PAPER-I

Signature and Name of Invigilator

1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
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2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
J 00 1 1
Test Booklet Code Y
(In words)

Time : 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) -
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : -
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
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without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
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the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a -
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet

will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) - OMR
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
OMR -
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet

Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)

and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the

correct response against each item. : A B C D
Example : A B C D
(C)
where (C) is the correct response. 5. - I - II
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer -
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in ,
the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 6.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 7. (Rough Work)
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put 8. - ,
any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the ,
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose , ,
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other ,
unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer 9. - OMR -
sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. 10. /
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ()
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12.
Y-00 P.T.O.
 FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained

Obtained
Question

Obtained
Obtained

Question
Number

Question
Number

Number
Marks

Marks
Marks

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60
Total Marks Obtained (in words) ...........................................
(in figures) ..........................................
Signature & Name of the Coordinator ...................................

(Evaluation) Date .........................

Y-00 2
 Paper I
I
Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than 50 questions are attempted, only the first 50 questions will be evaluated.
: (60)    (2) 
  (50) 
(50)   (50) )
1. DNS in internet technology stands 1.  DNS 
for
(A) 
(A) Dynamic Name System
(B) Domain Name System (B)
(C) Distributed Name System (C)
(D) None of these (D) 
2. HTML stands for
(A) Hyper Text Markup Language 2. (HTML) ) 
(B) Hyper Text Manipulation (A)  )
Language (B) )
(C) Hyper Text Managing Links (C) )
(D) Hyper Text Manipulating
Links (D) )

3. Which of the following is type of 3.  LAN   ?

LAN ?
(A)
(A) Ethernet
(B) Token Ring (B)  )
(C) FDDI (C)
(D) All of the above (D)
4. Which of the following statements is
4. 7   ?
true ?
(A) Smart cards do not require an (A)   -: 
operating system. 
(B) Smart cards and PCs use some
operating system. (B)  ..   
(C) COS is smart card operating :  ) 
system. (C) COS   :
(D) The communication between
reader and card is in full (D)    :
duplex mode. 
5. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated 5. ))   )
during the year
(A) 1986
(A) 1986
(B) 1988
(B) 1988
(C) 1990 (C) 1990
(D) 1992 (D) 1992
Y-00 3 P.T.O.
6. Identify the correct sequence of 6.  7: )  
energy sources in order of their share
in the power sector in India :
  :
(A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > (A) > > >
wind
(B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > (B) > > >
wind
(C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > (C) > > >
wind
(D) Nuclear > hydro > wind > (D) > > >
thermal

7. Chromium as a contaminant in 7.  
drinking water in excess of    
permissible levels, causes
(A) Skeletal damage (A) -C 
(B) Gastrointestinal problem (B) ) 
(C) Dermal and nervous problems (C) / 
(D) Liver/Kidney problems
(D) /) 

8. The main precursors of winter smog 8.  -  7 )

are
(A) N2O 
(A) N2O and hydrocarbons
(B) NOx 
(B) NOx and hydrocarbons
(C) SO2 and hydrocarbons (C) SO2 

(D) SO2 and ozone (D) SO2

9. Flash floods are caused when 9. C: ( )

:
(A) the atmosphere is convectively
unstable and there is (A)  ()
considerable vertical wind
shear
()
(B) the atmosphere is stable
(B)
(C) the atmosphere is convectively
unstable with no vertical (C)  ()
windshear
(D) winds are catabatic (D) ()
Y-00 4
10. In mega cities of India, the dominant 10.  ) :  7
source of air pollution is
(A) 7: ()
(A) transport sector

(B) thermal power

(B)

(C) municipal waste (C)

(D) commercial sector (D) : 7: ()

11. The first Open University in India 11.  7 

was set up in the State of ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (A)
(B) Delhi (B)
(C) Himachal Pradesh (C)
(D) Tamil Nadu (D)

12. Most of the Universities in India are 12.   :

funded by
(A)  
(A) the Central Government
(B) 
(B) the State Governments
(C) )
(C) the University Grants
Commission
(D) Private bodies and Individuals (D)

13. Which of the following 13.  ) 

organizations looks after the quality
of Technical and Management
-C  ):  7-7  ?
education in India ?
(A) NCTE
(A) NCTE
(B) MCI
(B) MCI

