Professional Documents
Culture Documents
TECHNICAL Reviewer Compilations
TECHNICAL Reviewer Compilations
TECHNICAL SUBJECTS
1. What are the minimum requirements to cause the flow of current?
a. A voltage source, an ammeter, a conductor and an insulator
b. A voltage source, a switch and a resistor
c. A voltage source and a conductor
d. A voltage source, a conductor and an insulator
2. Resistance of a conductor increases when
a. its length increases b. its area increases
c. both length and area increases d. specific resistance is kept constant
3. The specific resistance depends upon
a. The area of cross-section and the length of the conductor
b. The material of the conductor, its area of cross-section and length
c. The nature of the material of the conductor only
d. The area of cross-section of the conductor
4. The presence of an electric current is made known by
a. flashing b. effects produced
c. cracking d. electric shock
5. The presence of the current is only made known by the effect it produces. Three important effects are
a. heating, electric shock and generation b. generation, chemical and electric shock
c. heating, magnetic and electric shock d. heating, magnetic and chemical
6. Voltage applied across a circuit, acts as
a. mass of electrons b. negative ions
c. a component of current d. a force
7. In a series circuit the current is
a. constant b. always zero
c. proportional to the resistance d. different in different resistors
8. In a parallel circuit the potential difference across the resistance
a. varies b. is different from the applied voltage
c. is sometimes constant d. is always constant
9. The resistance R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The ratio of values of resistance R 1 : R2 is 4 : 1. The currents in R1
: R2 will be equal to
a. 1 : 4 b. 1 : 1
c. 4 : 1 d. 4 : 4
10. A resistance of 4 ohms is connected across 100 V supply. When another resistor R ohms is connected in parallel
with 4 ohms, the total current taken from supply was found to be 50 A. The value of resistance R is
a. 2 ohms b. 3 ohms
c. 5 ohms d. 4 ohms
11. The voltage applied across an electric press was reduced by 50%. The power consumed by the press will be reduced
by
a. 25% b. 75%
c. 60% d. 50%
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
12. Two electric presses are connected in parallel. The resistance of the first press is 100 ohms and that of the second is
300 ohms. The total current taken by both the presses is 4 A. The ratio of current taken by first : second will be equal
to
a. 2 : 3 b. 1 : 3
c. 3 : 1 d. 1.2 : 3
13. Three elements having conductance G1, G2 and G3 are connected in parallel. Their combined conductance will be
1
a. G1 + G2 + G3 b.
G1 G2 G3
G1 G 2 G2G3 G 3 G1 1
c. d.
G1 G2 G3 1 1 1
G1 G2 G3
14. Four resistances R1, R2, R3 and R4 are connected in series against 220 V supply. The resistances are such that
R1 > R2 > R3 > R4. The least power consumption will be in
a. resistor R1 b. resistor R4
c. resistor R3 d. resistor R2
15. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
a. supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
b. current through supply line flows at slower speed
c. supply wires are made of superior material
d. resistance of heater coil is more than that of supply wires
16. Resistors commonly used in power circuits are
a. carbon resistors b. etched circuit resistors
c. wire wound resistors d. deposited metal resistors
17. Cells are connected in parallel to
a. increase the internal resistance b. decrease the current capacity
c. increase the current capacity d. increase the voltage output
18. Cells are connected in series to
a. decrease the voltage output b. increase the voltage output
c. decrease the internal resistance d. increase the current capacity
19. When current flows in a conductor, heat is produced because
a. heat I2 b. of electronic collision
c. of interatomic collision d. of Joules law
20. The condition in ohms law is that
a. ratio V/I should be constant b. current should be proportional to voltage
c. the temperature should remain constant d. the temperature should vary
21. Ohms law can be applied with certain reservation to
a. rectifying devices b. semiconductors
c. electrolytes d. Thermionic valves
22. Resistors commonly used in power circuits are
a. carbon resistor b. etched circuit resistors
c. wire wound resistors d. deposited metal resistors
23. Capacitors are said to
a. block a.c. and pass d.c. b. block d.c. and pass a.c.
c. pass a.c. and d.c. d. block a.c. and d.c.
