La MADE EASY India's Best Institute for IES, GATE & PSUs ESE 2018 Preliminary Examination www.madeeasy.in Corporate Office: 44-A/1, Kalu Sarai, New Delhi-110016 | Ph: 011-45124612, 9958995830 eae on ne nnG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A MECHANICAL ENGINEERING Q.1 A150 mm diameter shatt rotates at 1500 rpm within a 200 mm long journal bearing with 480.5 mminternal diameter. The uniform annular space between the shaft and the bearing is filed with oil of dynamic viscosity 0.8 poise. The shear stress on the shaft will be (2). 1.77 KNinv (b) 2.77 kNim? (©) 3.77 kNim? (6) 4.77 kNime Ans, (c) Using Newtons law of viscosity oe YY nog 2= 0.8 poise = 0.08 Pa-sec «DN 1500 v= FON _ (0.15) x 2 _ 14.781 misec? DN _ 40.15). 2S20 35.705 mse -D h= @ = Radial clearance = A=? = 0.25 mm = 0.25 x 10% m t= 3769.92 Nim? ~ 3.77 kWim® . Q.2 Which one of the following substances has constant specific heat at all pressures and temperatures? {@) Mano atomic gas (b) Diatomie gas (c) T-atomie gas (d) Poly-atomic gas ‘Ans. (a) . Q.3 The shear stress ¢, or steady, fully developed flow inside a uniform horizontal pipe with coefficient of friction f, density p and velocity v, is given by tov? fp’v @ ws 2 2 ev ev «) 2Y a) OE © OF Ans. (a) . Q4 — Thetotal energy of each particle at various places in the case of a perfact incompressible fluid flowing in a continuous stream (@) keeps on increasing (b) keeps on decreasing (c) remains constant (d) may increase or decrease: Ans. (b) Een Page 2G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q5 The normal stresses within an isotropic Newtonian fluid are related to 1. Pressure 2. Viscosity of fluid 3. Velocity gradient Which of the above are correct? (@) 1 and 2 only (0) tand3 only (©) 2and3 only (A) 1,2and3 Ans. (a) oo EEE Q.6 Which one of the following regimes of boiling curve can be considered as reverse of condensation? (@) Free convection boiling regime (b) Nucleate boiling regime (6) Transition boling regime (4) Film boiling regime ‘Ans. (b) Q7 The service pump in a water supply system has to maintain a net static head lift of § m at the tank to which it delivers freely through a 4 km long pipe, wherein all minor losses can be neglected. The diameter of the pipe is 0.2 m and its friction factor f= 0.01. The pumped water is discharged at 2 m/s. The absolute pressure differential developed by the pump is nearly (taking atmospheric pressure as 10.3 m of water) (@) 45bar (b) 5.5 bar (©) 45ba (a) 88bax ‘Ans. (a) Q.8 A wall surface of 200 mm thickness has an outside temperature of 50°C and inside temperature of 25°C with thermal conductivity of 0.51 Wimk. The heat transfer through this wall will be (@) 63.75 Wim? (b) 65.75 wim? (©) 70.25 wim? (a) 73.25 wim? ‘Ans. (a) ——02m—s k= 0.51 Wim-K ome a _ 50-25 “oz ~ - O51xA a os tase > A = 68.75 WiG4MADE EASY Indias Beat Inaeiute for IES, GATE & PSUS DRE nec} es Q9 — Thenecessaty and sufficient condition for bodies in floatation to be in stable equilibrium is that the centre of gravity is located below the (@) metacent (b) centre ot buoyancy (c) epicentre (d) centroid ‘Ans. (a) Q.10 When the valve of an evacuated bottle is opened, the atmospheric air rushes into it, If the atmospheric pressure is 101.325 kPa and 0.6 m‘ of air enters into the bottle, then the work done by the air will be (@) 802k) (b) 70.8 kd (c) 60.8 kJ (d) 50.8 kJ Ans. (c) ° Q.11 A thermodynamic cycle is composed of four processes. The heat added and the work dione in each process are as follows: Process | Heat wanater @) | Work done () 12 ° 50 (bythe g28) 23 [so(ronteae| 0 a4 ° 20(on the gs) 1 | s0(t0t oes) ° he thermal efficiency of the cycle is (@) 203% (b) 37.5% (©) 40.3% (@) 625% Ans. (b) Q.12 A steel tank placed in hot environment contains 5 kg of air at 4 atm at 30°C. A portion of the air is released till the pressure becomes 2 atm. Lat , the temperature of the air in the tank is found to be 150°C. The quantity of air allowed to escape is. (@) 4.72kg (©) 3.71kg ‘Ans. (a) perry Ena (b) 4.12kg (d) 3.21kgG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.13 Consider the following statements 1. Entropy is related to the first law of thermodynamics. 2. The internal energy of an ideal gasis a function of temperature and pressure. 3. The zeroth law of thermodynamics is the basis for measurement of temperature Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1 and 2only (b) 1 and 3 only (©) 2and3only () 1,2and3 Ans. (*) Only 3rd statement is correct, Q.14 Aheat reservoir is maintained at 927°C. Ifthe ambient temperature is 27°C, the availabilty of heat from the reservoir is limited to (@) 57% (b) 66% (©) 75% (d) 88% Ans. (c) Q.15 The ordinate and abscissa of the diagram to depict the isobaric processes of an ideal gas as a hyperbola are, respectively (@) temperature and entropy (b) internal energy and volume (6) temperature and density (A) enthalpy and entropy Ans. (c) Ere Pee ere perry Page 5a6 Ans. Qa7 Ans. aie Ans. aig Ans. MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Consider the following statements 1, The entropy of a pure crystalline substance at absolute zero temperature is zero, 2. The efficiency of a reversible heat engine is independent of the nature of the working substance and depends only on the temperature of the reservoirs between which operates. 