COMMUNICATIONS
an intermittent decrease of
1. On a telephone system, the loop is
open during
a. on-hook condition 9
b. off-hook condition
c. both a and b
d. none of the condition
2. On the subscribers telephone set
employing the touch-tone technique,
how many signals are transmitted to
the telephone exchange for every
button that is pressed?
a. two VHF signals
b. one VHF signals and one
audio-frequency tone
c. two audio-frequency tones 9
d. three audible tones
3. How many different tones can a
telephone set, employing the touch-
tone technique, generate?
a. 10 audio frequency tones
b. 8 audible tone frequencies 9
c. 4 VHF signals
d. none of the preceding choices
4. An Acoustic Coupler is
a. a device that radiates audible
signals via a transmitting
antenna.
b. a device that converts electric
signals into audio signals (and
vice versa), enabling to be
transmitted over the public
telephone network via a
conventional telephone
handset. 9
c. a device that receives audible
signals and retransmits them at
VHF frequencies
d. none of the preceding choices
5. Bend loss is
a. a form of increased attenuation
caused by bends radiating from
the side of the fiber 9
65
b.
transmitter power caused by
the curvature of the earths
surface
c. a decrease of signal strength at
the receiver caused by the
bends of a folded dipole in a
yaki antenna.
d. none of the preceding choices
6. A voice-grade channel is suitable
for transmission of
a. VHF signals
b. UHF signals
c. VHF and UHF signals
d. signals with a frequency
ranging from 300 to 3400 Hz 9
7. Insertion loss is
a. caused by thermal noise that
intermodulates with the signal
traveling on the same medium.
b. a momentary disruption of
signal due to power interruption
c. a low level high frequency
signal inserted into the original
signal caused by thermal noise
d. none of the preceding
choices9
8. Erlang is
a. a unit of magnetic field density
measured around a conductor
b. the number of erroneous bits
received per unit of time
c. a unit of electrical energy
radiated in space
d. equal to the number of
simultaneous calls originated
during a specific hourly
period9
9. The local loop of a telephone
system is
a. a two-wire or four-wire
communication circuit between
the customers premise and the
central office 9
b. a group of wires connecting a
telephone set to a modem
c. a four-wire circuit connecting a
facsimile machine to a
computer
d. a single piece of wire
connecting the subscribers
telephone set to another
telephone set in an adjacent
room.
10. A communication link is
a. a piece of wire that is
connected to ground terminals
of all communications
equipment in one
establishment.
b. a channel or circuit intended to
connect other channels or
circuits 9
c. a cable connecting a highest frequency.
transmitter to the antenna
d. none of the preceding choices
11. A multidrop line is
a. a piece of wire with a thick
insulating material that serves
to protect the conductive
material from damage in the
event the wire is dropped.
b. a line designed to withstand
high pressure
c. a line or circuit interconnecting
several stations 9
d. none of the preceding choices.
12. Echo is
a. a signal of the same amplitude
but 180 out of phase from the
original signal and mixed with
the original signal at the
transmitter to produce a more
intelligible output signal.
b. a wave which has been
reflecting or otherwise returned
with sufficient magnitude and
delay for it to be perceptible in
some manner as a wave
distinct from that directly
transmitted. 9
66
c. the signal having a higher
frequency than the original and
transmitted back to earth by a
passive satellite.
d. none of the preceding choices
13. Singing is
a. the result of intermodulating
two or more signals of different
frequencies to produce a tone
having a frequency equal to the
sum of the frequencies of the
signals intermodulated
b. the result of intermodulating
two or more signals of different
frequencies to produce a tone
having a frequency higher than
that of the signal having the
c. an undesired self-sustained
oscillation in a system,
generally caused by excessive
positive feedback 9
d. none of the preceding choices
14. Termination is the
a. result of cutting both ends of a
conductor
b. result of disconnecting a line
from a transmitter
c. all of the preceding choices9
d. none of the preceding choices
15. Telephone signaling provides
status information like
a. busy tone, dial tone, and
ringing
b. congestion and call charge
data
c. all of the preceding choices 9
d. none of the preceding choices
16. A two-wire circuit is
a. usually in the subscriber loop,
between the telephone set and
the local central office. 9
b. a circuit having only two
terminals, both terminals
having the same instantaneous
voltage.
 c. a circuit with one input
terminal, one output terminal,
and a common ground
d. none of the preceding choices
17. A four-wire circuit is
a. used between serving central
offices for long-distance
connections, with one pair
being used for each direction of
transmission 9
b. is a circuit with three output
terminals and one input
terminal
c. is an oscillator that produces
four different frequencies
simultaneously
d. none of the preceding choices
18. A leased line is
a. a piece of wire used in a local
area network in one building
b. a piece of wire connecting a
telephone set to a PABX
c. a temporary connection of one
computer to a mainframe via a
modem and a telephone line
d. a permanent circuit for private
use within a communication
network 9
19. PABX stands for
a. Private All-purpose
Broadcasting Exchange
b. Private Automatic Branch
Exchange 9
c. Public Access Bi-directional
Exchange
d. none of the preceding choices
20. A concentrator is
a. a system that improves the
signal-to-noise ratio
compressing
b. a device that varies the
characteristic of a carrier signal
in accordance with the
waveform of a modulating
signal which contains useful
information.
c. a switching system that lets a
large number of telephone or
data processing subscribers
use a lesser number of
transmission lines or a system space loss expressed in dB is
narrower bandwidth. 9
d. none of the preceding choices
21. A trunk is
a. the base of a communications
tower
b. a telephone line connecting
two central offices 9
c. a line connecting one
telephone set to a PABX
d. none of the preceding choices
22. In a microwave communications,
the frequency range for super high
frequency in megahertz is:
a. 30 to 300
b. 300 to 3000
c. 3000 to 30000 9
d. 30000 to 300000
23. A simple convenient means of
adjusting waveguide power level is
provided by what
a. slide screw tuner
b. slotted line attenuator
c. directional coupler attenuator
d. flap attenuator 9
24. It is a high gain, low noise level,
audio frequency amplifier and a
square law calibrated vacuum tube
voltmeter used to amplify and
measure the output of a crystal and
display the information.
a. standing wave indicator 9
b. power level indicator
c. voltmeter
by d. pilot indicator
25. It represents energy that has
neither been radiated into space not
completely transmitted.
a. standing waves 9
b. captured waves
67
c. incident waves Determine the signal level received at
d. modulated waves the receiver station
a. -91 dBw
26. A microwave communication b. -89.5 dBw 9
c. -88.8 dBw
a. 94.2 + 20 log fGHZ +20 log dmiles d. -90.7 dBw
b. 94.3 + 20 log fGHZ + 20 log dkm
c. 92.4 +20 log fGHZ + 20log dkm9 31. At a distance of 50 km, a 100 watt
d. 93.5 + 20 log fGHZ +20 log dmiles microwave radio transmitter is used to
link to another microwave radio
27. Given a paraboloid reflector with a receiver. The received signal level
diameter D = 6 feet and is operated at should be equal to negative 80 dBm at
1.5 Ghz. What is the beamwidth the frequency of 6 GHz. Determine
between nulls of the reflector, ? the first Fresnel zone radius at mid-
a. 8 point of path.
b. 8.2 a. 85 ft
c. 7.7 9 b. 78 ft
d. 7.0 c. 82 ft 9
d. 75 ft
28. Given a paraboloid reflector with a
32. A waveguide with 4.5 Ghz cut-off
diameter D = 6 feet and is operated at
frequency is exited with a 6.7 Ghz
1.5 GHz. What is the beamwidth
between nulls of the reflector, 0? signal. What is the wavelength in the
waveguide.
a. 15.3 9
a. 0.196 m
b. 8.2 b. 0.336 m
c. 7.7
c. 0.136 m 9
d. 7.0
d. 0.236 m
29. Point to point communication
33. A rectangular waveguide has
between A & B is 90 km (flat terrain).
dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. What is
Point A is on top of a hill, 900 ft. above
sea level, with a tower height of 23 m.
the TE10 mode cut-off frequency?
a. 2 GHz
What is the minimum height of the
antenna at point B? b. 3 GHz 9
c. 2.5 GHz
a. 65 ft
d. 3.5 GHz
b. 73 ft
c. 75 ft
34. What is the power density in W/m2
d. 69 ft 9
at a distance of 1 km from a 1000W
30. A microwave communication set
isotropic source?