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
24. One factor affecting voltages of the primary cell is the
a. area of the plates b. distance between the plates
c. types of plates and electrolytes d. thickness of the plates
25. The average dry cell gives an approximate voltage of
a. 1.3 V b. 1.5 V
c. 1.1 V d. 1.7 V
26. Cells are connected in parallel to
a. increase the internal resistance b. decrease the current capacity
c. increase the current capacity d. increase the voltage output
27. Cells are connected in series to
a. decrease the voltage output b. increase voltage output
c. decrease the internal resistance d. increase the current capacity
28. One advantage of a secondary cell is that it
a. can be recharged b. can be used for portable equipment
c. it is compact, easy to carry d. cannot be recharge
29. Electrolyte of a storage battery is formed by adding
a. water to hydrochloric acid b. sulphuric acid to water
c. hydrochloric acid to water d. water to sulphuric acid
30. The ampere hour capacity of battery depends on
a. the thickness of the plates b. the area of the plates
c. the strength of the electrolytes d. the distance between the plates
31. The internal resistance of a discharged battery
a. is more b. is less
c. remains constant d. is negative
32. A fuel cell converts ________ energy into electrical energy
a. mechanical b. magnetic
c. chemical d. solar
33. In most generators the output voltage is induced by
a. rotating magnetic field past stationary coils
b. relative motion between the field and the armature coils
c. converting electrical energy into mechanical energy
d. air gap
34. The value of peak factor for pure sine wave is
a. 1.414 b. 0.707
c. 0.637 d. 1.110
35. When the sole purpose of an alternating current is to product heat, the selection of conductor is based on
a. average value of current b. peak value of current
c. rms value of current d. any of the above
36. In the impedance triangle the inductive reactance and impedance phasor are analogous to the __________ and
__________ phasor respectively in the voltage triangle
a. inductive voltage, total voltage b. inductive current, total current
c. inductive voltage, resistive voltage d. inductive current, resistive current
37. The phase angle of a series RL circuit is the angle between the __________ phasor and the __________ phasor
a. resistance, inductive reactance b. resistance, impedance
c. inductive reactance, impedance d. none of these
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
38. The resistance phasor for a series RC circuit points to the right. The capacitive reactance phasor points __________
while the diagonal of the rectangle having there two phasors as sides represent the __________.
a. up, impedance b. down, impedance
c. left, current d. up, total voltage
39. The impedance of a series RLC circuit is ________.
265. A partially discharged lead storage battery may be brought back to full charge by
a. adding sulphuric acid b. adding distilled water
c. applying a.c. voltage across the terminal d. applying d.c. voltage across the terminal
266. Charging a lead-acid cell causes the electrolyte to become
a. stronger b. stable
c. weaker d. water
267. A fuel cell converts ________ energy into electrical energy
a. mechanical b. magnetic
c. chemical d. solar
268. A cell which is used as voltage reference source for instrument calibration is
a. solar cell b. dry cell
c. mercury-cadmium cell d. nickel-cadmium cell
269. The output voltage of a single loop generator is a
a. steady d.c. b. steady a.c.
c. pulsating d.c. d. pulsating a.c.