(C) AICTE (C) AICTE

(D) CSIR (D) CSIR

Y-00 5 P.T.O.
 Not for Visually Handicapped  
Candidates
Questions 14 to 16 are based upon 7 14 16 
the following diagram in which there , A, P S  
are three interlocking circles A, P
 A , P 
and S where A stands for Artists,
circle P for Professors and circle S S 7  
for Sportspersons. C  a f   )
Different regions in the figure are
lettered from a to f :

14. The region which represents artists 14.  C   

who are neither sportsmen nor
professors. 7  ?
(A) d (A) d
(B) e (B) e
(C) b (C) b
(D) g (D) g

15. The region which represents 15.  C   

professors, who are both artists and  7 ?
sportspersons.
(A) a (A) a
(B) c (B) c
(C) d (C) d
(D) g (D) g

16. The region which represents 16.  C   

professors, who are also 7   ?
sportspersons, but not artists.
(A) e
(A) e
(B) f (B) f
(C) c (C) c
(D) g (D) g
Y-00 6
 Questions 17 to 19 are based on the 7 17 19  
following data :
Measurements of some variable X  X  10 10:20 
were made at an interval of 1 minute
from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. The
    )
data, thus, obtained is as follows :  :
X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68 X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68

63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64 63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64

17. The value of X, which is exceeded 17. X    

10% of the time in the duration of
measurement, is 10%  X 
(A) 69 (A) 69

(B) 68 (B) 68

(C) 67 (C) 67

(D) 66 (D) 66

18. The value of X, which is exceeded 18. X    

90% of the time in the duration of
measurement, is 90%  X 
(A) 63 (A) 63

(B) 62 (B) 62

(C) 61 (C) 61

(D) 60 (D) 60

19. The value of X, which is exceeded 19. X    

50% of the time in the duration of
measurement, is 50%  X 
(A) 66 (A) 66
(B) 65 (B) 65
(C) 64 (C) 64
(D) 63
(D) 63
Y-00 7 P.T.O.
 For Visually Handicapped Candidates only
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions from 14 to 19 :
All the perceptions of the human mind resolve themselves into two distinct kinds, which I
shall call impressions and ideas. The difference betwixt these consists in the degrees of force
and liveliness, with which they strike upon the mind, make their way into our thought or
consciousness. Those perceptions which enter with most force and violence, we may name
impressions; and under this name I comprehend all our sensations, passions and emotions, as
they make their first appearance in the soul. By ideas I mean the faint images of these in
thinking and reasoning; such as, for instance, are all the perceptions excited by the present
discourse, excepting only those which arise from the sight and touch and excepting the
immediate pleasure or uneasiness it may occasion. I believe it will not be very necessary to
employ many words in explaining this distinction. Every one of himself will readily believe,
perceive the difference betwixt feeling and thinking. The common degrees of these are easily
distinguished; though it is not impossible but in particular instances they may very nearly
approach to each other. Thus, in sleep, in a fever, in madness, or in any very violent emotions
of soul, our ideas may approach to our impressions : as on the other hand it sometimes
happens, that our impressions are so faint and low, that we cannot distinguish them from our
ideas. But not withstanding this near resemblance in a few instances, they are in general so
very different, that no one can make a scruple to rank them under distinct heads, and assign to
each a peculiar name to mark the difference.
There is another division of our perceptions, which it will be convenient to observe, and
which extends itself both to our impressions and ideas. This division is into simple and
complex. Simple perceptions, or impressions and ideas, are such as admit of no distinction
nor separation. The complex are the contrary to these, and may be distinguished into parts.
Though a particular colour, taste and smell, are qualities all united together in this apple, it is
easy to perceive they are not the same, but are at least distinguishable from each other.
14. The passage mainly discusses the origin of
(A) impressions (B) ideas
(C) sensations (D) passions
15. Perceptions that have force may be called
(A) impression (B) emotions
(C) difference (D) thinking
16. Which of the following is excepted from perceptions ?
(A) Faint images of reasoning
(B) Force of liveliness
(C) Those which arise from the sight and touch
(D) The common degree of distinction
17. Ideas may approach impressions in
(A) resemblance (B) madness
(C) readiness (D) consciousness
18. Simple perceptions and impressions have no
(A) ideas (B) scruples
(C) separation (D) quality
19. Impressions and ideas, in general, are so different, each can be given a particular name
to identity
(A) the force (B) the similarity
(C) the difference (D) the feeling