a. 7.58 x 10-5
up had the following characteristics:
Transmitters & receivers antenna gain b. 7.95 x 10-5 9
c. 7.85 x 10-5
------------------------------------- 10 dB -5
line length (transmitter & receiver) ----- d. 7.59 x 10
------------------------------------- 1.25 ft.
line loss --------------------- 1.8 dB/100ft 35. A microwave antenna with a length
of 6 cm radiation a 12 cm wavelength
transmitter power ------------ 100 W
path loss ----------------------- 125 dB signal. Calculate the mean field
distance
modulation --------------------- 100%
68
 a. 6.1 cm 41. Find the forward tilt angle t for a c. Modulate 52. Range of carrier frequencies for
b. 6.0 cm 9 vertically polarized 3 Ghz wave d. Over Modulate commercial FM broadcasting
c. 6.2 cm traveling in air along the surface of a a. 535 kHz 1605 kHz
d. 5.0 cm smooth freshwater lake. 47. A Pulse code modulator (PCM) b. 88 GHz 108 GHz
a. 6.0 uses an eight-bit quantizer. If the c. 88 MHz 108 MHz
36. A tapered termination of a length b. 6.2 quantizer output has FF(Hex) and d. 0.88 kHz 1.08 kHz 9
of waveguide that provides the c. 6.4 9 00(Hex) which represents a quantized
impedance transformation between d. 6.8 voltage of 1 volt and 0 volt 53. They are subcarriers that are
waveguide impedance and free space respectively, then A6(Hex) represents arranged so that the channels
impedance. 42. Another term for Amplitude what: occupying adjacent frequency bands
a. isotropic radiator Modulation (AM) is: a. 6 volts with some frequency space between
b. horn radiator 9 a. Double Sideband Full Carrier b. 0.25 volts them is known as:
c. dipole (DSBFC) 9
c. 0.1 volts a. Guard Bands 9
d. parabolic reflector b. Single Sideband Suppressed d. 0.65 volts 9 b. AM Bands
Carrier (SSBSC) c. Band Gap
37. Transmission lines which can c. Frequency Modulation (FM) 48. Type of operation performed at the d. Band Diagram
convey electromagnetic waves only in d. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) transmitter to achieve efficient and
higher order modes are usually called reliable information transmission. 54. The amplitude of a train of
a. coaxial cable 43. A pulse amplitude modulator uses a. Transmission constant-width pulses is varied in
b. twisted pair of telephone wire a modulating signal whose frequency b. Filtering proportion to the sample values of the
c. power lines is 3 kHz maximum. The practical c. Modulation 9 modulating signal
d. waveguides 9 sampling frequency is: d. Multiplexing a. Phase Modulation
a. 6 kHz 9 b. Frequency Shift Keying
38. Refers to the ratio of an electric b. 7.25 kHz 49. Another name for multiplier circuit c. Amplitude Shift Keying
field component to a magnetic field c. 2.5 kHz a. Balance Modulator 9 d. Pulse Amplitude Modulation 9
component at the same point of the d. 3 kHz b. Discriminator
wave c. Clipper 55. Determine the bandwidth of an AM
a. characteristic impedance 44. If a television channel starts at 66 d. Integrator transmitter if the carrier frequency is
b. wave impedance 9 MHz, the sound carrier is found at: 1000 Khz and the modulating
c. load impedance a. 4.5 MHz 50. A process that uses the frequency varies from 1 kHz to 10
d. intrinsic impedance b. 67 MHz orthogonality of sines and cosines that Khz.
c. 55.25 MHz makes possible to transmit and a. 2000 Hz
39. Refers to the ratio of the phasor d. 71.75 MHz 9 receive to different signals b. 2 kHz
fields E and H for a plane (TEM) wave simultaneously on the same carrier c. 20 kHz 9
in an unbounded medium 45. A two-channel Time Division frequency is: d. 20.1 kHz
a. wave impedance Multiplexer with channel 1 having the a. Time Division Multiplexing
b. load impedance highest frequency of 3 kHz while b. Frequency Division 56. The information of an AM signal
c. intrinsic impedance9 channel 2 has only 1 kHz. The lowest Multiplexing resides in the
d. characteristic impedance commutating or sampling frequency is: c. Quadrature Multiplexing 9 a. Upper Sideband only
a. 18 kHz 9 d. Duplexing b. Lower Sideband only
40. Defined as the quotient of the b. 15.5 kHz c. Upper & Lower Sideband
maximum radiation intensity over the c. 6 kHz 51. A good example of a pilot tone Only9
average radiation intensity d. 24.75 kHz system used in commercial frequency d. Carrier signal
a. aperture gain modulation stations. 57. The transmission and reception of
b. directivity gain 9 46. The main purpose of the 19 kHz a. Frequency Modulation information is called:
c. transmission gain pilot in a stereo multiplexed signal in b. Frequency Division a. Modulation
d. power gain FM is for the receiver to: Multiplexing b. Communication 9
a. Indicate stereo reception c. Time Division Multiplexing c. Radiation
b. Demodulate 9 d. Stereo Multiplexing 9 d. Emission

69 70
58. The process of varying some
characteristic of a high frequency sine
wave in accordance with the variation
of the modulating signal is called:
a. Communication
b. Propagation
c. Restoration
d. Modulation 9
59. A 10 Mhz carrier is amplitude
modulated by a 100 Khz signal. What
frequency components are present in
the output wave?
a. 10 MHz and 100 kHz
b. 10 MHz, 10.1 MHz and 100 kHz
c. 10 MHz, 10.1 MHz and 9.9 MHz 9
d. 10 MHz, 9.9 MHz and 9.8 MHz
60. Any unwanted form of energy
interfering the reception of wanted
signal is called:
a. Sidebands
b. Frequency spectra
c. Noise 9
d. Modulation
61. The instantaneous frequency of
the carrier signal is switched between
two (or more) values in response to
PCM code.
a. phase shift keying
b. frequency shift keying 9
c. frequency modulation
d. amplitude shift keying
62. Digital Signals
a. can provide a continuous set of
values
b. represent values as discrete
steps 9
c. cant utilize decimal or binary
systems
d. none of the above
63. If you are going to receive a
message, for example FRIDAY, you
could guess that the letter after FRIDA
was Y because spoken language is
a. Redundant 9
71
b. Has high information content
c. Inflexible
d. Both a and b
64. When are bits per second and
bands equivalent?
a. Never
b. When the transmission line
changes state each time a bit
changes 9
c. When a telephone modem
feeds your personal computer
d. always
65. If the maximum signaling speed on
a certain DC cable is 2000 bps, and
we are presently passing data at 600
bps, what effect would doubling the
cable length have an our ability to
communicate?
a. No effect
b. The maximum speed would
fall, but we would not be
affected because we are
operating below the maximum
speed
c. Lengthening the cable would
reduce the maximum speed to
below 600 bps, and we could
no longer communicate 9
d. The maximum speed would
rise to 4000 bpd.
66. Spacing bias distortion results in:
a. Space being lengthened and
marks being shortened 9
b. Space being shortened and
marks being lengthened
c. Space being lengthened but
marks being unaffected
d. Extra spaces being printed on
the teletypewriter
67. An AC transmission path has the
characteristics of
a. A low-pass filter
b. A high-pass filter
c. A band-pass filter 9
d. Both a and b
68. The data transmission rate of a
modem is measured in
a. bytes per second
b. baud rate 9
c. bits per second
d. megahertz
69. Which is not an example of data
communications?
a. A teletype printing news
bulletins
b. A computer transmitting files to
another computer
c. An automatic teller machine
checking account balances
with the banks computer
d. a salesman telephoning orders
to the office 9
70. Two-state (binary) communications
system are better because:
a. They can interface directly with
the analog telephone networks
b. The components are simpler,
less costly and more reliable 9
c. People think better in binary
d. Interstate calls are less costly
71. Switching systems
a. improve the efficiency of data
transfer 9
b. are not used in data systems
c. require additional lines
d. are limited to small data
networks
72. What are the effects of
transmission line loading at AC?
a. Attenuation is decreased, and
signaling speed is raised
b. Attenuation is increased, and
signaling speed is decreased
c. Attenuation is decreased at
some frequencies and raised at
others 9
d. You cant tell without more
information
72
73. Which of the following is not an
important cause of distortion in DC
signaling?