270. What effect on current flow does reversing the direction of movement of a conductor in the magnetic field of a
generator have
a. neutralizes the current flow b. has no effect on current
c. it reverses the direction of current flow
271. In most generators the output voltage is induced by
a. rotating magnetic field past stationary coils
b. relative motion between the field and the armature coils
c. converting electrical energy into mechanical energy
272. What classification is given to a d.c. generator that receives its field excitation current from internal source?
a. self-excited b. controlled excited
c. separately-excited d. internally excited
273. The shunt field of a compound generator is connected across both series field and the armature. This connection
is known as
a. short shunt b. long shunt
c. differential compound d. cumulative compound
274. Residual magnetism is necessary in a
a. separately excited generator b. self excited generator
c. both of these d. none of these
275. Electric d.c. generators have normally, an overall efficiency of the order of
a. 60 - 80% b. 75 - 85%
c. 80 - 90% d. 85 - 95%
276. The armature magnetic field has effect that
a. it demagnetizes or weakens the main flux b. it cross magnetizes, or distorts it
c. it magnetizes or strengthens the main flux d. (a) and (b)
277. In a d.c. generator the flux is seen to be _______ at the trailing pole tips and also _______ at the leading pole tips
a. weakend, weakend b. weakend, crowded
c. crowded, weakend d. same, same
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
278. In the commutation process it is the
a. current which is getting reversed b. voltage which is getting reversed
c. both of these d. none of these
279. In any d.c. generator the emf generated in the armature is maximum when
a. rate of change of flux linked is minimum b. rate of change of flux is maximum
c. flux linked with conductor is maximum d. flux linked with conductor is minimum
280. A simple method of increasing the voltage of an d.c. generator is
a. to decrease the air gap flux density b. to increase the speed of rotation
c. to decrease the speed of rotation d. to increase the length of the armature
281. The function of interpole or compole is
a. to neutralize the reactance voltage and help in commutation process
b. to neutralize the cross-magnetizing effect of armature reaction
c. to neutralized the demagnetizing effect of the armature
d. a and b
282. Interpoles are connected in __________with the armature and compensating windings are connected in
__________ with the armature
a. series, series b. series, shunt
c. shunt, series d. shunt, shunt
283. Generators are often preferred to be run in parallel because of having the advantages of
a. great reliability b. generator efficiency
c. meeting greater load demands d. all of the above
284. Critical resistance of a d. c. generator Rc
a. Rc (speed ) 1 b.Rc (speed)
c. Rc (speed)2 d. Rc (speed)-2
285. Shunt generator are used where the main requirement is a constant
a. current and voltage b. current
c. voltage over a wide load range d. voltage over a narrow load range
286. Equalizer connections are required when paralleling two
a. compound generators b. series generators
c. shunt generators
287. Interpoles are normally connected in
a. parallel with the field b. series with the field
c. parallel with the load d. series with the load
288. DC generator preferred for charging automobile batteries is
a. shunt generator b. series generator
c. long shunt compound generator
289. Which loss in dc generator varies with load
a. copper loss b. eddy current loss
c. hysteresis loss d. windage loss
290. In a shunt generator the voltage built up generally restricted by
a. speed limitation b. armature heating
c. saturation of iron
291. The armature of a dc generator is laminated to
a. reduce the bulk b. insulate the core
c. reduce eddy current loss d. provide passage for cooling air
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
292. With dc generator which of the following regulation is preferred
a. 1% regulation b. 50% regulation
c. infinite regulation d. 100%regulation
293. The function of the commutator in a dc machine is
a. to change alternating current to direct current b. to improve commutation
c. for easy speed control d. to change alternating voltage to direct voltage
294. Carbon brushes are used in electric motors to
a. brush off carbon deposits on the commutator b. provide a path for flow of current
c. prevent overheating of armature windings d. prevent sparking during commutation
295. The speed of a dc motor is
a. directly proportional to back emf and inversely proportional to flux
b. inversely proportional to back emf and directly proportional to flux
c. directly proportional to emf as well as flux
d. inversely proportional to emf as well as flux
296. In a dc motor iron losses occur in
a. the yoke b. the armature
c. the field d. none of these
297. An external resistance is added in the series with the field of a dc shunt motor. When the motor runs, the effect
of resistance
a. to reduce the speed of the motor
b. to increase the speed of the motor
c. to reduce the armature current drawn by the motor
d. to reduce the losses
298. If the speed of a dc shunt motor increases, the back emf
a. increases b. decreases
c. remain constant d. decreases and then increase
299. The current flowing in the conductors of a dc motor is
a. ac b. dc
c. ac as well as dc d. transients
300. As the load is increased the speed of a dc shunt motor will
a. remain constant b. increase proportionately
c. increase slightly d. reduce slightly
301. One dc motor drives another dc motor. The second dc motor when excited and driven
a. runs b. does not run as a generator
c. runs as a generator d. also runs as a motor
302. In dc shunt motor, if the terminal voltage is reduced to half and torque remains the same, then
a. speed will be half and armature current also will be half
b. speed will be half but armature current remains the same
c. speed will be half and armature current becomes double
d. speed and armature current will remain the same
303. The torque of a motor is
a. the force in N-m acting on the rotor
b. the product of tangential force on the rotor and its radius
c. the electrical power in KW
d. the power given to load being driven by the motor
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
304. The power stated on the name plate of any motor is always
a. the output power at the shaft b. the power drawn in KVA
c. the power in KW d. the gross power
305. A starter is necessary to start a dc motor because
a. it starts the motor b. it limits the speed of the motor
c. it limit the back emf to a safe value d. it limits the starting current to a safe value
306. The direction of rotation of a dc motor is reversed by
a. reversing armature connections b. interchanging the armature and field connection
