CDS EXAM (Il}:2017 Wa ae aot ae Uda yferat Gre wl a wel VE wa aH 7 Ulet Sate. : STS-K-TPT cutter yferent ataseA ctewseeer (f 0208105 wath aaa FTA } waa: dae quits : 100 aqygaw 2. wen wren Ba es are ora ga Uda yer A gare orava ae a Re ga ats fe om, wet aT ET an ye ae serie oni aA ay ar a, a RA aA ar germ a age 2. qren ar wa f OMR Truss 4 afi werd Ti et TER oi The YferaT sa A, B, CD aM a va fan fat aa on een & oe sth gag we AM Reker seteare Ar A) fare oA wee A e/a A feat a oe-oae fet a feat eT 3. a wham gene wa A Re me ates A oat on gaia fora @1 wham yer ait go a fed! 4, 3 The Yet F120 sea (wea) fae ne RL ee Hai feet otk otis SAA wa El wea wT A aR TET (Gat) fee) A eR GAS, FH oe See Te em eT Tea AL ae SA tar aaa Few A aig ee we, a Se we wy ite at oh one et ea | ues weain Be fore Arerer ee NAR GAT BI 5. amet oA ae weet stem Bee mm saw OF ifr ae EL owas Hi Ra ae ee Ba 6. ast weil Ss wa ZI 7. Waa Wea fs ar oer gfe & Pa wera Bs weg Seo oe aif HAT Yw a, ora wae w= aT Sta agai & agen go fea seas HE 8. sre ore woh meget AY saw Ae are ae allan wT we Sra Sawa shies SY ah esa ae “ary weer year @ aT AL aga 8 9. Fa am & faq vas, vlan year & ora a def 10: Tem SH & fore avs aeghte we-aat 4 seftzan arm faq me wera seit & fre avs fet sre (i) ate wer & fare are Senfetew sae G1 settee are wee wea SH fore fq Te EH eT Se form wer Bq fra fee am afat an wa-Freré ave ey} Fre wre Gi) a aE srtcan ww 8 after ee fat 8, a Te TA ATT SET, afe Re ae sae HS OH su ae eer 2, fe of sa we forq eager # wet ace ar awe feat STEM (ii) aR soaheare grr aN we ee Fel frm sre ® seal sea gre see we fear aren 8, at sa we fee ane ave wai fen ae) Wa ws anal ae uta gfe Gert wl A we WIE da aH A Ue SR OS Res oe rs. Satie get (eq aes)’ 4 feafefad #8 Shar saad Ba WAS BT A VET sa 8? (q) wraTE (b) tie () aKa (a) tet . Fa a opie ‘sg@ we (see fed)’ sara a aaiftra 8? (a) ame aa (b) 7h SE (co) fafa teR (4) Seqo Berton . Praftrfiaa #8 aa’ arg dia ata 87 (a) HRA (b) Ferree () Fra @ ora oH % frafetar oma omits at (cree fad) a an 3 fir A ok ara Fire: 1. gaat 2. 7H 3. te 4. Grad a eu me ee wr wT ae ae oe SPT (@) 4,3,2,1 (o) 2,1, 4,3 () 1,2,3,4 (@) 1,3,2,4 STS-K-TPT/46A, 5. frafefad 4 @ fea dda & aro tem % ig Bae sree fears a 87 (a) Her (b) ARR () Bea (a) 78 6. frafafad #8 fee aga & aro aq aa ‘Fagen tran 8? (a) TRE (NO3) (b) Awa (SO2-) (o) AIRE (NOS) (a) ace (SO2-) 7. Wa A Gur & we GPa APE sk afd & a Re ae eg ar en ae a oe are: awit win (aifirat str) (seerd) A. rigdteifgar 1. warer-aeeeor B. weitere = 2. sae ae Cc. ugar 3. dasa a D. wea = 4. ATP Fain (aera) Re: (a) A B c D a | eno oa B G' D || en Anne @&éA B € D 4 1 2 3 @aAaA Bc D 4 2 1 31. Which one of the following tribal groups . Which one of the following proteins gives is dominantly found in the ‘Blue lustrous shiny appearance to silk fibre? Mountains’? fay a ee (b) Sericin (6) Gonds (c) Collagen (c) Jarawas (a) Nectin (ad) Todas 6. Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by the 2. Who among the following geographers is icontamination' oF related to ‘primate city’ concept? (a) nitrite (NO3) (a) August Losch (b) sulphite (S0}”) (b) Mark Jefferson (c) nitrate (NO3) (o) Griffith Taylor (a) W. Christaller (a) sulphate (SO3”) i. Wiiely one! of the: Sllowingy islands: 7. Match List-I with List-ll and select the ia the leagues correct answer using the code given below the Lists = (a) Borneo List-I List Gb), Madagascar (Cel Organelle) (Punetion) ft en at ‘A. Mitochondria 1. Photosynthesis (isinere: B. Chloroplast 2. Protein synthesis 4. Arrange the following Tiger Reserves of C. Ribosomes 3. Intracellular India from North to South : digestion 1, Dudhwa D. Lysosomes 4. ATP formation 2. Panna Code : 3. Pench 4, Indravati oe Boo D 3 A. 2 4 Select the correct answer using the code given below. wa B @ D (a) 4,3, 2,1 COIN eI le (b) 2,1, 4,3 gto 82 & ® 4 L 2 3 () 1, 2,3, 4 ae Bb a Db (a) 1,3, 2,4 ||| es STS-K-TPT/46A 3 [P.7.0.8. 