a. Line capacitance
b. Line Inductance 9
c. Detector hysteresis
d. Line resistance
74. The telephone is attractive for
transmitting digital data because
a. Telephone calls casts are
decreasing with more modem
equipment
b. There is no basic difference
between the problems faced by
a voice signals and those faced
by digital signals
c. Digital and human speech
share many signal
characteristics
d. Telephones are standardized
and easy to find 9
75. Which of the statement is true?
a. Parallel data transmission is
more complex than serial
transmission
b. Serial data transmission is
slower than parallel
transmission, given the same
pulse width in each case
c. A transmission line will operate
faster with parallel data than it
will with serial data. 9
d. Serial transmission is suited to
use over single pair of wire
76. Knowing the bandwidth of circuit,
you can draw a meaningful conclusion
about many characteristics of the
circuit. Which of the following do you
not know about from knowing the
bandwidth?
a. Maximum information capacity
b. Maximum signaling speed
c. Operating frequency 9
d. You can tell about all of these if
you know bandwidth
77. You are presently passing c. requires shift characters to c. A device that punches paper 90. The principal difference between
baseband data at 4800 bps over a provide sufficient tape from signal received over batch processing and on-line
one-mile cable. Based on Kelvins combinations9 the communication line 9 processing is:
Law, what would you expect to be a d. was invented by Emiles sister, d. A device that reads transmit a. Computer resources are used
reasonable speed for data Bridgette punched paper tape more efficiently for on-line
transmission if you lengthened the processing
cable to four miles? 82. The difference between timing and 86. Impact printers: b. Teleprinters are used for batch
a. 2400 bps framing is: a. Strike a ribbon against the processing; CRTs are used for
b. 1200 bps a. timing is concerned with the paper to produce character on- line processing
c. 600 bps individuals bits; framing is image c. Transactions are grouped for
d. 300 bps 9 concerned with the boundaries b. Include ink-jet and terminal batch processing; transactions
between characters 9 devices are processed as need for on-
78. The correctness and accuracy of b. timing refer to serial c. A receiver-only-printer with a line processing. 9
the transmitted message content is: transmission; framing refers to keyboard 9 d. none of the preceding choices
a. Verified by the modem parallel d. are rapidly becoming absolute
b. Determined by the sender and c. timing is concerned primarily 91. Which of the following statements
receiver, not by the with a synchronous systems; 87. Serial printers about the ASCII code is not true?
communication system 9 framing is concerned with a. Are used to transmit grains a. ASCII is an ANSI standard
c. Ensured by used of digital synchronous systems prices b. ASCII is a BCD code 9
techniques d. none of the preceding choices b. Are faster than CRT terminals c. ASCII can be represented
d. Depends on how long the and offer more flexibility using 8 bits
signals take to arrive at the 83. ASCII terminals are generally c. Print one character at a time 9 d. ASCII and CCITT Alphabet No.
receiver defined as: d. Usually used serial interfaces 5 are nearly identical
a. Terminals using synchronous
79. What is the function of transmission in EBCDIC 88. Which of the following is not 92. What is the Hamming distance
regenerative repeaters? b. Terminals using synchronous common to punched card and between the characters 1001101 and
a. To eliminate bias distortion transmission in ASCCI magnetic media terminals? 1011011?
b. To help with loading of the c. Terminals using a synchronous a. Both are used to facilitate a. 0
telegraph lines transmission in ASCII 9 transmission of computer data b. 1
c. To reshape the pulses after d. any terminal having an without having to change the c. 2
they have become distorted 9 American (dollar sign) medium in which it is stored d. 3 9
d. To reduced required signal keyboard b. Both were developed before
levels the teletypewriter 93. Which of the statement is not true?
84. Teleprinters c. Both use the same data Convolutional codes:
80. Extended ASCII a. Are only for printing at remote transmission principles as the a. Depend on both current
a. Adds extra digits to standard locations not for input teletypewriter and the characters to be encoded and
ASCII 9 b. After both high speed operation telegraph 9 those that have been encoded
b. Provides 128 additional and a variety of formatting d. both transmit data at higher previously
character definitions beyond controls speeds than teletypewriters b. Are also called recurrent codes
standard ASCII c. Have a printer for output and c. Are used with forward error
c. Doubles the bit length of each may have a keyboard for 89. CRT terminals: corrections
ASCII character input9 a. Are most widely used hardcopy d. Are a form of block code 9
d. Provides extra characters that d. Both a and b terminals
you define b. Offer high-speed display and 94. What type of CRT-based terminals
85. Reperforators: formatting flexibility 9 most closely resembles the KSR
81. The Baudot code a. A device for punching paper c. Do not normally utilize teletypewriter configuration?
a. was invented by the Baudot tape off-line microprocessor a. Buffered terminal
brothers, Mark and Space b. A printer that ahs no keyboard d. Are strictly typewriter-style b. Dumb terminal 9
b. requires the escape characters and the only and print the c. Smart terminal
to print numbers message on paper d. Bus terminal
73 74
95. Which of the following is not 100. What is the primary d. Has no application in data a. As modulation index increases,
generally used as a stand-alone data considerations when designing an communications bandwidth and power
communications terminals? error control system for data increases
a. a microcomputer communications? 105. What is the easiest type of b. As modulation index increases,
b. Magnetic media transceivers a. How many errors the system system to use for secure (encrypted) bandwidth and power
c. Mainframe computers 9 will detect and correct computer communications? increases
d. Minicomputers b. The overall function and needs a. Frequency Division c. As modulation index increases,
of the networks 9 Multiplexing bandwidth increases and
96. One of the following standards c. The efficiency of the code that b. Pulse Code Modulation 9 power decreases 9
organizations produce standards results from the design c. Pulse Duration Modulation d. As modulation index increases,
which are not generally used in the d. All of the preceding d. Pulse Position Modulation bandwidth decreases and
U.S. which one is it? power increases
a. CCITT 9 101. Which of the statement is not 106. Multiplexing
b. ISO true? a. Has been in use since the 110. Given a signal which ranges in
c. ANSI a. Checksums detect errors more 1920s frequency from 100Hz to 10KHz, and
d. UL effectively than checking b. Involves separating signals into 256 quantizing levels, what is the
b. Cyclic Redundancy checking pieces that dont interfere with minimum pulse rate required to
97. The difference between can find all of certain anything else transmit this signal? Ignore framing
synchronous and asynchronous data c. Parity checking is capable of c. Expands telephone plant pulses
transmission can be observed by providing enough information capability a. 10, 000 bps
noting what? to detect and corrects errors d. Separates signals in space, b. 20, 000 bps
a. How fast the data is d. A Hamming code of distance 5 frequency, or time 9 c. 140, 000 bps
transmitted on the circuit can detect and correct 4 errors d. 160, 000 bps 9
b. When stop and star pulses are in transmission 9 107. Which of the following is not a
used9 commonly used modern modulation 111. The standard first-level digital
c. How accurate the clock is 102. Pulse Amplitude Modulation is: method? multiplex system in the U.S. operates
d. All of the preceding a. Similar to amplitude modulation a. 8-FSK 9 at:
in the analog world 9 b. BPSK a. 2.048 Mbps
98. Some characteristics of the b. Used in radio communication c. 4-PSK b. 44.736 Mbps
EBCDIC code are: c. Relatively insensitive to noise d. 8-QAM c. 1.544 Mbps 9
a. It is used exclusively on IBM distortion d. 9, 600 bps
computers d. Aversion of frequency 108. Why is it necessary to use
b. It is binary coded decimal code modulation carrier in data communications? 112. The area of coverage of a
expanded to allow the a. Because it makes modulation satellite radio beam is called its:
transmission of letters and 103. Pulse Duration Modulation easier a. Beamwidth
control characters9 a. Is similar to FM b. Because data signals cannot b. Circular polarization
c. EBCDIC can easily be b. Is difficult to detect be transmitted to their c. Footprint 9
transformed into ASCII- 8 by accurately9 destination without the aid of a d. Identity
adding hexadecimal constant c. Is not widely used carrier 9
to the ASCII- 8 code d. Is vulnerable to noise c. Because multiplexing systems 113. Fiber optic cables operate at
d. all of the preceding need carriers to function frequencies near:
104. Fourier Analysis properly a. 20 MHz
99. One of the following techniques a. Is merely a mathematical d. All of the preceding b. 200 MHz
will not help to correct for transmission exercise c. 2 GHz
line errors. Which is it? b. Tells us how to build a pulls 109. What is the relationship d. 800 THz 9
a. N-of-M codes train between power level, bandwidth, and