c. adding resistance to the field current d. reversing supply connection
307. Which of the following is a correct statement about a series motor?
a. its field winding consists of thicker wire and less turns
b. it can run easily without load
c. it has an almost constant speed
d. it has a poor torque
308. The speed of a series motor at no load is
a. zero b. 3000 rpm
c. 3600 rpm d. infinity
309. If the back emf in a dc motor is absent, then
a. motor will run at very high speed b. motor will run at very slow speed
c. motor will not run at all d. motor will burn
310. A series motor is started without load. The effect is that
a. the torque increases rapidly b. the speed increases rapidly
c. the current drawn increases rapidly d. the back emf decreases
311. If the field of a dc shunt motor is opened
a. it will continue to run at its rated speed b. the speed of the motor will become very high
c. the motor will stop d. the speed of motor will decrease
312. Armature reaction is attributed to
a. the effect of magnetic field set-up by the armature current
b. the effect of magnetic field set-up by field current
c. copper loss in the armature
d. the effect of magnetic field set-up by the back emf
313. When the electric train is moving down a hill the dc motor acts as
a. dc series motor b. dc shunt motor
c. dc series generator d. dc shunt generator
314. Which of the following motors is suitable for high starting torque?
a. Shunt motor b. Cummulative compound motor
c. Series motor d. Compound motor
315. Interpoles are meant for
a. increasing the speed of the motor b. decreasing counter emf
c. reducing sparking at the commutator d. converting armature current to dc
316. It is preferable to start a dc series motor with some mechanical load on it because
a. it will not run at no load
b. it acts as starter to the motor
c. it may develop excessive speed and damage itself
d. none of these
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
317. If the flux of a dc motor approaches zero, its speed will approach
a. infinity b. zero
c. a stable value nearer to the speed d. none of these
318. As the load is increased, the speed of a shunt motor
a. remains constant b. increases slightly
c. reduces slightly d. none of these
319. The main function of a commutator in d.c. motor is to
a. prevent sparking b. convert ac to dc
c. reduce friction d. convert dc to ac
320. A 60 Hz frequency would cause an electric light to
a. turn on and off 120 times per second b. flicker noticeable
c. turn on and off 180 times per second d. turn on and off 60 times per second
321. The greatest value attained during one half of the cycle is called the
a. peak value b. average value
c. r.m.s. value d. effective value
322. The r.m.s. value of a sine wave is equal to
a. 0.637 max. value b. 0.707 max. value
c. 0.506 max. value d. 1.414 max. value
323. Form factor is defined as
a. r.m.s value/peak value b. max. value/ r.m.s value
c. r.m.s value/ average vale d. effective value/ r.m.s value
324. The value of peak factor for pure sine wave is
a. 1.414 b. 0.707
c. 0.637 d. 1.110
325. The value of peak factor for a pure sine wave is
a. 1.414 b. 0.707
c. 0.637 d. 1.110
326. If the current and voltage are out of phase by 900, the power is
a. 1.10 V.I b. Maximum
c. Minimum d. Zero
327. RMS value and the mean value is the same in case of
a. Square wave b. Sine wave
c. Triangular wave d. Half wave rectified sine wave
328. When the sole purpose of an alternating current is to product heat, the selection of conductor is based on
a. average value of current b. peak value of current
c. rms value of current d. any of the above