21 it snail arch we o-Fae sk 30 Wht are arch ws B-aen @ aa Sefer ay daka aa 1 aren aat & feat varie 11. fer a arin ard ee Rae ath ww wl 1000 V & fawaian @ cafe Pear eM 21 wa dae 4, freafefad 4 8 ate mee Fel aftr sia wa ® (ay rat ao A ra fea Be ee (oy eee A ai, seta Ra Aa Bh o) & (c) Stata Bafa, eeragha At af @ aa Sr (9 # (@) Wega A nfs sik Me A af acat eh (a WR 12. TAM eae 1 it WHR BQN He aa A wea FAK FAM AT! TK 1 aia a aT ze oe an 2 tafitay a aa 21 ae fear aa 8 ata A ag weed, tafe A aga 9. Aidt (sel) UH Hees & ag Saal A ca A are & EK vend 8) Praferttad FB ata ai a Wea wes 8? area & afte 21 ga ded 4, Fiestas a ara He we 8? (a) fea arate fa) a1 am siete, oe 2 & site a safes em on oy me 2m sty, ae 1% aE a () Siem az afte em) (oc) @At a ort ar ste wea eT (a) *ieaaa ae (ad af eat at § wa ora varied AT wh %, at at & at 4 OF aa cafes-ar FAR eT 10. Sai & arava HUH Sa Baa, BA ceva, TERR, a, ae TH PH UH Testa fi, a (a) teva (area) feo Ben oar? mai (6) Age (a) 40° (fo) Ba area a_i (e) 90° (a) Tieatees aa (a) 80° STS-K-TPT/46A, 48. Human insulin molecule is composed of one a-chain having 21 amino acids and one f-chain having 30 amino acids. How many functional insulin genes occur in adult humans? (a) One (b) Two () Three (a) Four 9. Pearl is a hard object produced within. the soft tissues of a mollusk. Which one of the following is the main constituent of pearl? (a) Calcium carbonate (6) Calcium oxide () Calcium nitrate (d) Calcium sulphate 10. A biological community in its environ- ment such as a pond, an ocean, a forest, even an aquarium is known as (a) biome (b) community (c) abiotic environment (@) ecosystem STS-K-TPT/46A, 11. An electron and a proton starting from rest are accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 V. Which one of the following statements in this regard is correct? (a) The kinetic energy of both the particles will be different. (6) The speed of the clectron will be higher than that of the proton. (c) The speed of the proton will be higher than that of the electron. (d) The speed of the electron and the proton will be equal. 12. Two wires are made having same length and area of cross-section A. Wire 1 is made of copper and wire 2 is made of aluminium, It is given that the electrical conductivity of copper is more than that of aluminium. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct? (@) The resistance of wire 1 will be higher than that of wire 2. (6) The resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 1. () The resistance of both the wires will be the same. (a) If same current is flown through both the wires, the power dissipated in both the wires will be the same. 13. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 40° with respect to surface normal. When it gets reflected from the mirror, it undergoes a deviation of (a) 40° (b) 100° () 90° (a) 80° [P-7.014. aac, ga oh war afeo/ser & fra rnd @a 81 fafewi/sarr % dae 4H, Prafataa 4 & aaa sar wel wei 2? (a) Ree RR A gan A sac ar aerted safe eat 81 (b) Fa Fare A Geet 4H wah a aeneeh Bret ae 21 () sae wa A geet # ge wa Fi wet sal sitter eh 81 (a) Fa vera A Ger A art At Sti wat on eh 21 18. Fo wa wa H ant H ag as gins wi a ard &) gear rT e/a ay 2/8 fe 1, a, giaphie # son sera art & 2, Biaetic F feet ahh eet & 3, Maem & fae age sa ree AA Re me ae wr we ae a TT BAU) (a) Fra 1 (b) Fa 2 3K 3 () aa 1 i 2 @ 1,293 STS-K-TPT/46A, 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. we cafes frei atortea Sf ora 1 GST eI Wi ode Oe Pfea ef ae ae SA oT ag waa 8? (a) Sir O) RR () ae () Terre eRghH Fete arn Sik sat ts safe HS0j +H,0 > H30* +S02- 4, aa few we ard eer 8? (@) WarAsaA () HAM BSA () Ha eH (@) We ie are wT TEP (CoHy20,) * 1:50 g H fre eregher ery wa 7 (a) 301 1022 (b) 1-20 x 107% (co) 2:40 1023 (a) 6-02 x 107% GAs fe A ad AT TR eS fore we abe vend ar oe # free san TAT tee va fen srt 2) ga ae vee) a aT wet 8? (a) Frise i (b) TARR sii Aheae (o) fam steerer at @ Baw verti da aa & fee fefefad 4 8 fee war a ata sam ean 8? (a) wR ata 0%) RA () Gieria ata (@ Freie aa14, Infrared, visible and ultraviolet radiations/ light have different properties. Which one of the following statements related to these radiations/light is not correct? (a) The wavelength of infrared is more than that of ultraviolet radiation. (6) The wavelength of ultraviolet is smaller than that of visible light. (c) The photon energy of visible light is more than that of infrared light. (a) The photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that of visible light. 