Professional Documents
Culture Documents
MCI Screening Test 2004
MCI Screening Test 2004
Anatomy
A. Left gastric
B. Coeliac trunk
C. Splenic
D. Gastroduodenal
Ans. D
A. Trigeminal ganglion
B. Ciliary ganglion
C. Lesser petrosal nerve
D. Greater petrosal nerve
Ans. D
A. Thoracodorsal nerve
B. Phrenic nerve
C. Intercostal nerves
D. Sympathetic nerves
Ans. B
Physiology
A. 28 weeks
B. 32 weeks
C. 34 weeks
D. 36 weeks
Ans. A
Q 13. After 5 days of fasting a man undergoes oral GTT, true is all except:
Q 15. Which protein prevents contraction by covering binding sites on actin and
myosin:
A. Troponin
B. Calmodulin
C. Thymosin
D. Tropomyosin
Ans. D
Q 18. Single most important factor in control of automatic contractility of heart is:
Q 19. Which of the following is not mediated through negative FEEDBACK mechanism:
A. TSH release
B. GH formation
C. Thrombin formation
D. ACTH release
Ans. C
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
Ans. C
Biochemistry
A. Serine
B. Histidine
C. Threonine
D. Proline
Ans. B
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Maple syrup disease
D. Tyrosinemia
Ans. B
Q 28. A baby presents with refusal to feed, SKIN lesions, seizures, ketosis organic acids in
urine with normal ammonia; likely diagnosis is:
A. Propionic aciduria
B. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Urea cycle enzyme deficiency
Ans. B
A. Electrostatic
B. Covalent
C. Van der Wall
D. Hydrogen
Ans. C
A. Cyanide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Chocolate
D. Carbonated beverages
Ans. A
A. A-T
B. C-G
C. A-G
D. C-T
Ans. B
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. 16SRNA
Ans. A
Q 34. All of the following statements are true regarding lipoproteins except:
Q 35. A destitute woman is admitted to the hospital with altered sensorium and dehydration;
urine analysis shows mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other test would be desirable:
A. Fouchet
B. Rothera
C. Hays
D. Benedicts
Ans. B
A. Linolaete
B. Linolenic
C. Palmitic
D. d-hexanoic
Ans. A
Microbiology
A. It is activated by IL-2
B. Expresses CD 3 receptor
C. It is a variant of large lymphocyte
D. There is antibody induced proliferation of NK cells
Ans. D
Q 40. A beta hemolytic bacteria is resistant to vancomycin, shows growth in 6.5% NaCI, is
non-bile sensitive. It is likely to be:
A. Strep. agalactiae
B. Strep. pneumoniae
C. Enterococcus
D. Strep. bovis
Ans. C
A. Pyrogenic toxin
B. Erythrogenic toxin
C. Hemolysin
D. Neurotoxin
Ans. A
Q 43. A child presents with a white patch over the tonsils; diagnosis is best made by culture
in:
A. Loeffler medium
B. LJ medium
C. Blood agar
D. Tellurite medium
Ans. A
Q 44. A patient with 14 days of fever is suspected of having typhoid. What investigation
should be done?
A. Blood culture
B. Widal test
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture
Ans. B
Q 46. An organism grown on agar shows green coloured colonies, likely organism is:
A. Staphylococcus
B. E. coli
C. Pseudomonas
D. Peptostreptococcus
Ans. C
A. IgM FTAbs
B. IgG FTAbs
C. VDRL
D. TPI
Ans. A
Q 50. A pregnant woman from Bihar presents with hepatic encephalopathy. The likely
diagnosis:
A. Hepatitis E
B. Hepatitis B
C. Sepsis
D. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Ans. A
A. RSV
B. Rhinovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Rotavirus
Ans. C
Q 52. Cystine lactose enzyme deficient (CLED) medium is preferred over McConkey agar in
UTI because:
A. Tropical eosinophilia
B. Early adenolymphangitis stage
C. Late adenolymphangitis stage
D. Elephantiasis
Ans. B
A. Fasciola
B. Clonorchis
C. Paragonimus
D. None
Ans. B
Q 56. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause which of the following helminthic
disease:
A. Tinea saginata
B. Tinea solium
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Trichuris trichura
Ans. B
Pathology
Q 57. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is:
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. MAO
D. Hydroxylase
Ans. B
A. ALL B. AML
C. CLL D. CML
Ans. C
Q 60. Which of the following complications is likely to result after several units of blood have
been transfused?
