Fundamental Theorem of Algebra: The Proof

In today's blog, I complete the proof for the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra.
In my next blog, I will use this result to factor Fermat's Last Theorem into
cyclotomic integers.

Today's proof is taken from David Antin's translation of Heinrich Dorrie's 100
Great Problems of Elementary Mathematics.

Lemma 1: if an algebraic equation f(x) has a root , then f(x) can be

divided by x- without a remainder and the degree of the result
f'(x) is less than the degree of f(x).

Proof:

(1) Let f(x) = xn + a1xn-1 + ... + an-1x + an

(2) Let be a root such that f() = 0

(3) Now, if we divide the polynomial by (x-), we get the following (see here if
proof needed):

f(x)/(x - ) = f1(x) + R/(x-)

where R is a constant and f1(x) is a polynomial with order n-1.

(4) Multiplying both sides with x- gives us:

f(x) = (x - )f1(x) + R

(5) Now, if we substitute for x we get:

f() = 0 which means that the constant in the equation is 0 so R = 0.

QED

Theorem: Fundamental Theorem of Algebra

For any polynomial equation of order n, there exist n roots ri such that:

xn + a1xn-1 + ... + an-1x + an = (x - r1)(x - r2)*...*(x - rn)

Proof:

(1) Let f(x) = xn + a1xn-1 + ... + an-1x + an

(2) We know that f(x) has at least one solution 1. [See here for proof]

(3) Using Lemma 1 above, we know that:

f(x)/(x - 1) = f'(x) where deg f'(x) = n-1.

So that we have:

f(x) = (x - 1)f'(x)

(4) But we know f'(x) has at least one solution (from here) so we can repeat
steps #2 and #3 to get:

f'(x)/(x - 2) = f''(x) where deg f''(x) = n-2.

which combined with step #3 gives us:

f(x) = (x - 1)(x - 2)f''(x)

(5) Eventually we get to the point where the degree of fn(x) = 1.

In this case, fn(x) = x - n.

(6) This establishes that there are n roots for a given equation f(x) where the
degree is n.

(7) Putting this all together gives us:

f(x) = (x - 1)(x - 2)*...*(x - n)

(8) Now, since f(x)=0 only when one of the values i=x, we see that the n
roots i are the only solutions.

(9) So, we have proven that each equation is equal to n roots.

One important point to remember is that the n roots are not necessarily
distinct. That is, it is possible that i = j where i j.

QED

Saturday, May 20, 2006

Division Algorithm for Polynomials
In today's blog, I will go over a result that I use in the proof for the
Fundamental Theorem of Algebra.

Today's proof is taken from Joseph A. Gallian's Contemporary Abstract

Algebra.

Theorem: Division Algorithm for Polynomials

Let F be a field, f(x), g(x) F[x] with g(x) 0.

Then there exists unique polynomials q(x), r(x) in F[x] such that f(x) =
g(x)q(x) + r(x) and r(x)=0 or deg r(x) is less than deg g(x).

Proof:

(1) Let f(x) = g(x)q(x) + r(x) with g(x) 0

(2) If f(x) = 0 or deg f(x) is less than g(x), then q(x)=0, r(x)=f(x)
(3) So, we can assume that f(x) 0 and deg f(x) deg g(x)

(4) Let f(x) = anxn + ... + a0

(5) Let g(x) = bmxm + ... + b0

(6) Let f1(x) = f(x) - anbm-1xn-mg(x)

(7) We note that deg f1(x) is less than deg f(x) since:

f(x) - anbm-1xn-mg(x) =

= anxn + ... + a0 - anbm-1xn-m(bmxm + ... + b0) =

= ann - anxn + an-1xn-1 + ... + a0 - anbm-1bm-1xn-1 - ... - anbm-1b0xn-m =

= an-1xn-1 + ... + a0 - anbm-1bm-1xn-1 - ... - anbm-1b0xn-m

So that f1(x) has a degree of n-1 while f(x) has a degree of n.

(8) Now, we are ready to prove this theorem by induction.

(9) The assumption is true for deg f(x) = 0

deg f(x) is 0 f(x)=C where C is a constant.