b. Checksums c. Provides insight on another modulation index of a frequency 114. Since the optical fibers carry
c. Algorithmic conversions 9 way of looking at a pulse modulated signal? light rays, the frequent y of operation
d. Parity checking train9 is that of light. The transmission

75 76
wavelength used for current single- b. with a monostable c. Because it represents the width c. Are the pins that represent
mode fibers is: multivibrator9 of a voice channel and its received transmission and
a. 1.2 micrometers 9 c. by integrating the signal guard bands carrier transmission
b. 1.5 micrometers d. with a free-running d. none of the preceding d. none of the preceding choices
c. 3.0 micrometers multivibrator
d. 4.0 micrometers 122. Direct machine-to-machine 126. The CCITT V.26 has a
119. Which of the following is not a transmission over long distance modulation rate of:
115. Which of the following characteristic of pulse code without modems is not practical a. 1200 Hz
statements about time-division modulations? because: b. 1200 bauds 9
multiplexing is not true? a. Applicable to any signal a. Copper wire does not transmit c. 1560 cps
a. TDM is becoming less widely waveform DC efficiently d. 2000 bauds
used as PCM systems are b. Easily implemented in b. A DC path that will handle data
introduced 9 hardware, and becoming in pulse form does not exist 9 127. Synchronous modems cost
b. TDM is ideal for data widely used worldwide c. Data comes from the computer more than asynchronous modems
communications because the c. Minimize the effect of noise in the form of tones, not pulses because:
data are already in digital form during transmission and d. none of the preceding a. They are larger
c. TDM can use any of several provides for coding to remove b. They must operate on a larger
modulation schemes noise in the signal 9 123. RS 232, RS 530, V.24, and beamwidth
d. TDM will probably coexist with d. does not actually transmit the V.21 are examples of: c. The production volume is
PDM for many years signal impressed on the a. Standards for various types of larger
modulator transmission channels d. They must contain clock
116. Modems are used to connect b. Standards for interfaces recovery circuits 9
data equipment to communications 120. Which statements below is not between terminals and
lines. Which of the following true? modems 9 128. The digital-to-analog converts
statements about modems is not true? a. Pulse code modulation makes c. Standards for end-to-end in a synchronous modem send signals
a. Modems operate at 300, 1200, it possible to make performance of data to the:
or 4800 bits per second transmission line noise effects communication systems a. Modulator
b. Acoustics-coupled modems are arbitrarily low d. none of the preceding b. Transmission lines
not useful when an operator is b. PSK is often used in c. Terminal
in attendance 9 preference to FSK because it 124. A smart modem can: d. Equalizer 9
c. Some modems can operate makes more efficient use of a. Detect transmission errors and
without being connected to a bandwidth correct them automatically 129. Multiplexing is:
computer, and transfer data to c. 8-PSK outperforms 8-QAM for b. Correctly answer multiple- a. The process of increasing
and from the computer off-line transmitting data efficiently 9 choice quizzes bandwidth on a channel
d. none of the preceding d. Nyquists Sampling Theorem c. Accept commands from the b. A technique that enables more
defines the parameters on terminal via the RS 232 than one data source to share
117. Which of the following is an which pulse code modulation interface 9 the use of a common line 9
example of space-division is based d. none of the preceding choices c. Mailing letter at the post office
multiplexing? d. The ability to share frequency
a. Receiving television shows on 121. Why establish the 4-KHz 125. RTS/CTS: by time
different channels channel as the basic building block of a. Is the way of the DTE indicates
b. The distribution in our multiplex systems? that it is ready to transmit data, 130. Demultiplexing by a time
automobile a. Because multiples of four make and the way the DCE indicates division multiplexer occurs based
c. Telephone wires on the designing the equipment easier that it is ready to accept data9 upon:
poles9 b. Because supergroups and b. Is the way the modem a. The position of data within a
d. all of the preceding mastergroups are easier to indicates ringing, and the way time 9
form based on an even the terminals indicates it is b. The position of frame within a
118. PDM maybe generated multiple9 ready for the call to be group of frames
a. by differentiating pulse-position answered c. The activity of a connected
modulation device
77 78
 d. The priority assigned to a 136. Which of the following is not a 142. In the XMODEM protocol, the a. in summer than in winter
connected device characteristic of packet-switched sender waits for what character from b. in nighttime than in daytime
networks? the receiver before beginning c. for high frequencies than for
131. The PCM sampling rate is a. Low cost to establish transmission? low frequencies
8000 samples per second because: b. Dynamic allocation of a. WACK d. in times of a very low sunspot
a. The represents the maximum Bandwidth b. ACK activity than in times of very
rate technology supports c. Packet-by-packet routing c. RVI high sunspot activity
b. This rate allows unique values decisions made by IMOs 9 d. NAK 9
c. This rate allows the faithful d. Sophisticated control software 148. For a two-wire line, Z0 is higher
reconstruction of an analog 143. Whether or not polarization of when:
signal 9 137. Local area networks draw an antenna is linear depends on: a. the D:d ratio is smaller
d. This rate is easily produced by heavily on the technology of: a. changes in direction in which b. the wire size is larger with
a sampling chip a. Circuit switching 9 the electric plane is radiated respect to the spacing of the
b. Message switching b. the direction of the electric- conductors
132. Message switching, as c. Telephone switching wave plane 9 c. the spacing is varied in
compared to circuit switching, does d. Packet switching c. the horizontal or vertical plane accordance with the frequency
not offer which of the following: of the electric wave d. the wire size is small with
a. Lower costs to users 138. Which of the following pieces d. the direction in which the respect to the spacing of the
b. Greater link efficiency of information would you not expect to magnetic wave is radiated conductors 9
c. Improved timeliness of find in a packet header?
message handling 9 a. Message segment 9 144. Direct waves of very high 149. In practice, the transmission
d. Precedence handling of b. Packet number frequency lines are almost connected to
messages c. Error-number a. are refracted less than direct antennas that have a:
d. Routing information waves of low frequency a. resistive load at the resonant
133. Typical LANs support busses b. lag behind earth-reflected frequency 9
of: 139. What is the major drawback to waves b. resistive load whose resistance
a. 500 feet local area networks at the present c. are affected by changes in is greater than the
b. 1000 feet 9 time? density 9 characteristics impedance of
c. 5000 feet a.Lack of standards 9 d. have a transmission range that the line
d. 10000 feet b.Not enough vendors can be extended greatly c. resistive load whose resistance
c.Cost of the interconnecting is less than characteristics
134. Which of the following is not a cable 145. The distance from the impedance of the line
dedicated or circuit-switched network? d. Software problems transmitting antenna to the point d. capacitive load
a. Point-to-point teletype circuit where direct waves strikes the earth
b. Torn-tape teletype 9 140. Which of the following is to a is called: 150. Typed transmission lines:
c. Multipoint data terminal system message switched system? a. radio horizon 9 a. should be used in applications
d. all of the preceding a. AUTODIN b. optical horizon in which the transmission line
b. ARPANET c. geometric horizon is more than a wavelength long
b. are usually connected to the
135. Based upon experienced c. SAGE 9 d. the line of sight
gained from ARPANET, which of the voltage feed point or to the
d. Telex
following application is suitable for 146. The D, E, and F layers are current feed point 9
packet switching? 141. If each character in an called: c. should be designed so that
a. Industrial process control XMODEM block has an ASCII value of a. Mark Space layers corresponding points on the
b. Military quick-response 50 what would be the value of the b. Davidson Miller layers conductors have opposing
command and control 9 check sum added to the block? c. Kennelly Heaviside layers 9 fields of unequal magnitude
c. Electronic mail a. 50 d. Maxwell layers d. can not be converted into
d. Remote terminal access to b. 23 untuned lines
mainframe programs c. 41 147. The critical frequency of the
151. The magnetic and electric
d. 25 9 vertically transmitted radio wave is
higher fields:

79 80
 a. reach their greatest points at
the same moment
b. occur 90 out of phase 9
c. occur 180 out of phase
d. occur 270 out of phase
152. The three components of the
magnetic fields are in phase:
a. in space with the components
of the electric field
b. in time 9
c. four times each cycle
d. two times each cycle
153. A transmission line with a
characteristics impedance of 450 is
terminated in a purely resistive load. It
is found by measurement that the
minimum value of voltage upon it is
7.5V, and the maximum is 9V.
