. If AP = x AB, then which of the statements is correct? AB Ww seat Gm % fear A faa area stew 8 sit AB a Hey CR far, p aaa wi we 8 ath wm cB fe PHB aT sae BI ae AP = xAB 2, al ara-ar Hed Ae a? # = a) sinB= Fay eR) cos = 5-5 a 4) cotB = —<— (3) tanB=33, (4) cotB = a5 1 P(x, y), F,(3, 9), F,(-3, 0) are three points. If x and y satisfy the relation 16x? + 25y? = 400, then PF, + PF equals (xy), Fl3.0), Fel-3.0)_ 44 fam fe Rc OY 3 wr tox? +25y? =400 fem @, at PR + PR, #1 AF er (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 12 Suppose a, b, c are in AP and a?, b?, c? are in GP. Ia>b>canda+b+c=4, then the value of a is aan a,b,c BAAR A HF ate a, bY? ypirer at H € aR a> b> c at atb+e=3, @ a Hn am +42 1 (1) ah 2) 4 ~ ~ “35 54195, 196. 197, iss, (152) : \™ 6s EJF, then 44 5]-2.4 58] af 8] cquals wey 3s Rin A 445] -5 KS sf 8] a eT () 1-8 Q) -14i5 (3) 3 (4) -iv3 HS {x)=x? +2bx+20? and 9(x)=~x?-2er+b? are such that minima f(x)> maxima g(x), then the relation between b and c is Tf (x)= x2 + 2bx4202 she 9(x)=-x? ~2cx4b? tH wR a fe f(x) Feshe wr g(x) % fem me a G8, bao men a (l) b(b(J2 . 1), 2? ny)" The value of lim (3) 142) (3) ds equal to sim [o-Be-5)-(a” am thr x 2 2ev/? OR 0) 8 (4) 2e%er/2 Which of the following is Correct? (1) Median + Mean = 2 Mode (2) Median - Mean — Mod. = Mode (3) 8 Mean ~ 2 Median = Mode (4) S Median ~ 2 Mean ~ Hoy = Mode 55 Pro)199. 200. fa 4 a ah wet? (1) ifeirer + aa = 2 AER (2) maf — ATE = aE (3) 3 mer — 2 miferer = ETH (4) 3 afer — 2-1 = TEE Jalan ia je(@x f+ kx (ax ky) is equal to Satake Jade p+ Rx (ack) wt (1) 2a (2) 3a 3) 0 (4) @ ‘The equation of the curve satisfying the equation (1+ y7)de+(¢-2"" "wy dy =0 and passing through the point (0, 0) is pate (Ia yet (x2 Nay =0 a a wa ae oh Hg A we aa aa HI Bae eT () yet! =cot Y (2) xe Y =tan™y @) xe ‘ectan ly (4) xem" stan! y 56 D/6(152)—16000ovate & fare fee ou yom F vee ray oe ae so A we Ae eh a are areas 1 4H Fee) Lo wm qn fied 10 fae & ore A te a fe cee A wh ote toot ge wa tga age wa a eA te ma ef ge a gan wena safes at tat ae oer A 2. seta worn Heron ir eo is, fen wre HE eT EA TA eT 3. paey ern fem en Bh paw ab Ag te 7 Fs Wy gor oa a feet aa, HT ST wa woot yearend fem WIT! 4 con SR en RT A TT Tae AH # a et HY 8. een vem eM as 8 ree ern ta eo we fd aera FAH aay mere fa wengecer or mais waz TT afer Ie FH) 6. se ee ee pats do, en fon 9 #6 aE DT TT aria to att sito THe ssyce Ta Ho A eae A weft A segs A #1 7. se 8-4 eh 0 ee ain oP ea oS SH am sre 8. sea qean Ha we Hoes CRE mE aT # Pe A ae en mene go wane negro RH A # THE AT aarti 9. oe a A ee TE TE Ge te ae TT TNT ge Bod Ser ae TH Te AT AT! 10. re mee eg mech ton #1 eM ST wt aT mn we ea ws ws EE ST ae ay at Fok meer ES ot ae ev TES TT 12, we & SH aa aoTosire sac whe ve A aT 3 13. un ee wo A ee we SE TA SN 14. ee tae ee A & 3 ew HE SES, avert