If deg g(x) is 0, then g(x) = D where D is a nonzero constant and q(x) =

C/D and r(x)=0.

If deg g(x) is greater than 0, then q(x)=0 and r(x)=C.

(10) We can now assume that the assumption holds for all polynomials up to
degree n-1.

(9) We see that:

f(x) = anbm-1xn-mg(x) + f1(x)

where the degree of f1(x) is n-1 [See step #7]

(10) But by the induction hypothesis (step #10), we can assume that there
exists q1(x) and r1(x) where r1(x) has a degree lower than g(x).

(11) Therefore, we have:

anbm-1xn-mg(x) + f1(x) = anbm-1xn-mg(x) + q1(x)g(x) + r1(x) =

= [anbm-1xn-m + q1(x)]g(x) + r1(x)

(12) Which proves that degree r(x) is less than degree g(x) by principle of
induction.

(13) Now, we still need to prove uniqueness of q(x),r(x)

(14) Suppose that:

f(x) = g(x)q(x) + r(x) = g(x)q'(x) + r'(x) where r(x),r'(x)=0 or deg

r(x),r'(x) is less than deg g(x)

(15) Now, if we substract both equations, we get:

0 = g(x)[q(x) - q'(x)] + [r(x) - r'(x)]

which is the same as:

r'(x) - r(x) = g(x)[q(x) - q'(x)]

(16) Now since r'(x) and r(x) have degree less than g(x), the only way that
this can be true is if r'(x) - r(x) = 0

(17) But then r'(x) = r(x) and q(x) = q'(x)

QED

Fundamental Theorem of Algebra: At least one

solution
In today's blog, I continue the proof for the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra.
Today, I will show the proof that all polynomials in the complex domain have
at least one root that leads to 0.

Today's proof is taken from David Antin's translation of Heinrich Dorrie's 100
Great Problems of Elementary Mathematics.

Lemma 1: If f(x) = xn + a1xn-1 + ... + an-1x + an where ai and x are

complex numbers, then there exists at least one solution r such
that f(r)=0.

Proof:

(1) Let f(x) = xn + a1xn-1 + ... + an-1x + an

(2) Assume that for all x, f(x) 0

(3) We know that there exists a value x0 such that w0=f(x0) and w0 is the
smallest absolute number. [See Lemma 2 here for proof]

(4) From step #2, we can assume that absolute(w0) is greater than 0.

(5) We can plot the minimal point, w0, on the plane of complex numbers (see
here for more details if needed)

(6) From this point, we can define a small circle K with radius R.

(7) Now, for any point x in K, x = x0 +

In other words, complex numbers form a one-to-one mapping between the
possible values for f(x) and the Cartesian coordinate system. If we use the
form r(cos + i sin ), then we see that r is the radius of K [See here if more
information needed]

(8) Using the plane of complex numbers, we know that there exists , such
that = (cos + isin ) (see here for review of how cos + isin can be
used in this situation)

(9) In the above case, = the absolute magnitude of

(10) So, for any value x, there exists a value w and a value such that:

w = f(x) = f(x0 + ) = (x0 + )n + a1(x0 + )n-1 + ... + an

(11) From the equation in #10, we can rearrange the values to get the
following:

w = f(x0) + c1 + c22 + ... + cnn = w0 + c1 + c22 + ... + cnn

(12) Now, it is quite possible that some of the ci values are 0 so we can
rearrange the values so the first nonzero coefficient is c and the power is v, the
next is c' and the power is v', and so on where each c,v are nonzero and v is
less than v' is less than v'', etc.:

w = w0 + cv + c'v' + c''v'' + ...

(13) Since we assume that w0 is nonzero, we can divide both sides by w0 to

get:

w/w0 = 1 + (cv)/w0 + (c'v')/w0 + (cv'')/w0 + ...