What is the value of load resistance?
a. 200 or 450
b. 325 or 500
c. 375 or 540 9
d. 250 or 500
154. A (75 j50) ohm load is to be
matched to a 75-ohm line to give SWR
= 1. What is the characteristics
impedance of the quarter-wave
transformer, connected directly to the
load?
a. 90 ohms 9
b. 100 ohms
c. 110 ohms
d. 120 ohms
155. To couple a coaxial line to a
parallel-wire, it is best to use a:
a. directional coupler
b. quarter-wave transformer
c. balun 9
d. slotted line
156. The velocity factor of a
transformer line:
a. is higher for a solid dielectric
than for air
b. is governed by the skin effect
81
c. depends on the dielectric
constant of the materials
used9
d. increases the velocity along the
transmission line
157. For transmission-line load
matching over a range of frequencies,
it is best to use a:
a. broadband directional coupler
b. balun
c. single stub of adjustable
position
d. double stub 9
158. Skin effects refers to what?
a. The problems associated with
the insulators, or skin, of a
cable
b. The tendency of AC to flow
near the outer surface of a
conductor 9
c. The tingling feeling in your skin
when you are near high-
frequency transmitters
d. none of the preceding choices
159. Why is open-wire line still
found in many telephone system
application?
a. Because data signals travel
better on open-wire line
b. Because it is not economically
sensible to replace it 9
c. Because multiplexing systems
need the bandwidth provided
by openwire
d. all of the preceding
160. Which of the following
statements about flat unpaired cable is
not correct?
a. flat cable has a good adjacent
pair noise immunity 9
b. flat cable has poor immunity to
noise induced by sources
outside the cable
c. flat cable is widely used in data
applications
d. flat cable is effective in c. Vulnerable to the right galactic
crumpled locations where noise levels of space
round cable will not easily fit d. Require demand assignment
schemes to achieve best use
161. What is the relationship
between possible bandwidth and 166. You are told that certain
signal frequency? satellite uses transmissions in the 4/6
a. As bandwidth decreases, GHz band. What does that mean?
signal frequency decreases a. The satellite transmits to earth
b. As signal frequency increases, at 4 GHz, the earth station to
bandwidth increases 9 the satellite at 6 GHz
c. As signal frequency increases, b. The earth station transmits at 4
bandwidth decreases GHz, the satellite transmits to
d. They are not related earths at 6 GHz
c. The satellite transmits to earth
162. One of the following in the frequency band lying
transmission impairments is not a near 4 GHz, and the earth
problem with a microwave station transmits to the satellite
transmission. Which not? in the band lying near 6 GHz 9
a. Multipath fading d. none of the preceding
b. Ducted signals
c. Rain attenuation 9 167. Which of the following system
d. all of the preceding is least affect by variations in the
refractive index of the layers of the
163. What type of cable would you earths atmosphere?
choose if you wanted an inexpensive, a. Microwave line of sight
longdistance, medium-bandwidth systems
transmission link where several b. High frequency radio
circuits ran in parallel? c. Satellite systems 9
a. Open wire d. UHF radio systems
b. Quaded-exchange cable
c. Quadded-toll cable 9 168. What is the capacitance of 55
miles No. 4 copper wire spaced 18
d. Coaxial cable
inches? From wire tables, we find that
164. One of the following is not an No. 4 copper has radius of 0.10215 in.
advantage of coaxial cable for data a. 0.476 F 9
communications, which is it? b. 0.086 F
a. Wide bandwidth c. 0.86 F
b. Flexibility of the system layout d. 0.476 F
c. Noise immunity
d. Right-of-way costs 9 169. When the transmission line is
matched to the load, it:
165. Which of the following is not a a. transfers maximum current to
characteristic of satellite transmission the load
systems? b. transfers maximum voltage to
a. Long signal delays from sender the load
to receiver 9 c. transfers maximum power to
b. Affected by weather in the the load 9
earths surface d. reduces the load current
82
170. If measurements are taken a. To increase the electrostatic a. circular 185. ______ is the microphone
along transmission line with an capacitance b. rigid 9 characteristics that results in a boost
oscilloscope when there are no b. To keep it dry 9 c. rectangular in bass frequencies for close
standing waves, the pattern would c. To prevent it from collapsing d. flexible microphone spacing
appear as: d. To lower the voltage a. Field effect
a. surge impedance times current 181. The main difference between b. P.A. effect
b. high voltage peak 176. Waveguide is the operation of transmission lines and c. Proximity effect 9
c. impedance squared a. a device used to determine the waveguides is that: d. Reverberation
d. a sinusoidal waveshape 9 wavelength of a signal a. Waveguides are not
b. a braided copper wire used for distributed, like transmission 186. The audio frequency range is:
171. A characteristics of an infinite transmission of high lines a. 20 kHz to 20 MHz
transmission line is that: frequencies b. Transmission lines can use b. 3 Hz to 20 kHz
a. the impedance in equals the c. a plastic tubular transmission stubs and quarter wave c. 300 Hz to 3 kHz
impedance out 9 line for high RF network transformer, unlike the d. 0 Hz to 4 kHz
b. it carries waves at the velocity d. a hollow metal tube used for waveguide e. 20 Hz to 20 kHz 9
of light transmission of high c. Transmission lines use the
c. it can be connected to frequencies 9 principal mode of propagation, 187. The bass frequency range is
mismatched loads and therefore do not suffer a. 20 Hz to 40 Hz
d. the impedance varies with the 177. How can you couple into and from low-frequency cut-off 9 b. 1 Hz to 20 Hz
length of the line out of a waveguide? d. Terms such as impedance c. 40 Hz to 160 Hz 9
a. Wrap a coil of wire around one matching and standing-wave d. 10 Hz to 20 Hz
172. A quarter-wave transmission end of the waveguide ratio cannot be applied to
line shorted at the end: b. Use a piece of wire for coupling waveguide 188. The high frequency range of
a. has a minimum current at the in and out 9 audio signals is
shorted end c. Use a resonant tank feeding 182. What is the optimum length of a. 2, 500 Hz to 5, 000 Hz
b. has the characteristics of a slot in waveguide a Marconi antenna for the b. 5, 000 Hz to 10 kHz 9
parallel-tuned circuit 9 d. Force electrons through the transmission of a 300 MHz signal? c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz
c. has the characteristics of a wall of the waveguide The antenna velocity factor is 0.85. d. 20, 000 Hz to 30 kHz
series-tuned circuit a. 0.21 m 9
d. reflects a low impedance to the 178. What is the noise level at the b. 0.22 m 189. The SPL in dB of a voice
supply output of the amplifier shown, if the c. 0.23 m paging in an office is
noise power is given by 10-5 W? d. 0.24 m a. 90
173. The outer conductor of a a. 80 dBrn b. 65 9
coaxial transmission line is usually b. 90 dBrn 9 183. An ____ is defined as a volume c. 55 60
grounded at the: c. 100 dBrn control for specific frequency ranges. d. 80 85
a. input and output 9 d. none of the preceding a. volume control
b. output only b. AGC 190. The SPL in db of an auditorium
c. input only 179. For some application, circular c. Equalizer 9 with contemporary music is
d. point of higher SWR waveguides maybe preferred to d. tone controls a. 80
rectangular ones because of: b. 85 90
174. A certain feed line has a high a. lower attenuation 9 184. ______ are usually of the two c. 95 100 9
SWR. It can be caused by: b. rotation of polarization knots type (one for bass and one for d. 100 105
a. an impedance mismatch 9 c. the smaller cross-section treble).
b. use of non-resonant needed at any frequency a. volume control 191. The church in SPL in dB with
c. matching the load to the line d. freedom from spurious modes b. tone controls 9 speech reinforcement only is
d. excessive transmitter output c. AGC a. 90
180. In order to reduce cross- d. tuning knob b. 80 85 9
175. Why is nitrogen used in coaxial sectional dimensions, the waveguide c. 85 90
cables or waveguides? to use is: d. 90 95

83 84
192. Intensity can also be called as d. 300 ft to 3, 000 ft 204. A class of signal processors a. expense and fidelity
a. volume are known as b. complexity and ruggedness
b. loudness 9 198. If the sound waves are a. amplifiers c. longevity
c. sharpness converted to electrical waves by a b. equalizers d. all of the preceding 9
d. bass and treble microphone. What is the frequency of c. microprocessors
the electric current? d. exciters 9 211. At 20C sound travels at 1130
193. The loudness of a sound a. 3 to 30 MHz ft./sec. for two loudspeakers
depends upon the energy of motion b. 25 to 8, 000 Hz 9 205. Hall construction and internal separated by 1 ft, calculate the notch
imparted to the ____ molecules of the c. 4 to 40 Hz finishes affect the final sound quality frequencies which will cause signal
medium transmitting the sound. d. 30 to 3, 000 Hz a. poorly misalignments?