15. After using for some time, big transformers get heated up. This is due to the fact that 1, current produces heat in the transformers 2. hysteresis loss occurs in the transformers 3. liquid used for cooling gets heated Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only () 1 and 2 only (@) 1,2and3 STS-K-TPT/46A 16. A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground. How can he move by a certain distance on this ground? (a) () (c) (a) 17. In By sneezing By jumping By running By rolling the reaction between hydrogen sulphate ion and water HSOj +H,0 > H,0* + S02~ the water acts as (a) (b) (o) @ an acid a base a salt an inert medium 18. How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1:50 g of glucose (CgH,20,)? (a) (co) 19. The 3-01 x 1072 (b) 1-20 x 1079 2:40 x 1073 (dj 6-02 x 1022 paste of a white material in water is used to maintain a fractured bone fixed in place. The white material used is called (a) (b) () @ bleaching powder plaster of Paris powder of zinc oxide lime powder 20. Which one of the following types of glasses is used for making optical instruments? (a) () 2) @ Pyrex glass Soft glass Hard glass Flint glass [P-7.0.21. afin aia fa (rm 90%) Pra 24, Fariea’ % at 4, Peafefad 4 8 ata-a/a cargpizetta wea 3 fea 8? er we A? i 1, ae farted ar ae 21 i 2. we ad we fam wife ao oH (b) Soviet sare ified a ffs afte Reena () wrarisa © 3. we wader sik gala & seta 81 i Beeiesr 4. ae tre A one ated ar oe ate 1 22, anita % yer vem eT 8? SES eae a aa! (a) Ai sit Gem SesiATES if was () ea she aria ergteeres Cages (o) ie, erent she sre ates & Sete (a) 2 sh ares staees (q 1,234 23. 9 faq mg an rea ost A 8 fr at oe 25, frfefad 48 aa-eh fevard fee deem 4, arn Gia agi wa eh & fee go Oana & Bisa F of mg afi? fafa =a atts ondard rt srrawas 8? 1 aA me 2. faRi-Resfo an aH 3. arnafera A cada 3. ates Ht 4. Re a Resteasaretaet seta) ra aq my ge a WaT a TE TK GAT fe) 1H (a) Raa 1 He 2 234 () 2,334 () 233 (co) aa 1 34 @ isa (@ 1,234 STS-K-TPT/46A, 7 821. Most ozone gas (about 90%) is located in the atmospheric layer of (a) (b) (c) (a 22, What are the main constituents of ionosphere troposphere stratosphere mesosphere biogas? (a) (b) (co) (@ Methane and sulphur dioxide Methane and carbon dioxide Methane, hydrogen and nitric oxide Methane and nitric oxide 23. In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections? 1 2. 3, 4. Punjab Haryana Karnataka Rajasthan Sclect the correct answer using the code given below. @ () (o) (@ 1 and 2 2 and 4 2 and 3 land 4 STS-K-TPT/46A, 24, Which of the following statements about ‘delegation’ is/are correct? 1 It is the responsibility. abdication of It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one. It is subject to supervision and review. It is a method of dividing authority in the organization. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (o} 3 and 4 (@) 1,2 and4 25. Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution? 1. 2 4 Rule of Law Law-making Procedure Independence of Judiciary Parliamentary System Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 0) © (ad) 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 [P.7.0.26. una & dfaen A fefefad 4 8 fea ogee Arde ce 3 falar aA ae a aS aaa A den Hy) Putita fea ve 8? (@) vied og () ted sR () waa (a) teh aa 27. af 2016-17 % fay una A fata arrari wael & at 4, fafafad 48 aaa sar wel wet e? fea af A gen 4, amari wad Wea om area BaF fe AI fea af A gan 3, ta at a welicared sittes gsm 81 (9) Red a A Geen 4, shag ae A org, sare & aha cast sere F gfe At ax afte 81 are fa eA Tea WAG Tey AeA weN, ai wea, sales, shfeen otk aera 81 (@ (b) (a) 28. feat ta % “saeifertta cre’ At wen Peed ‘aaiftra 8? (a) Fa ween A aia oer (frvae) (&) wet ara (wri og) sreien 8 afk () fq aa eH free (a) ai-gen agers 4 gfe art STS-K-TPT/46A 10 29. 30. Prafatta aeasit tana 9 sa sea} Gera en 9 crafter afar : 1. Hereritfers aise 2. ana et 3. atadl aeen (afer wi) A Remy ge a weieT ae a eK FIC (a) 1,2,3 (b) 3, 2,1 () 2,31 (a) 1, 3,2 ana 4 hfe ft, Praferfan arent 4 8 fat war aed 8? 1, fem 2. Ae aK airy 3. Bard aor 4. daw i faq me ae a eT ax aE SR BATE) (a) ¥aa 1 a2 (b) %aa 233 (o) %aa 1 ak 4 (@) 1,2,3aR426. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the’ number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each State? (a) (b) () (a Fifth Schedule ‘Third Schedule Sixth Schedule Fourth Schedule 27. Which one of the following statements about various horticulture crops of India for the year 2016-17 is not correct? (a) (b) (c) (a 28. The (a) (b) () @ The area under horticulture crops has increased over previous year. Fruit production during the current year is higher than the previous year. Rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production in the current year in comparison to the previous year. The major tomato-growing States are Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha and Gujarat. phenomenon of ‘demographic ividend’ of a country relates to a sharp decline in total population an increase in working age population a decline in infant mortality rate an increase in sex ratio STS-K-TPT/46A, a 29. Arrange the following events in sequential order as they happened in India : im 2. 