3. Carnot’s theorem states that of all heat engines operating between a given constant temperature source and a given constant temperature sink, none has a higher efficiency than areversible engine Which of the above statement are correct? (a) 1and2only (b) 1and3only (©) 2and3only (d) 1,2and3 (a) ‘An engine works on the basis of Carnot cycle operating between temperatures of 800 K and 400 K. If the heat supplied is 100 kW, the output is (@) sokW (b) GO kW (©) 70kW (@) 80 kW (a) n= 1-400 _ output Power output = 50 kW he coefficient of performance of a heat pump working on reversed Camot cycle is 6. If this machine works as a refrigerator with work input of 10 KW, the refrigerating effect will be (a) 36 kW (b) 40 kW (©) 45 kw (d) 50 kW (d) COP, = 1 + COP, cor, = 5 = = @ 70 RE = 50 kW Which of the following devices complies with the Clausius statement of the second law of thermodynamics? (a) Closed-cycle gas turbine (b) Internal combustion engine (c) Steam power plant (d) Domestic refrigerator (d) Ee Pee ere perryQ.20 Ans. Q2t Ans. Q22 Ans. MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A A reversible Camot engine operates between 27°C and 1627°C, and produces 400 KW ofnet power. The change of entropy of the working fluid during the heat addition process is (a) 0.222 KW/K (b) 0.266 KW/K (c) 0.288 KW/K (d) 0.299 KWIK (b) A system absorbs 100 kJ as heat and does 60 kJ work along the path 1-2-3. The same system does 20 kJ work along the path 1-4-3. The heat absorbed during the path 1-4-3 is (a) ~ 140 kJ (b) ~ 80 kJ (c) 80kJ (a) 60 kJ (d) 8Q= dU + 8W 100 = dU + 60 (1-23) dU = 40 kJ 8Q= dU + 8W (1-43) = 20 + 40 = 60 kd Two reversible engines are connected in series between a heat source and a sink. The efficiencies of these engines are 60% and 50%, respectively. If these two engines are replaced by a single reversible engine, the efficiency of this engine will be (a) 60% (b) 70% (c) 80% (a) 90% (c) Ngo = 0.60 + 0.50 - 06 x 05 = 0.80 = 20% EETG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.23 Consider the following statements for the airstandard efficiency of Diesel cycle: 1. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency decreases with increasing cutoff ratios, 2. For the same compression ratio and same heat input, Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle 8, Forconstant maximum pressure and constant heat input, Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle. Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1,2and3 (b) 1 and2only (©) 1and3 only (d) 2and3 only Ans. (c) Statement 1 —» 4% Statement2 —» X Statements. —= y/ Q.24 Incase of a thin cylindrical shell, subjected to an internal fluid pressure, the volumetric strain is equal to (@) circumferential strain pius longitudinal strain (b) circumferential strain plus twice the longitudinal strain (©) twice the circumferential strain plus longitudinal strain (@) twice the circumferential strain plus twice the longitudinal strain Ans. (c) bl 8D T(5) Feng * 2800 EreI Q.25 The refractory lining of a furnace has a thickness of 200 mm. The average thermal conductivity of the refractory material is 0.04 WimK. The heat loss is estimated to be 180 kujhrim®. The temperature difference across the lining will be (@) 280°C (b) 250°C (©) 240°c (a) 220°C Ans. (b) Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A @.26 In forced convection, the surface heat transfer coefficient from a heated flat plate is a function of (a) Reand Gr (b) Prand Gr () Reand Pr (d) Re, Grand Pr where Re is Reynolds number, Pris Prandt! number and Gris Grashoff number. Ans. (c) Q.27 tis desired to increase the heat dissipation rate from the surface of an electronic device of spherical shape of § mm radius exposed to convection with h = 10 Wim*K by encasing it in a spherical sheath of conductivity 0.04 WimK. For maximum heat flow, the eritical diameter of the sheath shall be (@) 20mm (b) 18mm () 16mm () 12mm Ans. (c) Critical radius of insulation for sphere, 2k _ 2x0.04 x1000mm = 8 mm hoo ig x 1000mm = 8 Critical diameter = 2 x 8 = 16 mm Q.28 If the intake air temperature of an IC engine increases, its efficiency will (@) remain same (b) decrease (©) increase (A) remain unpredictable ‘Ans. (a) Decreases for S.I. engine Increases for C.l. engine But as per UPSC — (d) Q.29 Ina counter flow heat exchanger, hot gases enter the system at 200°C and leave at 80°C. The temperature of the outside air entering the units 36°C. its temperature at the exit is 90°C. The heat exchanger has an effectiveness of (@) 035 (b) 034 © 033 () 032 Ans. (*) Counter flow heat Exchanger Try = 200°C Toys = 35°C Tho = 80°C Taye = 90°C From energy balance Orla —Tye) = Ce[Fose Ti) Pee ere perry Page 9G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A , (200 - 80) = C, (90 - 35) Grin Tay Te) in ( p= 200-80 200-36 F= 07272 Q.30 If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, it is a serious condition for that cylinder and can be checked by 1, judging the seizure of the piston 2. checking incomplete combustion in that cylinder 3. checking cylinder exhaust temperature wilh a pyrometer Which of the above is/are correct? (@) 1 only (b) 2only () Sony (&) 1,2 and3 ‘Ans. (d) ooo EXEIT Q.31 Consider the following statements with reference to combustion and performance in a four-stroke petrol engine: 4. The auto-ignition temperature of petrol as a fuel is higher than that of diesel il as a fuel. 2, The highest compression ratio of petrol engines is constrained by the possibility of detonation. 3. Apetrol engine is basically less suitable for supercharging than a diesel engine. Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1 and2only (6) 1 and3 only (©) 2and3only (#) 1,2and3 Ans. (a) oo s EEN Q.32 Ina flooded evaporator refrigerator, an accumulator atthe suction side oft is provided to (@) collect the vapours (0) detect any liquids in the vapour (6) retain the refrigeration effect as originally working (@) collect the liquid retrigerant and preciude its reversion to the compressor ‘Ans. (d) To prevent the entry of liquid ref. into the compressor which may cause valve damage. 1e compressor Pee ere perry Page 10G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.83 A four-stroke single-cylinder SI engine of 6 cm diameter and 10 om stroke running at 4000 rpm develops power at a mean effective pressure of 10 bar, The power developed by the engine is (@) 9.42 KW (b) 554KW (©) 492kW (@) 294KW ‘Ans. (a) N = Ed? xLxkx “ 0x2 BP. =P,,x Ve = 10x Ve = 9.424 KW Q.34 Which of the following actions will help to reduce the black smoke emission of a diese! engine? 