a. loudness b. mildly a. 130 Hz, 230 Hz
b. volume 199. For a music lover concert A is c. significantly 9 b. 130 to 390 Hz
c. moving 440 Hz. If a musical note one octave d. badly c. 1130, 2260, 3390 Hz 9
d. vibrating 9 higher were played, it would be ____ d. 130, 230, 460, 920 Hz
that frequency. 206. Positioning a loudspeaker near
194. _____ is affected by the a. one-half a wall can dramatically alter its 212. At room temperature, calculate
distance between the listener and the b. one-fourth frequency response in two distinct the velocity of sound in meters/sec?
source of the sound and its intensity c. double 9 ways namely a. 348.3 m/s
varies inversely with the square of this d. triple a. gump and dump b. 132 m/s
distance b. hump and notch 9 c. 980 m/s
a. volume 200. In a 220 Hz, if a note were c. fade and gone d. 348.03 m/s 9
b. bass played one octave below it would be d. bad and worst
c. treble _____. 213. Calculate the velocity of sound
d. loudness 9 a. 22 Hz 207. The acoustics of most auditoria in ft./sec. if the temperature is 300F?
b. 27.5 Hz are very ____ when the room is full a. 132 ft/sec
195. If the distance between the c. 440 Hz compared to the empty condition b. 1320 ft/sec
listener and the source of the sound is d. 110 Hz 9 a. different 9 c. 1350.303 ft/sec 9
doubled, the intensity is reduced to b. similar d. 1920.435 ft/sec
a. 1/2 201. Much of music is generally c. good
b. 1/3 referred to in d. bad 214. Atmospheric noise becomes
c. 2/3 a. harmonics less severe at frequencies
d. 9 b. good hearing 208. A ____ converts acoustical a. Above 30 MHz 9
c. fidelity energy to electrical energy b. Below 30 MHz
196. If the distance between the d. octaves 9 a. electro-acoustic c. Above 3000 KHz
listener and the source of the sound is b. microphone transducer 9 d. Below 3000 KHz
decreased to 1/2 the original amount, 202. ______ is a undesired change c. microphone
the intensity of the sound would be in wave form as the signal passes d. electric microphone 215. Indicate the noise whose
___. through a device. source is in category different from
a. 2 times as great a. noise 209. All microphone have two basic that of the other three?
b. 3 times as great b. vibration component namely, _____. a. Solar noise
c. 4 times as great 9 c. distortion 9 a. wired and body b. Cosmic noise
d. 5 times as great d. harmonics b. ceramic and crystal c. Atmospheric noise 9
c. diaphragm and generating d. Galantic noise
197. The frequency range of a piano 203. Distortion enhances element 9
is from 25 to 8, 000 Hz. What is the intelligibility when an ____ is added. d. coil and magnet 216. Indicate the false statement
range of wavelengths in feet? a. equalizer a. Industrial Noise is usually of
a. 45.2 ft to 0.14125 ft 9 b. igniter 210. The kinds of generating the impulse type
b. 142.3 ft to 163.8 ft c. exciter 9 elements are ____.
c. 0.14125 ft to 45.2 ft d. emulsifier

85 86
 b. Static is called by lightning 221. Indicate the false statement: a. Transponder 9 233. Designed to receive a signal
discharges in thunderstorms a. HF mixers are generally noisier b. Comparador from a transmitting station on the
and other natural electric then HF Amplifiers c. Duplexer ground retransmit it to a receiving
disturbances occurring in the b. Impulse noise voltage is d. Billboard station located elsewhere
atmosphere dependent of bandwidth9 a. communication satellite 9
c. Distant stars have another c. Thermal noise is independent 227. The first satellite to receive and b. repeater
source of man-made noise 9 of the frequency at which is transmit simultaneously c. relay station
d. Fluorescent lights are another measured a. Telstar I 9 d. transpondent
source of man-noise d. Industrial noise is usually of the b. Telstar II
impulse type c. Score 234. The signal path from satellite to
217. Which of the following is not a d. Echo earth-based receiver
source of industrial noise? 222. The total space loss of a. downlink signal 9
a. Automobile ignition transmission and reception for two 228. The first active earth satellite b. uplink signal
b. Sun 9 ground stations with uplink frequency a. Sputnik I 9 c. incident signal
c. Electric motors of 8 GHz and a downlink of 6 GHz b. Explorer I d. reflected signal
d. Leakage from high voltage line with angle of elevation of 3 A and 7 A c. Echo
respectively is: d. Molnia 235. A satellite position is measured
218. One of the following types of a. 403 dB 9 by its ______ angle with respect to the
noise becomes of great importance at b. 100 dB 229. Satellite that orbit in a circular horizon
high, frequencies is the c. 20 dB pattern with an angular velocity equal a. elevation 9
a. Shot noise d. 215 dB to that of the earth b. depression
b. Random noise a. Geostationary 9 c. azimuth
c. Impulse noise 223. The maximum propagation b. Early Bird I d. critical
d. Transit-time noise 9 delay of a geostationary satellite is: c. Syncom I
a. 278 ms 9 d. Stationary Satellite 236. The _____ angle measured the
219. Indicate the false statement b. 239 ms satellite position clockwise from the
a. The noise generated in a c. 300 ms 230. Satellite that provide services direction of true north.
resistance or the resistive d. 250 ms within a single country a. azimuth 9
component of any impedance a. Domsat 9 b. elevation
is random 224. The total propagation delay b. Comsat c. depression
b. Random noise power is time from transmission to reception of c. ARABSAT d. critical
proportional to the bandwidth signals from a ground transmitter to d. EUTELSAT
over which it is measured ground receiver with angle of elevation 237. The earths are that the
c. A random voltage across the at 10 degrees respectively is: 231. The round-trip propagation satellite can receive from or transmit
resistor does not exist 9 a. 273 ms 9 delay between two earth stations to
d. All formula referring to the b. 239 ms through a geosynchronous satellite is a. footprint 9
random noise are applicable c. 275 ms a. 500 to 600 ms 9 b. primary area
only to the value of such noise d. 260 ms b. 300 to 400 ms c. secondary area
c. 600 to 700 ms d. coverage area
220. The value of the resistor 225. A satellite which simplify d. 400 to 500 ms
creating thermal noise is doubled. reflects the signal without further 238. Incidentally propose the
The noise power generated is amplifications: 232. The signal path from geostationary scheme or orbit of the
therefore. a. passive satellite 9 transmitter to satellite satellite in 1940s
a. Halved b. active satellite a. uplink signal 9 a. Clarke 9
b. Quadrupled c. geostationary satellite b. Carl Friedrich Gauss
b. reflected signal
c. Doubled d. domestic satellite c. Morse
c. incident signal
d. Unchanged 9 d. downlink signal d. Stephen Gray
226. Essentially a satellite is a radio
repeater in the sky:

87 88
239. When the satellite are spaced c. 200 to 400 ms c. 145 dB 257. Plancks constant is equivalent
4 of the 360 complete circle, how d. 300 to 400 ms d. 166 dB to
many parking space are available? a. 6.625 x 10-34 J s 9
a. 90 9 246. The fist satellite launched for a 251. The elevation angle and b. 6.526 x 10-34 J s
geosynchronous orbit but azimuth angle of a satellite are called -34
b. 85 c. 6.255 x 10 J s