3. Mahalanobis Model Plan Holiday Rolling Plan Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) 1,2,3 (bo) 3,2,1 () 2,3,1 (@ 1, 3,2) 30. The monetary policy in India uses which of the following tools? I, i Bank rate Open market operations Public debt Public revenue Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (2) 2 and 3 only () 1 and 4 only (@) 1, 2,3 and 4 [P.7.0.31. Fa-aaqe afte ferard em, ae (a) Re AA & HRA FR fo) sTarmat % fag Rafa % yea wet Bore fc) sara 3 Ra FER (q Praia % yea aga wa 8 ay Pen: frafafara ota (5) weal 4 a wea %, wer sit oR 0. Sel seri ar araurligds adem sfifare ste AS fume ez a aT ae a oT ATI ee: (@ th we amo a & ok er UL, He La we RTT B () at wa aes wd 8, fra er UL, eT ae eT ae S () PRL RS, Peg He I Tae (a) Fr ete &, Peg Fe wee 32, WAI: wae Set arta: Teer fae A aT ame wer: Sate aeieh fake a yeh A athe ont Be 81 STS-K-TPT/46A 12 33. 34, 35. 36. wT: viel & than 4H mere & aiiats feet vate cael adi ech 1 wor IT: Ferg #1 sakes arr aan are gfe wear @a A em 21 wr: Gecia ama a ert 8 pects and aman 4 gfe HI: argise Hi afeersa tei A aig er aga aaseta aad are H gfe ar RT FI we: aria 3 1931 4 afwa aia ts ‘afer tie a ots fe am wer: 1928 we arraeal 4 Aer Te sidier ar a atte art ano ae ax fea aT wT: aris onl, st sftaria: vyard a, 3 et aid usrhfts dean Rafa ae A ot A sini see snyte ad Foss & wa A a aI wer I: usa far Gt on ar f srrenft giana; sprnft gitar 3% fee ‘wer! wee at ert am an, A ger: uw Sarah a7 atk SA ay ahi aR eer a, fai fee aa ei31, Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of (a) domestic goods remain constant (b) exports become cheaper to importers (c) imports remain constant (@) exports rise proportionately Directions : ‘The following five (5) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement Il. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. Code : (@) Both the statements individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (o) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement | is false but Statement II is true (a) 32. Statement I : Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation. Statement II : Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth from the sun. STS-K-TPT/46A 13 33. Statement I: ‘The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season. Statement II : ‘The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats. 34. Statement I: Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature. Statement Il : ‘The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature. 35. Statement I: ‘The Communists left the All India ‘Trade Union Congress in 1931 Statement II : By 1928, the Communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement. 36. Statement I: ‘The carly Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a State in either ancient or modern sense. Statement II : Kingship was the same as tribal chiefship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area. [P.7.0.37. fafafad 3 a aaa fear deat, fafee Ae fq me ge ar ae a Se BAL eI f@ 1,2, 334 (a) eng Far (1862) (oe) %aa1, 233 (b) Farag se (1899-1900) iG) aerate (c) Tern fagte (1873) ay Ream aah (a) Aer Pram fase (1875) 40. via Al wilt & diy Foaf sik wen HI 38, Seria Bear % daa dye % an 4, Prafefaad 4-8 sta-m cater wel Gates 2? frafafaa 4 & aaa ser ae wet 2? (a) 1789 : Wiferrh He (a) Ase Te Hi TA A TE! (o) S8R wares at Pratt fea fo) 39 after A enfiia -e areA (a) Far Ts ee ae TH aster Pea (b) 1791 : 2a ae ea () 1792 Ae FAR (@) 1804 : aia an aaa 41. cahae aigee Gras HI Gas FH a ae 8? 39. fa wd vd att Sh wa & ta oma ae (auf) dra & dia} Peafefad Fa (a) Aiea Sr-8 ae al 8? ) wa 1. Ta ao fm Pg aed ad A oe fra = ar Feet B waR tT AT! (co) ite 2. waft ae of, sik wa ag dit aH OF (@ wa ad, 3 ostfte ster 4 ofadat a ea 4 Tat RR efeaften % fares viata A, ‘firg oi a feet 3 of oof ser a ae 42, aie Gen, 2016 wa a fa wer fear El I Te Fat fee aH 8? 