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
Ans. A
Q 61. The mother has sickle cell disease and father is normal. Chances of children having
sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait respectively are:
A. 0 and 100%
B. 25 and 25%
C. 50 and 50%
D. 10 and 50%
Ans. A
Q 62. Father has a blood group B, mother has AB; children are not likely to have the
following blood group:
A. O
B. A
C. B
D. AB
Ans. A
A. Connexin
B. Integrin
C. Adhesin
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Pharmacology
Q 64. All are reasons for reducing drug dosage in elderly except:
Q 67. A diabetic female on INH and rifampicin for TB suffers DVT. She is started on
warfarin. PT is not raised. Next step should be:
A. Propranolol
B. Pindolol
C. Sotalol
D. Nadolol
Ans. A
A. Inhibit the release of arachidonic acid from vessel wall through action of phospholipase
A2
B. Bind plasma membrane receptors and following internalization influence nuclear changes
C. Inhibit vascular membrane permeability
D. Increase glucose synthesis, glycogen deposition in liver
Ans. B
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. High output failure
D. PSVT
Ans. C
Q 73. All of the following statements are true about theophylline except:
A. It is a MAO-A inhibitor
B. Does not cause cheese reaction
C. Not useful in advanced cases of on-off phenomenon
D. It is used in parkinsonism
Ans. A
Q 76. A patient on phenytoin for treatment of seizures develops depression for which he is
prescribed tricyclics. He now complains of lassitude and his Hb reads 8. Next step in
managing this patient should be:
A. Chest X-ray
B. MCV should be estimated
C. GGT should be estimated
D. Bone marrow examination
Ans. B
A. Digoxin
B. Salicylates
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Organophosphates
Ans. B
A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Thromboxane A2
C. PGI2
D. Lipoxygenase
Ans. B
Q 80. All of the following statements about methotrexate are true except:
A. BAL
B. EDTA
C. Pencillamine
D. Desferioxamine
Ans. A
Forensic Medicine
A. Drowning B. Hanging
C. Bums D. Phophorus poisoning
Ans. A
A. Cutis anserina
B. Rigor mortis
C. Washer womans feet
D. Grass and weeds grasped in the hand
Ans. D
Q 84. A boy has 20 permanent teeth and 8 temporary teeth. His age is likely to be:
A. 9 years
B. 10 years
C. 11 years
D. 12 years
Ans. C
Q 85. A patient has sensation of bugs crawling all over his body. This may be effect of:
A. Cocaine
B. Alcohol
C. Cannabis
D. Benzodiazepines
Ans. A
A. Locard principle
B. Quetlets rule
C. Pettys principle
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 87. A patient of head injury, has no relatives and requires urgent cranial decompression;
Doctor should:
Q 88. A boy attempts suicide. He is brought to a private doctor and he is successfully cured.
Doctor should:
A. Inform police
B. Not required to inform police
C. Report to magistrate
D. Refer to a psychiatrist
Ans. B
Q 90. Basanti a 29 years aged female from Bihar presents with active tuberculosis. She
delivers baby. All of the following are indicated except:
Q 91. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be called a PHC-R, requisite is:
A. Microscopy
B. Microscopy plus Radiology
C. Radiology
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 92. A person has received complete immunization against tetanus 10 years ago, now he
presents with a clean wound without any lacerations from an injury sustained 3 hours ago.
He should now be given:
Q 94. A certain community has 100 children out of whom 28 are immunised against measles.
2 of them acquired measles simultaneously. Subsequently 14 get measles. Assuming the
efficacy of the vaccine to be 100%. What is the secondary attack rate?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 21.5%
Ans. C
Q 95. A community has a population of 10,000 and a birth rate of 36 per 1000. 5 maternal
deaths were reported in the current year. The MMR is:
A. 14.5
B. 13.8
C. 20
D. 5
Ans. B
Q 96. 10 babies are born in a hospital on same day. All weigh 2.8 kg each. Calculate the
standard deviation:
A. Zero
B. One
C. Minus one
D. 0.28
Ans. A
Q 97. Out of 11 births in a hospital, 5 babies weighed over 2.5 kg and 5 weighed less than 2.5
kg. What value does 2.5 represent:
A. Geometric average
B. Arithmetic average
C. Median
D. Mode
Ans. C
Q 98. A man weighing 68 kg, consumes 325 gm carbohydrate, 65 gm protein and 35 gms fat
in his diet. The most applicable statement here is:
Q 99. A country has a population of 1000 million; birth rate is 23 and death rate is 6. In
which phase of the demographic cycle does this country lie:
A. Early expanding
B. Late expanding
C. Plateau
D. Declining
Ans. B
Q 100. In a population of 10,000, beta carotene was given to 6000; it was not given to the
remainder. 3 out of the first group got lung cancer while 2 out of the other 4000 also got lung
cancer. The best conclusion is:
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 3000
D. 5000
Ans. C
Q 103. More false positive cases on screening in a community signify that the disease has:
A. High prevalence
B. High sensitivity
C. Low prevalence
D. Low sensitivity
Ans. C
Q 104. The same screening test is applied to two communities X and Y; Y shows more false
+ve cases as compared to X. The possibility is:
A. High sensitivity
B. High specificity
C. Y community has high prevalence
D. Y community has low prevalence
Ans. C
Q 105. ELISA is performed on a population with low prevalence of hepatitis B. What would
be the result of performing double screening ELISA tests?
