2015 Bull XAT 01.pdf - PDF

2015 Bull XAT - 01
DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent
paragraph.
Question No. : 1
1. In debates about education policy, probably no word is more abused than the term "progressive."

P. Are standardized tests serving progressive purposes in our schools? Are charter schools necessarily a progressive idea?
Q. Proponents of ideas generally associated with the political left often call their ideas progressive.
R. Answers to those questions vary depending on who you ask.
S. But what does progressivism really mean in the education policy world? Do folks identifying as political progressives also
support the education policies of the Obama administration?

6. Progressive education actually has a deep tradition in America founded on very specific values. Nevertheless, the progressive
perspective is often absent from policy discussions or atrociously misrepresented.
A) SPRQ B) QPSR C) QSPR D) PSRQ E) PQRS
Explanation:-
Statement Q directly links with statement 1 (common link is the term progressive). Statements S and P precede R (as answer
mentions answers to these questions). Also, S precedes P as it links with statement Q. R then links with statement 6. This makes
option 3 the correct answer.
DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the question and mark the appropriate answer.
Question No. : 2
Which of the following is not a term of 'appreciation'?
A) gratitude B) salutation C) extolment D) elegize E) kudos
Explanation:-
In order to identify the correct answer, let us have a look at the meaning of the options:
1. gratitude: a feeling of thankfulness and appreciation.
2. salutation: an act of honour or courteous recognition.
3. extolment: an expression of approval and commendation.
4. elegize: (poetry) compose an elegy.
5. kudos: an expression of approval and commendation.

We can clearly see that option 4 is the odd one out here.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent
paragraph.
Question No. : 3
A. A majestic city known as the ville lumière, or “city of light,” Paris has often been remade, most famously in the mid-19th century
under the command of Georges-Eugène, Baron Haussman, who was committed to Napoleon III’s vision of a modern city free of
the choleric swamps and congested alleys of old, with broad avenues and a regular plan.
B. Paris is now a sprawling metropolis, one of Europe’s largest conurbations, but its historic heart can still be traversed in an
evening’s walk amidst its denizens.
C. Metropolitan Paris has now extended far beyond its ancient suburbs into the countryside, however, and nearly every French
town and village now numbers a retiree or two driven from the city by the high cost of living, so that, in a sense, Paris has come to
embrace the desert and the desert Paris.
D. The capital and by far the most important city of France is Paris, one of the world’s preeminent cultural and commercial centres.
E. Confident that their city stood at the very centre of the world, Parisians were once given to referring to their country as having
two parts, Paris and le désert, the wasteland beyond it.
A) ADBEC B) DACBE C) ADCBE D) DABEC E) ABCDE
Explanation:-
D, with its by far the most important city, is suitable general comment on Paris, which is elaborated by the rest of the lines. Thus, it
is a good opening line here. A carries forward this idea further and is joined by line B, wherein now indicates that it needs to follow
A (D-A-B). Notice the word metropolitan Paris, which is obviously an extension of the earlier Paris (D-A-B-E).
DIRECTIONS for the question: In the given paragraph, the last line has been deleted. Choose the option that logically follows the
paragraph.
Question No. : 4
Fanning herself in the midday heat, Mary Trifonopoulou sits patiently in the jobcentre and waits. It is not her first time here, and it
will almost certainly not be her last. A qualified nurse with a big smile and cheerful demeanour, the 30-year-old lost her job in a
children's hospital in October and has been looking for work ever since. For nursing jobs?"For anything." Meanwhile, she is living
with her mother, surviving on €360 a month in unemployment benefit, and learning English as a last-resort exit strategy.
______________________________________________________.
A) Life, she says simply, "is very hard". B) "If only I had made wiser choices in life", she rues.
C) "If you have optimize what you can in life", she says. D) "This is the inextricable pickle yet challenging of life", she says.
E) This is what Greece has done to its residents: making them scrape for everything.
Explanation:-
The answer to this question can be found but you need to be careful with your analysis. Option 2 is rejected as Mary does not
include the sentiment of self-pity in her assessment. Option 3 talks about optimization, which is again something absent from the
paragraph. Option 4 is too generic in nature. Option 5 changes the context of the paragraph by talking about Greece. Option 1 is
the apt answer here as it reflects a generic statement that fits the situation.
DIRECTIONS for the question: In the given paragraph, the last line has been deleted. Choose the option that logically follows the
paragraph.
Question No. : 5
The definition of domestic violence will be amended from March with two important changes: the inclusion of coercive behaviour
and the recognition of 16- and 17-year-olds as victims of abuse. These amendments, although they are not a change in criminal
law – as many have assumed - are broadly welcomed. By highlighting coercive control, there is now a clearer focus on patterns of
controlling behaviour rather than individual incidents. The inclusion of 16- and 17-year-olds is a much-needed development given
that 40% of teenagers report abusive intimate relationships and that, according to the Crime Survey for England and Wales, those
aged between 16 and 24 are the most at risk of domestic violence of any age group.
__________________________________________________.
A) However, we must not assume that by changing the definition of domestic violence it will automatically increase their safety.
B) Historically many young people have fallen through the gaps between children's services and domestic violence services.
C) If the government is serious about protecting and supporting young people at risk, it must do more than announce an
amended definition for domestic violence.
D)Hopefully their inclusion will send a strong message to services and young people that their experiences are valid and that
they need and deserve support.
E) It is vital that national guidance is developed to establish who is responsible for responding to young people affected by
abuse and that services are supported to deal with the rise in referrals.
Explanation:-
In the given case, option 4 is the apt answer of the question. The author at no point indicates a change of direction and this means
that we can rule out options 1 and 3. Option 2 and 5 introduce points which are relevant to the topic of discussion but these do
not fit the given sequence of sentences and are out of place in the given context. Option 4 is the apt answer as it builds on the
sentiment the author displays in the last line of the paragraph.
DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the question based on the information given in the passage.
Question No. : 6
Hitesh is an ordinary in academics. In the last two national mathematics Olympiads, his overall performance was miserable.

Which of the following, if true, weakens the above argument the most?
A) Hitesh was placed last in the mathematics Olympiad held for his school students.
B) Hitesh was placed first in the national physics Olympiad.
C) In the last two national mathematics Olympiads, Hitesh competed with students elder to him by one year.
D) Hitesh is the only participant from his school in the national mathematics Olympiad.
E) Hitesh always stands first in mathematics tests held in his school.
Explanation:-
Remember we need to weaken the argument, that is weaken the conclusion. Which is the conclusion in this case? The first
statement is the conclusion in this argument and we need to prove that Hitesh is not ordinary in academics. The option that does
that is option 2. Remember, the proof used by argument in the first place is that he did not perform in mathematics Olympiad. We
have flipped that fact and used it to our advantage.
Option 1 further strengthens the given argument.
Option 3 does not have a definitive impact on the argument as it does not establish Hitesh's academic credentials.
Option 4 proves that maybe his school does not have quality talent but it does nothing to prove the calibre of Hitesh.
Option 5 is again ruled out on similar grounds to option 4.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Complete the sentence by filling in the appropriate blank/blanks from the options provided.
Question No. : 7
i. His statements seemed to make an ___________ to the fact that I did not like him.
ii. He is a victim of his own __________.
iii. The ________ created by magic is something that endears young minds.
iv. The gang are a master of _______ and managed to evade arrests.

A) delusions, allusion, illusions, elusion B) delusions, allusion, elusion, illusions C) illusions, delusions, allusion, elusion
D) illusions, elusion, allusion, delusions E) allusion, delusions, illusions, elusion
Explanation:-
The meanings of the words will help you identify the answer:
Allusion is an indirect reference to something; a hint.
Delusion is a false idea, belief, or opinion that is contrary to fact or reality, resulting from deception or a misconception.
Illusion is a deception; a false, although often pleasant, notion; a misconception.
Elusion is to escape with the help of deception.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the question and mark the appropriate answer.
Question No. : 8
I. Discomfit
II. Discomfort
III. Disconcert
IV. Discompose
V. Discommend
VI. Discordant

Which of the above words have similar meanings?
A) II, III, IV and VI B) I, II, III and V C) I, III and IV D) I, III, IV and V E) I, II, III, IV and VI
Explanation:-
The meanings of the six words are highlighted below:
I. Discomfit: Cause to lose one's composure
II. Discomfort: The state of being tense and feeling pain
III. Disconcert: Cause to lose one's composure/ Cause to feel embarrassment
IV. Discompose: Cause to lose one's composure
V. Discommend: Express approval of
VI. Discordant: Not in agreement or harmony

We can see I, III and IV have similar meanings.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the question based on the information given in the paragraph.
Question No. : 9
There is little point in looking to artists for insights into political issues. Most of them hold political views that are less insightful
than those of any reasonably well-educated person who is not an artist. Indeed, when taken as a whole, the statements made by
artists, including those considered to be great, indicate that artistic talent and political insight are rarely found together.

Which one of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A) There are no artists who have insights into political issues

B) Some artists are no less politically insightful than some reasonably well-educated persons who are not artists
C) Every reasonably well-educated person who is not an artist has more insight into political issues than any artist
D) Politicians rarely have any artistic talent E) Artists always lack political insight
Explanation:-
The statement says that artists are artists and do not have political insights; this is reflected in (C).
DIRECTIONS for the question: The passage given contains blanks, choose the best choice in each case from the words in the
options and mark your answer accordingly.
Question No. : 10
Growing up I was good enough at sports to be _____(i)_____ as a standard jock, with little to offer the world but a form of low-level
entertainment, and something like “street smarts” or “common sense.” In college my response to _____(ii)_____ of this nature—
including the _____(iii)_____ that I received favorable jock treatment from sports-fan-professors—revealed insecurities I wasn’t
mature enough to fully appreciate. Like most kids, my parents taught me not to judge books by their covers. But one of my young-
adult good-athlete defense mechanisms was to resist anything _____(iv)_____ by non-athletic pseudo-intellectuals, which meant I
formed an even more _____(v)_____ habit: occasionally judging books by the cover of the people who spoke about them the most.
Unfortunately, that meant missing out on some authors I should have read much earlier in life, and for all the wrong reasons
David Foster Wallace was one of them.
A) (i) aped, (ii) disdain, (iii) allegation, (iv) vetoed, (v) objectionable
B) (i) caricatured, (ii) disdain, (iii) allegation, (iv) endorsed, (v) agreeable
B) (i) caricatured, (ii) disdain, (iii) allegation, (iv) endorsed, (v) agreeable
C) (i) aped, (ii) condescension, (iii) commendation, (iv) endorsed, (v) objectionable
D) (i) caricatured, (ii) appreciation, (iii) accusation, (iv) vetoed, (v) intolerable
E) (i) caricatured, (ii) condescension, (iii) accusation, (iv) endorsed, (v) objectionable
Explanation:-
Option 2 incorrectly uses the agreeable.
Option 3 incorrectly uses the word commendation.
Option 4 incorrectly uses the word appreciation.
Options 1 and 4 incorrectly use the word vetoed.