(14) Now let us define some values to make this equation more manageable:

Let q = c/w0
Let = (c'v' + c''v'' + ...)/(cv)

So that:

w/w0 = 1 + qv(1 + )

(15) Now, since q, are complex numbers, we can represent them both using
r(cos + isin) form (see here if more information needed)

So that there exists h, such that:

q = h(cos + i sin )

From step #8, there exists , such that:

= p(cos + i sin )

(16) To shorten the equation we can use:

1 = cos + i sin

And use:

1 = cos + i sin

So that we have:

q = h * 1

= * 1

(17) Using step #16, we get:

qv = h*1*(*1)v = h*pv*1*(1)v

(18) Now, using Euler's Formula (see Lemma #1, Lemma #2 here if needed),
we know that:

(1)v = 1v

1v*1 = 1 + v

(19) Within the circle K, we can now consider only the values of x that are
associated with = ( - )/v. [Since a circle includes all values of between
0 and 2, see here if needed]

(20) In this case:

1 + v = 1 + v( - )/v = 1 - + = 1

(21) Now 1 = cos () + isin() = -1 + i*0 = -1. [See here if needed]

(22) So, in this case, combining step #21 with step #17:

qv = h*v*(-1) = -h*v

(23) Combining step #22 with step #14:

w/w0 = 1 - hv(1 + )

(24) Now, we can set the radius of K to any value so we can constrain to be
as close to 0 as we wish so that for all purposes, we have:

w/w0 = 1 - hv

[The idea here is that the radius of K was selected arbitarily in step #6, any
nonzero radius r will do]

(25) Now, we can choose any value for so we choose a value such that is
greater than 0 and less than (1/h)(1/v).
We can do this since is the magnitude of (see step #9). In step #19, we
constrained and in step #24, we constrained the maximum magnitude of the
circle K.

Even with all of the above constraints, we are still left with a set of values and
we can select a value of x such that the magnitude is less than the radius of K
and less than (1/h)(1/v) but still greater than 0.

(26) But then hv is greater than 0 and less than h*(1/h) = 1 since:

h*[(1/h)(1/v)]v = 1

(27) But this means there is a value of x such that w/w0 is greater than 0 and
less than 1.

(28) But this is a contradiction because it means that w is less than w0 which
is impossible from step #3.

The reasoning here is that if w/w0 = fraction, this implies that w = w0 *

fraction which implies that w is less than w0

(25) So we are forced to reject our assumption in step #2.

QED

Euler's Formula
Today's proof for Euler's Formula is based on the Taylor's Series. Euler's
Formula is the equation:

eix = cosx + isinx

In a previous blog, I spoke about Euler's Identity which is derived from Euler's
Formula. Richard Cotes was the first person to provide a proof but the great
popularizer of this result was Leonhard Euler. Euler's Identity is used in the
construction of cyclotomic integers which are used in Kummer's proof of
Fermat's Last Theorem for regular primes.

Lemma 1: Maclaurin's Series

f(x) = f(0) + (x/1!)f'(0) + (x2/2!)f''(0) + (x3/3!)f'''(0) + ... +

(xn/n!)fn(0)

(1) Taylor's series gives us:

f(x) = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) + [f''(a)/2!](x-a)2 + .... + [f(n)(a)/n!](x-a)n + ....
[See here for its proof]

(2) Now, if a=0, then we have:

f(x) = f(0) + (x/1!)f'(0) + (x2/2!)f''(0) + (x3/3!)f'''(0) + ... +
(xn/n!)fn(0).

QED

Lemma 2: ex = 1 + (x/1) + (x2/2!) + (x3/3!) + ....

(1) Let f(x) = ex

(2) From the properties of ex [See here for details]:

f(x) = ex f(0) = e0 = 1
f'(x) = ex f'(0) =e0 = 1
fn(x) = ex fn(0) = e0 = 1

(3) We know that ex is continuous since it has a derivative at each point. [See
here for details of why this is true]

(4) By Lemma 1 above, we have:

ex = 1 + (x/1!)(1) + (x2/2!)(1) + ... (xn/n!)(1)

QED

Lemma 3: sinx = x - (x3/3!) + (x5/5!) - (x7/7!) + ...