Y-00 8
  - 
)   (14-19)  :
   )  )  ,
  , 
 )   ,   ,  ), ,
 ) ,   :
 ; , :  , , 
   
  )  )   ), ) 
  )    )-)  
    :, , , ) 
 ) ,  ( )   :   - 
  )   ,
 ,   )  ) : ,  
  
 ,     ),
     ,
     )   ,  ) 
 ), ) ): ,  
 ,    )  
14. 7  
(A)  (B) 
(C)  (D)  
15.  )  
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
16. 7  ) ?
(A) : 
(B)  )
(C)
(D)  
17.   
(A) (B) )
(C) (D)
18.  7 ?
(A) (B)  ()
(C) ) (D) ):
19.    7    
 :
(A) ) (B)
(C) (D)

Y-00 9 P.T.O.
20. Consider the following statements : 20. )    
Identify the statement which implies 
natural justice.
(A)   
(A) The principle of natural justice
is followed by the Courts. : 

(B) Justice delayed is justice (B) 7 

denied.
(C) Natural justice is an (C)   ) 
inalienable right of a citizen

(D) A reasonable opportunity of
(D) 
being heard must be given.

21. 
21. The President of India is

(A) the Head of State (A)  7

(B) the Head of Government (B)   7

(C) both Head of the State and the
(C)   7
Head of the Government

(D) None of the above

(D) 

22. Who among the following holds

22.   
office during the pleasure of the ?
President of India ?

(A) Chief Election Commissioner (A) 7 

(B) Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (B)   7 C

(C) Chairman of the Union Public

(C)  )  C
Service Commission

(D) Governor of a State (D) 

Y-00 10
23. For maintaining an effective discipline 23. C   
in the class, the teacher should 
(A) Allow students to do what they
like. (A)  
(B) Deal with the students strictly.
(B)   
(C) Give the students some
problem to solve. (C)    
(D) Deal with them politely and
(D) 
firmly.

24. An effective teaching aid is one which 24. C:- ) ,

(A) is colourful and good looking (A) )-) 7
(B) activates all faculties (B)   
(C) is visible to all students (C)  7
(D) easy to prepare and use (D) ) 

25. Those teachers are popular among 25.   ,

students who (A)  
(A) develop intimacy with them (B)   
(B) help them solve their problems
(C) award good grades (C)  
(D) take classes on extra tuition fee (D) 

26. The essence of an effective 26.  C-C  : 

classroom environment is
(A) C: ) 
(A) a variety of teaching aids
(B) C-  :
(B) lively student-teacher interaction
(C) :
(C) pin-drop silence
(D) strict discipline
(D) 7 ()

Y-00 11 P.T.O.
27. On the first day of his class, if a 27. C    
teacher is asked by the students to     
introduce himself, he should 
(A) ask them to meet after the class (A) C   
(B) tell them about himself in brief (B) C
(C) ignore the demand and start (C) )  C 
teaching 
(D) scold the student for this (D)   ) 
unwanted demand
28. Moral values can be effectively 28.    
inculcated among the students when  , 
the teacher
(A) -  
(A) frequently talks about values
(B) : 
(B) himself practices them
(C)  
(C) tells stories of great persons
(D) talks of Gods and Goddesses
(D) -  

29. The essential qualities of a 29.    ):

researcher are
(A) 
(A) spirit of free enquiry
(B)  :
(B) reliance on observation and
evidence (C)  :
(C) systematization or theorizing :
of knowledge
(D)
(D) all the above

30. Research is conducted to 30.  :

I. Generate new knowledge I.  
II. Not to develop a theory II.   
III. Obtain research degree III. 
IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge IV.  7 
Which of the above are correct ?  ?
(A) I, III & II (B) III, II & IV (A) I, III II (B) III, II IV
(C) II, I & III (D) I, III & IV (C) II, I III (D) I, III IV
Y-00 12
31. A research paper is a brief report of 31.    , 
research work based on
(A) Primary Data only (A)   
(B) Secondary Data only (B)   
(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data (C)   
(D) None of the above (D) 

32. Newton gave three basic laws of 32. )  

motion. This research is categorized as    )  )
(A) Descriptive Research (A) : 
(B) Sample Survey (B) () C: 
(C) Fundamental Research (C) 