3. Fede A wan after fires, we ah ye a after ae ae 81 ey 4. gel ae wren ww wear of oH (bo) TBR sheet ear Al ae sence afte or aah & atk 3a Rage a Ask ow aca a wat wer fT (@) ar Te STS-K-TPT/46A 1487. Which one of the following peasant struggles was an outcome of British opium policy? (a) Phulaguri Dhawa (1861) (b) Birsaite Ulgulan (1899-1900) (c) Pabna Revolt (1873) (d) Maratha Peasant Uprising (1875) 38. Which one of the following statements about the Sayyid brothers during the period of Later Mughals is not true? (a) They brought Jahandar Shah to power. (b) They wielded administrative power. (c) They followed a tolerant religious policy. (a) They reached an agreement with King Shahu. 39. Which of the following statements with regard to the heterodox sect between sixth and fourth century BC are correct? 1. The Jain ideas were already being circulated in the seventh century BC by Parshva. 2. Although Buddhism, and to a lesser extent Jainism, took account of the changes in material life and reacted against orthodoxy, neither of these sought to abolish the caste system. 3. The first female disciple of Mahavira is said to have been a captured slave woman, 4. Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual liberation just like a monk and granted them an equal status in the mendicant order. STS-K-TPT/46A. 18 Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) (b) ( (a 1, 2,3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 40. Which one of the following combinations of year and event concerning the French Revolution is correctly matched? (a) (b) (c) (a) 41. Who the (a) (o) (c) (a) 1789 : Napoleonic Code 1791 : Tennis Court Oath 1792 : National Convention 1804 : New Constitution of France among the following is the author of book, The Social Contract? Voltaire Hobbes Locke Rousseau 42. Who among the following is the recipient of the Jnanpith Award, 2016? (a) (b) (o) (@) Shankha Ghosh Raghuveer Chaudhari Pratibha Ray Rehman Rahi [P-T.0.43. UNO a0 Beare fara wet (MDGs), 2015 46. af 2016 % fare sifecht ar aaet geean fa / 3 er ae mm uefa fae wer ‘Pre wera fen en a? (SDGs) 7H 3x4, fea atv 17 Get oH ‘ara 8? (a) 2s Fe ate (@ 2020, (b) Who Sa Wo Bees (B) 2080 (c) Yo area Frees (c) 2040 (a Faw (a) 2050 47. a uff 3 af A frafefaa #8 fra 44. Wo Wo B_ash wad yraR, 2016 crifers sai A Yeates I A? meal diss ag, fea fer A sferares 8? i (@) tigre testa fs ofa waria (a) Fag eres Fi (b) afor Cesta Tarra (o) a - (co) eae tee Ta fe fay (ay Reed gee ei (a) Year, wm onesie wees eT 48. NASA aa amy feet var Sef fea, st 45. Gel Wea Wiech FR, 2016 FH a Pa wee fame 2017 4 am gon, am fafa 4 fae tH 8? @ fia me At orate Ht a? (a) A Te (y (b) its FAK (o) (o) 3Tae aE () a (a) %o fern (a) Fete STS-K-TPT/46A, 1643. The Sustainable Development Goals 46. The Nobel Prize in Physics for the (SDGs), which were adopted by the UNO year 2016 was given to in place of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), 2015, aim to achieve (a) David J. Thouless the 17 goals by the year (b) F. Duncan M. Haldane (a) 2020 (b) 2030 () J. Michael Kosterlitz () 2040 (@) All of them (@) 2050 47. Which one of the following political parties was launched by Irom Sharmila mI in Manipur? 44. Tecjan Bai, a recipient of the M.S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Award, 2016, is an exponent in (a) People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance (a) Kannada classical vocal (6) Manipur Resistance Alliance (b) Kajari dance (c) Tribal Resistance Party (c) Bihu dance (a) Revolutionary People’s Party (d) Pandavani, a traditional performing art 48. Which one of the following planets was explored by Cassini Mission 45. Who among the following is the recipient launched by NASA, which ended in of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016? September 2017? (a) Nana Patekar (a) Sun (b) Manoj Kumar (b) Neptune (c) Javed Akhtar (c) Saturn (a) XK. Viswanath (d) Jupiter ‘STS-K-TPT/46A. 17 [P.7.0.49. qi a qian } wa Gia Ahm ste 51. 1A aha aa gfe Ae sik ata $a fe ae i a afd & 8 Rene ee win eR a aft: aie: wait ain ae ae [ wererened (Bz) | (=) (after) (sere) A. ata Bz 1. UK war ie A. TISCO 1. TRA ) 2. stern B. BALCO 2. wersik 7am BS sare ai Cc. BPCL 3. Faia c. ane 3. USA 7a FT D. BEL 4, Taftifaa D. Witte Be 4. warel ae Has =: : @aA Bo a D = a B é B 2 1 + 3 (@) 2 om bag. (b) : a e E Ce ey | Peer ee Gh kB. SB. D 2 1 # 3 3 4 " 2 Mati. 2 .