1. Runat lower load, Le., derating 2. Have regular maintenance of the diese! engine, particulatly of injection system 3. Use diesel oil of higher cetane number Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) 1 and2only (b) 1 and3 only (©) 2and3only (d) 1,2and3 Ans. (c) lement 1: At lower load, less cylinder temperature increases detonation Le. black smoke mM Q.35 Whatis the ratio of the efficiencies (3 ] for the two cycles as shownin the T-s diagrams? T+h T+h @ oF ©) “oR 2Iy 2h © T+1 © T+G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Ans. (4) _ i BS-S) n= 4 pli + Te.) HE-RYS-S) Pepe 2lin2 Sin) 1 TES) ni _ HSS) 2, tn” Lh +T\(S-%) (Fe) oe ¢EMEIT Q.36 A four-stroke engine having a brake power of 105 kW is supplied with fuel at the rate of 4.4 kgimin for 10 minutes. The brake specific fuel consumption of the engine is (@) 0.18 kg/kW-hr (b) 0.25 kg/kW-hr (©) 0.36 kgikW-hr (d) 0.42 kgikW-hr Ans. (d) =m 14 ste = a = 0.419 kg/kW-hr Q.37 Considering the following statements: 1, Recycling exhaust gases by partial mixing with the intake gases increases the emission of oxides of nitrogen from the engine. 2. The effect of increase in altitude of operation on the carburetor is to enrich the entire port-throttle operation. 3. When the carburetor throttle is sudclenly opened, the air-fuel mixture may lean out temporarily resulting in engine stall 4. Use of multi-venturi system makes airstream when the fuel is introduced at the main venturi throat Which ofthe above statements are correct? (a) tand3 (b) tand4 (©) 2and3 (@ 2and4 Ans. (c) oe ¢EXMEIT Q.38 in IC engine 1. the ideal air capacity of a two-stroke engine is the mass of air required to concurrently fill the tolal cylinder volume at inlet temperature and exhaust pressure. 2. with increase in air-fuel ratio beyond the value for maximum power, there is a fallin power developed and this fall is more with higher values of air-fuel ratio 3. the volumetric efficiency of the engine depends on the design of intake and exhaust manifoldG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Which of the above are correct? (@) 1and2only (b) 1and3 only (©) 2and3only (@ 1,2and3 Ans. (d) Q.39 Consider the following statements 1. Heat pumps and air conditioners have the same mechanical components. 2, The same system can be used as heat pump in winter and as air conditioner in summer. 3, The capacity and efficiency of a heat pump fal significantly at high temperature. Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1and2only (b) 1 andSonly () 2and3only (d) 1,2and3 Ans. (d) Q.40 The following are the results of a Morse test conducted on a four-cylinder, four-stroke petrol engine at a common constant speed in all cases: The brake power of the engine when all the cylinders are firing is 80 KW. The brake power of the engine when each cylinder is cut-off in turn is 55 kW, 55.5 KW, 54.5 kW and 55 KW, respectively. The mechanical efficiency of the engine when all the cylinders are firing will be (@) 90% (0) 85% (©) 80% (d) 75% Ans. (0) BP. = 80 kW IP, = 25 kW IP, = 24.5 KW IP, = 25.5 kW IP, = 25 kW LP. = IP, + IP, + IPyt IP, 100 KW BP. _ aox ‘TE = EE Q.41 An ideal refrigerator working on a reversed Rankine cycle has a capacity of 3 tons. The COP of the unit is found to be 6. The capacity of the motor required to run the unit is (take 1 T = 210 kJmin) (@) 1.85 kW (b) 1.75 kW (©) 1.65 kW (@ 15KW ‘Ans. (b) p . DE COP = Wy Page 13,G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A = cep Wa N, = 1.75 KW 981 .42 A flywheel weighs —— kaf and has a radius of gyration of 100 em. Its given a spin of 100 rpm about its horizontal axis. The whole assembly is rotating about a vertical axis at 6 rad/s. The gyroscopic couple experienced will be (@) 2000 kgtm (b) 1962 kgm (©) 200kgtm (d) 196kgt-m Ans. (a) Q.43 A cold storage has capacity for food preservation at a temperature of ~ 3°C when the outside temperature is 27°C. The minimum power required to operate with a cooling load of 90 KW is (a) 20kW (b) 15 kW (c) 10kW (d) 5kW ‘Ans. (c) > DE_ 90 COP TT Wy Wy vi, = 10 KW ETI Q.44 Ina vapour absorption refrigerator, the temperatures of evaporator and ambient air are 10°C and 20°C, respectively. For obtaining COP of 2 for this system, the temperature of the generator is to be nearly (@) °C (b) 85°C () 80°C (d) 75°C Ans. (c) VARS ete Je 30 —» 303K woo —~ asx |F 4-303 _283 Tg }\'303-263} = Tq = 79.8°C ~ 80°C Page 14G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.45 The following data refer to @ vapour compression refrigerator Enthalpy at compressor inlet = 1200 kJ/kg Enthalpy at compressor outlet = 1400 kJ/kg Enthalpy at condenser outlet = 200 kikg The COP of the refrigerator is @ 7 (b) 6 () 6 (a) 4 Ans. (c) 1200-200 = 4400-1200 coP Q.46 The compressor of an ammonia refrigerating machine has a volumetric efficiency of 85% and swept volume of 0.28 m*min. Ammonia having a dry specific volume of 0.25 m?/ kg enters the compressor with a dryness fraction of 0.7. The mass flow rate of ammonia through the machine is (@) 1.28 kg/min (b) 1.36 kg/min (©) 1.42kgimin (0) 1.54 kgimin ‘Ans. (b) a ivy > Rp Nig ar teok 5 = 085 = Fo 78 60 vet x(vy- v) >>>>.y, a, = 0.7 x 0.25 = 0.175 m}kg rnx0.175(m? kg) 0.88 = 0.28(m? /min) th = 1.36 kg/minG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.47 Airis drawnin a compressor atthe rate of 0.8 kg/s al a pressure of 1 bar and temperature of 20°C, and is delivered at a pressure of 10 bar and temperature of 90°C. This air delivery is through and exit valve of area 2 x 10° m?, I Ris 287 kJ/kaK, the exit velocity of the air is (a) 41.7 ms (b) 35.8 m/s (©) 29.7 ms (a) 27.3ms ‘Ans. (a) Given: ri =0.8 kglseo, P,= 1 bat, T, = 293K a pron = 20107 P, = 10 bar : 7, = 363K Go AY i; —~e P 3 aa 08. pert XVp a 10x100 Me 3 08 = 0287x363 2x10 x Vp v, = 41.67 misec Value of R is wrong actual value of R is 0.287 kiikak Ee Q.48 Consider the following statements 1. The operation of a refrigerator unit at more than one temperature can be accomplished by using different trotting valves and a separate compressor for each temperature range. 