(D) Applied Research (D)  

33. A group of experts in a specific area 33.    C )

of knowledge assembled at a place     :
and prepared a syllabus for a new
course. The process may be termed
    
as  
(A) Seminar (A) ) ()
(B) Workshop (B) 
(C) Conference (C) ()
(D) Symposium (D) ) ()

34. In the process of conducting research 34.      

Formulation of Hypothesis is  
followed by
(A)  
(A) Statement of Objectives
(B)   7
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
(C) : 

(D) Collection of Data (D)   :

Y-00 13 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 35 to 40 :
All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government records or parish
birthlists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are only the necessary means to
understanding something other than the texts themselves, such as a political action or a
historical trend, whereas for the intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts
is itself the aim of his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to
draw on the focus of other disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes of
their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects premises and conclusions.
Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent subdisciplines are shifting and indistinct : the
history of art and the history of science both claim a certain autonomy, partly just because
they require specialised technical skills, but both can also be seen as part of a wider
intellectual history, as is evident when one considers, for example, the common stock of
knowledge about cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period.
Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a producer of
methods. His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is trying to illuminate, not in
having exclusive possession of either a corpus of evidence or a body of techniques. That
being said, it does seem that the label intellectual history attracts a disproportionate share of
misunderstanding.
It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really mattered.
The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians bred a kind of
philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was what mattered. The
prejudice was reinforced by the assertion that political action was never really the outcome of
principles or ideas that were more flapdoodle. The legacy of this precept is still discernible
in the tendency to require ideas to have licensed the political class before they can be
deemed worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some reasons why the history of art
or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and significance than the
history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years the mirror-image of this philistinism
has been more common in the claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression or
sophistication do not matter, as if they were only held by a minority.
Answer the following questions :
35. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand
(A) the chosen texts of his own (B) political actions
(C) historical trends (D) his enquiries
36. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of
(A) conclusions (B) any corpus of evidence
(C) distinctiveness (D) habitual interpretation
37. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from
(A) a body of techniques (B) the common stock of knowledge
(C) the dominance of political historians (D) cosmological beliefs
38. What is philistinism ?
(A) Reinforcement of prejudice (B) Fabrication of reasons
(C) The hold of land-owning classes (D) Belief that power and its exercise matter
39. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as part of
(A) literary criticism (B) history of science
(C) history of philosophy (D) intellectual history
40. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they
were held by a minority, is
(A) to have a licensed political class (B) a political action
(C) a philosophy of literature (D) the mirror-image of philistinism
Y-00 14
 )    (35 40) 
:
 ) ,  7  ,  
     , )       ,
    ,    ,  )  :
 C ,  , ,  ) 
 :   7 C  ,     
:  , - C  7 :
      ,  
       )  7  ,
 : :      

  ,      
 )      , : 
     ,  
 )   )   
      
       (),  : 
 )  ,  )  
   : : 
C  ) ,    )     )
 ,   :   , 
   
()  :-    
   , 7 ) 
7  :
35.    C 7   ?
(A)  ) (B)  
(C)  (D) 
36.       ?
(A)  (B) :   )
(C) (D)
37.   )  ?
(A)   (B)  
(C)    (D) : :
38. () ?
(A) )  (B) :  )
(C)  (D) :   ) 
39. : :        ?
(A)  (B) 
(C)  (D) 
40.      , 7 )  ,
 ?
(A)  ) (B)  
(C)  (D)  :-
Y-00 15 P.T.O.
41. Public communication tends to occur 41. 
within a more
(A) 
(A) complex structure
(B) political structure
(B)  
(C) convenient structure (C)  
(D) formal structure (D)  

42. Transforming thoughts, ideas and 42. ,   

messages into verbal and non-verbal ()  
signs is referred to as
?
(A) channelisation
(A) : (::)
(B) mediation
(B)
(C) encoding
(C) 7
(D) decoding
(D) 

43. Effective communication needs a 43. :    :

supportive ?
(A) economic environment (A)  :
(B) political environment (B)  :
(C) social environment (C)  :
(D) multi-cultural environment (D) - :

44. A major barrier in the transmission 44.      :

of cognitive data in the process of 7 
communication is an individuals
(A)
(A) personality
(B) expectation (B) C
(C) social status (C) 
(D) coding ability (D)    )