329. The form factor of dc supply voltage is always
a. infinite b. zero
c. 0.50 d. unity
330. In the impedance triangle the inductive reactance and impedance phasor are analogous to the __________ and
__________ phasor respectively in the voltage triangle
a. inductive voltage, total voltage b. inductive current, total current
c. inductive voltage, resistive voltage d. inductive current, resistive current
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
331. The phase angle of a series RL circuit is the angle between the __________ phasor and the __________ phasor
a. resistance, inductive reactance b. resistance, impedance
c. inductive reactance, impedance d. none of these
332. For an RL circuit, the power factor cannot be less than __________ or greater than __________.
a. 0, 1 b. 1, 0
c. 0, -1 d. 1, 0
333. If the resistance in a series RC circuit is increased the magnitude of the phase angle
a. increases b. remains the same
c. decreases d. change in an indeterminate manner
334. The resistance phasor for a series RC circuit points to the right. The capacitive reactance phasor points
__________ while the diagonal of the rectangle having there two phasors as sides represent the __________.
a. up, impedance b. down, impedance
c. left, current d. up, total voltage
335. The impedance of a series RLC circuit is ________.
a. R2 + XL2 + XC2 b. R2 + XL2 XC2
c. R2 + (XL + XC)2 d. R2 + (XL XC)2
336. There will __________ be a frequency, called the __________ frequency, at which __________.
a. sometimes, natural; XL =XC b. always, natural; R =0
c. always, resonant; XL = XC d. sometimes, resonant; R =0
337. In an RLC circuit, the impedance at resonance is
a. maximum b. minimum
c. infinity d. zero
338. The current in RLC series circuit, i.e., at resonance is
a. maximum b. minimum
c. infinity d. zero
339. At a frequency less than the resonant frequency
a. series circuit is capacitive and parallel circuit is inductive
b. series circuit is inductive and parallel circuit is capacitive
c. both circuits are inductive
d. both circuits are capacitive
340. The value of current at resonance in a series RLC circuit is affected by the value of
a. R b. C
c. L d. All of these
341. In resonant circuits, the power-factor at resonance is
a. zero b. 1
c. 0.50 d. 0.707
342. Which of the following statements is true for a series RLC circuit tuned at resonant frequency?
a. the voltage across C > applied voltage
b. the voltage across L > applied voltage
c. the voltage across L and C > the applied voltage
d. the voltage across both L and C < the applied voltage
343. The currents flowing in L and C at parallel resonance are
a. zero b. equal
c. infinite d. different
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
344. A coil with large distributed capacitance has a
a. low resistance b. low 0
c. low resonant frequency d. high resonant frequency
345. The transient current is due to
a. voltage applied to circuit
b. resistance of the circuit
c. impedance of the circuit
d. changes in stored energy is inductance and capacitance
346. To a highly inductive circuit, a small capacitance is added in series. The angle between voltage and current will
a. increase b. decrease
c. remain nearly the same d. become indeterminant
347. In a balanced three phase star connected circuit the line voltage are equal
a. to the line current b. to the phase voltage
c. and so are the line current d. but the line currents are equal
348. The type of a.c. distribution system commonly used to supply both light and power is the
a. open delta system b. Three phase delta system
c. Three phase star system with neutral wire d. Three phase star system without neutral wire