© DB aaea's Oo D Shee Br |||) |||-2 Ge Bae ee. 52. qi A ain & ww gta wm, fe so. i @ au } we ww HA otk ee ae ape % a8 fee re ae a we a ae TA fe: wie ein ¢ aha aha ay ) (et) (zara) A NH-2 1, fegh-sep-orencrarapag A. Sift a 1. fea sea B. NH-4 9 2, ame B. fal 2. ares C. NH-7 3. feg-arrgenerare—atieraret c. faqaa 3. way ok wai D. NH-8 4. aRRh-saearIg- Rarer D. wT 4. Taf we Re: (a) A B c D (a) A B c D 4 2 t 3 3 8 2 1 (b) A B c D (be) A B c D 4 1 2 3 1 2 4 3 (A |B 8 1D G8 +8 cc. op 3 i 2 4 i 4 2 3 @sz se € B @a Bp -e Dp 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 1 STS-K-TPT/46A 1849. Match List-I with List-Il and select the 51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given correct answer using the code given below the Lists : below the Lists : List-I List-It List-I List-Il s (Concern) (Product) (Sire) (Countries) A. TISCO 1. Chemicals A. Bass Strait 1. UK and France B. BALCO 2. Iron & Steel B. Davis Strait 2. Australia and Cc, BPCL 3. Electronics Tasmania D. BEL 4. aluminium C. Dover Strait 3. USA and Cuba Code: D. Florida Strait 4. Canada and @A B © D Greenland ||) | ||| Code : @A # € B @a 8B © BD GAIN eal aN ee 2 4 t 8 ga BG D 4) 2 A B eC D 5 a a @aA B C D 3) |f~~e) 2 @ A B Cc D 3°*4 2 & 52. Match List with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given mas Boo D pelow the Lists: List-I List 50. Match List-I with List-II and select the (ational Highway) (Route) correct answer using the code given A. NH-2 1. Delhi-Jaipur- below the Lists = Ahmedabad-Mumbai | B, NH-4 2. Thane-Pune- List] List-Il Bengaluru-Chennai (Pass) (Place) Cc. NH-7 3. Delhi-Agra- A. Zoji La 1, Himachal Pradesh Allahabad-Kolkata B. Shipki La 2. Uttarakhand D. NH-8 4. Varanasi-Jabalpur- C. Lipulekh 3. Jammu and Kashmir Nee eel < Sid jengaluru-Madurai- D. Nathu La Sikkim macnn Code : oe @w@es B kf DP as & B call eel i || 4|||/@ ||| kt @a B Cc D @s«A Bo DP a 1 2 3 t 2 4 3 qa B & B wAsB & BD ee | te a @A B © D @a @ @ B & @ a. Ss 2 BL STS-K-TPT/46A, 19 [P.T.0.53. Uh ie shige wh fee Gea AMT TT 8? (2) 100 kg aera (b) 100 kg #144 Srgatiaargs: -) 1000 kg area (d) 1000 kg FAH SRsiaaTES 84. ura (see) Feed Pee aa ai 8? (a) waza otk we ae () waa the te () asa (a) aaa 85. Praffad 48 ata-ar/a tealtfeea vend aa wk 4 dia dae} mem a wae ae 8/ ae 8 oi af atkiearers fren sea aT Rare (a) eifarm-90 (bo) aareA-131 (o) #ifsan-137 (a) safe wh STS-K-TPT/46A 56. “Sein (Xeriscaping)’ frad/fera daft ‘aor eB? (@) a rae a seta aE (oy 3m THe TA A Heirs RRP (o) Aa ye aE (a) sie wh 87. fra ama oe eet & fee ae-aise ae carats seit gen Piao @) ae war Pea oh H sen 8? (a) Brera sa () srRarEAfeTE Ta (ce) Rare aA (@) Wasa a 58. cre at sera eet fare a cae eT wane? (a) ate-grrhta ward (o) oy cte-gerta ward (o) wa-frga yard (a) wa-frga vere53. One carbon credit equivalent to is accepted as (a) 100 kg of carbon (6) 100 kg of carbon dioxide (<) 1000 kg of carbon (4) 1000 kg of carbon dioxide 54. An emulsion consists of (a) one liquid and one solid (b) one liquid and one gas (¢) two liquids (4) two solids 55. Which of the following radioactive substances enters/enter the human body through food chain and causes/cause many physiological disorders? (a) Strontium-90 (0) lodine-131 (c) Cesium-137 (d) All of the above STS-K-TPT/46A, 21 56. ‘Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to (a) landscaping related to save water (b) landscaping related to save soil erosion (c) weathering of rock surface (d) All of the above 57. Joule-Thomson process is extremely ‘useful and economical for attaining low temperature. The process can be categorized as (a) isobaric process (6) isoenthalpic process (c) adiabatic process (a) isochoric process 58. Ultrasonic making use of waves are produced by (a) ferromagnetic material (b). ferrimagnetic material (c) piezoelectric material (@) pyroelectric material [P.7.0.59. US cafts um fie at fee Sfas aorta waa wr tant warm eased aa ad ad &—() gece ain itt (i) ve A afters vfeeri nfs die Raa 3% agar, 32 ator va ae 21 Prafefa aa era, fis A fa & fore wer a THT a? (@) fae, ae & arr aerT (b) fs, 44% Ma aeT () fis fen aa 8 sem, Peg fen sect eB (@) fie feR a waT) 60, Frafaftan sent x fran Afi : 1, aR at A orate am A sat frre % fee jam attire sa a sei tat &, vig waehia Reset A ag aan sift wei eet 2. airhta fiat 1 often Peifia at 8, safe afrha ait siftiira afafta atte 3. airy tae A aft water fetaew ‘pitts’ 8, safes arta am & fava 3% ‘spite’ ar ag wea ai 21 4. arf Rtaet A faieat ar wan adi Sar 2, sale abrhta at A grr wT amet we abet hte an wm aii a fares feat & fora a ade 7a Baan /8 wer BE 8/87 ( 13K3 fo) 233 () aa 4 @ isa