(1) Let f(x) = sin x

(2) From the properties of sin, we know:

f(0) = sin(0) = 0 [See here for details if needed]

f'(x) = cos x f'(0) = 1 [See here for proof if needed]

f''(x) = -sin(x) f'(0) = 0 [See here for proof if needed]

f'''(x) = -cos x f'(0) = -1

(3) From this, we see that:

fn(0) = 0 if n is even.
fn(0) = 1 if (n-1)/2 is even
fn(0) = -1 if (n-1)/2 is odd

(4) Putting this all together gives us:

sin x = (x/1)(1) + (x2/2!)(0) + (x3/3!)(-1) + ...

QED

Lemma 4: cos x = 1 - (x2)/2! + (x4/4!) - (x6/6!) + ...

(1) Let f(x) = cos x

(2) From the properties of cos, we know:

f(0) = cos(0) = 1 [Details if needed are found here]

f'(x) = -sin x f'(0) = 0 [Details if needed are found here]

f''(x) = -cos(x) f'(0) = -1

f'''(x) = sin x f'(0) = 0

(3) From this, we see that:

fn(0) = 0 if n is odd.
fn(0) = 1 if (n/2) is even
fn(0) = -1 if (n/2) is odd

(4) Putting this all together gives us:

cos x = 1 + (x2/2!)(-1) + (x3/3!)(0) + (x4/4!)(1) + ...

QED

Theorem: Euler's Formula

eix = cos x + isin x

(1) From Lemma 2, we have:

eix = 1 + ix + (ix)2/2! + (ix)3/3! + ...

(2) Since i2 = -1 and i4 = 1, this gives us: (for details on i, see here)
eix = (1 - x2/2! + x4/4! + ...) + i(x - x3/3! + x5/5! + ...)

(3) From Lemma 4 above, we see that:

cos(x) = (1 - x2/2! + x4/4! + ...)

(4) From Lemma 3 above, we see that:

isin(x) = i(x - x3/3! + x5/5! + ...)

(5) Combining step #2 with step #3 and step #4 gives us:

eix = cos x + i sin x.

QED

Corollary: De Moivre's Formula

(cos x + isin x)n = cos(nx) + isin(nx)

Proof:

(1) (eix)n = einx

(2) (cos x + i sin x)n = cos(nx) + isin(nx) [Applying Euler's formula

above]

QED
POSTED BY LARRY FREEMAN AT 9:00 PM

2 COMMENTS:

professiona said...
This formula can be interpreted as saying that the function eix traces
out the unit circle in the complex number plane as x ranges through
the real numbers. Here, x is the angle that a line connecting the
origin with a point on the unit circle makes with the positive real
axis, measured counter clockwise and in radians The formula is valid
only if sin and cos take their arguments in radians rather than in
degrees.
source: Wikipedia

For x=pi, the equation is

e^ipi = -1 or e^ipi + 1 = 0 or
e^ipi = 0 - 1 ; ln [e^ipi] = ln [0/1]; hence, ipi = ln [0] = 0 ;
e^0 = 1 ; 1 + 1 = 0 (mod 2)= 2

See 'Proof' by David Auburn(p.73-4)

"Let X equal the quantity of all quantities of X. Let X equal the
cold ... months [11, 12, 1, 2] ... and four of heat [5, 6, 7, 8] leaving
four months of in-/determine temperature [2,3,9,10].
[The months are a unit circle, and the Euler equation is its design.
The indetermined area is undefined as is the definition of infinite.]
"Let X equal the month of full bookstores [infinite or undefined as
month 10]. The number of books approaches infinity as the number
of months of cold approaches four."

The 'proof' is also a statement of:

cos x = e^ix + e^[-ix] (over 2)and
sin x = e^ix - e^[-ix] (over 2i)

solving for both cos x and sin x

cos pi = e^ipi + 1/1 = 2 =
0 (mod 2) = -1
sin pi = 1 - 1 = 0

e^ipi = cos pi + isin pi = -1 + 0

sin pi - cos pi = 2 = 0 (mod 2)

The 'proof' is a restatement of Fermat's Last Theorem for modular

formulation of infinite number of primes, in the transformation of
finite to infinite, using a modular clock function:
a unit circle in the complex number plane. "Let X equal the
number ...."

4:06 PM