Q 106. While testing a hypolipidemic drug, serum lipid levels were tested both before and
after its use. Which test is best suited for the statistical analysis of the result:
A. Paired t-test
B. Students test
C. Chi square test
D. None of the above
Ans. A
A. Alpha error
B. Beta error
C. Gamma error
D. Delta error
Ans. A
Q 109. Which of the following diseases needs not to be screened for in workers to be
employed in a dye industry in Gujarat?
A. Anemia
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Bladder cancer
D. Precancerous lesion
Ans. A
A. Serum transferrin
B. Serum ferritin
C. Serum iron
D. Hemoglobin
Ans. B
A. Vector variation
B. Environmental factors
C. Change in herd immunity
D. All of the above
Ans. B
Medicine
A. Decreased PaO2
B. Decreased PaCO2
C. Normal PaCO2
D. Normal A-a gradient
Ans. D
Q 114. A 60 years old man presents with nonproductive cough for 4 weeks. He has grade III
clubbing, and a lesion in the apical lobe on X-ray. Most likely diagnosis here is:
A. Small cell CA
B. Non-small cell CA
C. Fungal infection
D. Tuberculosis
Ans. B
Q 115. A 60 years old man is suspected of having bronchogenic CA. TB has been ruled out in
this patient. What should be the next investigation?
A. CT guided FNAC
B. Bronchoscopy and biopsy
C. Sputum cytology
D. X-ray chest
Ans. B
Q 116. A man presents with fever, weight loss and cough. Mantoux reads an induration of 17
19 mm; sputum cytology is negative for AFB. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Fungal infection
C. Viral infection
D. Pneumonia
Ans. A
Q 117. Pulmonary edema associated with normal PCWP is observed, which of these is not a
cause:
A. High altitude
B. Cocaine overdose
C. Post cardiopulmonary bypass
D. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
Ans. D
Q 118. An ABG analysis shows: pH 7.2, raised pCO2, decreased HCO3. Diagnosis is:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Compensated metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Ans. C
Q 119. ABG analysis of a patient on ventilator shows decreased pCO2, normal pO2, pH 7.5.
Diagnosis is:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Ans. C
Q 120. In a patient of acute inferior wall MI. Best modality of treatment is:
A. IV fluids
B. Digoxin
C. Diuretics
D. Vasodilators
Ans. A
Q 121. A 26 years old asymptomatic woman is found to have arrhythmias and a systolic
murmur associated with midsystolic. Which investigation would you use?
A. Electrophysiological testing
B. CT scan
C. Echocardiography
D. Angiography
Ans. C
Q 122. A patient complains of intermittent claudication, dizziness and headache. Most likely
cardiac lesion is:
A. TOF
B. ASD
C. PDA
D. Coarctation of aorta
Ans. D
A. Lung
B. liver
C. spleen
D. brain
Ans. A
Q 125. A woman has septic abortion done, vegetation on tricuspid valve is likely to go to:
A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B. Constrictive pericarditis
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. RV infarct
Ans. C
Q 127. A patient presents with engorged neck veins, BP 80/50 mmHg and pulse rate of
100/min following blunt trauma to the chest. Diagnosis is:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Hemothorax
Ans. C
Q 128. Which of the following is not seen on hemoglobin electrophoresis in sickle cell
anemia?
A. HbA
B. HbA2
C. HbF
D. HbS
Ans. A
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Decreased fibrinogen
C. Decreased PTT
D. Increased PT
Ans. C
Q 131. A patient with an Hb of 6 g%, WBC count of 2000/cmm, has a normal different count
except for having 6% blasts, platelets are reduced to 80,000/cmm; moderate splenomegaly
is present. Possible diagnosis is:
A. Leukemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. HEMOLYSIS
D. lTP
Ans. A
Q 132. A patient being investigated for anemia has a dry marrow tap; peripheral smear
reveals tear drop cells. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma
C. Myelofibrosis
D. Polycythemia rubra vera
Ans. C
A. Sarcoma
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 134. A young patient presents with jaundice. Total bilirubin is 21 mg%, direct is 9.6 mg%,
alkaline phosphatase is 84 KA units. Diagnosis is:
A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Chronic active hepatitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
Ans. D
Q 135. A young male with gallbladder stones shows the following test results:
serum bilirubin 2.5 mg%, Hb 6 g%, urine test positive for urobilinogen. Diagnosis is:
A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Hepatocellular jaundice
D. Protoporphyria
Ans. A
Q 136. An 18 years old male presents with massive hematemesis. He has history of fever for
the past 14 days for which he was managed with drugs. Moderate splenomegaly is present.