STS-K-TPT/46A 22 . SR Hee Ot aa wh eT AGS a va val & fie 2, dt wa @ at gia ger: Prrfefaad 48 Peat stenftaes srr & are Sieh 8? (a) ater FoR Sates F (bo) wha 1 wid sreHeTES (c) Fears a1 Aaa (a) ens aR A 62. at va wm Raahem, scefia am % wa are fen sre 21 frees a sae cra ear 2 (a) Tre ara a afte (o) Wet aaa ar (c) Vere erat ATA (a) apiece era ae 63. Frafefaa 48 fra age # gg urs Ae ae (a) Tare (b) wrt fo) agi qm 64. a oat & fee sedis wr feet oH eae (ereafee) ti ae aif arts aH ay acre @, frat vet tie & (a) 34 (b) Rite (o) eater (@) eran artergs59. A person throws an object on a horizontal frictionless plane surface. It is noticed that there are two forces acting on this object—(i) gravitational pull and (i) normal reaction of the surface. According to the third law of motion, the net resultant force is zero. Which one of the following can be said for the motion of the object? (a) The object will move with acceleration. (b) The object will move with deceleration. (c) The object will move with constant speed, but varying direction, (@) The object will move with constant velocity. 60. Consider the following statements : 1. The chain reaction process is used in nuclear bombs to release a vast amount of energy, but in nuclear reactors, there is no chain reaction. 2. Ina nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled, while in nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled. 3. In a nuclear reactor, all operating reactors are ‘critical’, while there is no question of ‘criticality’ in case of a nuclear bomb. Nuclear reactors do not use moderators, while nuclear bombs use them, Which of the above statements about operational principles of a nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb is/are correct? (a) land 3 (b) 2 and 3 () 4 only (@ land 4 ‘STS-K-TPT/46A. 23 61. The foul smell of urine of a healthy man having healthy food, when spilled on floor, is mainly due to the bacterial decomposition of (a) urea into sulphur dioxide (») sugar into carbon dioxide () lipids into methane (@) urea into ammonia 62. Desalination of seawater is done by using reverse osmosis. The pressure applied to the solution is (a) larger than osmotic pressure (2) smaller than osmotic pressure (c) equal to osmotic pressure (@) equal to atmospheric pressure 63. Which one of the following polymers does not contain glucose units? (@) Glycogen (6) Starch (¢) Cellulose (a) Rubber 64. Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic for fresh wounds. It is a dilute solution of elemental iodine, which does not contain (a) water (b) acetone () alcohol (d) potassium iodide [P-7.0,65. ana % dae A ana yg afte Prefer fa sn aad 8, Fact (a) Ta rare sete eT (o) Gee ar ae steer er (o) sia % vifaeara & teh er (ey ar mares % maf Pot zr 66. 734 sik 743 fae dehes afehraa & fea # fafeiftad 4 8 a-a1/8 war we 2/8? 1. Wa, wh asi & fare ae afters a ora @ f& 3 mer A die-eata worett (eaaeer) wh een EI 2. waft via af & fare sera Rates oF fea 3. ah dae 4 ai ani x ga de A we-fred sat ar afeensit % fare saftart sere AT TPR 8 Re ae ee we a a SH GAUL (a) %aa 1 a2 (b) Fad 2 3 () 1,233 (a) aa 3 STS-K-TPT/46A 24 67. frefefta fataat 48 fea /Peé via ae faq dae & SH we ata ite a Gee 2g dae Aw Hae tam A ser ot ar v 1, aH Rees 2. Fifenies dates eas 3. arene tes AA Re ae qe a wa aR A SR GALE) (a) Fa 1 (o) FAI 2S (c) Fras @ 1,23R3 68. frafefiaa #8 ar-an/a wer ae 8/8? 1. us A fifa & Rew aa, and F annie: sit onfis cheda #1 agra 2 % fea 2. ama Baer & wm A sfeertia qe atten amadk 1 aeifa felt & atta BI 3. mifitarn, ech oh aa a after At ag fears HB eH a1 ha ame ge ar sei aR wa HR BAIT) (a) ¥aa 1 (b) aa 2 () aa 1 sie 2 @ 1,23R365. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution of India can be suspended only by (@) a proclamation of _ National Emergency (6) an Act passed by the Parliament (c) an amendment to the Constitution of India (d) the judicial decisions of the Supreme Court 66. Which of the following statements about the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Act is/are correct? 1, It makes it mandatory for all States to establish a three-tier system of Government. 2. Representatives should be directly elected for five years. 3. There should be mandatory reservation of one-third of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (2) 2 and 3 only fc} 1,2 and 3 (@) 3 only ‘STS-K-TPT/46A. 25 67. A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the following Bills? 