2. The refrigerated space must be maintained above the ice point lo prevent freezing, 3. Indomestic refrigerators, the refrigerants throttled to a higher pressure in the freezer followed by full expansion in the refrigerated space, Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1nd 2only (b) 1and3 only (©) 2and3only (@) 1,2and3 ‘Ans. (*) Only 1st statement is correct. Q.49 Which one of the following methods is more effective to improve the efficiency of the Rankine cycle used in thermal power plant? (@) Increasing the condenser temperature (b) Decreasing the condenser temperature (c) Decreasing the boiler temperature _(d) Increasing the boiler temperature Ans. (b) 0.50 _Consierthe folowing sttoments regarding vapour absorption systemin te fldoetigeration 1. Inammonia-water absorption system, ammoniais the refrigerant 2. Inwater-ithium bromide system, water is the refrigerant Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A 3. Ammonia-water absorption reaction is endothermic. 4, The amount of ammonia absorbed by water is inversely proportional to the temperature of ammonia. Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1,2and3 (b) 1,3and4 (©) 1,2and4 (@) 2,3and4 Ans. (¢) PETE 51 Inanair-hanaling unit, ar enters the cooling coil at a temperature of 30°C. The surface temperature of the coll is ~10°C. If the bypass factor of the coll is 0.45, then the temperature of the air at the exit will be (@) 6c (0) 8 (©) 10°C (@ 120 Ans. (b) X+10 = 045 = 18=X+ 10 X=8C Q.52 Consider the following statements: 1, The relative humidity of air does not change with temperature as long as specific humidity remains constant. 2. Dew-point temperature is the temperature at which condensation begins when air is cooled at constant volume. 3. Saturated air passing over a water surface does not cause change of air temperature, 4. For saturated air, dry-bullo, wet-bulb and dew-point temperatures are identical. Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1and2 (b) 2and3 (©) 1and4 (@) Sanda Ans. (a) oe Q.83 A cold storage has 23 cm brick wal on the outside and 8 om plastic foam on the inside. he inside and outside temperatures are -2°C and 22°C, respectively. f the thermal conductivities of brick and foam are 0.98 Wim-K and 0.02 Wim-K, and the inside and Outside heat transfer cootficients are 29 Wim?-K and 12 Wime-K, respectively, then the rale of heat removal for a (projected) wall area of 90 m? will nearly be (@) sos (©) 497 (©) 4s0W (@ aaiw Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Ans. (b) ‘o08m 023m k, = 0.98 Wim-k k= 0.02 Wimnk A= 90m? 29 Wim?K 2 Wim? eo —9 he hw go oa m Ye GR aa i} ea TY 29x90 * 0102x90 *0.98%90 "12x90 @ = 496.26 W Q.54 Consider the following statements: 1. The distinguishing features of a radial flow reaction turbine are— (i) only a part of the total head of water is converted into velocity head before it reaches the runner and (i) the flow-through water completely fills all the passages in the runner. 2. Kaplan turbine is essentially a propeller working in reverse, and its blades are so mounted thal all the blade angles can be adjusted simultaneously by means of suitable gearing even as the machine is in operation 3. A draft tube is a pipe of gradually increasing cross-sectional area which must be airtight, and under all conditions of operation, its lower end must be submerged below the level of the discharged water in the talrace. Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (©) 2 and 3 only (@ 1,2, and 3 ‘Ans. (a) ‘© In reaction turbine, head is partially converted into velocity * In Kaplan turbine, the orientation of moving angle can also be adjusted +The draft tube is always immersed in tail race. EET Pee ere perry Pageass Ans. ase Ans. Qs7 Ans. ase Ans. aso MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A The specific speed of a turbine is the speed of an imaginary turbine, identical with the given turbine, which (@) delivers unit discharge under unit speed (0) delivers unit discharge under unit head (©) develops unit discharge under unit speed (@) develops unit power under unithead (d) PETE The mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal pump is the ratio of (a) manometric head to the energy supplied by the impeller per kN of water (b) energy supplied to the pump to the energy available at the impeller (©) actual work done by the pump to the energy supplied to the pump by the prime mover (A) energy available at the impeller to the energy supplied to the pump by the prime mover (a) Impeller power Mower = “Shaft power EET Consider the following advantages of rotary pumps compared to reciprocating pumps: 1. Steady discharge which increases with decrease in head 2. Suitable for handling fluids with suspended solid particles 3. Less bulky than displacement pumps positive 4. Can be started with open delivery with least load Which of the above advantages are correct? (@) 1,2and3 (b) 1,2and4 (©) 1,3and4 (6) 2,3and4 (c) Rotary pump gives steady discharge and discharge Increase with decrease in head, Reciprocating pump is suitable for fluid having solid particles. According to aerofoil theory, the guide angle of Kaplan turbine blades is defined as the angle between (@) liftand resultant force (©) drag and resultant force (©) liftand tangential force (A) liftand drag (a) eo: o EET {An ideal closed-cycle gas turbine plant is working between the temperatures 927°C and 27°C using air as working fluid. The pressure ratio for maximum output is (@ 113 (b) 133 (©) 153 (9) 173 Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A ‘Ans. (a) 1 14 Trax RW _ (1200) >t tous (Fe) = (in) “ 2 (4) 4)"(4)* = (4)'(64)* = (4) x 2V2 = 4x 2%1.432 = 11.81 ays Q.60 The critical speed of a turbine is (@) same as the runaway speed (b) the speed that will lead mechanical failure of the shaft (c) the speed which equals the natural frequency of the rotor (d) the speed equal tothe synchronous speed of the generator ‘Ans. (c) The critical speed of a turbine is the speed at which it equals to natural frequency of rotor at which the deflection becomes maximum therefore rotor (or shaft) may get damage. TET Q.61 A 40 mm diameter water jet strikes a hinged vertical plate of 800 N weight normally at its surface at ils centre of gravity as shown in the figure below: w= 800N he angle of deflection is nearly (@) sin'0.353 (©) sin'0.321 (6) tan*0.353 (A) tan*0324 ‘Ans. (a) By ood?) x12 xt paves _2%1000x Fxooe) x15 xf wi. 800x1 @ = sin (0.353) ! sin 8 = (Given x = 5 o: EEE Q.62 Consider the following statements regarding a Ram Jet: 1. The engine has neither a compressor nor a turbine. 