The paragraph with the right set of words (in keeping with the sentiment of the paragraph) is: Growing up I was good enough at
sports to be caricatured as a standard jock, with little to offer the world but a form of low-level entertainment, and something like
“street smarts” or “common sense.” In college my response to condescension of this nature—including the accusation that I
received favorable jock treatment from sports-fan-professors—revealed insecurities I wasn’t mature enough to fully appreciate.
Like most kids, my parents taught me not to judge books by their covers. But one of my young-adult good-athlete defense
mechanisms was to resist anything endorsed by non-athletic pseudo-intellectuals, which meant I formed an even more
objectionable habit: occasionally judging books by the cover of the people who spoke about them the most. Unfortunately, that
meant missing out on some authors I should have read much earlier in life, and for all the wrong reasons David Foster Wallace
was one of them.
DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyze the following statements and give an appropriate answer to the following question.
Question No. : 11
The district health officer boasts that the average ambulance turnaround time, the time from summons to delivery of the patient,
has been reduced this year for top-priority emergencies. This is a serious misrepresentation. This "reduction" was produced simply
by redefining "top priority". Such emergencies used to include gunshot wounds and electrocutions, the most time-consuming
cases. Now they are limited strictly to heart attacks and strokes.

Which one of the following would strengthen the author's conclusion that it was the redefinition of "top priority" that
produced the reduction in turnaround time?
A) The number of heart attacks and strokes declined this year

B) The health officer redefined the district's medical priorities this year
C) One half of all last year's top-priority emergencies were gunshot wounds and electrocution cases
D) Other cities include gunshot wound cases in their category of top-priority emergencies E) None of the above
Explanation:-
If in the past top priority were gunshot wounds, eliminating them would strengthen the conclusion.
Question No. : 12
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following passage and answer the question based on it.

Deliberative democracy demands a reflexive (or reflection driven) reordering of preferences in a non-coercive manner. The
authenticity of democracy requires in addition that these reflective preferences influence collective outcomes and action, and so
long as the state is the main (though far from exclusive) locus of collective decisions, it requires discursive mechanisms for
transmission of public opinion to the state. A deliberative or more properly a discursive democracy, in order that it can
accommodate several competing versions of democracies such as the liberal, the minimal, the difference, etc., must also
accommodate rhetoric, narratives, and empathy along with reasoning. A rationality and a reasoning that does not accommodate
values is meaningless. However, it is also argued that individual rationality cannot be realized if values are embedded in the
decision procedures, in other words, realization of values could be made possible only when individuals behave non-rationally.
Further if values having been abandoned at the individual level are accorded a place only collectively, the same must lead to either
"epistemological inconsistency or abandonment of autonomy of individual evaluations". A talk or a rhetoric, otherwise, is strategic
and is employed with the intention of signalling certain information. Such a talk can be therefore deceptive and coercive. The
illocutionary force and the normative trappings of a Foucauldian discourse while allowing identification with a community and
differences with the others, do simultaneously pose through coercion a threat to an utterance as such. If democracy cannot ensure
utterance as freedom and if the illocutionary forces in a discursive democracy disciplines the thought and the talk, then how such a
democracy could indeed be called authentic!
Most human actions and discourses are actuated by a deeper or primordial ante-deliberation Desire (let us use a capital 'D').
Speaking as such is out of such a Desire (one might use volition or passion). Engaging in a deliberation or else in an action is
possible only since there has been such a Desire. Desire appears to both the reflection and also to an observer as a mental-state. A
discourse can be set only when such mental states are in harmony, or share a common predisposition or attitude. In the absence
of such shared mental-states, no discourse and no deliberation can begin. A running underlying and most often unstated theme
that remains at the back of the idea of deliberative democracy is competition - a competition with the 'other" which introduces
strategy. The alternative to competition, a mental-state which is out of a Desire to enjoy the 'other' in the light of a memory that
this 'one' and the 'other' were but the same and would again become the same, do not appear in the known Anglo-American
literature. Such a mental-state might generate and keep alive possibilities of cooperation, although, is never a state of cooperation
alone as such.
Which of the following follows from the passage above?
A) A rhetoric laden talk can generate authentic democratic collective choice B) Irrational persons alone can have values
C) Authenticity of democracy requires a strong reflection-action interaction
D) A paradigm of competition alone can sustain an authentic democracy E) Both 2 and 3
Explanation:-
Second line: “The authenticity of democracy requires in addition that these reflective preferences influence collective outcomes
and action…”
Question No. : 13

alone as such.
Desire as ante-deliberation driving action refers to:
A) Irrationality of deliberation B) Uselessness of deliberation C) Desire to act without thinking

D) Temporal inconsistency in a position that argues for deliberative action constituting democracy
D) Temporal inconsistency in a position that argues for deliberative action constituting democracy
E) Community based discourse
Explanation:-
Can be inferred from the beginning lines of the second paragraph."Most human ........no deliberation can begin."
Question No. : 14

alone as such.
Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
A) Author argues that democracy is bound to fail B) Author argues that Desire is primal
C) Author argues for an end to primal desire so that an end to competition can come through D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Explanation:-
The author argues for cooperation in the last line but also says that it is never a state of cooperation alone as such.
Question No. : 15
Statement 1: If you wish to create a sense of competition in your staff, you need to create a proper incentive scheme for them.
Statement 2: Auto-corp did not create a proper incentive scheme for its employees but it had a highly competitive staff.

Which of the following options is correct with respect to the above statements?
A) If statement 2 is right, statement 1 is invalid. B) Statement 1 and 2 are contradictory to each other.
C) Statement 2 supplements statement 1. D) Statement 2 is a rare occurrence and hence irrelevant.
E) Statement 1 will hold true even is statement 2 is valid.
Explanation:-
This is an extremely tricky question wherein you need to understand the logic operating behind the original statements.
Remember, statement 1 is an if-then statement and what this means is that there is no limiting condition in the given case on the
effect (which means that a sense of competition can be created without an incentive scheme or in other words, a sense of
competition can exist because of other causes as well). Keeping this in mind, your analysis of the question should change. This
means that statements 1 and 2 can exist independently, a fact that helps us establish option 5 as the correct answer. This also
means that we can rule out option 1 and 2. Option 3 is ruled out as statement 2 does not supplement statement 1.
Question No. : 16
Today in the realm of sports, including amateur and professional sports, kids’ and adults’ sports, ethical behavior is taught and
adhered to less as an absolute value than as a practical means of avoiding the ‘appearance’ of cheating. In other words, whatever a
team or an individual athlete can get away with, while ‘seeming’ to be honest and forthright, is considered not only acceptable but
positively admirable. “Nice guys finish last” (attributed to the late baseball manager Leo Durocher) implies that those who play by
the rules may be seen as good people but they do not win, and as Vince Lombardi, the late football coach, is said to have stated:
“Winning isn’t everything, it’s the only thing!” Both of these comments make success more important than values such as
sportsmanship, the ‘fun of the game’, and being a good loser.

Which of the following is closest to the ideas expressed in the above passage?
A) The cause is irrelevant, only the effect matters. B) Cause is subservient to the interest of the effect.
C) The method is of no consequence, what matters is only the result.
D) Cause and result are tied by tired by a wobbly thread of morality. E) Cause and method bear no relation to one another.
Explanation:-
In the given case, complete relevance has been placed on the result or final outcome and the author states that it does not matter
how these results are achieved. This makes option 3 the apt answer in this case. Remember, the paragraph is not about cause and
effect; it is about the result and the method used to achieve it.
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Question No. : 17
The town clock of Sibley had just struck twelve. Court had adjourned, and Judge Evans, with one or two of the leading lawyers of
the county, stood in the door-way of the court-house discussing in a friendly way the eccentricities of criminals as developed in
the case then before the court. Mr. Lord had just ventured the assertion that crime as a fine art was happily confined to France; to
which District Attorney Ferris had replied: "And why? Because atheism has not yet acquired such a hold upon our upper classes
that gentlemen think it possible to meddle with such matters. It is only when a student, a doctor, a lawyer, determines to put aside
from his path the secret stumbling-block to his desires or his ambition that the true intellectual crime is developed. That brute
whom you see slouching along over the way is the type of the average criminal of the day."

And he indicated with a nod a sturdy, ill-favored man, who, with pack on his back, was just emerging from a grassy lane that
opened out from the street directly opposite the court-house.

"Such men are often seen in the dock," remarked Mr. Orcutt, of more than local reputation as a criminal lawyer. "And often escape
the penalty of their crimes," he added, watching, with a curious glance, the lowering brow and furtive look of the man who, upon
perceiving the attention he had attracted, increased his pace till he almost broke into a run.

"Looks as if he had been up to mischief," observed Judge Evans.

"Rather as if he had heard the sentence which was passed upon the last tramp who paid his respects to this town," corrected Mr.
Lord.

"Revenons à nos moutons," resumed the District Attorney. "Crime, as an investment, does not pay in this country. The regular
burglar leads a dog's life of it; and when you come to the murderer, how few escape suspicion if they do the gallows. I do not
know of a case where a murder for money has been really successful in this region."

"Then you must have some pretty cute detective work going on here," remarked a young man who had not before spoken.

"No, no—nothing to brag of. But the brutes are so clumsy—that is the word, clumsy. They don't know how to cover up their
tracks."

"The smart ones don't make tracks," interposed a rough voice near them, and a large, red-haired, slightly hump-backed man, who,
from the looks of those about, was evidently a stranger in the place, shuffled forward from the pillar against which he had been
leaning, and took up the thread of conversation.

"I tell you," he continued, in a gruff tone somewhat out of keeping with the studied abstraction of his keen, gray eye, "that half the
criminals are caught because they do make tracks and then resort to such extraordinary means to cover them up. The true secret
of success in this line lies in striking your blow with a weapon picked up on the spot, and in choosing for the scene of your tragedy
a thoroughfare where, in the natural course of events, other men will come and go and unconsciously tread out your traces,
provided you have made any. This dissipates suspicion, or starts it in so many directions that justice is at once confused, if not
ultimately baffled. Look at that house yonder," the stranger pursued, pointing to a plain dwelling on the opposite corner. "While
we have been standing here, several persons of one kind or another, and among them a pretty rough-looking tramp, have gone
into the side gate and so around to the kitchen door and back. I don't know who lives there, but say it is a solitary old woman
above keeping help, and that an hour from now some one, not finding her in the house, searches through the garden and comes
upon her lying dead behind the wood-pile, struck down by her own axe. On whom are you going to lay your hand in suspicion?
On the stranger, of course—the rough-looking tramp that everybody thinks is ready for bloodshed at the least provocation. But
suspicion is not conviction, and I would dare wager that no court, in face of a persistent denial on his part that he even saw the old
woman when he went to her door, would bring in a verdict of murder against him, even though silver from her private drawer
were found concealed upon his person. The chance that he spoke the truth, and that she was not in the house when he entered,
and that his crime had been merely one of burglary or theft, would be enough to save him from the hangman."
The given passage can be labelled as:
A) an exposition of truth B) an interlude of chicanery C) a manifest of dictums D) an assortment of outlooks
E) a hodgepodge of calumnies
Explanation:-
This is a question that requires a couple of skills. One skill required here is vocabulary. The meanings of the following words dictate
the difficulty of this question:
Exposition: A systematic interpretation or explanation (usually written) of a specific topic
Interlude: An intervening period or episode
Chicanery: The use of tricks to deceive someone (usually to extract money from them)
Manifest: a customs document listing the contents put on a ship or plane
Dictum: An authoritative declaration
Hodgepodge: A motley assortment of things
Calumnies: A false accusation of an offence or a malicious misrepresentation of someone's words or actions
We can see from the above that option 4 is the best answer in the given case.

Question No. : 18




Lord.



tracks."