Diagnosis is:
A. kidney
B. Ureter
C. Bladder
D. Urethra
Ans. A
Q 138. A young man develops gross hematuria 3 days after an attack of URTI. Most likely
renal Pathology is:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Minimal change disease
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
Ans. C
Q 139. A patients CSF report reads as follows: sugar 40 mg%, protein 150 mg%, chloride
550 mg%; lymphocytosis present. The picture is suggestive of:
A. Fungal meningitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. TB meningitis
D. Leukemia
Ans. C
Q 141. Dinesh, a 56 years aged man presents with complaints of slowness of movements,
postural instability, tremors, rigidity and memory loss. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Multi-infarct dementia
B. Alzheimers disease
C. Parkinsonism
D. None of the above
Ans. C
A. Cerebellar ataxia
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Dysphagia
D. Chorea
Ans. B
Q 143. An elderly man presents with features of dementia, ataxia, difficulty in downward
gaze and a history of frequent falls. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Parkinson disease
B. Progressive supranuclear gaze palsy
C. Alzheimers disease
D. None of the above.
Ans. B
A. Trisomy 18
B. Patau syndrome
C. Trisomy 21
D. Turner syndrome
Ans. C
A. Chorea
B. Depression, apathy
C. Progressive dementia
D. Cog-wheel rigidity
Ans. D
Q 146. A 30-year-old male complains of loss of erection; he has low testosterone and high
prolactin level in blood. What is the likely diagnosis:
A. Pituitary adenoma
B. Testicular failure
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Cushings syndrome
Ans. A
Q 147. A patient meets with an accident with resultant transection of the pituitary stalk.
What will not occur:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hyperprolactinemia
D. Hypothyroidism
Ans. A
Q 148. A woman has bilateral headache that worsens with emotional stress. She has two
children, both doing badly in school. Diagnosis is:
A. Migraine
B. Cluster headache
C. Tension headache
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Ans. C
Q 149. A female aged 30 years, presents with episodic throbbing headache for past 4 years
with nausea and vomiting. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Migraine
B. Cluster headache
C. Angle closure glaucoma
D. Temporal arteritis
Ans. A
Q 150. A woman complains of headache associated with paresthesias of the right upper and
lower limb. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. Migraine
D. Cluster headache
Ans. C
A. Pituitary tumor
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Medullary CA thyroid
D. Parathyroid adenoma
Ans. A
Q 152. A patient with Cushingoid features presents with hemoptysis. He shows no response
to dexamethasone suppression test. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Adrenal hyperplasia
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. CA lung with ectopic ACTH production
D. Pituitary microadenoma
Ans. C
Q 153. An obese patient presented in casualty in an unconscious state. His blood sugar
measured 400 mg%, urine tested positive for sugar and ketones. Drug most useful in
management is:
A. Glibenclamide
B. Troglitazone
C. Insulin
D. Chlorpropamide
Ans. C
Q 155. A young basketball player with height 188 cm and arm span 197 cm has a diastolic
murmur best heard in second right intercostal space. Likely cause of murmur is:
A. AS
B. Coarctation of aorta
C. AR
D. MR
Ans. C
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor of lung
C. Wilsons disease
D. Rheumatoid arthrits
Ans. A
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Candida
C. Mucormycosis
D. Aspergillus fumigatus
Ans. B
Q 159. The following group of tests should be done to optimise graft uptake in bone marrow
transplant:
A. Blood grouping
B. HLA matching
C. Culture for infection
D. All of the above
Ans. B
Q 161. All of the following are true regarding a patient with acid peptic disease except:
Q 162. A man presents with mass at duodenojejunal flexure invading renal papillae.
Histopathology reports it as lymphoma. True statement is:
A. II E stage
B. III E stage
C. IV E stage
D. Staging cannot be done until bone marrow examination is performed
Ans. C
Q 163. A 45 years male presents with hypertension. He has sudden abnormal flinging
movements in right upper and lower limbs. Most likely site of hemorrahge is:
A. Substantia nigra
B. Caudate nuclei
C. Pons
D. Subthalamic nuclei
Ans. D
A. PTT increased
B. PT increased
C. Clotting time is increased
D. Serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
Ans. B
A. Barotrauma
B. Pleural effusion
C. Increased venous return
D. None of the above
Ans. A
PEDIATRICS
Q 169. Which of the following is not true about atrial septal defect?
A. There is a defect in region of fossa ovalis
B. Blood flow from left atrium to right atrium
C. Increased blood flow through lungs lead to pulmonary plethora
D. There is splitting of first heart sound
Ans. D
Q 170. A neonate presents with jaundice and clay white stools. On liver biopsy giant cells are
seen. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Physiological jaundice
B. Neonatal hepatitis with extra biliary atresia
C. Neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice
D. Extra biliary atresia
Ans. B
Q 171. A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratory distress and froth at the
mouth. Diagnosis is:
A. Tracheoesophageal fistula
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Respiratory distress syndrome
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 173. A 5-years-old child suffering from nephrotic syndrome is responding well to steroid
therapy. What would be the most likely finding on light microscopy?