c. 80 unfortunately lost during orbit injection a. look angles 9 d. 5.256 x 10-34 J s
d. 80 a. Syncom I 9 b. tracking angles
b. Telstar I c. horizontal angles 258. Gallium-arsenide has a
340. The control routine necessary c. Sputnik I d. vertical angle refractive index of
to keep the satellite in position is d. Early Bird I a. 3.6 9
referred to as 252. A satellite service between b. 3.4
a. station keeping 9 247. When the elevation angle of a earth stations located at fixed c. 3.3
b. station tracking geostationary satellite is 23 and the geographical points on earth is called d. 3.5
c. station monitoring transmitting frequency is 3840 MHz, a. fixed-point 9
d. station maintaining what is the free space loss in dB? b. mobile 259. The minimum angle of
a. 196 dB 9 c. broadcast incidence at which a light ray may
241. Refers to the satellite b. 200 dB d. intersatellite strike the interface of two media is
orientation with respect to the earth c. 150 dB called
a. satellite altitude 9 d. 100 dB 253. Satellite-to-satellite cross link- a. critical angle 9
b. satellite position link is also called b. angle of incidence
c. satellite location 248. What is the propagation delay a. intersatellite links (ISLs) 9 c. angle of refraction
d. satellite maintaining when a signal is transmitted by an b. mobile link d. angle of reflection
earth station to a geosynchronous c. broadcast link
242. The farthest distance from satellite about 38, 500 km above d. fixed point link 260. A ____ has a central core with
earth, a satellite orbit reaches is called earths equator and then received by a uniform refractive index
a. apogee 9 the same earth station? 254. The most common carrier a. step index 9
b. perigee a. 256 msec 9 frequencies used for satellite b. graded index fiber
c. line of apsides b. 128 msec communications are c. single mode fiber
d. altitude c. 300 msec a. 6/4 and 14/12 GHz bands 9 d. multi mode fiber
d. 400 msec b. 8/6 and 16/14 GHz bands
243. The minimum distance from c. 20/18 and 28/26 GHz bands 261. In a ____ there is no cladding
earth a satellite orbit reaches is called 249. What is the free space d. 12/10 and 18/16 GHz bands and refractive index of the core is
a. perigee 9 attenuation of a satellite nonuniform
b. apogee communication system operating at 255. One (1) angstrom (A) is often a. graded-index fiber 9
c. line of apsides 36, 000 km above the earth at 5.0 used to express wavelength which is b. step-index fiber
d. altitude GHz? equivalent to c. single-mode fiber
a. 198 dB 9 a. 10 meter 9
-10
d. multi-mode fiber
-12
244. The first Intelsat satellite that b. 200 dB b. 10 meter
was launched in 1965 was named c. 180 dB c. 0.001 micron 262. A figure of merit that is used to
a. Early Bird I 9 d. 190 dB d. 10-4 meter measure the light-gathering or light
b. Echo collecting ability of an optical fiber
c. Telstar I 250. The distance between the two 256. When making the transition a. Numerical Aperture 9
d. Courier antennas of a geostationary satellite from one energy level to another, the b. Critical Aperture
system is 22, 300 miles and is atom absorbs a packet of energy c. Acceptance Cone
245. The round-trip propagation operating at a downlink frequency of called d. none of these
delay between two earth stations 12.2 GHz, what is the free space loss a. photon 9
through a geosynchronous satellite is in dB? b. proton 263. Developed the first optical
a. 500 to 600 ms 9 a. 205 dB 9 c. electron maser
b. 400 to 500 ms b. 130 dB d. atom

89 90
 a. Theodore H. Maiman 9 270. Band of light wavelengths that 275. The noise output of a resistor is c. An unwanted form of energy
b. A. Javin are too short to be seen by the human amplified by a noiseless amplifier tending to interfere with the
c. Charles H. Townes eye having a gain of 60 and a bandwidth proper and easy reception and
d. H. H. Hopkins a. Ultraviolet 9 of 20 KHz. A meter connected to the reproduction of wanted
b. Infrared output of the amplifier reads 1 mV signals9
264. Developed the helium laser. c. Visible RMS. IF the bandwidth of the d. S/N of an ideal system divided
a. A. Javin 9 d. White amplifier is reduced to 5 KHz, its gain by S/N at the output of the
b. Theodore H. Maiman remaining constant, what does the receiver or amplifier under test,
c. Charles H. Townes 271. Band of light wavelengths that meter read now? both working at the same
d. H. H. Hopkins the human eye will respond to. a. 0.5 mV 9 temperature over the same
a. Visible 9 b. 0.5 V bandwidth and fed from the
265. A type of laser that uses a b. Infrared c. 5.0 mV same source.
mixture of helium and neon enclosed c. Ultraviolet d. 5.0 V
in a glass tube d. Blue 279. Calculate the noise figure of
a. Gas laser 9 276. The front-end of a television the amplifier whose RF has an input
b. Solid laser 272. What is the frequency of receiver, having a bandwidth of 7 resistance of 1000 and an
c. Liquid laser operation of a dipole cut to length of 5 MHz, and operating at a temperature equivalent shot-noise resistance of
d. Semiconductor laser m? of 27C, consists of an amplifier 2000 , a gain of 25 and a load
a. 30 MHz 9 having a gain of 15, followed by a resistance of 125 k. Given that the
266. The branch of electronics that b. 3 MHz mixer whose gain is 20. The amplifier bandwidth is 1.0 MHz and the
deals with light. c. 300 MHz has a 300 input resistor and a shot temperature is 20C, and that the
a. Optoelectronics 9 d. 0.3 MHz noise equivalent resistance of 500 ; receiver is connected to an antenna
b. Microelectronics for the mixer, these values are 2.2 k with an impedance of 75.
c. Optical science 273. An amplifier operating over the and 13.5 k, respectively, and the a. 30.3 9
d. none of these frequency range of 455 to 460 KHz load resistance of the mixer is 470 k. b. 3.03
has a 200 K input resistor. What is Calculate the equivalent noise c. 303
267. A scientist who coined the term the RMS noise voltage at the input to resistance for this television receiver d. 0.303
fiber optics in 1956 this amplifier if the ambient a. 8, 760
a. N. S. Kapany 9 temperature is 17C? b. 876 9 280. A receiver connected to an
b. A. C. S. Van Heel a. 40 V c. 8.76 antenna whose resistance is 50 has
c. C. W. Hansell b. 4.0 V 9 d. 0.876 an equivalent noise resistance of 30
d. H. H. Hopkins c. 400 V . Calculate its equivalent noise
d. 4.0 mV 277. One of the following is not a temperature if the noise figure is equal
268. Light frequencies used in fiber useful quantity for comparing the to 1.6.
optic systems are between 274. The first stage of a two-stage noise performance of receivers. a. 17.4 K
a. 1014 & 1015 Hz 9 amplifier has a voltage gain of 10, a a. input noise voltage 9 b. 174 K 9
b. 1012 & 1014 Hz 600 input resistor, a 1600 b. Equivalent noise resistance c. 1.74 K
15 16
c. 10 & 10 Hz equivalent noise resistance and a 27 c. Noise temperature d. 17 K
d. 1016 & 1017 Hz K output resistor. For the second d. Noise figure
stage, these values are 25, 81 K, 281. What is the frequency
269. Band of light wavelengths that and 1 M, respectively. Calculate the 278. Indicate the false statement. tolerance of a standard broadcast
are too long to be seen by the human equivalent input-noise resistance of Noise figure is defined as: station?