In the given context of the passage, the phrase 'dog's life' means:
A) an fascinating life B) a tedious life C) a pernicious life D) an irksome life E) a painful life
Explanation:-
Refer to the lines: "Revenons à nos moutons," resumed the District Attorney. "Crime, as an investment, does not pay in this country.
The regular burglar leads a dog's life of it; and when you come to the murderer, how few escape suspicion if they do the gallows. I
do not know of a case where a murder for money has been really successful in this region
In the given context, the author is referring to the fact that ordinary criminals and burglars have a tough life as they are not able
to avoid detection. This makes option 5 the apt answer in the given case.

Question No. : 19




Lord.



tracks."


Among the options given below, which idioms specifically captures the sentiment expressed by the large, red-haired, slightly
hump-backed man in the last two paragraphs of the passage?
A) Crime doesn't pay B) The weed of crime bears bitter fruit C) Poverty is not a crime D) Partners in crime
E) Get away with murder
Explanation:-
The meanings of the idioms are provided below:
Crime doesn't pay: Crime will ultimately not benefit a person.
The weed of crime bears bitter fruit: No good will come from criminal schemes.
Poverty is not a crime: You should not condemn someone for being poor.
Partners in crime: If two people are partners in crime, they have done something bad together
Get away with murder: to commit murder and not get punished for it/to do something very bad and not get punished for it.
We can see that option 5 is the best fit in the given case.

Question No. : 20




Lord.



tracks."


Name Profession
i. Mr. Lord a. District Attorney
ii. Mr. Ferris b. Judge
iii. Mr. Evans c. Criminal Lawyer
iv. Mr. Orcutt d. Lawyer

Which of the above 'related names' on the left-hand side are correctly matched 'professions' on the right-hand side?
A) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b B) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c C) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d E) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
Explanation:-
The answer can be derived from the portions highlighted: The town clock of Sibley had just struck twelve. Court had adjourned,
and Judge Evans, with one or two of the leading lawyers of the county, stood in the door-way of the court-house discussing in
a friendly way the eccentricities of criminals as developed in the case then before the court. Mr. Lord had just ventured the
assertion that crime as a fine art was happily confined to France; to which District Attorney Ferris had replied: "And why?
Because atheism has not yet acquired such a hold upon our upper classes that gentlemen think it possible to meddle with such
matters.............."Such men are often seen in the dock," remarked Mr. Orcutt, of more than local reputation as a criminal lawyer.
Question No. : 21
Should the driverless vehicles being developed by Apple, Google and Daimler be programmed to mount the pavement to avoid a
head-on collision? Should they be programmed to swerve to hit one person in order to avoid hitting two? Two instead of four?
Four instead of a lorry full of hazardous chemicals? Driverless cars programmed to select between these options would be one
example of what the science journal Nature has taken to calling ‘ethical robots’. Another is the next generation of weapons. If
drones weren’t bad enough, the US Defence Department is developing Lethal Autonomous Weapons Systems (LAWS). These
select their own kill list using a set of algorithms, and need no human intervention, at however remote a distance. Autonomous
drones in development include tiny rotorcraft smaller than a table-tennis ball, which will be able to float through homes, shops
and offices to deliver a puncture to the cranium.

In July 2015, Nature published an article, ‘The Robot’s Dilemma’, which claimed that computer scientists “have written a logic
program that can successfully make a decision… which takes into account whether the harm caused is the intended result of the
action or simply necessary to it.” (I find the word ‘successfully’ chilling here; but not as chilling as ‘simply necessary’.) One of the
scientists behind the ‘successful’ program argues that human ethical choices are made in a similar way: “Logic is how we… come
up with our ethical choices.” But this can scarcely be true. To argue that logic is how we make our ethical decisions is to appeal to
what American philosopher Hilary Putnam describes as “the comfortable eighteenth century assumption that all intelligent and
well-informed people who mastered the art of thinking about human actions and problems impartially would feel the appropriate
‘sentiments’ of approval and disapproval in the same circumstances unless there was something wrong with their personal
constitution”. However, for good or ill, ethical choices often fly in the face of logic. They may come from emotion, natural
cussedness, vague inkling, gut instinct, or even imagination. For instance, I am marching through North Carolina with the Union
Army, utterly logically convinced that only military victory over the Confederacy will abolish the hateful institution of slavery. But
when I see the face of the enemy – a scrawny, shoeless seventeen-year-old – I throw away my gun and run sobbing from the
battlefield. This is an ethical decision, resulting in decisive action: only it isn’t made in cold blood, and it goes against the logic of
my position.
The author highlights the words 'simply necessary' in the given context of the passage in order to:
A) reflect on the brutality of sentiments involved B) reprieve robots of any ethical obligations
C) review the thought process of robots D) highlight the job of robots E) showcase the human side of robots
Explanation:-
In the given case, the author highlights the phrase in order to showcase the absurdity as well as the brutality of the situation. He
wishes to highlight how the process of robots making decisions to kill someone are harmful in nature. Keeping this in mind, only
option 1 fits in the given context.
Question No. : 22

my position.
In the given passage, the author of the passage is essentially trying to:
A) to showcase how an Orwellian world works. B) to highlight how totalitarian regimes operate.
C) to showcase the incongruities of the world of automation.
D) to showcase the deleterious effects of mechanization on human life. E) None of the above
Explanation:-
"Orwellian" is an adjective describing the situation, idea, or societal condition that George Orwell identified as being destructive
to the welfare of a free and open society. This clearly does not fit in the given case.
The practices and principles of a totalitarian regime: Absolute control by the state or a governing branch of a highly
centralized institution. the character or quality of an autocratic or authoritarian individual, group, or government: the
totalitarianism of the father.
Automation refers to the act of implementing the control of equipment with advanced technology; usually involving electronic
hardware. Keeping this in mind, we can see that option 3 is the apt here.
Option 4 is rejected as the author does not mention any deleterious effects on human life.

Question No. : 23

my position.
The author of the passage would agree with the statement:

I. Ethical robots are myth.
II. Drones with intelligence cannot be made.
III. Logic programs can mimic human thinking.

A) I only B) II only C) I & II both D) I, II and III E) None of the above
Explanation:-
In this case, the author of the passage will only agree with statement I. This is the central argument of the author of the passage.
The author does not say that drones with intelligence cannot be made; it is the types of drones that he is disputing. Statement III
goes against the view of the author.
Question No. : 24

my position.

What does the author mean when he says 'However, for good or ill, ethical choices often fly in the face of logic'?
A) ethical choices muddle logical ones B) ethical choices dictate logical ones C) ethical choices supplant logical ones
D) ethical choices challenge logical ones E) ethical choice displace logical ones
Explanation:-
The idiom 'fly in the face of someone or something' means to challenge someone or something; to go against someone or
something. Using this, we can identify the correct answer.
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Question No. : 25
The number of older Americans with dementia and Alzheimer's disease will likely increase from more than 5 million in 2010 to up
to 6.5 million over the next 10 years, straining the U.S. health-care system and family caregivers alike, said Margaret Gatz, PhD, of
the University of Southern California, at APA's 2011 Annual Convention. That picture could improve if there are significant
advances in treatment and prevention, said Gatz. But at the same time, "the picture could look worse if modifiable risk factors like
diabetes or obesity continue to rise among those now middle aged."

Through her more than 25 years of research on cognitive decline through the Swedish Twin Registry—a sample of nearly 12,000
twins now age 65 or older—Gatz has found that diabetes and obesity are among the most significant non-genetic risk factors for
Alzheimer's disease and dementia. Genes still appear to play the biggest role in Alzheimer's risk—her twin data indicate that about
70 percent of risk for Alzheimer's is likely genetic. But the findings on diabetes and obesity strengthen the argument for
Americans to embrace healthier lifestyles, particularly underserved populations, which are more likely to have these conditions,
said Gatz. "These are the kind of health disparities we are very concerned about in the U.S. today and now here's one more
potential implication—a possible increase in rates of Alzheimer's," she said.

Her twin study findings also indicate that many Alzheimer's risk factors exert their influence at different points in the life span. For
example, diabetes appears to be particularly potent as a risk factor when its onset is in midlife rather than late life, Gatz said.
Tapping into the sample's data on tooth loss before age 35, Gatz has also found that developing periodontal disease early in life is
associated with a particular risk for developing Alzheimer's as older adults. "Over three times more often, the twin with more
tooth loss is the twin who develops dementia, and we find the same for Alzheimer's disease," said Gatz.
Cardiovascular disease, chronic stress and high cholesterol are other significant risk factors for cognitive decline that have
emerged from her twin study. Her data also indicate that depression may be an early symptom of dementia and Alzheimer's
disease.
The news isn't all grim, Gatz pointed out. Her data have also revealed several protective factors that appear to safeguard the brain
against Alzheimer's, one of which is higher education. In the twin study, she found that the twin with the higher level of education
is three times more likely not to develop dementia or Alzheimer's disease, even when controlling for genetic influences and other
life experiences, said Gatz. Other protective factors include participating in leisure activities, such as reading and cultural activities,
said Gatz, but mainly for women. Light or regular exercise such as walking or playing sports is a strong protective factor for both
men and women, added Gatz. Heavy exercise, such hard physical labor or training, was not found to be significantly protective.

People's work and career choices may also buffer against cognitive decline. Gatz's research shows that having a job that involves
complex work with people—careers that involve persuasion, mentoring, instruction and supervision—relate to a lower risk of
Alzheimer's. That said, people with those jobs also have a steeper rate of decline once Alzheimer's is diagnosed. "This is consistent
with the idea that education and [job] complexity push off the onset of Alzheimer's, but once there is a diagnosis, the decline is
faster," she said.

While such protective factors offer no guarantee against developing the disease, they offer hope and a guide for precluding
cognitive decline for all ages, Gatz said. "Protection for good brain health is something that needs to be thought about as a lifetime
commitment," she said.
Which of the following does not act as protective factors that safeguard the brain against Alzheimer's?
A) Higher education B) Intense exercise C) Career Choices D) Taking up reading as a leisure activity E) Playing sports
Explanation:-
This is a fact based question and should be answered correctly at all costs. Refer to the lines: Other protective factors include
participating in leisure activities, such as reading and cultural activities, said Gatz, but mainly for women. Light or regular exercise
such as walking or playing sports is a strong protective factor for both men and women, added Gatz. Heavy exercise, such hard
physical labor or training, was not found to be significantly protective.
Question No. : 26


disease.

faster," she said.

Based on the information given in the passage, identify the correct statements.

I. periodontal disease leads to Alzheimer's.
II. lifestyle diseases increase the risk of Alzheimer's.
III. the significant risk for Alzheimer's is genetic in nature.

A) I & II B) II & III C) I & III D) Only I E) All of the above
Explanation:-
Statement I in incorrect. Refer to the lines: Tapping into the sample's data on tooth loss before age 35, Gatz has also found that
developing periodontal disease early in life is associated with a particular risk for developing Alzheimer's as older adults. The
author talks about how periodontal disease can lead to higher chances of Alzheimer's.
Statement II can be derived from the lines: But the findings on diabetes and obesity strengthen the argument for Americans to
embrace healthier lifestyles, particularly underserved populations, which are more likely to have these conditions, said Gatz.
Statement III can be derived from the lines: Genes still appear to play the biggest role in Alzheimer's risk—her twin data indicate
that about 70 percent of risk for Alzheimer's is likely genetic.
Question No. : 27


disease.

faster," she said.