2. Itoperates at much higher temperature than a gas turbine. 3._ It cannot operate statically. It needs to be put in flight by some means at sufficiently high speed before it produces any thrust and propels itself Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1 and2only (b) 1 and 3 only (©) 2and3only () 1,2and3 ‘Ans. (a) Q.63 Air enters a turbojet engine at the rate of 40 kgs with a velocity of 250 mis relative to an aircraft which is moving at 300 km/hr. Exhaust of the engine has a velocity of 700 mis relative to the moving aircraft. The thrust developed by the engine is (2) 24 kN (©) 18 kN (©) 12 kN (@) 9kN ‘Ans. (b) thrust = ri(Cj-C,) = 40(700 - 250) = 18000 N. I8kN oe Q.64 The clearance volume in reciprocating air compressor is provided (@) to reduce the work done per kg of air delivered (b) to increase the volumetric efficiency the compressor (c) to accommodate the valves in the head of the compressor (A) to create turbulence in the air to be delivered Ans. (c) Q.65 Consider the following statements regarding Reheat Rankine Steam Cycle 1. The main purpose of reheal in Rankine cycle is to increase the efficiency of the cycle. 2. In practice, the reheat is generally limited to one point of expansion 3. Due to reheat, the steam rate (specific steam consumption) is reduced. Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (©) 1 and 3 only (@) 1,2 and 3 Ans. (b) EET Q.66 In solar flat-piate collectors, the absorber plate is painted with selective paints. The selectivity is the ratio of (@) solar radiation-absorption to thermal infrared radiation-emission (b) solar radiation-emission to thermal infrared radiation-absorplion (0) solar radiation-reflection to thermal infrared radiation-absorption (d) solar radiation-absorption to thermal infrared radiation-reflection Ans. (a) Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.67 A 13m long ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5 m from the wall. What should be the coefficient of friction between the ladder and the floor so that the ladder remains in equilibrium? (@) 029 (©) 025 (©) 021 (@ on Ans. (c) . 5 18 cos 0=5 > cos 0 = 7 = 0.3846 @ = 67.38 = Ey = 0 Wx 25 = N, x 13 sin 0 Wx 25 = N,x 12 Wx25 ; 72 (1) = ZF, = 0 Ny = W @) TF =05N%, rg x W Wx25 2 tex W Mg = 0.2008 = 0.21 Q.68 A cube strikes a stationary ball exerting an average force of 60 N over a time of 10 ms. The ball has mass of 0.20 kg. Its speed after the impact will be (a) 35 mis (b) 2.5 mis (©) 1.5 mis: (d) 0.5 mis ‘Ans. (b) son = 2 = RoR mv muy Fog At At At mxv _ 02xv = Fox10 10x10" 50x 10x 10° 0.2 2.5 mis oo ¢ EET Q.69 Consider the following statements regarding solid solution of metals: 1. The solubility of metallic solids is primatily limited by size factor. 2. A metal with high valence can dissolve large amount of metal of lower valence 3. A metal with same lattice crystal structure can form a series of solid solutions. 4. The limit of solid solubility is indicated by a phase boundary called Liquidus.G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (©) and 3 (@ 1 and 2 Ans. (c) Q.70 Abox of weight 1000 N is placed on the ground. The coefficient of friction between the box and the ground is 0.5. When the box is pulled by a 100 N horizontal force, the frictional force developed between the box and the ground at impending motion is (a) SON (b) 75N (©) 100N (d) SOON Ans. (c) w= 1000 N, p, = 0.5, F= 100 N 1, resin + pe t,= 100 F,= is N= 0.5 x 1000 = 500 N F< F,— Rest >f = 100 N Q.71 _Astate of plane stress consists of a uniaxial tensile stress of magnitude 8 kPa, exerted on vertical surfaces and of unknown shearing stresses. If the largest stress is 10 kPa, then the magnitude of the unknown shear stress will be (@) 6.47 kPa (b) 5.47 kPa (©) 4.47 kPa (@) 3.47kPa Ans. (c) = $48) + 6= (eae 36 = 16+ 2% %=20 <= 4.47 kPa Q.72 Atigid beam of negligible weight, is supported in a horizontal position by two rods of steel and aluminium, 2 m and 1 m long, having values of cross-sectional areas 100 mm? and 200 mm®, and Young's modulus of 200 GPa and 100 GPa, respectively. A load P is applied as shown in the figure below:G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A 2m) Steel 41m] Aluminium Rigid beam . P If the rigid beam is to remain horizontal, then (@) the force P must be applied at the centre of the beam (0) the force on the steel rod should be twice the force on the aluminium rod (©) the force on the aluminium rod should be twice the force on the stecl-rod (@) the forces on both the rods should be equal Ans. (c) Steele [aluminium , Py If the rigid beam is to remain horizontal G1 = GL, All | BG AE, ~ AE, x 2000 P, x (1000) 400% 200x10° ~ 200x100x10° Py = 2P, [Le Py = 2 Prreail EET Q.78 A solid shatt is subjected to bending moment of 3.46 kN-m and a torsional moment of 11.5 kN-m. For this case, the equivalent bending moment and twisting moment are (@) 7.73 kN-mand 12.0kN-m (b) 14.96 kN-m and 12.0 kN-m (©) 7.73 kN-m and 8.04 kN-m (@) 14.96 kN-m and 8.04 kN-m Ans. (a) M= 3.46 kN-m T= 11.5 kNm : : (Hh) Bima MPT] = 7.73465 kN-mG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A By using max-shear stress theory [MS-ST] = VM +7 =12kN-m I Q.74 Which one of the following is the correct bending moment diagram for a beam which is hinged at the ends and is subjected to a clockwise couple acting at the mid- span? io Pestive BM cc Negative BM rT 4_Newvo sw -e_W_ —| © @) ~~] Le Ans. (c) Een Q.75 A steel specimen is heated to 780°C and is then cooled at the slowest possible rate in the furnace. The property imparted to the specimen by this process is (@) toughness (b) hardiness (©) softness (0) tempering ‘Ans. (a) EET Q.76 Consider the following statements: 1. Incase of a thin spherical shell of diameter d and thickness t, subjected to internal 1 principal stresses al any point equal ee 2. Incase of thin cylinders, the hoop stress is determined assuming it to be uniform across the thickness of the cylinder. 