A. No finding
B. Basement membrane thickening
C. Hypercellular glomeruli
D. Fusion of foot processes
Ans. A
Q 175. A 5-years-old child presents with a calculus of size 2 cm in the upper ureter. He also
complains of haematuria. USG shows no further obstruction in the urinary tract. Treatment
of choice for this patient would be:
A. Ureterolithotomy
B. Endoscopic removal
C. ESWL
D. Observation
Ans. C
Q 176. A patient presents with LVH and pulmonary complications. ECG shows left axis
deviation. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. TOF
B. Tricuspid atresia
C. TAPVC
D. VSD
Ans. B
Q 178. A neonate has recurrent attacks of abdominal pain, restless, irritability and
diaphoresis on feeding. Cardiac auscultation reveals a nonspecific murmur. He is believed to
be at risk for MI. Likely diagnosis is:
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. TOF
D. Anomalous coronary artery
Ans. D
Q 179. A child aged 2 years presents with nonspecific symptoms suggestive of anemia. On
peripheral blood smear target cells are seen. He has hypochromic microcytic picture and Hb
of 6 gm%. He also has a positive family history. Next investigation of choice is:
A. Hb electrophoresis
B. Coombs test
C. liver function tests
D. Osmotic fragility test
Ans. A
Q 180. Most common cause of meningitis in children between 6 months to 2 years of age is:
A. Pneumococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. H. influenzae
D. E. coli
Ans. C
Q 181. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis, lytic skull lesions, ear discharge and
hepatosplenomegaly. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma
C. Histiocytosis X
D. Multiple myeloma
Ans. C
Q 184. A 10 day old male pseudohermaphrodite child with 46 XY karyotype presents with BP
of 110/80 mmHg. Most likely enzyme deficiency is:
A. 21 hydroxylase
B. 17 hydroxylase
C. 11 hydroxylase
D. 3-beta hydroxylase
Ans. B
A. Oral steroids
B. IV steroids
C. IV Ig
D. Mycophenolate mefentil
Ans. C
Q 186. A neonate delivered at 32 weeks, is put on a ventilator. X-ray shows white out
lung and ABG reveals PO2 of 75. Ventilator settings are on, FIO2 of 70, and rate of
50/minute. Next step to be taken should be:
Q 187. A man aged 50 years presents with, alopecia, boggy scalp swelling and easily
pluckable hair. Next step in establishing the diagnosis would be:
A. KOH smear
B. Culture sensitivity
C. Biopsy
D. None of the above
Ans. A
A. Trichophyton tonsurans
B. Microsporum
C. Epidermophyton
D. Candida albicans
Ans. A
Q 189. A young man aged 19 years develops a painless penile ulcer 9 days after sexual
intercourse with a professional sex worker. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Chancroid
B. Herpes
C. Primary chancre
D. Traumatic ulcer
Ans. C
Q 190. An infant presents with itchy lesions over the groin and prepuce. All of the following
are indicated in this patient except:
Q 191. A boy aged 8 years from Tamil Nadu presents with a white, non anesthetic, nonscaly,
hypopigmented macule on his face. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pityriasis alba
B. Pityriasis versicolor
C. Indeterminate leprosy
D. Pure neuritic leprosy
Ans. C
Q 192. A 20 years old, male patient, from jaipur presents with an erythematous lesion on the
cheek with central crusting. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. SLE
B. LUPUS vulgaris
C. Chillblains
D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
Ans. D
Q 193. A 19 year old pregnant girl presents with light brown pigmentation over the malar
eminences. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Chloasma
B. SLE
C. Melasma
D. Melanoma
Ans. A
Q 194. A girl aged 19, presents with arthritis and a photosensitive rash on the cheek. Likely
diagnosis is:
A. SLE
B. Chloasma
C. Stevens Johnson syndrome
D. Lymes disease
Ans. A
Psychiatry
Q 195. A patient with pneumonia for 5 days is admitted to the hospital. He suddenly ceases
to recognize the doctor and staff, thinks that he is in jail and complains of scorpions
attacking him. He is in altered sensorium. This condition is:
A. Acute delirium
B. Acute dementia
C. Acute schizophrenia
D. Acute paranoia
Ans. A
Q 196. A person missing from home, is found wandering purposefully. He is well groomed,
and denies of having any amnesia. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Dissociative fugue
B. Dissociative amnesia
C. Schizophrenia
D. Dementia
Ans. A
Q 197. Babu, a 40 years aged male complains of sudden onset palpitations and apprehension.