The word 'precluding' means:
A) excluding B) preventing C) forbearing D) disqualifying E) barring
Explanation:-
Refer to the lines: While such protective factors offer no guarantee against developing the disease, they offer hope and a guide for
precluding cognitive decline for all ages, Gatz said.
The definition of precluding is 'keep from happening or arising; make impossible'. In the given context, we can see that option 2 is
the best answer choice for the given question.

Question No. : 28


disease.

faster," she said.

In general, the tone of the passage can be identified as:
A) descriptive and expounding B) pedagogical and didactic C) factual and subjective D) objective and predisposed
E) realistic and skewed
Explanation:-
In the given case, the author of the passage is simply quoting an expert and her views. The purpose of the article is clearly to
describe findings related to particular research. Keeping this in mind, we can see that option 1 is the best answer in the given case.
Question No. : 29
DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the following question based on the following information.

6 friends — Gurvinder, Surinder, Mahinder, Bhupinder, Arinder, Joginder. Their wives are — Sita, Rama, Dolly, Monica, Trisna,
Kaveri (not in the same order as their husbands). 'These 6 friends belong to Ambala, Jaipur, Guntur, Kapurthala, Noida or Jammu
(not necessarily in order). Each of them plays one of the games — cricket, football, volleyball, snooker, TT or badminton (again not
necessarily in that order). Each of the friends belongs to one of the places only, plays only one game and is married to one lady
only.

-Husbands of Dolly, Trisna or Kaveri do not play football or volleyball.
-The one who is from Guntur plays cricket.
-Joginder plays football and is from Jammu.
-Mahinder and Arinder are married to Sita and Monica respectively but are not from Guntur.
-The men from Jaipur and Kapurthala are TT and volleyball players respectively.
-Bhupinder is from Noida.
-Rama is married to the man from Jammu.
-Mahinder plays snooker.
Who is married to the man from Kapurthala?
A) Dolly B) Monica C) Sita D) Cannot be determined E) None of these
Explanation:-
Name Wife Place Game
Gurvinder Jaipur/ TT/ Cricket
Guntur
Surinder Guntur/ Cricket/ TT
Jaipur
Mahinder Sita Ambala Snooker
Bhupinder Noida Badminton
Arinder Monica Kapurthala Volleyball
Joginder Rama Jammu Football
From the above table, it can be checked that the man from Kapurthala is Arinder and Monica is married to Arinder.
Question No. : 30
DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the following question based on the following information.

6 friends — Gurvinder, Surinder, Mahinder, Bhupinder, Arinder, Joginder. Their wives are — Sita, Rama, Dolly, Monica, Trisna,
Kaveri (not in the same order as their husbands). 'These 6 friends belong to Ambala, Jaipur, Guntur, Kapurthala, Noida or Jammu
(not necessarily in order). Each of them plays one of the games — cricket, football, volleyball, snooker, TT or badminton (again not
necessarily in that order). Each of the friends belongs to one of the places only, plays only one game and is married to one lady
only.

-Husbands of Dolly, Trisna or Kaveri do not play football or volleyball.
-The one who is from Guntur plays cricket.
-Joginder plays football and is from Jammu.
-Mahinder and Arinder are married to Sita and Monica respectively but are not from Guntur.
-The men from Jaipur and Kapurthala are TT and volleyball players respectively.
-Bhupinder is from Noida.
-Rama is married to the man from Jammu.
-Mahinder plays snooker.
The person who plays Snooker belongs to which place?
A) Noida B) Ambala C) Jammu D) Cannot be determined E) None of these
Explanation:-
Name Wife Place Game
Gurvinder Jaipur/ TT/ Cricket
Guntur
Surinder Guntur/ Cricket/ TT
Jaipur
Mahinder Sita Ambala Snooker
Bhupinder Noida Badminton
Arinder Monica Kapurthala Volleyball
Joginder Rama Jammu Football
It can be verified that the Mahinder is playing snooker and belongs to Ambala.
Question No. : 31
Weight of which industry category is highest in the calculation of IIP General Index?
A) Manufacturing B) Mining & Quarrying C) Electricity D) Mining & Electricity E) None of these
Explanation:-
It is clear from the first graph that the weight of manufacturing is highest in the calculation of IIP General Index.
Question No. : 32
Which of industry category out of textile and allied products category [Textile products (including Wearing Apparel); Jute and other
vegetable fibre textiles (except cotton); Wool, silk, and man-made fibre textiles; and Cotton textiles] had the highest growth in the
financial year 2004-05 as compared to 2000-01?
A) Cotton textiles B) Jute and other vegetable fibre textiles (except cotton) C) Wool, silk and man-made fibre textiles
D) Textile products (including Wearing Apparel) E) None of these
Explanation:-
The following table gives change in status
2000-01 2004-05 % Change
Textile Products (including 164.2 269.6 + 64.2%
Wearing Apparel)
Jute and Other Vegetable Fibre 108.6 127.6 + 17.5%
Textile (except cotton)
Wool, Silk and Man Made Fibre 221.3 267.8 + 21.01%
Textile
Cotton Textiles 127.6 138.1 + 8.2%
Obviously Textile products had the highest growth. Hence, Option 4.
Question No. : 33
Comparing the growth from year 2000-01 to 2004-05 in the index of Mining and Quarrying Industry with the Index of Metal
Processing Industries [assume weights in IIP: Transport equipment and parts (5%): Machinery and equipment other than transport
equipment (5%); Metal products and parts (except Machinery and equipment) (7%): Basic Metal and alloy industries (7%)] in the
corresponding period, we see that:
A) Growth in the index of Mining and Quarrying Industry is less than the growth in the Index of Metal Processing Industries
B) Growth in the index of Mining and Quarrying Industry is more than the growth in the Index of Metal Processing Industries
C) Growth in the index of Mining and Quarrying Industry is equal to the growth in the Index of Metal Processing Industries
D) It cannot be determined E) None of these
Explanation:-
The IIP index is tabulated as under
2000-01 2004-05 % Change
Mining & Quarrying 142 178 25.35%
Metal Processing 220.4 × .05 + 333.5 × 0.05 + 23.58%
Industry 215 × .05 + 363.1 × .05 +
157.4 × 0.07 + 181 × .07 +
256.7 × .07 = 218.4 × .07 =
50.8 62.79
Obviously Option 2 is correct answer.
Question No. : 34
DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the following question on the basis of the data given below in the tables.

Industry FY - 05 FY - 04 FY - 03 FY - 02 FY - 01 FY - 00
Basic Goods 196.4 183.2 172.1 164.6 158.6 159.6
Capital Goods 341.9 278 222.1 201.2 192.2 194.4
Intermediate Goods 223.7 210.5 199.9 185.1 190.6 178.6
Consumer Durables 332 299.7 243 276.7 257.2 257.8
Consumer Non-Durables 227 205.7 202.4 185.1 171.4 165.5

*FY-05 implies financial year 2004-05

Weights 1980-81 1993-94
Basic Goods 394.18 355.12
Capital Goods 164.27 96.87
Intermediate Goods 205.07 264.39
Consumer Durables 25.5 51.15
Consumer Non-Durables 210.98 232.47
Index of consumer goods is created by finding out the weighed average of the consumer durable and non-durable goods.
Therefore index of production of consumer goods from the financial year 2001 to 2005 when the base year is 1993-94 is:
A) 186.9, 201.6, 199.7, 212.6, 245.9 B) 186.9, 201.6, 209.6, 222.6, 245.9 C) 182.2, 186.9, 201.6, 209.7, 222.6
D) 182.2, 201.6, 209.7, 222.6, 245.9 E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 35

Basic Goods 196.4 183.2 172.1 164.6 158.6 159.6
Capital Goods 341.9 278 222.1 201.2 192.2 194.4


Weights 1980-81 1993-94
Index of consumer goods is created by finding out the weighed average of the consumer durable and non-durable goods. Index of
production of consumer goods from the financial year 2000 to 2004 when the base year is 1980-81 is:
A) 180.7, 194.9, 206.8, 215.8, 238.3 B) 175.5, 180.7, 184.9, 196.8, 215.8 C) 180.7, 194.9, 216.8, 225.8, 238.3
D) 175.5, 180.7, 194.9, 206.8, 215.8 E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 36

Basic Goods 196.4 183.2 172.1 164.6 158.6 159.6
Capital Goods 341.9 278 222.1 201.2 192.2 194.4


Weights 1980-81 1993-94
IIP General Index is constructed by calculating the weighted average of production of all the categories of goods. Therefore the IIP
General Index from the year financial 2001 to 2005 when the base year is 1993-94 is:
A) 174.4, 184.1, 194.9, 210.8, 231.8 B) 174.4, 178.3, 184.1, 194.9, 210.8 C) 178.3, 180.3, 184.1, 194.9, 210.8
D) 178.3, 184.1, 194.9, 210.8, 231.8 E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 37
Party E comes out of Apple coalition and joins Banana coalition; party J pulls itself out of Apple coalition and joins Guava coalition;
party F and G comes out of Banana coalition and joins Apple coalition; and party A in Region 6 splits into two groups of equal
representatives, one group remains with the Apple coalition and another joins Guava coalition. In this scenario which coalition will
have the required numbers to form the national government?
A) Apple B) Banana C) Guava D) Nation to go for general election E) Can’t be determined
Explanation:-

A C D E J Total
APPLE : 145 43 36 21 10 255

B F G H I K L M N O Total
BANANA : 138 19 16 12 11 9 8 8 6 5 232

GUAVA: 509 – (255 + 232) = 22.

After making the changes, the following will be the no. of seats won by each party (no. of supporters):
APPLE: 255 - 21 (E) - 10 (J) - 4(half of R6) + 35 (F,G) = 255 No change
BANANA: 232 - 35 (F,G) + 21 (E) = 218
GUAVA: 22 +10 (J) + 4(half of R6) = 36

Thus, APPLE party is retaining the majority even after making the changes. Hence, option A.
Question No. : 38
Five seats fell vacant in Region 12 after the untimely death of the sitting members of the current parliament. Two of these seats
were formerly won by party C, two by party A, and one by party B. After fresh elections in these five seats, party C retained one of
the seat and the other seat went to party A; party A retained one seat and the other went to party B; and party B retained its only
seat which went for reelections. The percentage of seats of party C in region 12 is:
A) 82% B) 65% C) 62.5% D) 60% E) None of these
Explanation:-

Thus, the percentage of seats of party C in region 12 = 25/40 X 100 = 62.5%.
Hence, option C is correct.
Question No. : 39
It has been seen that the number of seats won by party A in region 1 is directly proportional to the number of voters who voted in
the elections. In the last elections all 10 million listed voters voted in region 1. In the current election there is a ten percent increase
in the list of eligible voters, out of which eighty percent voted in addition to the 10 million voters who voted last time. Assuming
that in the other regions party A has won same number of seats as in the last elections, what will be the approximate number of
seats won by party A in the current elections?
A) 147 B) 146 C) 145 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 40
DIRECTIONS for the question: Answer the following question on the state of affairs of Indian economy using the data given in
the following table:

Description Units Scale 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
Current US dollars Billions 7.061 6.853 -0.837 -13.524 -16.408
account
balance
Current Ratio 1.4 1.2 -0.1 -1.8 -2
account
balance in
percent of
GDP
Gross US dollars Units 2682.165 2877.698 3079.727 3315.702 3547.148
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
per capita
GDP
Gross Percent 5.65 5.833 5.913 6.049 6.179
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
share of
world total
Gross US dollars Billions 2769.335 3023.022 3290.8 3602.894 3918.637
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
valuation of
country GDP
Implied PPP National 8.691 8.87 9.155 9.276 9.447
conversion currency
rate per US
dollar
Price Index Index, 108.239 112.358 116.591 121.105 127.272
2000=100
In which year, India witnessed highest annual growth rate in GDP based on PPP valuation?
A) 2003 B) 2004 C) 2005 D) 2006 E) Can’t be determined
Explanation:-
Option (1) GDP – 2002 = 2769.335, GDP – 2003 = 3023.022, %age increase = 9.17%
Option (2) GDP – 2004 = 3290.8 % Increase = 8.85%
Option (3) GDP – 2005 = 3602.894 % Increase = 9.48%
Option (4) GDP 2006 = 3918.637 % Increase = 8.76%. Hence, Option 3.
Question No. : 41

account
balance
Current Ratio 1.4 1.2 -0.1 -1.8 -2
account
balance in
percent of
GDP
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
per capita
GDP
Gross Percent 5.65 5.833 5.913 6.049 6.179
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
share of
world total
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
valuation of
country GDP
conversion currency
rate per US
dollar
2000=100
From the year 2003 to 2006, highest annual rate of inflation is roughly equal to
A) 6 % B) 5 % C) 4 % D) 3 % E) 22%
Explanation:-
Price Index 2002 = 108.239 ; 2003 = 112.358 ;
2004 = 116.591 ; 2005 = 121.105 ; 2006 = 127.272
Rate of Inflation (2003) = 3.8% Rate of Inflation (2005) = 3.87%
Rate of Inflation (2004) = 3.76% Rate of Inflation (2006) = 5.09%. Hence, Option 2.
Question No. : 42

account
balance
Current Ratio 1.4 1.2 -0.1 -1.8 -2
account
balance in
percent of
GDP
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
per capita
GDP
Gross Percent 5.65 5.833 5.913 6.049 6.179
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
share of
world total
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
valuation of
country GDP
conversion currency
rate per US
dollar
2000=100
From year 2003 to 2006, growth rate of population in India was highest in
Explanation:-
Question No. : 43

account
balance
Current Ratio 1.4 1.2 -0.1 -1.8 -2
account
balance in
percent of
GDP
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
per capita
GDP
Gross Percent 5.65 5.833 5.913 6.049 6.179
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
share of
world total
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
valuation of
country GDP
conversion currency
rate per US
dollar
2000=100
Which year witnessed highest annual change in world's total GDP (based on PPP)?
Explanation:-
Question No. : 44

account
balance
Current Ratio 1.4 1.2 -0.1 -1.8 -2
account
balance in
percent of
GDP
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
per capita
GDP
Gross Percent 5.65 5.833 5.913 6.049 6.179
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
share of
world total
domestic
product
based on
purchasing-
power-
parity (PPP)
valuation of
country GDP
conversion currency
rate per US
dollar
2000=100
In which year Indian GDP (at current prices) in national currency was approximately equal to Rs. 30,128 billion?
A) 2003 B) 2004 C) 2005 D) 2006 E) Cannot be determined

Explanation:-
DIRECTIONS for the question: In the magic square below, the sum of the numbers in each of the rows, in each of the diagonals
and in each of the columns is equal.

Question No. : 45
If x = 10, then the possible value of y is
A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) Can’t be determined E) None of these
Explanation:-

Thus, only option A i.e., y = 5 satisfies the given conditions.
DIRECTIONS for the question: In the magic square below, the sum of the numbers in each of the rows, in each of the diagonals
and in each of the columns is equal.

Question No. : 46
If the sum of the numbers in each rows, in each of the diagonals, and in each of the columns is 21, a possible value of x is
A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) Can’t be determined E) None of the above
Explanation:-
Hence, we can observe that none of the given option satisfies. Thus, option E.
DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
Question No. : 47
If the two circles x2 + y2 - 2x - 6y = r2 - 10 and x2 + y2 - 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect at two points then
A) 0 < r < 2 B) 2 < r < -8 C) 8 < r < 10 D) Can’t be determined E) None of above
Explanation:-
Thus, option E is correct.
Question No. : 48
A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 64 E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 49
A) B) C) D) No such number exists E) None of these
Explanation:-

Alternate Solution:
Since x is given to be a real number, thus options B and C are eliminated because we need to find square root values for (x - 1/x)
and (1 - 1/x).
Using approximate value for option A i.e., (1+2.236)/2 = 1.62, we can verify that x becomes equal to the expression on the right
side.
Thus, option A is correct.
Question No. : 50
If aC2 = b, then bC2 =
A) 3. b+1C4 B) 3. a+1C4 C) 3. b+1C2 D) 3. a+1C2 E) None of these
Explanation:-
Thus, only option B matches with the correct value.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best option.
If a is an integer and the equation (x - a) (x - 10) + 1 = 0 has integral roots, then the values of a are
Question No. : 51
A) 10, 8 B) 12, 10 C) 12, 8 D) 12, 6 E) None of these
Explanation:-
Since a and x are integers. Therefore, (x - a) (x - 10) + 1 = 0
(x - a). (x - 10) = -1 = - 1 x 1.
Thus, either (x - a) = 1 and x - 10 = (-1) or (x - a) = - 1 and x - 10 = 1
(x = 9, a = 8) or (x = 11, a = 12)
Hence, Option C.
Question No. : 52
Mr. Basu is planning to buy a two wheeler. He has approached a public sector bank for a loan of Rs. 25000. The interest rate for
the loan is 12% per annum compounded annually with the interest being charged on the total amount. Mr. Basu wants to repay
through monthly installments of Rs. 1000. The amount of balance loan left to be repaid after 2 years is:
A) Rs. 7240 B) Rs. 6120 C) Rs. 5920 D) Rs. 5740 E) Rs. 7360
Explanation:-
Question No. : 53
A) d = - a B) d = a C) a = b = c = d = 1 D) a = b = 1 E) None of these
Explanation:-
Thus, option A is correct.

Question No. : 54
What is the total number of palindromes between 10 and 100000 (A palindromic number gives the same number even on
reversing the order of the digits e.g. 2345, when reversed it gives 5432)
A) 3429 B) 1294 C) 2080 D) 4069 E) 1089
Explanation:-
In this case we find all two digit, three digit, four and five digit palindromic numbers. A two digit palindromic number is of the
form xx. Since x can be selected in 9 different ways, i.e 1 to 9, 9 two digit palindromes can be formed. A three digit palindrome is of
the form xyx. x can be selected in 9 different ways and y can be selected in 10 different ways (0 to 9). So number of three digit
palindromes = 9 × 10 = 90.
Four digit palindromes are of the form xyyx and five digit palindromes are of the form xyzyx. In each of the given cases, x can take
9 values, y and z can take 10 values each. So number of four digit palindromes = 90 and number of five digit palindromes = 900.
So total number of palindromes between 10 and 100000 = 900 + 90 + 90 + 9 = 1089.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best option.
Question No. : 55
The number of real roots of (6 - x)4 + (8 - x)4 = 16 is

A) 0 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) None of these
Explanation:-
Let y = 7 - x. Then the given equation becomes
(y - 1)4 + (y + 1)4 = 16.
y4 + 6y2 - 7 = 0
Solving we get
y2 = -7(rejected), y2 = 1
y = +1, -1
x = 6, 8
Hence, the number of real roots is 2 i.e. Option B.

DIRECTIONS for the question: The real numbers x and y are such that x2 + xy + y2 = 1 and A = x3y + xy3
Question No. : 56
If x and y are positive real numbers, then the greatest possible value of A is
A) 0 B) C) 2 D) None of the above E) Can’t be determined
Explanation:-
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:
Question No. : 57
A) 9.0 B) 9.5 C) 10.0 D) 10.25 E) 10.5
Explanation:-
The maximum value of the expression = Maximum numerator / Minimum denominator
=
Hence, option E is correct.
DIRECTIONS for the question: Question is followed by two statements labeled as (A) and (B). You have to decide if these
statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question.
Question No. : 58
Seven integers A, B, C, D, E, F and G are such that

No two integers are equal.
F is greater than G, but smaller than C.
Both A and B are greater than C.
D is greater than E.

Which is the smallest integer?

A. F is greater than E.
B. E is greater than F.

Choose the correct option:
A) If Statement (A) alone is sufficient to answer the question B) If Statement (B) alone is sufficient to answer the question
C) If Statement (A) and Statement (B) together are sufficient but neither alone is sufficient to answer the question
D) If neither Statement (A) nor Statement (B) is sufficient to answer the question
E) If either Statement (A) or Statement (B) is sufficient to answer the question
Explanation:-
According to the question
A, B > C > F > G and D > E
Using statement (A): F > E implies that F is greater than both E and G but which one out of E and G is smaller, cannot be
determined.
Using statement (B): E > F implies that only G is smaller than F and hence G is smallest of all 7 integers.
Hence, statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question. Thus, option B.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Question is followed by two statements labeled as (A) and (B). You have to decide if these
statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question.
Question No. : 59
AP and BQ are perpendicular to PQ. The line BP and AQ meet at S, and ST is perpendicular to PQ.
If AP = 6, and BQ = 4.5 then what is the length of ST?

A. PQ = 9
B. PS = 5

Choose the correct option:
A) If Statement (A) alone is sufficient to answer the question B) If Statement (B) alone is sufficient to answer the question
C) If Statement (A) and Statement (B) together are sufficient but neither alone is sufficient to answer the question
D) If neither Statement (A) nor Statement (B) is sufficient to answer the question
E) If either Statement (A) or Statement (B) is sufficient to answer the question
Explanation:-

We can determine the length ST only if we know PQ, BP and PS or SB.
BY using both the statements we get two values out of three just specifed and third can be found by applying pyhtagorus theorm.
Thus, we require both the statements to answer the question. Hence, option C.
Question No. : 60
The average age of 3 children in a family is 20% of the average age of the father and the eldest child. The total age of the mother
and the youngest child is 39 years. If the father’s age is 26 years what is the age of second child?
A) 15 years B) 18 years C) 20 years D) Cannot be determined E) None of these
Explanation:-
Since, the total or average age of all the family members is not given, the given data is inadequate. So, the age of second child
cannot be determined.
Question No. : 61
The average age of 80 boys in a class is 15. The average age of a group of 15 boys in the class is 16 and the average age of
another 25 boys in the class is 14. What is the average age of the remaining boys in the class?
A) 15.25 B) 14 C) 14.75 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these
Explanation:-
Required average of 40 students = (Total ages - Total of ages of 15 people - Total age of 14 people)/40
(80×15 – 15×16 – 25×14)/40 = 15.25
Question No. : 62
The Cabinet Committee on Eco

nomic Affairs in 2013 cleared furniture major IKEA's Rs. 10,500 crore investment pro
posal in India.
IKEA is a com
pany from
A) France B) Italy C) Sweden D) Australia E) USA
Explanation:-
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option

Question No. : 63

In Wholesale Price Index (WPI) primary articles have a weight of –
A) 20.12% B) 25.02% C) 29.02% D) 32.02% E) 35.02%
Explanation:-

Question No. : 64

Many times we read in newspapers/magazines about The Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
(TRIPS). Which of the following is/are True about them?