349. In a balanced three phase star connected system the line voltage is
a. the phasor difference of the two phase voltages
b. the phasor sum of the two phase voltages
c. 0.707 times the phase voltage
d. 1.414 times the phase voltage
350. The advantages of star connections over delta connections for same phase voltage is that it gives
a. step down current b. extra step up voltage
c. extra step up current d. extra step up power
351. Power in a three phase delta system with balanced load is equal to
a. 3 x VL x IL x power factor b. 3 x Vph x Iph x power factor
c. 3 x Vph x IL x power factor d. 3 x VL x IL x power factor
352. Power in star connected system is
a. equal to that of delta system b. 2 times the delta system
c. 3 times the delta system d. 3 times of a delta system
353. What is the minimum number of wattmeters required for measuring power of a three phase balanced load.
a. two b. four
c. one d. three
354. What is the minimum number of wattmeters required to measure unbalanced power for a three phase system?
a. two b. four
c. three d. one
355. In 2-wattmeter method, the reading of one of the wattmeters will be zero when
a. power factor is unity b. power factor is 0.50
c. load in one of the phase is zero d. a neutral wire is not provided
356. For a three phase unbalanced load
a. the power factor of each phase will be in proportional to the load
b. the power factor of each phase will be the same
c. the power factor of at least one of the phase must be leading
d. the power factor of each phase may be different
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
357. In a pure reactive circuit, the power factor is
a. lagging b. zero
c. leading d. unity
358. For a parallel circuit consisting of resistance and reactance the value of power factor is the ratio of
a. impedance to reactance b. reactance to impedance
c. resistance to impedance d. impedance to resistance
359. In an a.c. circuit, a low value of reactive volt ampere compared with watts indicates
a. high power factor b. unity power factor
c. leading power factor
360. The capacitor of power factor correction are rated in terms of
a. voltage b. VA
c. KW d. KVAR
361. For the same load, if the power factor of load is reduced, it will
a. draw more current b. less current
c. same current but less power d. less current but more power
362. One of the reasons for improving the power factor is
a. to increase the reactive power b. to decrease the reactive power
c. to increase the real power
363. The advantage of using static capacitor to improve the power factor is because they
a. are not variable b. are almost loss free
c. provide continuous change of power factor
364. An ideal current source has zero
a. voltage on no load b. internal resistance
c. internal conductance
365. A closed path made of several branches of the network is known as
a. loop b. junction
c. branch
366. A passive network has
a. no source of e.m.f b. no source of current
c. neither source of current nor source of e.m.f.
367. Which of the following is an active elements of a circuit
a. ideal current source b. resistance
c. inductance d. capacitance
368. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a. voltage source is an active element b. current source is a passive element
c. resistance is a passive element d. conductance is a passive element
369. Which of the following is not a non-linear element?
a. Diode b. Transistor
c. Heater coil d. Electric arc with unlike electrodes
370. Which of the following theorems enables a number of voltage (or current) source to be combined directly into a
single voltage (or current) source?
a. Compensation theorem b. Reciprocity theorem
c. Superposition theorem d. Millmans theorem
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
371. For open circuited condition of Thevenins theorem, all sources of e.m.f. in the network are replaced by
a. their internal impedance b. their internal resistance
c. as total a big source of e.m.f.
372. In order to find z in Thevenins theorem
a. all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
b. all independent voltage sources are short circuited and all independent current sources are open circuited
c. all independent current sources are short circuited and independent voltage source are open circuited
d. all independent voltage sources are open circuited and all independent current sources are open circuited
373. Reciprocity theorem is valid for
a. active network only b. passive network only
c. active and passive network both d. none o f the above
374. In compensation theorem a network containing generator can be replaced by
a. its zero internal impedance b. its infinite impedance
c. another generator d. L.C. circuit
375. Open circuit voltage is the p.d. between two points when the impedance between these points is
a. infinity b. reactive
c. zero d. capacitive
376. Nortons theorem reduces a two terminal network to
a. a constant voltage source and an impedance in parallel
b. a constant voltage source and an impedance in series
c. a constant current source and an impedance in parallel
d. a constant current source and an impedance in series
377. For maximum power transfer, according to maximum power transfer theorem, source impedance
a. must be very much large as compared to the load impedance
b. must be complex conjugate of load impedance
c. must be equal to load impedance
d. must be very small as compared to the load impedance
378. The superposition theorem is applicable to
a. linear responses only b. linear and non-linear responses only
c. linear, non-linear and time variant response
379. The principle of working of a transformer is
a. static induction b. dynamic induction
c. mutual induction d. self induction
380. Transformer is used to change the value of
a. frequency b. voltage
c. power d. power factor
381. The laminations are made from
a. low carbon steel b. silicon steel sheet
c. nickel alloy steel stampings d. chrome steel sheets
382. What is common in the two windings of a transformer
a. electric circuit b. magnetic circuit
c. winding wire gauge d. none of these
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
383. Preferably, the resistance between the primary and the secondary of a transformer should be
a. as low as possible
b. as high as possible
c. low or high depending upon whether it is step up or step down respectively
d. high or low depending upon whether it is step up or step down respectively
384. Ideal transformer assumptions do not include
a. zero reactance of windings b. zero resistance of windings
c. no leakage flux d. no saturation of core
385. The reactance of a transformer is determined by its
a. leakage flux b. common core flux
c. size of the core d. permeability of the material of the core
386. The resistance of low voltage side of a transformer
a. is equal to resistance of its high voltage side
b. is more than resistance of its high voltage side
c. is less than the resistance of its high voltage side
d. (b) or (c)