45. When communicated, institutionalised 45. ,  :

stereotypes become
(A) myths (A) 
(B) reasons (B) :
(C) experiences (C)
(D) convictions (D) :
Y-00 16
46. In mass communication, selective 46. ,   
perception is dependent on the ______ 
receivers
(A) :
(A) competence
(B) :
(B) pre-disposition
(C) receptivity (C) ):

(D) ethnicity (D)

47. Determine the relationship between 47.  ), : 

the pair of words NUMERATOR :  7  ) 
DENOMINATOR and then select  
the pair of words from the following
which have a similar relationship :
(A) ) ( ) :
(A) fraction : decimal (B)  : )
(B) divisor : quotient (C) 7 : ( ))
(C) top : bottom
(D) : 
(D) dividend : divisor

48. Find the wrong number in the 48. 7  ) 7  :

sequence
125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
(A) 130 (B) 142
(A) 130 (B) 142
(C) 153 (D) 165 (C) 153 (D) 165

49. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and 49. (HOBBY)  (IOBY)

LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then    )
BOBBY is coded as (LOBBY)  (MOBY)  ;
(A) BOBY (B) COBY (BOBBY)   
(C) DOBY (D) OOBY (A) BOBY (B) COBY
(C) DOBY (D) OOBY

50. The letters in the first set have 50. C  

certain relationship. On the basis of  
this relationship, make the right
choice for the second set :
 :
K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ? K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?
(A) 10/8 (B) 10/18 (A) 10/8 (B) 10/18
(C) 11/19 (D) 10/19 (C) 11/19 (D) 10/19
Y-00 17 P.T.O.
51. If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so 51. A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 ,
on, what do the following numbers 7   ?
stand for ?
17, 19, 20, 9, 8 17, 19, 20, 9, 8
(A) Plane (A)
(B) Moped (B) ( )
(C) Motor (C)
(D) Tonga (D) )

52. The price of oil is increased by 25%. 52.   25%  7

If the expenditure is not allowed to
increase, the ratio between the
 , ) 
reduction in consumption and the ) 
original consumption is
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1:4
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 5 (D) 1 : 6 (C) 1:5 (D) 1 : 6

53. How many 8s are there in the 53.   8   

following sequence which are 5   3   ?
preceded by 5 but not immediately
followed by 3 ? 5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6
5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6 5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5
5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5 (A) 4 (B) 5
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 3 (C) 7 (D) 3

54. If a rectangle were called a circle, a 54.   ,  ,

circle a point, a point a triangle and a   )   
triangle a square, the shape of a
wheel is

(A) Rectangle (A) )
(B) Circle (B) )
(C) Point (C) )
(D) Triangle (D) )

55. Which one of the following methods 55.   ):

is best suited for mapping the  :  : 
distribution of different crops as  ?
provided in the standard
classification of crops in India ? (A)
(A) Pie diagram (B) :-: 
(B) Chorochromatic technique
(C) 
(C) Isopleth technique
(D) Dot method (D)
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56. Which one of the following does not 56.    ): 
come under the methods of data ?
classification ? (A) ):
(A) Qualitative (B) 
(B) Normative
(C) 
(C) Spatial
(D) 7
(D) Quantitative

57. Which one of the following is not a 57.    ?

source of data ? (A) 
(A) Administrative records (B) ):
(B) Population census
(C) . . .
(C) GIS
(D) C:
(D) Sample survey

58. If the statement some men are cruel 58.  

is false, which of the following  /  ?
statements/statement are/is true ? (i)
(i) All men are cruel.
(ii) 
(ii) No men are cruel.
(iii) 
(iii) Some men are not cruel.
(A) (i) (iii)
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) (ii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D)  (iii)
(D) (iii) only

59. The octal number system consists of 59.    :

the following symbols : (A) 0 7
(A) 0 7 (B) 0 9
(B) 0 9 (C) 0 9, A F
(C) 0 9, A F (D) 
(D) None of the above

60. The binary equivalent of (19)10 in 60. : : (19)10 

signed magnitude system is -
(A) 11101100 (A) 11101100
(B) 11101101 (B) 11101101
(C) 10010011 (C) 10010011
(D) None of these (D) 
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 Space For Rough Work

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