(A) TRIPS was negotiated in 1994 in Uruguay Round of the General Agreement in Tariffs and Trade.
(B) It requires that the laws made in various countries should be able to protect copyrights.
(C) The members of the European Union have refused to obey the agreement as they feel that it is biased towards
developing nations only
A) Only (A) B) Only (B) C) Only (C) D) Both (A) & (C) E) Both (A) & (B)
Explanation:-
Question No. : 65
Which of the following is a part of the Core Sector?
A) Textiles B) Chemicals C) Real Estate D) Machine Manufacturing E) Food Processing

A) Textiles B) Chemicals C) Real Estate D) Machine Manufacturing E) Food Processing
Explanation:-
Question No. : 66
Which of the following education institutions was Mr. Rajat Gupta, the former McKinsey chief associated with?
A) XLRI Jamshedpur B) Indian Institute of Management Calcutta C) Indian Institute of Management Bangalore
D) Indian Institute of Management Lucknow E) Indian School of Business, Hyderabad
Explanation:-
Question No. : 67
Study of same group of people at two or more points of time to see the changes in their economic well-being is technically known
as _____
A) Income Mobility B) Income Disparity C) Income Correlation D) income Enhancement E) Income Distribution
Explanation:-
Question No. : 68
Govt. of India has launched which of the following schemes to provide safe water supply to the rural areas in India?
A) Water shed Development Programme B) Nirmal Gram Swaraj Yojana C) Swajaldhara

D) Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Yojana E) Kutir Jyoti Scheme
Explanation:-
Question No. : 69
Which of the following UN agencies/organizations is associated with the welfare of children worldwide?
A) UNESCO B) UNICEF C) ILO D) UNCTAD E) UNIDO
Explanation:-
Question No. : 70
When a country decides to conduct trade on favorable terms with another country for mutual benefits, this is called:
A) FTA System B) MFN Status C) Bilateral Trade D) Counter Trade E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 71
Between 1950 and 2007 the population increased by about 2.6 times. What was the increase in grain production between those
years ? About
A) 0.5% B) 1% C) 1.5% D) 2% E) 3%
Explanation:-
Question No. : 72
India's top agricultural scientist and one of the architects of India's Green Revolution Dr. MS Swaminathan has warned that the
country could face a food crisis if agricultural productivity is not increased and farming is neglected. Which of the following is/are
some of the measures which will directly or indirectly help in better food security in India ?

A. Reducing the use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers.
B. Creating a network of advanced soil testing laboratories.
C. The flow of credit to small and marginal farmers should be made hassle free and speedy.

A) Only (A) B) Only (B) C) Only (C) D) All (A), (B) & (C) E) Only (B) & (C)
Explanation:-
Question No. : 73
In a depressed economy, 'Pump-priming' is a term used to describe the measures taken by the ____________
A) Public Sector units B) Charity funds C) Government D) Private Sector units E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 74
For which one of the following reasons, UNO has advocated the use of Jatropha for bio-diesel production ?
A) It will help in lowering consumption of fossil fuel B) It will help in controlling pollution
C) It will help in controlling the fuel prices D) It can help farmers improve their financial condition in dry areas
E) None of these
Explanation:-

Question No. : 75
As per the Global Hunger Index report by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), what is the percent of children
under five in India who are underweight?
A) 36.3 percent B) 43.5 percent C) 55.2 percent D) 60 percent E) 40 percent
Explanation:-
Question No. : 76
Which of the following is NOT a major IT company in India?
A) CMC Ltd. B) Raymond’s C) HCL Technologies D) Infosys Technologies E) Tata Consultancy Services
Explanation:-
Question No. : 77
Which of the following is the main advantage of "ASBA" to the applicants for share allotment ?
A) ASBA applicant has got secured allotment of shares

B) ASBA applicant has got certain preference in allotment of shares as compared to general applicants
C) ASBA applicant need not remit the fund for allotment of shares, he/she will do so after shares are allotted to him/her
D)ASBA Applicants deposit/OD account is not debited , only the funds are blocked for the same and he/she continues to avail
interest till the shares are allotted to him/her
E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 78
Which of the following institutions is an asset reconstruction company?
A) CIBIL B) DICGC C) BCSBI D) ARCIL E) IRDA
Explanation:-
Question No. : 79
"Many people die in Deadly Games in Egypt": Was the news in almost all major newspapers in February 2012. Which of the
following statements is the correct representation of 'Deadly Game1 given in the headlines ?
A) A riot broke out during a Football Match in Egypt in which many people were killed
B) Police had to open fire on a Mob including some genuine ticket holders, who were not allowed to enter the Stadium even
after the start of the match
C) Egypt is famous for its dangerous games of 'Bull fight1 and 'Martial Game'; Many participants die every year in such games
D) Some terrorists opened fire during a football match. About 1000 people were killed in the incident
D) Some terrorists opened fire during a football match. About 1000 people were killed in the incident
E) The defeat in the game is considered equivalent to death
Explanation:-
Question No. : 80
Which of the following owns the ‘Easy Day’ retail stores?
A) Reliance Retail B) Birla Retail C) DLF D) Bharti Retail E) Future Group
Explanation:-
Question No. : 81
Telangana has recently become the 29th State of India. Which of the following statement regarding the state is NOT true?

A) It shares boundaries with Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra

B) It is the 12th largest state of the country in terms of population C) It is the first state to be carved out on a linguistic basis
D) It is the 12th largest state of the country in terms of Area
E) It has 119 seats in the Assembly and 40 seats in the council.
Explanation:-
Question No. : 82
Peter Drucker was a famous
A) economist B) management theorist C) environmentalist D) industrialist
Explanation:-

Question No. : 83
Biodiversity is under severe threat worldwide. Why is the loss of biodiversity an issue of economic concern?
(A) Biodiversity has great pharmaceutical value.
(B) Biodiversity is important for good health of ecosystem.
(C) Biodiversity is a source of tourism in some places.
A) Only (A) B) Only (B) C) Only (C) D) All (A), (B) & (C) E) None of these
Explanation:-

Question No. : 84
Star footballer Lionel Messi belongs to
A) Portugal B) Brazil C) France D) Argentina E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 85
The period of the First Five Year Plan was from
A) 1950 – 51 to 1954 – 55 B) 1951 – 52 to 1955 – 56 C) 1952 – 53 to 1956 – 57 D) 1949 - 50 to 1953 - 54

E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 86
Who was the first woman Prime Minister in the world?
A) Indira Gandhi B) Srimavo Bhandaranaike C) Margaret Thatcher D) Benazir Bhutto E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 87
Rajdhani Express trains run
A) only between New Delhi and all State capitals B) only between New Delhi and State capitals
C) only between New Delhi and important cities D) only between New Delhi and Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai
E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 88
Who was the Census Commissioner for the Census 2011?
A) J.S. Verma B) N.K. Reddy C) C. Chandramouli D) G.K. Pillai E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 89
In which year was the Family Planning Programme started in India?
A) 1950 A.D. B) 1951 A.D. C) 1952 A.D. D) 1955 A.D. E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 90
Who has been appointed new army Chief of India?
A) Lt. Gen. Dalbir Singh Suhag B) Lt. Gen. Tejinder Singh C) Lt. Gen. Bikram Singh D) Lt. Gen. J.P Singh
E) None of these
Explanation:-
Question No. : 91
The headquarters of World Trade Organisation is located at
A) New York B) Melbourne C) Washington D) Geneva E) None of these
Explanation:-
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the information given below and answer the question that follows.
Question No. : 92
Seven bands were scheduled to perform during the weeklong music festival at XLRI. The festival began on a Monday evening and
ended on the Sunday evening. Each day only one band performed. Each band performed only once. The organizing committee had
the task of scheduling the performances of the seven bands - Cactus, Axis, Enigma, Boom, Fish, Dhoom and Bodhi Tree. The festival
schedule followed the following conditions: the performance of Bodhi Tree, the home band of XLRI, did not precede the
performance of any other band. Among the visiting bands three were rock bands and the other three were fusion bands. All three
bands of the same genre were not allowed to perform consecutively. Boom, which was a rock band, refused to perform
immediately before or after Fish. Meet, who was a lead vocalist with a rock band, refused to perform after Angelina. Angelina, the
only female lead vocalist in the music fest besides Bony, was with the band Enigma. Angelina refused to perform after Thursday
citing personal reasons. Ali, who was the lead vocalist of a rock band, was not with the band Dhoom, and did not perform on
Saturday. Sid, the lead vocalist of the rock band Cactus, could perform only on Monday. Rupam, the only male among the lead
vocalist of the fusion bands, was with Fish and performed on Wednesday. None of the bands performed in absence of their lead
vocalist.
All of the following statements can be true except:
A) If Meet was the lead vocalist of Axis then Ali was the lead vocalist of Boom
B) If Meet was the lead vocalist of Dhoom then Bony was the lead vocalist of Axis
C) If Bony was the lead vocalist of Dhoom then Meet was the lead vocalist of Axis
D) If Ali was the lead vocalist of Boom then Meet was the lead vocalist of Dhoom
E) If Bony was the lead vocalist of Axis then Meet was the lead vocalist of Boom
Explanation:-

Lead
Band Genre
Singer
M Cactus Sid Rock
T Axis/Dhoom Meet Rock
W Fish Rupam Fusion
Th Enigma Angelina Fusion
F Boom Ali Rock
Sa Axis/Dhoom Bony Fusion
Su Bodhi Tree

If Bony is the lead vocalist of Axis, then Meet must be the lead vocalist of Dhoom.

Question No. : 93
vocalist.
Which of the following must be true?
A) Ali performed on Saturday and Enigma performed on Thursday

B) Dhoom performed on Thursday and Angelina performed on Tuesday
C) Boom performed on Friday and Meet performed on Tuesday
D) Ali performed on Friday and Enigma performed on Tuesday
E) Bony performed on Saturday and Axis performed on Thursday
Explanation:-

Lead
Band Genre
Singer
M Cactus Sid Rock
W Fish Rupam Fusion
F Boom Ali Rock
Su Bodhi Tree

From the above table, we know that Meet performed on Tuesday and Boom performed on Friday.

Question No. : 94
vocalist.
Which of the following is a plausible performance sequence?
A) Cactus, Enigma, Fish, Dhoom, Boom, Axis B) Cactus, Dhoom, Fish, Boom, Enigma, Axis
C) Cactus, Axis, Fish, Boom, Enigma, Dhoom D) Cactus, Axis, Fish, Enigma, Boom, Dhoom
E) Cactus, Boom, Fish, Axis, Enigma, Dhoom
Explanation:-
Lead
Band Genre
Singer
M Cactus Sid Rock
W Fish Rupam Fusion
F Boom Ali Rock
Su Bodhi Tree

Cactus, Axis, Fish, Enigma, Boom, Dhoom is a possible sequence of performers.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the following information and choose the best alternative:
Question No. : 95
Guruji's guidance

Bhola, an avid nature lover, wanted to be an entrepreneur. He dreamt of establishing a chain of huts in Chatpur region to cater to
tourists, who came attracted by the beauty and splendour of the Himalayas.

However, he was appalled by current degradation of the Himalayan environment. He remembered the early times when
everything was so green, clean and peaceful. Now, greenery was replaced by buildings, peace was shattered by honking of
vehicles and flocking of tourists, and cleanliness was replaced by heaps of plastics.