He is sweating for the last 10 minutes and fears of impending death. Diagnosis is:
A. Hysteria
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Panic attack
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
Ans. C
Q 198. A lady, while driving a car meets with an accident. She was admitted in an ICU for 6
months. After being discharged, she often gets up in night and feels terrified She is afraid to
sit in a car again. The diagnosis is:
A. Panic disorder
B. Phobia
C. Conversion disorder
D. Post traumatic stress disorder
Ans. D
Q 199. A patient present with waxy flexibility, negativitism and rigidity. Diagnosis is:
A. Catatonic schizophrenia
B. Paranoid schizophrenia
C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
D. Simple schizophrenia
Ans. A
Q 200. Chandu, age 32 presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. He also complains of
some psychiatric symptoms and visual hallucinations. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Intermittent porphyria
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hysteria
Ans. A
Q 201. Basanti 27 years aged, female thinks her nose is ugly; her idea is fixed and not shared
by anyone else. Whenever she goes out of home, she hides her face with a cloth. She visits a
Surgeon. Next step would be:
Surgery
Q 202. A male aged 60 years has foul breath. He regurgitates food that is eaten 3 days ago.
Likely diagnosis is:
A. Zenkers diverticulum
B. Meckels diverticulum
C. Scleroderma
D. Achalasia cardia
Ans. A
Q 203. Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma esophagus is:
A. Upper third
B. Middle third
C. Lower third
D. Gastro-esophageal junction.
Ans. B
Q 205. Patient presents with recurrent duodenal ulcer of 2.5 cm size. Procedure of choice is:
Q 207. A 56 year old woman has not passed stools for the last 14 days. X-ray shows no
air/fluid levels. Probable diagnosis is:
A. Paralytic ileus
B. Aganglionosis of the colon
C. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction
D. Duodenal obstruction.
Ans. C
Q 208. A man aged 60 years has history of IHD and atherosclerosis. He presents with
abdominal pain and maroon stools. Most likely diagnosis is:
Q 210. In a 27 year old male most common cause of a colovesical fistula would be:
A. Crohns disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. TB
D. Cancer colon
Ans. A
Q 211. Following trauma, a patient presents with a drop of blood at the tip of urinary meatus.
He complains of inability to pass urine. Next step should be:
A. IVP should be done
B. MCU should be done
C. Catheterize, drain bladder and remove the catheter thereafter
D. Catheterize, drain bladder and retain the catheter thereafter
Ans. D
Q 212. Chandu, a 45 years male shows calcification on the right side of his abdomen in an AP
view. In lateral view the calcification is seen to overlie the spine. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Gallstones
B. Calcified mesenteric nodes
C. Renal stones
D. Calcified rib
Ans. C
Q 214. Following sexual intercourse, a person develops pain in the left testes that does not
get relieved on elevation of scrotum. Diagnosis is:
A. Epididymo-orchitis
B. Torsion testis
C. Fourniers gangrene
D. Tumor testes
Ans. B
Q 216. A patient presents with bilateral proptosis, heat intolerance and palpitations. Most
unlikely diagnosis here would be:
A. Hashimotos thyroiditis
B. Thyroid adenoma
C. Diffuse thyroid igoitre
D. Reidels thyroiditis
Ans. D
Q 217. A patient with long standing multinodular goitre develops hoarseness of voice. Also,
the swelling undergoes sudden increase in size. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Follicular CA
B. Papillary CA
C. Medullary CA
D. Anaplastic CA
Ans. A
Q 218. A patient presents with swelling in the neck following a thyroidectomy. What is the
most likely resulting complication?
A. Respiratory obstruction
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
C. Hypovolemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Ans. A
Q 219. A patient on the same evening following thyroidectomy presents with a swelling in the
neck and difficulty in breathing. Next management would be:
Q 220. Patient presents with neck swelling and respiratory distress few hours after a
thyroidectomy Surgery. Next management would be:
A. Open immediately
B. Tracheostomy
C. Wait and watch
D. Oxygen by mask
Ans. A
Q 221. A patient undergoes thyroid Surgery , following which he develops perioral tingling.