387. The basic property of the transformer is that it changes the voltage level of an a.c. signal
a. without changing the power b. without changing its shape
c. without changing its frequency d. without changing power, frequency or shape
388. At every instant the direction of secondary current in a transformer must be such as to oppose any change in flux.
This is in accordance with
a. Faradays laws b. Joules law
c. Lenzs law d. Coulombs law
389. The magnitude of mutual flux in a transformer is
a. low at low loads and high at high loads b. high at low loads and low at high loads
c. same at all levels d. varies at low loads and constant at high loads
390. Transformers are rated in
a. KW b. KV
c. KWH d. KVA
391. What type of core is used for a high frequency transformer?
a. Air core b. Closed iron core
c. Aluminum core d. Open iron core
392. The no-load current of a transformer in terms of full load current is usually
a. 1 to 3% b. 3 to 9%
c. 9 to 12% d. 12 to 20%
393. Which of the following is a correct statement about eddy currents?
a. Eddy currents improve the efficiency of a motor
b. Eddy currents heat up the metal parts
c. Eddy current do not influence the movement
d. Eddy currents are used for arc welding
394. Which of the statement given below is true about autotransformer?
a. It has two separate windings connected in series externally
b. It can only step down the voltage
c. It has only one winding
d. It is most suitable for power transformer
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
395. In any transformer the voltage per turn in primary and secondary remains
a. always different b. always same
c. always in ratio of K d. sometimes same
396. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at
a. no load b. half load
c. near full load d. little more than full load
397. As compared to an amplifier a transformer cannot
a. increase output power b. increase the output current
c. increase the output voltage d. none of these
398. Two transformers when operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their
a. magnetizing current b. leakage reactance
c. per unit impedance d. efficiency
399. All day efficiency of a transformer A.
c. its deflection directly proportional to the current d. its deflection directly proportional to the voltage
461. The function of a shunt in an ammeter is to
a. by pass the current b. increase the current in the coil
c. decrease the voltage drop d. increase the meter resistance
462. The shunt resistance in an ammeter is usually
a. less than meter resistance b. equal to meter resistance
c. greater than meter resistance d. of any value
463. A low voltage is measured on a higher scale of a voltmeter. The instrument would have
a. low accuracy b. low resolution
c. low precision d. all of these
464. An electrodynamic meter can be used to measured
a. ac voltage b. dc voltage
c. dc as well as ac voltage d. dc voltage but for ac voltages rectification is necessary
465. Megger is an instrument to measure
a. very low resistance b. insulation resistance
c. Q of a coil d. Inductance of a coil
466. Megger in its operation is based upon
a. moving coil meter b. moving iron meter
c. dynamic-meter meter d. electrostatic meter
467. Which of the following equipment is not a part of megger
a. Hand crank b. Moving coil meter
c. A coil of high inductance d. Gear box generator
468. A multimeter consists of
a. Voltmeter and ohmmeter b. Voltmeter and current meter
c. Current meter and ohmmeter d. Voltmeter , current meter and ohmmeter
469. Inductance is measured in terms of capacitance and resistance by
a. Schering bridge b. Anderson Bridge
c. Maxwell -wein Bridge d. Wein bridge
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
470. The potentiometer wire should have
a. high specific resistance and high temperature coefficient
b. high specific resistance and low temperature coefficient
c. low specific resistance and high temperature coefficient
d. low specific resistance and low temperature coefficient
471. A wattmeter can measure
a. ac power only b. dc power only
c. ac as well as dc power d. dc power and ac power after rectification
472. A relay in which the measurement is performed by a stationary circuit and which has no moving parts is know as
a. Static relay b. Differential relay
c. Instantaneous relay d. Time relay
473. For high ac circuit breakers, the rated short circuit current is passed for
a. 0.01 sec b. 0.10 sec
c. 3 seconds d. 30 seconds
474. Which of the following is not a type of the contactor for circuit breakers?
a. electro-magnetic b. electro-pneumatic
c. pneumatic d. vacuum
475. While selecting a gas for circuit breaker, the property of gas that should be considered is
a. high dielectric strength b. non-inflammability
c. non-toxicity d. none of above
476. There is definite objection to use of which of the following medium for extinguishing the arc in case of a circuit
breaker.