Bhola had a strong sense of right and wrong. On speaking to few locals about the issue, he realized that the locals were aware of
these issues. However, they pointed out the benefits of development: pucca houses for locals, higher disposable income and with
that, ability to send their children to better schools and colleges, better road connectivity, and access to latest technology in
agriculture. Most locals wanted the development to continue.

Saddened by the lack of support from the locals, Bhola took up the issue with the government. He met the chief minister of the
state to find out if government could regulate the developmental activities to prevent environmental degradation. However, the
chief Minister told Bhola that such an action would slow down the economic progress. That also meant loss of substantial tax
revenues for the government.

Bhola needed to resolve the dilemma. Bhola always wanted to be an entrepreneur, who could contribute to the society and earn
money as well. However, his business would also be responsible for destroying environment. If he did not set up his business, he
would not be able to earn money and contribute to the society.

After mulling over the issues, he went to his mentor "Guruji". Guruji realized that it was really a difficult puzzle: if one saves the
environment, there seems to be no development and if the people and the government sought development, the environment and
hence future of this planet and human beings was at stake. After careful thought, he felt that dilemma could be resolved. He fixed
up a meeting with Bhola to answer Bhola's queries.
Should Bhola still think of doing business?
A) Yes, where there is a will, there is a way B) No, saving the Earth for our children is more important than earning money
C) Yes, Bhola should do business while ensuring no environmental damage is done
D) Yes, but only if the government puts strict environmental regulations in place
E) Bhola should stop thinking about such a dilemma
Explanation:-
This option takes care of both issues, business and environmental damage.
Question No. : 96
Guruji's guidance






Bhola wanted to advise the government about the new tourism policy. Bhola had developed a few alternatives as given below.
Choose the best alternative.
A) Stop environmental degradation by stopping the developmental activities

A) Stop environmental degradation by stopping the developmental activities
B) Forget about the environment; think about the people as they are the vote banks for politicians to come back to power
C) Suggest that the government should try to promote eco-tourism, which would be controlled and regulated by the
government, as the government could think about welfare of majority of stakeholders
D)Suggest that the government should promote eco-tourism with public-private partnership with the involvement of NGOs,
so that there are checks and balances for inefficiencies and promotion for synergetic efforts between the government and
private entrepreneurs
E) Involvement of impartial entities like NGOs who would provide a fair assessment of the policies
Explanation:-
Option 4. Option 1 and 2 are too strong stands and focus on either development or environment. Bhola wants to balance
environmental needs and business. Hence bringing all players associated with business will be the best approach.
Question No. : 97
Guruji's guidance






Bhola wished he was heading the government. He had listed down five concrete measures he would take if he were to head the
government. Choose the best alternative
A) Charge environmental cess from all businesses operating out of Himalayas

B)Charge cess from anyone who pollutes the environment, it be citizens or industries and reward those who have
contributed to afforestation the most
C) All profit making organizations have to take responsibility of afforestation proportionate to their profitability
D) Think about maximising the revenues and forget about the environment
E) Institute a Green Valley Reward, which would be given to businesses highly active in afforestation efforts
Explanation:-
Option 2. Option 1 penalizes all businesses irrespective of whether they are responsible for pollution or not. Option 4 opposes
Bhola’s desire to save the environment. Option 5 only cannot save the environment. Between option 2 and option 3, 2 is better
because it penalizes those who pollute and rewards those would help lessen pollution.
Question No. : 98
Guruji's guidance






Visualising he was heading the state government, Bhola thought of a likely problematic situation. Five years have passed. In these
five years, Bhola has initiated a lot of pro-environment steps, including making people aware of the fact that it was this pristine
environment which brought in tourists in the first place. Now he faced state elections. The opposition accused him of stopping
development and causing unemployment under the guise of environment protection. If Bhola were to consider this accusation as
a short-term battle, which option would Guruji suggest to Bhola to score a quick win?
A) Accuse the opposition of having vested interests as the opposition leaders were denied licences for opening new hotels
B) Point out the improvement in environment since the implementation of pro-environment policies
C)Compare the unemployment levels since the implementation of the pro-environment policies and if they are less, accuse
the opposition of making baseless charges
D) Point out that this government had initiated a regular cleaning-up drive and the opposition did not consider the data
regarding the people who were employed in that drive
E) Call the charges as baseless accusations being used to malign the good work he had done
Explanation:-
Option 3. If Bhola has to win he will have to answer the accusation that he is stopping development and causing unemployment
under the guise of environment protection. Option 1, 2 and 5 do not address the accusation regarding unemployment while
option 4 is only limited to cleaning up drive.
Question No. : 99
Five colleagues pooled their efforts during the office lunch-hour to solve the crossword in the daily paper.
Colleagues: Mr. Bineet, Mr. Easwar, Ms. Elsie, Ms. Sheela, Ms. Titli.
Answers: Burden, Barely, Baadshah, Rosebud, Silence.
Numbers: 4 down, 8 across, 15 across, 15 down, 21 across.
Order: First, second, third, fourth, fifth.

1. Titli produced the answer to an 8 across word, which had the same number of letters as the previous answer to be inserted,
and one more than the subsequent answer which was produced by one of the men.
2. It was not Bineet who solved the clue to 'Burden', and Easwar did not solve 4 down.
3. The answers to 15 across and 15 down did not have the same number of letters.
4. 'Silence', which was not the third word to be inserted, was the answer to an across clue.
5. 'Barely' was the first word to be entered in the grid, but 'Baadshah' was not the second answer to be
found.
6. Elsie's word was longer than Bineet's; Sheela was neither the first nor the last to come up with an answer.
7. Fifth one to be worked out was an answer to an across clue.

What was Sheela's word?
A) Baadshah B) Silence C) Rosebud D) Barely E) Burden
Explanation:-
Order Answers Colleague Numbers
1 Barely Mr. Bineet 4 down
15 across /
2 Silence Ms. Sheela
21 across
3 Rosebud Ms.Titli 8 across
4 Burden Mr. Easwar 15 down
15 across /
5 Baadshah Ms. Elsie
21 across

Thus, it can be observed from the table that Sheela's word is Silence.
Question No. : 100


found.
What could be Titli's answer?
A) Baadshah B) Silence C) Rosebud D) Barely E) Burden
Explanation:-
15 across /
21 across
15 across /
21 across

Thus, it can be observed from the table that Titli's answer is Rosebud.
Question No. : 101


found.
What was Titli's order?
A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth E) Fifth
Explanation:-
15 across /
21 across
15 across /
21 across

Thus, it can be observed from the table that Titli's answer is 3rd in order.
Question No. : 102


found.
What was Easwar's number?
A) 4 down B) 21 across C) 8 across D) 15 down E) 15 across
Explanation:-
15 across /
21 across
15 across /
21 across

Thus, it can be observed from the table that Easwar's number was 15 down.
Question No. : 103


found.
What was Bineet's word?
A) Barely B) Burden C) Silence D) Rosebud E) Baadshah
Explanation:-
15 across /
21 across
15 across /
21 across

Thus, it can be observed from the table that Bineet's word was 'Barely'.
Question No. : 104

In calendar year 2008, there was turbulence in the air as Jet Airways' Chairman pondered what course of action the airline should
take. Air India was also struggling with the same dilemma. Two of India's largest airlines, Air India and Jet Airways, had sounded
caution on their fiscal health due (on mounting operational costs. A daily operational loss of $2 million (Rs 8.6 crore) had in fact
forced Jet Airways to put its employees on alert. Jet's senior General Manager had termed the situation as grave. Jet's current
losses were $2 million a day (including Jet-Lite). The current rate of Jet Airways' domestic losses was $0.5 million (Rs 2.15 crore)
and that of JetLite was another $0.5 million. International business was losing over $1 million (Rs 4.30 crore) a day.

The situation was equally grave for other national carriers. Driven by mounting losses of almost Rs. 10 crore a day, Air India, in its
merged avatar, was considering severe cost-cutting measures like slashing employee allowances, reducing in-flight catering
expenses on short-haul flights and restructuring functional arms. The airline also considered other options like cutting
maintenance costs by stationing officers at hubs, instead of allowing them to travel at regular intervals.

Jet Airways, Air India and other domestic airlines had reasons to get worried, as 24 airlines across the world "had gone bankrupt in
the year on account of rising fuel costs. In India, operating costs had gone up 30-40%. Fuel prices had doubled in the past one year
to Rs 70,000 per kilolitre, forcing airlines to increase fares. Consequently, passenger load had fallen to an average 55-50% per
flight from previous year's peak of 70-75%. Other airlines faced a similar situation; some were even looking for buyers. Domestic
carriers had lost about Rs 4,000 crore in 2007-08 with Air India leading the pack. “As against 27 % wage bill globally, our wage bill
is 22% of total input costs. Even then we are at a loss," an Air India official said. Civil aviation ministry, however, had a different
take. "Air India engineers go to Dubai every fortnight to work for 15 days and stay in five star hotels. If they are stationed there, the
airline would save Rs 8 crore a year. This is just the tip of the iceberg. There are several things we can do to reduce operational
inefficiency". According to analysts, Jet Airways could be looking at a combined annual loss of around Rs 3,000 crore, if there were
no improvement in operational efficiencies and ATF prices. Against this backdrop, the airline had asked its employees to raise the
service bar and arrest falling passenger load.

Which of the followings are the reasons for Jet Airways not doing well?

A. Rising ATF prices
B. Reduced passenger load
C. Declining service quality
D. Staff travelling to Dubai

A) A and B B) B and C C) A, B and C D) A, B and D E) A, B, C and D
Explanation:-
The last paragraph of the passage states that passenger load has fallen to about 55% and there has to be an improvement in ATF
prices.
Question No. : 105



The total loss for the airline industry was likely to be Rs. 10,000 crore. Jet Airlines lost Rs. 3,000 crore, Air India lost Rs. "X" crore
and "rest of the airlines" lost Rs. "Y" crore. What was the loss for the "rest of the airlines", in 2008?
A) Cannot be determined B) Rs. 3,350 crore C) Rs. 3,690 crore D) Rs. 3,340 crore E) None of the above
Explanation:-
Since Air India loses 10 crore a day, it loses Rs. 3650 crore in a year. Hence the rest of the airlines suffered losses of 10000 – 3000 -
3650 = Rs. 3350.
Question No. : 106



Suppose fuel constitutes 30 % of the revenues, do you think airlines would be in a better situation by reducing prices?
A) Yes B) Data insufficient to reach decision C) No D) It would not matter E) None of the above
Explanation:-
If fuel prices are reduced, the fares will also be reduced. However, there is no information about the reduction in fares and how
this will affect passenger load.
Question No. : 107

Ranjan Tuglak, the youngest cabinet minister of the newly elected coalition, glanced through the notes prepared by his secretary
regarding the recent controversies on racket, the most popular game of the country. While International Racket Association (IRC)
has agreed to implement Drug Testing Code (DTC) promoted by World Athletic and Games Federation, Racket Club which controls
the entire racket related activities (unlike any other sports and games of the country) had some reservations regarding the
initiative. Majority of the citizens waited for the international competitions eagerly and were fanatical about their country's
participation in them. As a result of the popularity of the game, 70 % of the total revenue associated with the game originates from
the country. Hence Racket Club has high bargaining power with IRC and can change any decision that is not aligned with its
interests. Three most popular and senior players, including the captain, are against the application of DTC, citing security reasons.
A decision against the interests of these players may result in law and order problems throughout the country. Other players
support the decision of their senior colleagues and if Racket Club refuses to agree, players may support Counter Racket Club, a
new national level initiative. Counter Racket Club may threaten the monopoly of Racket Club, if it succeeds to attract some popular
racket players.