Blood Ca2+ is 8.9 mEq. Next step is:
A. Vitamin D orally
B. Oral Ca2+ and vitamin D
C. Intravenous calcium gluconate and serial monitoring
D. Wait for Ca2+ to decrease to < 7.0 before taking further action
Ans. C
Q 222. A case of blunt trauma is brought to the emergency in a state of shock. He is not
responding to IV crystalloids. Next step in his management would be:
A. Immediate laparotomy
B. Blood transfusion
C. Albumin transfusion
D. Abdominal compression
Ans. A
A. spleen
B. Mesentery
C. kidney
D. Rectum
Ans. A
Q 224. A patient is brought to the emergency as a case of head injury, following a head on
collision road traffic accident. His BP is 90/60 mmHg. Tachycardia is present. Most likely
diagnosis is:
A. EDH
B. SDH
C. Intracranial hemorrhage
D. Intra-abdominal bleed
Ans. D
A. Marjolins
B. Rodent
C. Melanoma
D. Curlings
Ans. A
Q 226. An elderly man presents with history of abdominal pain. He is found to have a
fusiform dilatation of the descending aorta. Likely cause is:
A. Trauma
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Right ventricular failure
D. Syphilitic aortitis
Ans. B
Q 228. All of the following are correct about axillary vein thrombosis except:
Q 229. A 80 year old patient presents with a midline tumor of the lower jaw, involving the
alveolar margin. He is edentulous. Treatment of choice is:
A. Hemimandibulectomy
B. Commando operation
C. Segmental mandiblectbmy
D. Marginal mandibulectomy
Ans. C
Q 230. Most common cause of unilateral parotid swelling in a 27 year old male is:
A. Warthins tumor
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Haemangioma
Ans. B
Q 231. A 45 year old woman presents with a hard and mobile lump in the breast. Next
investigation is:
A. FNAC
B. USG
C. Mammography
D. Excision biopsy
Ans. A
Q 232. A 45 years old man presents with progressive cervical lymph nodes enlargement since
3 month. Most diagnostic investigation is:
Q 233. All of the following are true about fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver except:
Q 234. A child presents with an expansible swelling on medial side of the nose. Likely
diagnosis is:
A. Teratoma
B. Meningocele
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Lipoma
Ans. B
Orthopaedics
Q 235. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, a patient develops weakness of flexion
at elbow and lack of sensation over the lateral aspect fore arm. Nerve injured is:
A. Radial nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Ulnar nerve
Ans. B
Q 236. A 10 years old boy presents with FRACTURE of humerus. X-ray reveals a lytic lesion
at the upper end. Likely condition is:
A. Unicameral bone cyst
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Ans. A
Q 237. A patient sustained injury to the upper limb 3 years back. He now presents with
valgus deformity in the elbow and paresthesias over the medial border of the hand. The
injury is likely to have been:
Q 238. A woman aged 60 years suffers a fall. Her lower limb is abducted and externally
rotated. Likely diagnosis is:
Q 240. Babu a 19 years old male has a small circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis
of femur. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Osteoclastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Ewings sarcoma
D. Osteoid osteoma
Ans. D
Q 242. Involvement of PIP joint, DIP joint and the carpometacarpal joint of base of thumb
with sparing the wrist is seen in:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Pseudogout
Ans. B
A. Extension at hip
B. Extension at knee
C. Flexion at hip and knee
D. Extension at hip and knee
Ans. C
Anaesthesia
Q 245. All of the following agents can be given for induction of Anaesthesia in children
except:
A. Halothane
B. Servoflurane
C. Morphine
D. Nitrous oxide
Ans. C
A. Methoxyflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Enflurane
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 247. A man with alcoholic liver failure requires general Anaesthesia for Surgery .
Anaesthetic agent of choice is:
A. Ether
B. Halothane
C. Methoxyflurane
D. Isoflurane
Ans. D
Ophthalmology
Q 249. A patient has a miotic pupil, IOP= 25, normal anterior chamber, hazy cornea and a
shallow anterior chamber in fellow eye. Diagnosis is:
Q 250. A woman complains of coloured haloes around lights in the evening, with nausea and
vomiting, IOP is normal. Diagnosis is:
Q 251. Babloo, a 5 years old child, presents with large cornea, lacrimation and photophobia.
Diagnosis is:
A. Megalocornea
B. Congenital glaucoma
C. Congenital cataract
D. Anterior uveitis
Ans. B
A. Nummular keratitis
B. Vitreal haemorrhage
C. Uveitis
D. Cranial nerve palsies
Ans. B
A. Marfans syndrome
B. Myaesthenia gravis
C. Myotonic dystrophy
D. Kearns-Sayre syndrome
Ans. A
Q 254. eye is deviated laterally and downwards and patient is unable to look up or medially.
Likely nerve involved is:
A. Trochlear
B. Trigeminal
C. Oculomotor
D. Abducent
Ans. C
Q 255. Left sided lateral gaze is affected in lesion of:
Q 256. An elderly male with heart disease presents with sudden loss of vision in one eye.
Examination reveals cherry red spot. Diagnosis is:
A. Microaneurysms
B. Retinal hemorrhages
C. Arteriolar dilatation
D. Neovascularisation
Ans. C
A. Bitemporal hemianopia
B. Binasal hemianopia
C. Heteronymous hemianopia
D. Centrocecal scotoma
Ans. D
Q 260. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen in all except:
A. Syphilis
B. Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
C. Post papilledema optic neuritis
D. Traumatic injury to the optic nerve
Ans. D
ENT
Q 261. A 3 months old child presents with intermittent stridor. Most likely cause is:
A. Laryngotracheobronchitis
B. Laryngomalacia
C. Respiratory obstruction
D. Foreign body aspiration
Ans. B
Q 262. A patient presents with facial nerve palsy following head trauma with FRACTURE of
the mastoid. Best intervention here is:
A. Immediate decompression
B. Wait and watch
C. Facial sling
D. Steroids
Ans. A
Q 263. A case of Bells palsy on steroids shows no improvement after 2 weeks. The next
step in management should be:
Q 264. Chandu a 15 years aged boy presents with unilateral nasal blockade, mass in the
cheek and epistaxis. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Nasopharyngeal CA
B. Angiofibroma
C. Inverted papilloma
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 265. A 40 years old diabetic presents with blackish nasal discharge and a mass in the nose .