1. Money Bill 2. Constitutional Amendment Bill 3. Ordinary Bill Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (ce) 3 only (@) 1,2 and 3 68. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1, The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for promoting social and economic democracy in Indi 2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions. 3. Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution of any country. Select the correct answer using the code given below. fa) 1 only (b) 2 only () 1 and 2 only (@ 1,2 and3 [P.7.0.69. ana vest a Palas us Patan dea arr frat sit 21 ae Ratas set Fraferfd 4 fiat Raita aceil & freer aa eer 8? 1, Waa ert wer 2. Tea A fe aT 3. ust fae oieg 4. NCT fg een gga At fear wT aa feu my ee ar wa aR BE TA BATT (@) ra 132 fb) 1,233 @ 1,234 (a) 334 70. wa % Ru % seh on oat sata ar aqafia sanitdt & at Frafefian senile fran Fife : 1. aed fier wart A afer dau 4 asa we fee sade aa aa a1 2. TT aT Berea Te Fash fren Heart we afad % du Fo we sree aT WHT BI 3. UT ae wera TE wT a aA Pah fren dear oss asa % daa F asa Ge fats sede aT TAT BI 4, senders Rien dear A sae ahead ‘dau asa we fate sede a waz, dar fH ageds 30 4 afta 21 STS-K-TPT/46A, sade seri Fa aaa ad #7 @ Fra 1 sk 2 (o) FIG 3 4 () FAG 1, 23R3 @ 1,2,33R4 71. ana Bar % ayess 21 H sila 8/F 1, faatafetiet (gested) % after 2. SPaltira ygatst & stra 3. Fea A a A aw afta ARTs a afta fe Ramm ag are aR ae SH GAT! (@ *aa1 (b) FAM 1 SD () Fa 23s @ 1,23R3 72. ea a am der an Al wre aia wae wet on? (a) Go Ho sR (b) %o To Bh (co) Fe Ho Wa (A) RRR TIGR69. The President of India is elected by an Which of the statements given above are Electoral College comprising of elected correct? ' members of which of the following? 1. Both the Houses of the Parliament (a) 1 and 2 only 2. The Legislative Assemblies of States @) 3 arid 4 only. 3. The Legislative Councils of States 4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT (ce) 1, 2 and 3 only of Delhi and Puducherry fd) 1, 2, 4 Select the correct answer using the code (a pana given below. (a) 1 and 2 only 71, Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes () 1,2 and3 1, Rights of transgenders () 1,2and4 2. Rights of craniopagus twins (d) 3and4 3. Rights of mentally retarded women 70. Consider the following statements about to bean child the Scheduled Castes and the Select the correct answer using the code Scheduled Tribes under the provisions i Hae given below. of the Constitution of India : 1. State can make any special (a) Tonly provision relating to their admission to the Government Viend\2honly educational institutions. (c) 2 and 3 only 2. State can make any special ° provision relating to their admission to the _ private educational institutions aided by (@) 1,2 and3 the State 72. Who among the following was not a 3. State can make any special member of the Drafting Committee of provision relating to their the Constituent Assembly? admission to the _ private educational institutions not aided (a) N. G. Ayyatear by the State. ii, Sinko jent| sake! ay! | spackal (0) K. M. Munshi provision relating to their admission to the minority () BLN. Raw educational institutions as described in Article 30. (a) Muhammad Saadulah STS-K-TPT/46A. 27 [P.7.0,73. Prafatad 4 8 fra erat & are sored wat 76. I A Pu } we Pea Af six A gets § otehtts with ef A? al & a8 Re me ge aH va ae AE TT 1, Haren sit sie & set Ht ats aha: 2, ara afte At ais ah ait I IT 3. Wa a tetera ¢ ) 4. sere A fafia safe A. fiftq ae 1. gaa - tae ofa a AA ea ae ez wr wa ae aE Se GARG *, smortiea stra saftat (a) ¥aa 1 3k 2 a ni safeat (b) Fam 2, 334 (ie erreeniers ia) Sedat G. wea 3. era are - fra aret ofterafeet asta tg @ 1,2, 334 ag ra, 2016-17 % fore Pear sa amie | DMMP rer 4. le wer — rere (rites @taeRate saa) A rT fre oT m: 2g, fa aif da ao Prafeitad 4 8 a3 saga ar weir fea nar 82 ee ies at 1. Fae ae So-aT wa Bo 2 BD 2. ward ik Gee aret FT i". 3. tore aaais @-. BY i= p 3. 7g denen adie sa-ai telecine dane eX 8 erp a qe ag a wT a a SR BPTI i ae Tae ae (a) Fa 1 3K 2 ) *aa23K3 77. Pefatad « fran Arg : (o) FAL ANS 1,8 a, iat, 233 2. at am (més) Haat ae 3. ggeiar 7s. aa 4 ah Gpp fat * ae a a 4. we Here 2004-05 % AR 4 a fa ad & few sade carat & fate ar ae srengatie eH artatea fen aH 8? fra 4S Sat? (a) 2007-08 (a) 3,1,4,2 (b) 2008-09 (e) 3,1,2,4 (e) 2010-11 () 1,3,2,4 (a) 2011-12 @ 1,3,4,2 STS-K-TPT/46A 28