Ranjan's father had been forced to resign from politics due to alleged corruption charges. Ranjan had completed his entire
education from abroad before returning to join politics. He is a great soccer player and has major reservations against racket.
According to him, racket has negative influence on the country's youth and diverts their attention from productive work. He also
considers drug testing as an essential feature for any sports and games across the world. As the new cabinet minister for Youth
and Sports he needs to take some important decisions on this controversial issue.
If the objective of Ranjan is to (i) create a good image of himself as a politician and (ii) create a long lasting positive impact, the
best decision he should take is:
A) Force Racket Club to accept all modifications related to drug testing

B) Provide adequate security protection to the satisfaction of players nominated by Racket Club before enforcing drug testing
C) Align with Counter Racket Club D) Popularise soccer in country through endorsements by the popular players of racket
E) Ban racket
Explanation:-
As Ranjan has to create a good image for himself as a politician and create a long lasting positive impact, he would need to satisfy
the players and enforce drug testing.
Question No. : 108

racket players.

Identify the best rationale that may force Ranjan as a politician to take a decision in favour of IRC.
A) President of Racket Club and Ranjan belong to different political coalitions and he can use Counter Racket Club against the
opponent
B) Next World cup is scheduled to be held in a country which has adopted DTC as the guiding principle
C) Ranjan is interested in reducing the popularity of racket in country
D) As the cabinet minister, Ranjan has the power to take such a decision.
E) Top three international teams (and respective national clubs) are keen to implement DTC
Explanation:-
The IRC has agreed to implement DTC promoted by World Athletic and Games Federation. If the World Cup is scheduled to be in a
country which accepts DTC then Ranjan will be forced to take the decision in favour of IRC. We need to remember that racketing is
very popular in the country and people would be disappointed and angry if the country is not able to take part in the World
because it does not follow DTC.
Question No. : 109

racket players.


According to DTC, each athlete/sportsperson need to submit a schedule for three months (in advance) that specifies an hour each
day when they can be randomly tested for drugs. DTC also assured the confidentiality of the submitted schedule by (i) limiting the
access of player-supplied information to two senior officers, (ii) these officers will have the internet based access only to the
schedule of those sports persons who are randomly selected for testing (and not of everyone) and (iii) introducing similar security
features for DTC database as in case of financial institutions. Top three popular players realize that no reason other than security
can help them to get a favourable decision from Ranjan. Hence during discussions they should focus on all options except:
A) Any clue related to their private schedules may also result in huge public gathering and it will make the job of security
A) Any clue related to their private schedules may also result in huge public gathering and it will make the job of security
agencies very difficult
B) Popular racket players are included in the hit list of terrorist organizations
C) Recent report by World Bank rate their country among the top five nations with maximum amount of internet based data
stealing
D) It is difficult to provide adequate security coverage in large stadiums where racket is played
E) DTC is not willing to share the details of two senior officers involved in drug testing with the security agencies of the country
for background study
Explanation:-
All the options talk about security. If the team is playing in a stadium, there will be adequate security. So they should not focus on
security in a stadium.
Question No. : 110

A BPO has assigned duty to nine operators - Abdulla, Ballal, Chandan, Dogra, Eshita, Falguni, Ganguli, Henri and Indra - on
Monday, January 05, 2009 from 00:00 hours. Each operator commences duty at any of the following hours: 00:00 hrs, 04:00 hrs,
08:00 hrs, 12:00 hrs, 16:00 hrs and 20:00 hrs. At any point in time, at least one operator is required, to take clients' calls. Each
operator works continuously for eight hours. All operators located at any single location start work simultaneously. The operators
took training in five different colleges - Abhiman College, Sutanama College, Gutakal College, Barala College and Khatanama
College. These colleges are located in the cities Jamshedpur, Pune, Noida, Hyderabad and Mangalore, not necessarily in that order.
The operators operate from the cities where their respective colleges are located.

Indra operates alone from a city other than Mangalore and Jamshedpur. Operator(s) trained in Abhiman College will start working
at 12:00 hrs. Only Dogra and Falguni operate from Pune, but they are not trained in Gutakal College. Three of the operators took
training from Sutanama College, and they operate from Noida. The operator(s) from Jamshedpur will start working at 0:00 hrs.
Abdulla and Henri operate together as a two member team from a single location. They do not operate from Mangalore. No
operator(s) will join at 20:00 hrs. Ballal, who alone operates from his location, was not trained in Barala College, and will
commence his duty four hours after the operator(s) trained in Gutakal College. The operator(s) trained in Barala College operate
from Hyderabad. The number of operator(s) trained in Khatanama College is same as the number of operator(s) trained in Barala
College.
Which of the following statements must be true?
A) Dogra and Henri took training from Khatanama College B) Indra took training from Barala College
C) Dogra and Falguni took training from Barala College D) Indra took training from Abhiman College
E) Ballal took training from Abhiman College
Explanation:-
From the given information, we can match the employee with the place, college and timings:
Abdulla and Henri – Jamshedpur – Gutakal College – from 00:00 hrs to 8:00 hrs.
Ballal – Mangalore – Khatanama College – from 4:00 hrs to 12:00 hrs.
Dogra and Falguni – Pune – Abhiman College – from 12:00 hrs to 20:00 hrs.
Indra – Hyderabad – Barala College
Chandan, Eshita & Ganguli – Noida – Sutanama Collg.

Thus, Indra took training from Barala College.
Question No. : 111


College.
Which of the following can be true for the operators operating from 16:00 hrs (of January 05, 2009) to 00:00 hrs (of January 06,
2009)?
A) Operators took training from Khatanama College and operate from Mangalore
B) Operators took training from Barala College and operate from Pune
C) Operators took training from Sutanama College and operate from Noida
D) Operators took training from Gutakal College and operate from Mangalore
E) Operators took training from Abhiman College and operate from Pune
Explanation:-

The operators operating from 16:00 hrs to 00:00 hrs could have taken their training from Barala College and operate from
Hyderabad or they took their training from Sutanama College and operate from Noida. Hence third option is the answer.

Question No. : 112


College.
Which of the following statements must be true for the operator(s) trained in Gutakal College?
A) They are Abdulla and Henri, and work from Jamshedpur B) They are Dogra and Falguni, and work from Pune
C) She is Eshita, and works from Mangalore D) She is Indra, and works from Pune
C) She is Eshita, and works from Mangalore D) She is Indra, and works from Pune
E) They are Chandan and Ganguli, and work from Jamshedpur
Explanation:-

Thus, it can be observed that operators trained in Gutakal College are Abdulla and Henri, and they work from Jamshedpur.
Question No. : 113


College.
Which of the following is not definitely true?
A) At least three operators will be working between 04:00 hrs to 08:00 hrs.
B) At most five operators will be working between 04:00 hrs to 08:00 hrs.
C) At most five operators will be working between 12:00 hrs to 16:00 hrs.
D) At most three operators will be working between 16:00 hrs to 20:00 hrs.
E) At least three operators will be working between 16:00 hrs to 20:00 hrs.
Explanation:-

If the three operators from Noida operate between 16:00 hrs to 24:00 hrs, then five operators are working in this time slot.
Thus, option D is definitely not true.

Question No. : 114

College.
If five operators are working between 16:00 hrs and 20:00 hrs, which of the following must be true?
A) The only operator working between 8:00 hrs and 12:00 hrs is Ballal
B) The operators working between 12:00 hrs and 16:00 hrs are Ballal, Dogra and Falguni
C) The operators working between 12:00 hrs and 16:00 hrs are Dogra, Henri and Falguni
D) The operators working between 16:00 hrs and 20:00 hrs are Indra, Dogra, Falguni, Chandan and Ganguli
E) The operators working between 20:00 hrs and 0:00 hrs are Chandan, Ganguli and Eshita
Explanation:-

If 5 operators work from 16:00 hrs to 20:00 hrs, they must be Dogra and Falguni operating from Pune and Chandan, Eshita and
Ganguli operating from Noida. In that case, only Chandan, Ganguli and Eshita must be the operators working between 20:00 hrs
and 0:00 hrs. Hence, option E.

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2015 Bull XAT - 01

A) SPRQ B) QPSR C) QSPR D) PSRQ E) PQRS

Which of the following is not a term of 'appreciation'?

A) gratitude B) salutation C) extolment D) elegize E) kudos

A) ADBEC B) DACBE C) ADCBE D) DABEC E) ABCDE

A) There are no artists who have insights into political issues

A) The number of heart attacks and strokes declined this year

Which of the following follows from the passage above?

Desire as ante-deliberation driving action refers to:

A) Irrationality of deliberation B) Uselessness of deliberation C) Desire to act without thinking

Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

The given passage can be labelled as:

The author of the passage would agree with the statement:

The word 'precluding' means:

A) excluding B) preventing C) forbearing D) disqualifying E) barring

In general, the tone of the passage can be identified as:

Who is married to the man from Kapurthala?

A) Dolly B) Monica C) Sita D) Cannot be determined E) None of these

The person who plays Snooker belongs to which place?

A) Noida B) Ambala C) Jammu D) Cannot be determined E) None of these

A) Apple B) Banana C) Guava D) Nation to go for general election E) Can’t be determined

A) 82% B) 65% C) 62.5% D) 60% E) None of these

A) 147 B) 146 C) 145 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these

A) 2003 B) 2004 C) 2005 D) 2006 E) Can’t be determined

A) 6 % B) 5 % C) 4 % D) 3 % E) 22%

A) 2005 B) 2004 C) 2003 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these

A) 2006 B) 2005 C) 2004 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these

A) 2003 B) 2004 C) 2005 D) 2006 E) Cannot be determined

If x = 10, then the possible value of y is

A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) Can’t be determined E) None of these

A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) Can’t be determined E) None of the above

If the two circles x2 + y2 - 2x - 6y = r2 - 10 and x2 + y2 - 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect at two points then

Thus, option E is correct.

A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 64 E) None of these

A) B) C) D) No such number exists E) None of these

If aC2 = b, then bC2 =

Thus, only option B matches with the correct value.

A) 10, 8 B) 12, 10 C) 12, 8 D) 12, 6 E) None of these

A) d = - a B) d = a C) a = b = c = d = 1 D) a = b = 1 E) None of these

A) 3429 B) 1294 C) 2080 D) 4069 E) 1089

The number of real roots of (6 - x)4 + (8 - x)4 = 16 is

A) 0 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) None of these

A) 0 B) C) 2 D) None of the above E) Can’t be determined

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

A) 9.0 B) 9.5 C) 10.0 D) 10.25 E) 10.5

Seven integers A, B, C, D, E, F and G are such that

A) 15.25 B) 14 C) 14.75 D) Cannot be determined E) None of these

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

The Cabinet Committee on Eco​

A) France B) Italy C) Sweden D) Australia E) USA

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option

A) 20.12% B) 25.02% C) 29.02% D) 32.02% E) 35.02%

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Which of the following is a part of the Core Sector?

A) Textiles B) Chemicals C) Real Estate D) Machine Manufacturing E) Food Processing

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

The Cabinet Committee on Eco