8. In thick cylinders, the hoop stress is not uniform across the thickness but it varies from a maximum value at the inner circumference to a minimum value at the outer circumference, pressure p, Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (©) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 Ans. (d) Q.77 Addition of magnesium to cast iron increase its (a) hardness (b) corrosion resistance (d) ductility and strength in tension Q.78 Consider the following statements: 1. The quenching of stee! results in an increase in wear resistance, strength and hardness 2. By the process of case-hardening, hard wearing resistant surface is produced on mild steel This is an effective method for low-carbon steels because they cannot be hardened by the process of quenching. 3. When a metalis mixed with small atoms of non-metalic element in such a manner that invading atoms occupy intersttial postions in the metal latice, an intesttia alloy results, Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (©) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2and 3 Ans. (4) Q.79 Recrystallization temperature is one at which (a) crystals firs forming from molten metal when cooled (©) new spherical crystals frst begin to form from the old deformed ones when that strained metal is heated (c) the allotropic form changes (@ crystals grow bigger in size ‘Ans. (b) Q.80 _Fe-C alloy containing less than 0.83% carbon is called (a) high-speed steel (b) hypo-eutectoid steel (0) hyper-cutectoid stee! (d) castiron ‘Ans. (b) Q.81 Which of the following statements are correct? 41. Steel and cast iron are multi-phase alloys. 2. Ferrites a single-phase interstitial solid solution of carbon in iron. 3. Wroughtiton is highly refined iron with a small amount of siag which gives resistance toprogressive corrosion Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A 4, Stelle contains large amounts of metals like cobalt and tungsten resulting in high hardness. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@ 1,.2,3and4 (b) 1,2and3 only (©) 1,S.and 4 only (A) 2and4only Ans. (a) EET Q.82 Which one of the following statements is correct? (@) Microprocessors more suitable for general purpose and microcontroller is more suitable for special purpose and custom-built application (b) Microprocessor and microcontroller are suitable for general purpose application, (©) Microprocessor and microcontroller are suitable for special purpose application. (d) Microprocessor and microcontroller are suitable for special purpose and custom-built application, Ans. (a) . Q.83 The unique property of cast iron is its high @) malleabilty (b) ductity (©) toughness (@) damoing characteristics Ans. (d) Q.84 Which one of the following pairs of tests has been developed to evaluate the fracture resistance of engineering materials, subjected to dynamic loads or impacts? (@) Tension impacts and Bending impacts (b) Tensile test and Brinell hardness test (©) Vickers hardness test and Tensile test (d) Scleroscope test and File test Ans. (a) oo EEE Q.85 The midpoint ofa rigid link of a mechanism moves as a translation along a straight line, from rest, with a constant acceleration of 5 m/s®, The distance covered by the said midpoint in 5 s of motion is (@) 124.2m. (b) 112.5. (©) 96.2m (d) 625m Ans, (d) p+ assist Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A 1 $= 0+2x5x5x5 pxox5 125 = 625m 7 = 825 Q.86 Consider the following statements 1. A kinematic chain is the combination of kinematic pairs joined in such a way that the relative motion between them is completely constrained, 2. The degree of freedom of a kinematic pair is given by the number of independent coordinates required to completely specify the relative movement Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) 1 only (0) 2 only (©) Both 1 and 2 (@) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) Both are correct Q.87 The equation of motion for a single degree of freedom system is Ag49%+16x=0 The critical damping coefficient for the system is (a) 42 4 (©) 162 (d) 16 Ans. (d) 4g4+9i416x = 0 a-(2}setox 0 w2=4 = W, = 2 radis 9 atm,= 2 6M, = 5 = axtx2=2 2 a 2” 46 C=9 Nims c oe aes 1% CO, C, = 16 Nim/sG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.88 The mass of a single-degree damped vibrating system is 7.5 kg and it makes 24 free oscillations in 14 s when disturbed from ts equilibrium position. The amplitude of vibration reduces to 0.25 of its initial value after five oscillations. Then the logarithmic decrement will be 2 1 2 tiog,6 (a) loe4 (b) Flog. 1 2 (©) slog, 4 (0) Glog. 6 Ans. (c) m= 7.5 kg 14 7-4 "24 2n _2n = Wa= mia 24 w, = 48% oe 5 = (0.25). 78 2025 % = ane % 02 a4 55= In 4 1 = tina . 5 Q.89 A 20 kg mass is suspended from a spring which deflects 15 mm under this foad. The value of the critical damping coetficient to make the motion aperiodic will be (@) 1010 Nims (b) 1013 Nims (6) 1018 Nims (a) 1023 Nims ‘Ans. (d) m= 20 kg A= 15 mm = 0.015 meter C=? a=G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS DRE nec} c acw, = RW, = i" Get > c=G aw, = Se m ©, = 2m, 1022,9369 1028 Nim/s EET Q.90 Consider the following statements 1, The whirling (critical) speed of a shaft is that rotational speed at which the shaft 0 runs that the deflection of the shaft from the axis of rotation tends to become inf 2. Critical speed is equal to the frequency of transverse vibration of a shaft when the shaft carries a point load or a uniformly distributed load or a combination of both such loads, 3. The whiting of a shaft results from causes such as mass unbalance, hysteresis, damping in the shaft, gyroscopic forces and fluid friction in the bearing Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (© 2 and 3 only (1, 2and 3 Ans. (a) oe ¢EXMEIT Q.91 Consider the following statements 1. In spur gears, the contact occurs abruptly on a line parallel to the axis, and the disengagement too is abrupt 2. Inhelical gears, both loading and unloading are gradual, and therefore, these happen more smoothly and less noisily. 