Likely diagnosis is:
A. Mucormycosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Rhinosporiodosis
D. Histoplasmosis
Ans. A
A. Supraglortic CA
B. CA glottis
C. CA nasopharynx
D. Subglottic CA
Ans. C
A. Ovarian agenesis
B. Absent fallopian tube
C. Vaginal atresia
D. Bicornuate uterus
Ans. C
Q 268. A patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with features of hypogonadism. The likely
diagnosis is:
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Edward syndrome
D. Down syndrome
Ans. B
Q 269. A girl presents with primary amenorrhea, grade V thelarche, grade II pubarche, no
axillary hair. The likely diagnosis is:
A. Testicular feminization
B. Mullerian agenesis
C. Turner syndrome
D. Gonadal dysgenesis
Ans. A
Q 270. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks duration and lump in the right iliac
fossa. Investigation of choice is:
A. USG abdomen
B. Laparoscopy
C. CT scan
D. Shielded X-ray
Ans. A
Q 271. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration lower abdominal pain,
facial pallor, fainting and shock. Diagnosis is:
Q 272. A young woman with six weeks amenorrhea presents with mass abdomen. USG shows
empty uterus. Diagnosis is:
A. Ovarian cyst
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Complete abortion
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 273. A 30 years old female, presents to the emergency with complaint of sudden severe
abdominal pain. An abdominal mass is palpable on examination. Most likely diagnosis is:
Q 274. A 28 years aged female with a history of 6 weeks of amenorrhea, presents with pain in
abdomen. USG shows fluid in pouch of Douglas. Aspiration yields dark colour blood that
fails to clot. Most probable diagnosis is:
Q 275. A patient complains of post coital bleed. No growth is seen on per speculum
examination. Next step should be:
A. Colposcopic biopsy
B. Conization
C. Pap smear
D. Culdoscopy
Ans. A
Q 276. A 50 years old woman presents with post coital bleeding. A visible growth on cervix is
detected on per speculum examination. Next investigation is:
A. Punch biopsy
B. Colposcopic biopsy
C. Pap smear
D. Cone biopsy
Ans. A
Q 277. A 45 years woman, has negative pap smear with +ve endocervical curretage. Next step
in management will be:
A. Colposcopy
B. Vaginal hysterectomy
C. Conization
D. Wartheims hysterectomy
Ans. D
Q 278. A case of carcinoma cervix is found in altered sensorium and is having hiccups. The
likely cause is:
A. Septicemia
B. Uremia
C. Raised ICT
D. Intestinal obstruction
Ans. B
Q 279. Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule breached, ascites positive for malignant cells.
Stage is:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Ans. B
A. MDPA
B. Desogestrel
C. Norethisterone
D. None of the above
Ans. A
A. Azoospermia
B. Aspermia
C. Oligospermia
D. Normospermia
Ans. C
A. It is secreted by cytotrophoblasts
B. It acts on same receptor as LH does
C. It has luteotrophic action
D. It is a glycoprotein
Ans. A
Q 287. All of the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH patient
except:
A. 37 weeks
B. IUD
C. Transverse lie
D. Continous bleeding
Ans. C
Q 288. A lady with 37 weeks pregnancy, presented with bleeding per vagina. Invetigation
shows severe degree of placenta previa. The treatment is:
A. Immediate CS
B. Blood transfusion
C. Conservative
D. Medical induction of labour
Ans. A
Q 289. A pregnant woman presents with red degeneration of fibroid. Management is:
A. Myomectomy
B. Conservative
C. Hysterectomy
D. Termination of pregnancy
Ans. B
Q 291. Most useful investigation in the first trimester to identify risk of fetal malformation in
a fetus of a diabetic mother is:
A. Glycosylated Hb
B. Ultrasound
C. MS-AFP
D. Amniocentesis
Ans. A
Q 292. A pregnant diabetic on oral sulphonyl urea therapy is shifted to insulin. All of the
followings are true regarding this, except:
1.
GuestGuest
A. Roberts pelvis
B. Naegeles pelvis
C. Rachitic pelvis
D. Osteomalacia pelvis
Ans. B
A. Hydrops fetalis
B. Sacral agenesis
C. Cerebral infarction
D. Hypertrichosis
Ans. C
Q 296. A woman has had 2 previous anencephalic babies, risk of having a third one is:
A. 0%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
Ans. B
Radiology
Q 297. A neonate presents with respiratory distress, contralateral mediastinal shift and
multiple cystic airfilled lesions in the chest. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Paclitaxel
B. Vincristine
C. Amifostine
D. Etoposide
Ans. C
A. CA kidney
B. CA colon
C. CA pancreas
D. CA cervix
Ans. D