eye this two-stage amplifier. a. the ratio of the s/n power a. 20.5 Hz
a. Infrared 9 a. 2, 518 k supplied to the input terminals b. 20 Hz 9
b. Visible b. 2, 518 k 9 of a receiver or amplifier to the c. 19.8 Hz
c. Ultraviolet c. 251.8 k S/N power supplied to the d. 33 Hz
d. Amber d. 12.518 k output or load resistor
b. Noise factor expressed in
decibels

91 92
282. What type of antenna site is 288. If a TV transmission is 293. What is the other term for video a. 5.24 ft
technically best for an AM broadcast assigned to the 82 88 MHz channel, encryption? b. 5.5 ft
station? what is the color subcarrier a. scrambling 9 c. 6 ft 9
a. dry land frequency? b. signature d. 7.5 ft
b. highly elevated a. 83.25 c. encoding
c. marshly land 9 b. 86.83 MHz 9 d. distortion 300. A device that converts high
d. average terrain c. 87.75 frequency current into electromagnetic
d. 83.35 294. It is a standard feature on wave is a/an
283. A pre-amplifier with a -30 dBm CATV amplifiers that controls the gain a. antenna 9
output is connected through a mixer 289. What is the frequency with respect to the frequency b. loudspeaker
with 20 dB loss of a line amplifier. tolerance for TV transmission? a. gain control c. microphone
What must be the voltage gain of the a. 2 kHz b. equalizer d. transistor
line amplifier to feed a +6 dBm to a b. 2.2 kHz c slope control 9
600 line? c. 1 kHz 9 d. attenuator 301. The amount of voltage induced
a. 60 dB 9 d. 1.1 kHz in a wire by an electromagnetic wave
b. 72 dB 295. A must test equipment for is determined by the waves
c. 66 dB 290. If the aural transmitter of a TV CATV: a. field strength 9
d. 81 dB station is modulation 80% by a 5 kHz a. multitester b. direction of travel
sine wave, what is the frequency b. field level meter 9 c. velocity
284. In FM, what produces the swing of the aural carrier? c. oscilloscope d. frequency
sidebands? a. 20 kHz 9 d. swr meter
a. Baseband freq. 9 b. 25 kHz 302. An antenna supported by
b. Signal amplitude c. 10 kHz 296. The starting point for a cable insulators appears electrically longer
c. Carrier harmonics d. 12.5 kHz distribution system than its physical length due to
d. Oscillator a. launch amplifier a. end effect 9
291. Spell out the following b. receiving system antenna b. reflection
285. Do the harmonics of an FM abbreviation: FCC, ENG and CCTV c. TVRO system c. the ionosphere
transmission contain modulation? a. Federal Communications d. head end 9 d. the troposphere
a. no Commission Electronic news
b. is not possible gathering Closed-circuit tv 9 297. The signal coverage area of a 303. In a half-wave dipole maximum
c. yes 9 b. Federal communications satellite radiation occurs
d. is possible commission Electronic network a. Region a. broadside of the antenna 9
guide closed caption tv b. INTELSAT b. off the ends
286. If a PM transmitter has a tripler c. Federal commission on c. Domestic c. at 45 angle to the direction of
and two doublers with an output of communications Electronic d. Footprint 9 dipole
154.32 MHz, what is the crystal network guide Closed-circuit d. when the end effects are
frequency? television 298. What is the IF range of a reduce to zero
a. 4.6 d. none of the preceding satellite TV receiver?
b. 10.2 a. 950 to 1450 MHz 9 304. An electromagnetic wave
c. 4.2864 9 292. A 20 dBmV signal level is b. 3.7 to 4.2 GHz consists of
d. 9.8763 attenuated in an 18 dB line run, and c. 13.7 to 14.2 GHz a. both electric and magnetic
then amplified by 22 dB. What is the d. 40 to 42 MHz fields 9
287. What type of modulation does final signal level in volts? b. an electric field only
the video and audio transmitter at a a. 13.66 mV 299. A feedhorn having an f/d ratio c. a magnetic field only
TV broadcast station employ? b. 9.876 mV of 0.375 is to be installed on a 16 foot d. non-magnetic field only
a. AM / FM 9 c. 15.849 mV 9 parabolic dish. Compute for the
b. FM / FM d. 16.445 mV required spacing of the feedhorn from 305. Antenna polarization is
c. FM / AM the vertex of the parabolic antenna determined by
d. AM / AM

93 94
 a. the direction of the electric field 311. A yagi antenna is an example 317. A device whose function is to 322. An interesting variation on the
vector 9 of a/an radiate electromagnetic energy and/or dipole antenna is called
b. the frequency of the radiated a. parasitic array 9 intercept electromagnetic radiation a. turnstile antenna 9
wave b. driven-array a. antenna 9 b. folded dipole
c. the direction of the radiated c. log-periodic array b. transmitter c. rhombic antenna
wave d. omnidirectional array c, transmission line d. Yagi-Uda antenna
d. the direction of the magnitude d. transceiver
field vector 312. The collinear antenna is an 323. An antenna which is used very
example of a/an 318. A polar diagram which frequently but almost entirely as a
306. What is the impedance of a a. driven-array 9 indicates how well an antenna reception antenna and is usually found
half-wave dipole? b. parasitic array transmits or receives in different on the back of ac-dc table radios
a. 73 9 c. log-periodic array directions a. loop antenna 9
b. 36 d. omnidirectional array a. radiation pattern and field b. turnstile antenna
c. 100 pattern 9 c. folded antenna
d. 300 313. In a Yagi antenna b. radiation only d. rhombic antenna
a. The director is shorter than the c. field pattern only
307. The length of a half-wave driven element 9 d. transmitter 324. A comparison of the output, in
dipole for 28 MHz is approximately b. The elements are spaced at a particular direction of the antenna in
a. 17 ft 9 least one wavelength apart 319. Defined as a fictitious question and a reference antenna
b. 23 ft c. The reflectors are shorter than resistance which would dissipate as a. antenna gain 9
c. 30 ft the driven element much power as the antenna in b. antenna efficiency
d. 34 ft d. There are usually more question is radiating if it were c. directivity
reflectors than the direction connected to the same transmission d. antenna power
308. The quarter-wave vertical line.
antenna requires an excellent ground 314. The angular separation a. radiation resistance 9 325. The ratio expressed in dB of
system to fully utilize the between the two half-power points on b. antenna resistance the output in most optimum direction
a. mirror image principle 9 the power density radiation pattern c. ohmic resistance to the output 180 away from the
b. ground current principle a. beamwidth 9 d. ground resistance optimum direction
c. troposcatter effect b. bandwidth a. front-to-back ratio 9
d. end effect c. polarization 320. A resistance that represents b. antenna gain
d. spectrum the actual image losses caused by the c. directivity
309. A vertical quarter-wave conversion of electrical energy to heat d. antenna power
antenna has 315. Is said to exist below the as a result of the resistivity of the
a. an omnidirectional radiation ground and is a true mirror image of various conducting elements of the 326. The elementary doublet is a
the actual antenna antenna
pattern 9 theoretical antenna which is used as a
a. image antenna 9 a. ohmic resistance 9 standard to which all the other
b. an input impedance of 300
b. dipole antenna b. antenna resistance antenna characteristics can be
c. an unidirectional radiation
c. Marconi antenna c. radiation resistance compared and is sometimes called as
pattern
d. a bidirectional radiation pattern d. Hertz antenna d. ground resistance a. Hertzian dipole 9
b. Marconi antenna
316. Known as a grounded labda/4 321. An antenna which has highly c. Yagi antenna
310. If the transmitter output is 700
antenna directional properties, essentially d. loop antenna
watts, transmission line loss is 100
watts and the antenna gain is 10, what a. Marconi antenna 9 radiating a beam of electromagnetic
b. Hertz antenna radiation 327. Defined as the ratio of the
is the effective radiated power?
a. beam antenna 9 power density in a particular direction
a. 6 kW 9 c. Image antenna
d. dipole antenna b. half-wave dipole of one antenna to the power density
b. 610 kW
c. Hertz antenna that would be radiated by an isotropic
c. 811 kW
d. Marconi antenna antenna
d. 7 kW

95 96
 a. directivity gain 9 a. 50 9
b. antenna gain b. 5
c. efficiency c. 5 K
d. power gain d. 500

328. The gain of a Hertzian dipole 334. How much current flows into
with respect to an isotropic antenna is the antenna having a radiation
a. 1.76 dB 9 resistance of 300 radiating 5 kW?
b. 2.15 dB a. 4.08 A 9
c. 4.15 dB b. 5.08 A
d. 5.15 dB c. 3.08 A
d. 2.08 A
329. The gain of a half-wave dipole
compared to the isotropic antenna is 335. What is the Q of an antenna
a. 2.15 dB 9 with a bandwidth of 6 MHz and a
b. 3.15 dB frequency of 300 MHz
c. 4.15 dB a. 50 9
d. 5.15 dB b. 0.5
c. 5
330. The angle created by d. 500
comparing the half-power points (3dB)
on the main radiation lobe to its 336. What is the length of a practical
maximum power point dipole used to receive a 6 MHz radio
a. beamwidth 9 signals?
b. bandwidth a. 23.75 m 9
c. polarization b. 26.75 m
d. beamwidth between nulls c. 25.75 m
d. 24.75 m
331. A network composed of
reactances and transformers used to 337. Calculate the noise figure of
provide matching the amplifier whose REQ equals 2518
a. antenna coupler or coupling (RT = 600) if its driven by a
network 9 generator whose output impedance is
b. antenna coupler and coupling 50.
network a. 39.4 9
c. Thevenins network
b. 3.94
d. Nortons network
c. 394
d. 0.394
332. How much power will an
antenna having a radiation resistance
of 50 radiate when it is fed 10 A?
a. 5 kW 9
b. 500 kW
c. 0.5 kW
d. 5 kW

333. What is the radiation resistance

of an antenna which radiates 20 KW
when it draws 20 A?

97