3. When two gears mesh, any arbitrary shape of the tooth can be chosen for the profile of the teeth of any one of the two gears, and the profile for the other shall be obtained by applying the law of gearing, Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (©) 2 and 3 only () 1,2and3 Ans. (a) Een Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.92 Theinterference between a given pinion tooth and a gear tooth can be avoided by using 1, smaller pressure angle 2. larger pressure angle 3. less number of teeth on the gear for a pinion with predefined number of teeth 4. more number of teeth on the gear for a pinion with predefined number of teeth Which of the above are correct? (@) 1anda (0) 1and3 (©) 2and4 (@) 2and3 Ans. (c) @.93 Ageartrainis as shown in the figure below, in which gears A and Bhave 20 and 40 teeth, respectively. If arm Cis fixed and gear A rotales at 100 rp.m., the speed of gear B will be —\s Hes! ANG L (@) 9009. (b) 75 rp. (©) S0rp.m, (@) 20rpm, ‘Ans. (c) Arm C | A (20) | B (40) Assume Armfixed—a] 0 | tx | ax Eb tetamtee—o | y | vex |[y-3] y+ x= 100 oO y=o x= 100 = 50 rpm. Alternative way: Nea 20 Ny Ts 40 y= 72 = 50 xp Page 31G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.94 Asingle-cylinder reciprocating engine works with a stroke of 320 mm, mass of reciprocating parts as 45 kg and mass of revolving parts as 85 kg at crank radius. If 60% of the reciprocating parts and all the revolving parts are to be balanced, then the balancing mass required at a 300 mm radius is nearly (@) 33.1kg (0) 36.3kg (©) 38.5ka (@) 42.7 kg ‘Ans. (a) r= 522 ~ 160 mm = 0.160 m 2 Mages = 45 49 May = 95.9 Fegypoty = (85 X 0.16002 60% Fypinecs) = (45 X 0.160 x 0.60)0? = (27 x 0.160)? otal unbalance which is to be balanced F = (85 + 27) x 0.160 x w? neta = (62) x 0.160 x w? b= 0.3 meter (62 x 0.160 x 2) = Bbw? = Bx 03 x 0? g = S2x0-160 = 83,066 kg = 83.1 kg Q.95 Consider the following statements: 1. Gyroscopic effects generate forces and couples which act on the vehicles, and these effects must be taken into account while designing their bearings. 2. Rolling motion of a ship usually occurs because of the difference in buoyancy on the two sides of the ship due to a wave Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) tony (b) 2only (©) Both 1 and 2 (A) Neither 1 nor2 Ans. (c) Both (1) and (2) are correct. Q.96 When two shafts, one of which is hollow, are of the same length and transmit equal torques with equal maximum stress, then they should have equal (a) polar moments of inertia (b) polar moduli (©) diameters (d) angles of twist ‘Ans. (b) Trait = Trhetou (ZZ pedscis = (ZeZpedheion Zoe, for both the shaft are same]G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.97 A solid rod of circular cross-section made of brittle material, when subjected to torsion, fails along a plane at 45° to the axis of the rod. Consider the following statements as pertaining thereto: 1. Distortion energy is maximum on this 45° plane. 2. Shear stress is maximum on this 45° plane 3. Normal stress is maximum on this 45° plane, Which of the above is/are correct? (@) 1 only (b) 2only (c) only (d) 1, 2and3 Ans. (0) Brittle material shaft uncier pure torsion fail along a plane at 45° to the axis of the shaft because they are weak in tension and maximum tensile stress plane will be at angle of 45° to the cross-section of shaft or long axis of shaft [i.e. granular helicoidal feature ‘occurs.] Q.98 A riveted joint may fail by 1. tearing of the plate at an edge 2. tearing of the plate across a row of rivels 3. shearing of rivets Which of the above are correct? (@) 1 and2only (b) 1 and 3 only (©) 2and3 only (@) 1,2and3 ‘Ans. (a) Q.99 An offset provided in radial cam-transiating-follower mechanism serves to (@) decrease the pressure angle during ascent ofthe follower (b) increase the pressure angle during ascent of the follower (©) avoid possible obstruction due to some machine parts (d) decrease the pressure angle during descent of the follower ‘Ans. (a) Because high value of pressure angle is not desirable as it increase side thrust and operation will not remain smooth, Also, its main concern to move follower upside, because il can come down due to its self weight oe ¢EXMEIT Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.100 In combined parallel and transverse fillet welded joint (@) the parallel portion will ail due to tension, whereas the transverse portion will fall due toshear (©) the transverse portion wil fail due to tension, whereas the parallel portion will fall due shear (6) both parallel and transverse portions wil fail due to tension (@) both parallel and transverse portions will fil due to shear Ans. (a) oe @.101. In a journal bearing, the diameter of the journal is 0.15 m, its speed is 900 rpm. and the load on the bearing is 40 kN. considering 4 = 0.0072, the heat generated will be nearly (@) 1KW (o) 2KW © 3Kw (@ 4Kw Ans. (b) Heat generated = nwWV AON _£X0.18%900 _ 7069 m5 60 60 Heat generated = 0.0072 x 40 x 7.068 = 2.035 kW ~ 2 kW EET Q.102 Which one of the following governors is having a larger displacement of sleeve for a given fractional change of speed? (a) Stable governor (b) Sensitive governor (6) Isochronous governor (A) Hunting governor ‘Ans. (d) Q.103 Consider the following statements 1. HSS tools wear very rapidly, whereas in cemented carbide tools, even though hardness is retained, crater wear can occur due to solid-state diffusion. 2. Cutting tools made of Super-HSS also known as cobalt-based HSS, are made by adding 2% to 15% of cobalt which increases the cutting efficiency at heavier cuts by increasing the hot hardness and wear resistance. 3. Too! failure due to excessive stress can be minimized by providing small or negative rake angles on brittle tool materials, protecting tool tip by providing large side- cutting edge angles, and honing a narrow chamfer along the cutting edge. Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1 and 2only (b) 1 and 3 only (©) 2and3only () 1,2and3 Ans. (d) All the statements are correct. Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.104 The resilience of steel can be found by integrating stress-strain curve up to the (@) ultimate fracture point (©) upper yield point (©) lower yield point (@) elastic point Ans. (4) The resilience of steel can be found by integrating stress-strain curve upto elastic point. stress| sain Resilience involves ability to absorb energy by a material upto elastic limit nd of Solution Q.105. While turning a 60 mm diameter bar, it was observed that the tangential cutting force was 3000 N and the feed force was 1200 N. Ifthe tool rake angle is 32°, then the coefficient of friction is nearly (may take sin 32° = 0.53, cos 32° = 0.85 and tan 32° = 0.62) (@) 137 (o) 1.46 (© 157 (@ 1.68 Ans. (a) Principal cutting edge angle is 90°, F = 3000 N, F, = 1200 N Fosina+Fcosa _ 3000sin32+1200c0s32 _ - jeoodshszie1z00moes Zag = Fcosa—Fsina ~ 3000c0s32~1200sina2 ~ °° Q.106 For spot welding of 1 mm thick sheet with a current flow time of 0.2's, the heat generated is 1000 J. If the effective resistance is 200 uO, the current required is (@) 4000 (©) 5000 (©) 6000 (@) 700A ‘Ans. (b) H= PRt 1 gz 7000 ~ VRE 200 x 10° x 0.2 Page 35,G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.107 The maximum possible draft in rolling, which is the difference between initial and fina thicknesses of the sheet metal, depends on (@) rolling force (0) rollradius (6) rollwieth (4) yield shear stress of the material ‘Ans. (b) AH = WR AH = 1(R) °° EE Q.108 Forastrain gauge (gauge factor = 2.1 and resistance = 50 2), subjected to a maximum strain of 0.001, the maximum change in resistance is (@) 00840 (b) 0.1050 (c) 0.1352 (d) 0.1562 Ans. (b) strain gauge factor R € = 0001 A Bree AR = 50 x 2.1 x 0.001 = 0.105 @ @.109. Consider the following statements Dispatching authorizes the start of production operation by 1. releasing of material and components from stores to the first process 2. releasing of material rom process to process. 8. issuing of drawing and instruction sheets. Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1 and 2 only (0) 4 and only (©) 2and3only (#) 1,2and3 ‘Ans. (d) EET Q.110 Which one of the following forecasting models best predicts the turning point? (2) Simple exponential smoothing mode! (©) Brown's quadratic smoothing model (c) Double exponential smoothing model (d) Moving average model (using 5 data points) Ans. (d) Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.111. The material removal rate will be higher in ultrasonic machining process for materials with (@) higher ductility (0) higher fracture strain (©) higher toughness (a) lower toughness Ans. (d) USM is used for hard and brittle materials like GLASS, ceramics carrying low toughness. PETE Q.112_ In queuing theory with multiple servers, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analyzed mathematically, if (@) the complete details of the items in the waiting lines are known (b) the arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form an appropriate waiting line model (©) all the variables and constants are known and they may form a linear equation (d) the laws governing arrivals, service times and the order in which the arriving units are taken into service are all known Ans. (a) Q.113 In any crash program for a project (@) both direct and indirect costs increase (6) indirect costs increase and dlirect costs decrease (©) direct costs increase and indirect costs decrease (@) costs are ofno criterion Ans. (c) EET .114 Too! signature is (a) anumerical method of identification of the tool (b) the plan of the tool (©) the complete specication of the too (d) associated with the tool manufacturer Ans. (c) Tool signature involves complete specification of tool. For example ASA too! signatures specifies ASA (Gy. Gs Yor Yor Yor Yar fn) Q.115 With reference to a microprocessor, RISC stands for (@) Redefined instruction SetComputer_ _(b) Reduced Instruction Set Computer (c) Restructured Instruction Set Computer (d) Regional Instruction Set Computer ‘Ans. (b) Pee ere perryG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.116 An OR logic control in pneumatic systems is possible with the help of (@) sequence valve (0) shuttle valve (©) dual pressure valve (A) delay valve Ans. (c) Q.117 Which one of the following is not an addressing Mode in 8085? (@) Immediate (b) Indirect (©) Register (A) Segment Ans. (a) Q.118 Consider the following statements regarding Programming Logic Controller (PLC): 1. _Itwas developed to replace the microprocessor. 2. Wiring between devices and relay contacts are done in its program, 3. Its /0 interface section connects itto external fields devices, 4, Itrequires extensive wiring in the application, Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1ands (b) 1and (©) 2ands (@ 2anda Ans. (c) Q.119 If Bis the magnetic flux density at right angle to a plate, / is the current flow through the plate, tis the plate thickness and K,, is Hall coefficient, the resultant transverse potential difference V for Hall sensor is given by Bt t @ Kat ©) Kup Br 1 © Ke @ Kage Ans. (c) Q.120 The specific speed of a hydraulic turbine depends on (a) speed and power developed (b) speed and water head (c) discharge and power developed —_(d) speed, head and power developed ‘Ans. (d) nwP No TaG4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleuee for ES, GATE & PSUS Mechanical Engineering | Set-A Q.121 The degrees of freedom of a SCARA robot are (a) six (b) five (©) four (@) three Ans. (c) SCARA has 4 DOF, . Q.122 Which one of the following devices produces incremental motion through equal pulses? (@) AC servomotor (b) DC servomotor (©) Stepper motor (A) Seties motor Ans. (c) ‘Stepper motor produces incremental motion through equal pulses Q.123 A force of 400 N is required to open a process control valve. What is the area of diaphragm needed for a diaphragm actuator to open the valve with a control gauge pressure of 70 kPa? (@) 0.0005 me (6) 0.0086 me (©) 0.0057 m* (@) 0.0048 me Ans. (e) F__400 : a& = 0.0057 A= BFox10" " ose Q.124 A force of 10 KNis required to move a workpiece. What is the needed working pressure, if the piston diameter is 100 mm? (a) 1.55MPa (b) 1.46MPa (©) 1.27MPa (@) 1.12MPa Ans. (c) 2 pa B= 10x Fx(0.1 P= 1.27 x 108 Pa = 1.27 MPa