a. Air b. SF6 gas
c. Vacuum d. Water
477. In a circuit breaker the active recovery voltage depends upon
a. power factor b. armature reaction
c. circuit condition d. all of the above
478. A relay used for protection of motors against overload is
a. impedance relay b. Electromagnetic attraction type
c. Thermal relay d. Buchholzs relay
479. A fuse wire should have
a. low specific resistance and high melting point b. low specific resistance and low melting point
c. high specific resistance and high melting point d. high specific resistance and low melting point
480. The number of cycles in which a high-speed circuit breaker can complete its operation is
a. 3 to 8 b. 10 to 18
c. 20 to 30 d. 40 to 50
481. A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse wire
a. Auminum b. Silver
c. Lead d. Copper
482. Breaking capacity of a circuit breaker is usually expressed in terms of
a. amperes b. volts
c. MW d. MVA
483. As the force contact is increased, the contact resistance will
a. increase linearly b. increase exponentially
c. remain unaltered d. decrease
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
484. Which of the following is not the method of arc dispersion?
a. Oil immersion of contacts b. Magnetic blow out of arc
c. Use of rectifiers d. Deionisation of arc path
485. Which of the following contact point metals has the highest melting point?
a. Silver b. Tungsten
c. Gold d. Copper
486. The power factor of the arc in circuit breaker is
a. always zero b. always unity
c. always lagging d. always leading
487. Air used in air blast circuit breaker
a. must have least carbon dioxides b. must be ionized
c. must have oil mist d. must be free from moisture
488. Which of the following relays is used on transformers?
a. Buchholz relay b. MHO relay
c. Merz price relay d. None of the above
489. The value of fault current depend on
a. voltage at the fault point b. total impedance up to the fault
c. both (a) and (b) above d. none of the above
490. Which of the following is a conducting medium for electric current
a. low temperature gas b. high temperature gas
c. dissociated gas d. plasma
491. Which of the following are air-break switching devices?
a. Isolator b. Limit switch
c. Earthing switch d. All of the above
492. A fuse is normally a
a. current limiting devices b. voltage limiting device
c. power limiting device d. power factor correcting device
493. The material used for bus bars should have
a. low resistivity b. higher softening temperature
c. low cost d. all of the above
494. Which of the following is not valid in case of aluminum as compared to copper? Aluminum has higher
a. resistuvity b. coefficient of linear expansion
c. tensile strength d. joint resistance
495. In which of starting a motor, the starting current is the maximum?
a. Auto-transformer b. Star-delta starter
c. Stator rotor starter d. Direct-on-line
496. The disadvantages offered by ungrounded system is
a. frequent arcing grounds b. difficult earth fault relaying
c. voltage oscillation d. all of the above
497. Which of the following methods of generating electric power from the sea water is more advantageous?
a. Water power b. Ocean power
c. Tidal power d. None of these
498. Out of the following which one not unconventional source of energy?
a. Tidal power b. Geothermal power
c. Nuclear energy d. Wind energy
IIEE Southern Cavite Chapter
Technological University of the Philippines Cavite
Electrical Upgrading Course (Master Electrician Review)
499. Power plants using coal work closely on which of the following cycle
a. Rankine cycle b. Binary vapour cycle
c. Otto cycle d. Brayton cycle
500. A graphical representation between discharge and time is known as
a. Monograph b. Hectograph
c. Hydrograph d. Topograph
501. A gas turbine works on
a. Carnot cycle b. Brayton cycle
c. Dual cycle d. Rankine cycle
502. Compressor used in gas turbine is
a. screw compressor b. multistage axial flow compressor
c. plugger type compressor d. reciprocating compressor
503. High horse power diesel engines are started by
a. self starter b. cranking
c. battery d. Compressed air
504. Which engine has the highest air fuel ratio?
a. Petrol engine b. Gas engine
c. Diesel engine d. Gas turbine
505. Most of heat generated in internal combustion engine is lost in
a. cooling water b. exhaust gases
c. lubricating oil d. radiation
506. The internal combustion engines never work on
a. Diesel cycle b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle d. Dual combustion cycle
507. Which of the following is not a secondary nuclear fuels?
a. U-235 b. U 233
c. Plutonium d. Pn 239
508. Heavy water is
a. H2O b. D2O
c. W2O d. B2O
509. Nuclear reactors generally employ
a. fusion b. fission
c. both fusion and fission d. none of the above
510. Load factor during a period is
a. b.
c. d.
a. b.
c. d.